GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

RESOURCE MATERIAL 

1. An extract from topographical map 2729BD VOLKSRUST.
2. Orthophoto map 2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST 
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces  on the cover page.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper.
3. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (2729BD VOLKSRUST) and an orthophoto map (2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST) of a part of the mapped  area.
4. You must hand the topographical map and the orthophoto map to the  invigilator at the end of this examination session.
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough  work and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper.
6. Show ALL calculations and formulae, where applicable. Marks will be  allocated for these.
7. Indicate the unit of measurement in the final answer of calculations.
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator. 
9. The area demarcated in RED on the topographical map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
10. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographical map:
    ENGLISH 
    Aerodrome 
    Diggings 
    Furrow 
    Golf Course 
    Rifle Range 
    River
    Sawmills 
    Sewerage Works 
    Silos 
    Weir 

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographical map  (2729BD VOLKSRUST) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.  Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose  the answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question. 

1.1 Volksrust is situated in … 

1.2 The photo index/code of the orthophoto map northwest of  2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST is … 

1.3 The direction of spot height 1634 in block H6 from spot height 1671 in block H7  on the topographical map is … 

1.4 Volksrust is a … 

1.5 Volksrust can be considered a … 

1.6 The feature found at 27°20.2'S 29°54.4'E/27°20'12''S 29°54'24''E is a/an … 

1.7 The height at X in block F8 on the topographical map is ... metres. 

1.8 The feature in block B3 that was specifically developed to control the flow of  water in the river is a … 

1.9 The … at W in block J5 indicates that rejuvenation has taken place. 

1.10 The general direction of flow of the Buffelsrivier (Buffalo River) in block J5: 

1.11 The human-made feature at 7 on the orthophoto map: 

1.12 The human-made feature at 2 on the orthophoto map: 

1.13 In which urban land-use zone will the human-made feature at 2 on the  orthophoto map be found? 

1.14 The straight-line distance between 4 and 9 on the orthophoto map is … kilometres. 

1.15 Feature 11 on the orthophoto map can be identified as trees due to its … 

(15 x 1)[15]

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 Refer to the magnetic declination on the topographical map and answer the  questions that follow. 

2.1.1 Calculate the current magnetic declination for Volksrust. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. 

Difference in years = 2017 – 2010 
 = 7 years ✓ 
Mean annual change = 3'W ✓ [MUST indicate W]  
Total change = 7 x 3'W 
 = 21'W ✓ 
Magnetic declination for 2017 = 20º37'W + ✓21'W  
 = 20º58'W ✓ (5 x 1) (5) 

2.1.2 State the influence that the change in the magnetic declination  from 2010 to 2017 will have on the direction of the magnetic north  and the angle between true north and magnetic north. 
Direction: The magnetic north will move in a westerly direction ✓ 
Angle: The angle between the true north and magnetic north will   Increase/get bigger/larger ✓ (2 x 1) (2)

2.2 Refer to points 1 and 10 on the orthophoto map. 

2.2.1 Calculate the average gradient between points 1 and 10 on the  orthophoto map. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for  calculations. 

Formula: Gradient =  vertical interval (VI)       
                              horizontal equivalent (HE) 

VI = 1725.7m – 1680 = 45.7m ✓ 
HE = 2.2cm (2.1cm – 2.3cm) x 100m = 220m ✓ 
(Range: 210 m to 230 m) 
Gradient = 45.7     ✓ (Mark allocated for correct substitution) 
                   220  
= (45.7/ 45.7)  ÷  (220/45.7 )  ✓   If this conversion calculation is not shown,  add mark for calculation where the correct  substitution is shown.
 = ¹ /_4.8  
= 1 : 4.8 / 1 in 4.8 ✓ 
(Range: 1 : 4.59/4.6 to 1 : 5) (5 x1) (5) 

2.2.2 Is the average gradient between points 1 and 10 steep or gentle?  Give evidence from the orthophoto map to substantiate the answer. 
Steep ✓ 
The contour lines on the orthophoto map are close together ✓  (1 + 1) (2) 

2.3 Refer to the area demarcated in RED on the topographical map which  represents the area covered by the orthophoto map. 

2.3.1 Calculate the area of the demarcated area in km². Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. 

Formula: Area = length x breadth  
Length = 10.3 cm ✓ x 0,5 = 5.15 km             Range: 5.1 km to 5.2 km 
(10.2 cm - 10.4 cm) 
Breadth = 9.9 cm ✓ x 0,5 = 4,95 km             Range: 4.9 km to 5.0 km 
(9.8 cm - 10.0 cm) 
 = 5.15 km ✓ x 4.95 km ✓ 
= 25.49 km² ✓                                              Range:24.99 km² to  26.00 km² 
[Accept other formulae to calculate length and breadth] (5 x 1) (5) 

2.3.2 The area demarcated in RED on the topographical map represents  the area covered by the orthophoto map. Why do the features on  the orthophoto map look larger than the same features on the  topographic map? 

• • The scale of the orthophoto map is larger/bigger ✓
  • The scale of the topographic map is smaller ✓
  • The scale of the orthophoto map is 1 : 10 000 and the scale of the  topographic map is 1 : 50 000 ✓
  • The scale of the orthophoto map is five times larger than that of the  topographic map ✓
  • The scale of the topographic map is five times smaller than that of  the orphophoto map ✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 1) (1)

[20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 Refer to block B2. 

3.1.1 What is the purpose of the fire break in block B2? 

• • To reduce/stop the risk of veld fires spreading ✓
  • To protect cultivated lands/area from veld fires ✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 1) (1)

3.1.2 Explain why these fire breaks are especially necessary in July.  

• • Volksrust receives the lowest rainfall in July ✓✓ 
  • Volksrust receives 1 mm of rainfall in July ✓✓
  • Volksrust is very dry in July ✓✓
  • Greater chance of veld fires ✓✓
  • The area could experience warm dry berg winds which increases  chances of veld fires ✓✓
  • The soil is dry and lacks moisture ✓✓
  • Vegetation is dry and can burn easily ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2) 

3.1.3 Identify a human-made drainage feature in block B2 that could be  used to extinguish fires.  

• • Dams ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.1.4 Identify the economic sector that will be most affected by veld fires  in block B2. Give a reason from the topographical map to  substantiate the answer.  

• • Economic sector: Primary economic sector ✓
    Reason: The major activity in block B2 is crop farming/cultivation  ✓✓
    (1 + 2) (3) 

3.2 Refer to blocks D8 and H5 on the topographic map. Give a reason why there  are a marsh and vlei in block D8 but not in block H5. 

• The gradient is gentle (flat land) in D8 resulting in more infiltration and a  greater chance of forming marshes and vleis ✓✓
• The gradient is steep in H5 resulting in more run-off and a smaller chance of  forming marshes and vleis ✓✓
• (Clay) soil has poor drainage and can be easily saturated in D8 ✓✓
  (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2)

3.3 Refer to blocks D8 and D9 showing a marsh and vlei and cultivated lands. 

3.3.1 Explain how the marsh and vlei affected the location of the  cultivated lands.  
AWAY FROM 

• • The cultivated lands are situated away from the marsh and vlei ✓✓
  • The cultivated lands are situated around the marsh and vlei ✓✓ 

CLOSE TO 

• • Situated next to marsh and vlei ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2)

3.3.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.3.1. 
AWAY FROM 

• • (Clay) soil could form which could result in almost impermeable soil  ✓✓
  • Heavy rainfalls could cause the marsh and vlei to expand and flood  the cultivated lands adjacent to it ✓✓
  • Land is over-saturated (water logged) and cannot be farmed ✓✓ 

CLOSE TO 

• • Accessibility to water supply for irrigation ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2)

3.4 Refer to the Volksrust urban area on the topographical and orthophoto maps. 

3.4.1 The Burgess concentric model and the Hoyt sector model are two  examples of models of urban structure. Which ONE of these two  models compare the best to the Volksrust urban area?  

• • Hoyt sector model ✓ (1 x 1) (1)

3.4.2 Give ONE reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.4.1. 

• • The town developed in sectors along the transport routes/main  roads and railway lines ✓✓
  • The low income sector is next to the (heavy) industrial sector ✓✓
  • The high income sector is a distance away from the low income  sector/the (heavy) industrial sector ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4.3 Urban expansion of the Volksrust urban area is hindered (limited) in a southerly direction, although there is enough space to do so.  What is the main reason for this?  

• • The provincial boundary found in the south will limit the expansion  of Volksrust ✓✓ (1 x 2) (2)

3.5 Maize is one of the agricultural products that are farmed in the Volksrust area.  

3.5.1 Refer to the information on page 3 and state how the distribution of  rainfall throughout the year promotes the maize industry in the  Volksrust area.  

• • Volksrust has a season of good rainfall in summer that coincides  with the planting season of maize ✓
  • Low rainfall allows for maize to dry during winter ✓
  • High average rainfall of 648 mm ✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 1) (1) 

3.5.2 Name ONE economic justice (benefit) for the inhabitants of  Volksrust created by the maize industry. 

• • It creates employment ✓✓
  • It improves the peoples GDP per capita ✓✓
  • It brings in more investment to Volksrust ✓✓
  • It improves the infrastructure/transport networks ✓✓
  • Tax money generated allows for the improvement of services ✓✓
  • Provides raw material for secondary industries/promotes industrial  growth ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2) 

3.5.3 Describe an environmental injustice (damage to the natural  environment) caused by maize farming. 

• • Natural vegetation is removed (deforestation) to plant maize ✓✓
  • It involves monoculture farming and could increase soil erosion ✓✓
  • Food webs/chains are destroyed ✓✓
  • The natural habitat of the fauna/animals are destroyed ✓✓
  • Decreases biodiversity ✓✓ 
  • Contamination of groundwater supplies by pesticides and  herbicides ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2) 

3.5.4 Explain a measure (step) that the government can take to prevent maize farming in the woodland areas in block C2. 

• • Woodland areas can be declared as protected areas which will  stop maize farming from taking place ✓✓ 
  • Buffering by putting a fence around the woodlands ✓✓
  • Legislation to protect the woodland ✓✓
    (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2)

[25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to the image below. 

4.1.1 Which GIS method was used by the satellite above to gather  information? 

• Remote sensing ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

4.1.2 Data gathered by a satellite is not always user-friendly. Which GIS  process is used to ensure that data can be used by all people?  

• Data standardisation ✓
• Data processing ✓
• Data manipulation ✓
  (Any ONE) (1 x 1) (1) 

4.1.3 Images from the satellite were used to construct the topographical map. Explain how South African topographical maps are  standardised. 

• The symbols used on the topographic maps are standard/the same  ✓✓
• The scale of 1 : 50 000 is used on all South African topographic  maps ✓✓
• All South African topographic maps use the Gauss Conform  Projection ✓✓
• The contour intervals are always 20 m ✓✓
• The sheet index is consistent ✓✓ 
• Linear scale evident on all maps ✓✓ 
• The magnetic declination for the map is always indicated ✓✓
• The use of alpha-numeric grid cells ✓✓ 
  (Any TWO) (2 x 2) (4)

4.2 Answer QUESTION 4.2.1 in the blocks below. 

(Any ONE line feature)                           (Any ONE polygon feature) 

4.2.1 Draw ONE example of the following layers in block G8 in the  blocks above. Use the correct conventional signs (map symbols).  

1. Drainage layer as a line feature (Refer to sketch)
2. Land-use as a polygon feature or an area feature (Refer to  sketch)
   (2 x 1) (2) 

4.2.2 Identify ONE attribute of the drainage layer in block G8. 

• Name of the stream/river (is Slang River) ✓
• Amount of tributaries joining the stream/river (5 tributaries join0 ✓
• Is the stream/river perennial or non-perennial (Main stream is  perennial and tributaries are perennial and non-perennial) ✓
• Stream meanders ✓
• The topography over which the stream/river flows (is gentle) ✓
• The length and width of the stream/river (length of stream  approximately 2 200 m) ✓
• The order of the stream/river ✓
• Direction of flow (general flow direction W/SW)✓
  (Any ONE) (1 x 1) (1)

4.2.3 State ONE advantage of single data-layer maps. 

• It can be used to create thematic maps ✓✓
• It makes it easier to use for specific purposes e.g. a map showing  roads only makes it easier to interpret for traveling purposes ✓✓
• To solve a query dealing with a specific issue ✓✓
• Less confusing as there is less detail ✓✓ 
  (Any ONE) (1 x 2) (2) 

4.3 The urban and regional planner of the town wants to expand the golf course  (7 on the orthophoto map). How can he/she use GIS to decide on the most  suitable area for the development? 

• The person can compare the topography of the different areas to find the  topography that is most suitable ✓✓
• The person can compare the soil fertility of different areas ✓✓
• The person will look at the drainage of the different areas/Water for expansion ✓✓
• Can determine what impact the development will have on job opportunities  ✓✓
• Can determine the accessibility/transport network of the newly planned  development ✓✓
• The person can compare the existing aesthetic appeal of the areas of  possible development ✓✓ 
  (Any TWO) (2 x 2) (4)

[15] 
TOTAL: 75

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1

1.1.1 14h00 (1) 
1.1.2 Summer (1) 
1.1.3 Trough (1) 
1.1.4 Unstable (1) 
1.1.5 NNE (1) 
1.1.6 20 (1) 
1.1.7 Higher (1) (7 x 1) (7) 

1.2

1.2.1 C/confluence (1) 
1.2.2 G/tributary (1) 
1.2.3 E/interfluve (1) 
1.2.4 A/drainage basin (1)  
1.2.5 H/stream orders (1) 
1.2.6 B/watershed (1) 
1.2.7 F/river mouth (1) 
1.2.8 D/source (1) (8 x 1) (8) 

1.3

1.3.1 A Cold front (1) 
         B Warm front (1) (2 x 1) (2)
1.3.2 Mature/Warm Sector Stage (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.3 Anticlockwise movement of air occurs in the Northern Hemisphere (2) The USA is in the Northern Hemisphere (2) The warm sector is on the south side/the cold sector is on the north side of  the fronts (2) 
[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.4

• • Nimbostratus clouds have a great horizontal extent and therefore more  wide spread rainfall (2)
  • The warm front causes warm air to rise very slowly resulting in rainfall over  a longer period (2)
  • The gradient of the warm front is more gentle therefore rising air forms  nimbostratus clouds (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.5

• • Heavy rainfall due to cumulonimbus clouds (2)
  • Thunderstorms caused by strong updrafts of warm air (2)
  • Lightening formed due to interaction with different parts of the same cloud  or different clouds(2)
  • The possible formation of hail due to strong updrafts and downdraft  carrying water droplets to areas below freezing point (2) 
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)  

1.3.6

• • Air temperatures on the ground will drop (be cold) (2)
  • Air pressure will increase (2)
  • Wind speeds will decrease (2)
  • Humidity will decrease (2)
  • Unstable weather conditions will stop (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.4

1.4.1 … urban area (like towns or cities) is warmer than surrounding rural  area (1) (1 x 1) (1)
        [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.2

• • Artificial surfaces e.g.tar surfaces (1)
  • Concrete/Glass/metal buildings (1)
  • Activities in the city such as traffic/use of machinery (1)
  • Use of air conditioners (1)
  • Crowded body heat (1)
  • High building density/less dispersion of heat (1)
  • Tall buildings block air flow (1)
  • Tall buildings trap heat (1)
  • Geometric shape of buildings increases surface area for heating (1)
  • Multiple reflection of heat (1)
  • Lack of vegetation (1)
  • Lack of water bodies in the city (1)
  • Pollution from industry and vehicles (1)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

1.4.3 NEGATIVE 

• • Causes fatigue/dehydration (2)
  • Heat stress/discomfort (2)
  • Death among the elderly which are more at risk to higher temperatures (2)
  • Costs people more money and uses greater levels of energy to air  condition homes in urban areas (2)
  • Increased costs because of greater water and energy use (2)
  • Lower work productivity (2)
  • More conducive breeding conditions for flies/mosquitoes increasing  occurrence of diseases (2) 

POSITIVE 

• • Less heating required in colder climates (2)
  • Reduced amount of ice and snow (2)
  • Increase in precipitation (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.4.4

• • Paint buildings in lighter colours e.g. white which will cause more reflection  (higher albedo) and lower air temperatures (2)
  • Planting roof top gardens will cool temperatures down (2)
  • Eco-friendly (green) buildings (2)
  • More water bodies (lakes, fountains) will decrease air temperatures (2)
  • Land use planning that coincides with prevailing wind directions, to cool  cities (2)
  • Decrease building density (2)
  • Decrease building height (2)
  • Creating more open green spaces/Plant more trees/develop green belts (2) Reduce number of cars entering the city (2)
  • Introduce hybrid/electric cars (2)
  • Promote lift clubs (2)
  • Introduce park-and-ride schemes (2)
  • Decentralisation of commercial/industrial activities (2)
  • Encourage use of public transport and cycling (2)
  • Reduction in air pollution (filters in chimneys) that traps heat in the city (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

1.5

1.5.1 Periodic/Non-perennial/Seasonal (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.2 The water level in the river changes from one season to another (1) The river does not flow in the dry season, and flows in the rainy season (1)
             [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.3 The upper layer of the underground water surface (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.4 (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5.5 PRECIPITATION 

• • In the dry season the amount of precipitation is low resulting in low river  discharge (2)
  • The carrying capacity (volume of water) of the river is low and deposits the  materials (2)
  • In the rainy season the river has greater volume of water and less  deposition takes place (2)
  • The carrying capacity (volume of water) of the river is high and erodes the  river channel (2) 

GRADIENT 

• • A gentle gradient reduces the velocity of a river and its ability to carry the  load (2)
  • A gentle gradient results in more deposition on the river bed (2)
    [ANY FOUR – MUST REFER TO PRECIPITATION AND GRADIENT] (4 x 2) (8) 

1.6

1.6.1 A Turbulent (1) 
         B Laminar (1) (2 x 1) (2)
1.6.2 The middle/lower course (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.3

• • An uneven river bed (2)
  • Rock outcrops (2)
  • Presence of waterfall and rapids (2)
  • Steeper gradient (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.6.4

• • The turbulent water is able to erode at a faster rate (2)
  • The river can carry larger particles which increases abrasion (erosion) (2)
  • Greater hydraulic action increases erosion (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.6.5

• • In A, the river has larger solid particles that did not change the colour of the  water (water is clear) (2) 
  • In B most of the stream load has dissolved in the water and changes the  colour of water (2)
  • In B stream load is carried in suspension and give the water a darker/grey colour (2)
  • Turbulent flow results in water having a white appearance (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6.6

• • White water rafting (2)
  • Turbulent waters create white water (2)
  • Swirling currents (2) 
  • Skill required to row in this water (2)
  • Possible rapids (2)
  • The appeal of the sound of water (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
[75] 

QUESTION 2 
2.1

2.1.1 Warm (1) 
2.1.2 Left (1) 
2.1.3 Westerlies (1) 
2.1.4 High (1) 
2.1.5 Veering (1) 
2.1.6 Stable (1) 
2.1.7 Cumulonimbus (1) 
2.1.8 Storm surge (1) (8 x 1) (8) 

2.2.

2.2.1 A (1) 
2.2.2 C (1) 
2.2.3 D (1) 
2.2.4 B (1) 
2.2.5 E (1) 
2.2.6 C (1) 
2.2.7 A (1) (7 x 1) (7)

2.3

2.3.1 5/Five (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2 Steered by the tropical easterlies/trade winds (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.3 Hurricanes (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.4

• • Ocean surface temperatures of 26°C 0r higher (2)
  • High humidity/High evaporation rate (2)
  • Little surface friction (2)
  • Light variable winds/wind shear (2)
  • Calm conditions needed for the convergence of air (2)
  • Upper air divergence to create a low pressure on the surface (2)
  • In spiralling clouds lead to the development of the eye (2)
  • Unstable atmospheric conditions for convection (2)
  • Rapid condensation releases latent heat (2)
  • Between latitudes of 5° and 25° N/S – active Coriolis force (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.3.5 ERRATIC PATH 

• • Ocean waters are heated and cooled differently and this influences the path  taken by the cyclone(2)
  • Wind direction varies from day to day thus influencing the path taken by the  cyclone (2)
  • Cyclones experience friction over landmasses and lose momentum (2)
  • Combination of wind direction in the tropical cyclone and the direction of the  winds in the wind belt (2) 

PROBLEMS THIS POSES FOR THE DISASTER MANAGEMENT TEAMS

• • Don't know where cyclone will hit next (2)
  • Insufficient time to predict location of storm surges (2)
  • They have insufficient time to evacuate people from high risk areas (2)
  • Don't have sufficient time to gather emergency services (2)
  • Insufficient time to plan for effective evacuation plans in advance (2)
  • Unable to give people advance notice to stock up on emergency  food/water/medical supplies (2)
  • Farmers are not given sufficient time to move livestock to areas of  safety/higher ground (2)
  • Cost implications if areas are evacuated unnecessarily (2) 
    [ANY FOUR – MUST REFER TO ERRATIC PATH AND PROBLEMS]  (4 x 2) (8) 

2.4

2.4.1 B Kalahari High/Continental High (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.4.2

• • Lower temperatures over the interior causes the air to subside and create a  high pressure (2)
  • Less heating of land surface decreases convection (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.4.3

• • Subsiding/descending air heats up and does not allow for condensation to  take place (2)
  • Subsiding/descending air does not release moisture (2) 
  • It is located over a cold ocean 
    [ANY ONE] (2) (1 x 2) (2)

2.4.4

• • In summer they occupy a southerly position because the sun is over the  Tropic of Capricorn and all pressure systems move south with the apparent  movement of the sun (2)
  • In summer due to the intense heating of the land the high pressure systems  move further out to sea (2) 
  • In winter they occupy a more northerly position as the sun is overhead the  Tropic of Cancer and all pressure systems move north with the apparent  movement of the sun (2) 
  • In winter they are close to the land because the land is cold (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.4.5

• • Inversion layer is above the escarpment and allow the moisture to feed over  the interior (2)
  • Allows warm moist air to rise and condense on the windward side of the  escarpment (2) 
  • Intense low pressure over the land in summer leads to the convergence of  air (2) 
  • Moist air from the South Indian High feeds into this low pressure over the  land (2)
  • Increased evaporation due to higher temperatures over the Indian in  summer and this moisture feeds into the land (2)
  • South Indian High is away from the coastline and the onshore winds have a  greater fetch resulting in more moisture over the land (2) 
    [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)  

2.5

2.5.1 When a river is re-energised/increases its erosive abilities (1)
         [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.2

• • A change in base level through tectonic uplift (2)
  • A lowering in sea level (2)
  • A larger volume of water in the river through a sustained/permanent  increased rainfall (2)
  • River capture (2)
  • A rapidly flowing tributary flowing into the main stream (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.3

• • Shows the new point of downward erosion (2)
  • Shows the point where rejuvenation occurs (2)
  • Shows where the previous/old base level of erosion was (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.4

• • The river will become ungraded due to renewed downward erosion (2)
  • Restarts the grading process due to renewed erosion (2) 
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.5

• • Old flood plains form new terraces as a result of downward erosion (2)
  • Downward erosion causes valleys within valleys (2)
  • Meanders became incised (entrenched meanders) due to down cutting (downward erosion) (2)
  • A knickpoint waterfall can form due to a drop in sea level or tectonic  uplift (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

2.6

2.6.1 A catchment area is the entire drainage basin of a river from where it  receives water (1) 
         [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.2 65% of South Africa receives less than 500 mm average annual rainfall (2)  (1 x 2) (2) 
2.6.3

• • Removal of natural vegetation (2)
  • Desertification (2)
  • Monoculture/Poor farming techniques (2)
  • Over-utilisation of water (2)
  • Livestock farming in catchment areas destroys the vegetation (2)
  • Veld fires (destroy vegetation which increases erosion) (2)
  • Removal of water from upper reaches for the purposes of water transfer (2)
  • Location of industries on river banks (2)
  • Mining activities impact on groundwater (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.6.4

• • Wetlands must be conserved and restored (2)
  • Legislation is necessary to control what is discharged into the rivers (2)
  • Fines for dumping into and littering of rivers (2)
  • Clearing of vegetation and planting of alien trees must be controlled (2)
  • Construction and settlement on the floodplain must be avoided (2)
  • Afforestation to reduce run-off and erosion (2)
  • Constant testing to monitor the state of the river (2)
  • Buffering of rivers (2)
  • Conserve natural vegetation along rivers (2)
  • Awareness campaigns (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.6.5

• • Water shortages (2)
  • Polluted water Increases exposure to health hazards (2)
  • Price of water will increase (2)
  • Production costs will increase (2)
  • Food production will decrease/Low agricultural yield (2)
  • Food prices will increase (2)
  • Less area to grow crops (2)
  • Reduced quality of water due to increased pollution (2)
  • Decreases biodiversity (2)
  • Increases risk of flooding (2)
  • Negative impact on rivers for recreation/tourism (2)
    [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)

[75]

SECTION B 
QUESTION 3 
3.1

3.1.1 Rural (1) 
3.1.2 Urban (1) 
3.1.3 Urban (1) 
3.1.4 Rural (1) 
3.1.5 Rural (1)  
3.1.6 Urban (1) 
3.1.7 Rural (1) 
3.1.8 Urban (1) (8 x 1) (8) 

3.2

3.2.1 Market orientated (1) 
3.2.2 Ubiquitous (1) 
3.2.3 Footloose (1) 
3.2.4 Raw material-orientated/heavy (1) 
3.2.5 Heavy (1) 
3.2.6 Bridge (1) 
3.2.7 Light (1) (7 x 1) (7)

3.3

3.3.1 Dispersed/isolated (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.2 No other settlement visible nearby (2) 
         Far from neighbouring settlements/No neighbouring settlements in sight (2)
         [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.3

• • The large size of the farm (2)
  • Shows many fields (2)
  • Large dam (2)
  • Shows many buildings used for different functions on the farm stead (2) 
  • Private landownership (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.3.4

• • Great distance from other farmers (2)
  • Isolated and can become easy targets (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.3.5

• • Flat land suitable for cultivation (2)
  • Flat land would enable the use of machinery for commercial farming (2)
  • Availability of water from the dam (2)
  • Intensive farming of the land indicates that the soil is fertile (2)
  • Access to road to transport products from the farm (2)
  • Large space available for farming (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

3.4

3.4.1 It is the process of compensating people who lost their land due to forced  removals (1)  
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2 75 400 land claims (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.3 KwaZulu-Natal (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.4

• • The total amount awarded is greater than the land costs (2)
  • The land cost is less than the total amount awarded (2)
  • [The relationship must be mentioned]
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4.5

• • Land owners wanted a higher price above market value (2)
  • Land had been developed and therefore demanded a higher price (2)
  • In order to ensure land restitution is successful, government had to pay a  higher price (2)
  • Bribery and corruption (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.4.6

• • To redress the injustices of Apartheid (2)
  • To reduce poverty in rural areas (2)
  • To promote growth and economic development (2)
  • For the reconciliation and stability of the country (2)
    [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6) 

3.5

3.5.1

• • Informal traders don't have a permanent structure to sell their goods or  provide their services from (1)
  • Informal traders are located on street corners or pavements (1) (2 x 1) (2) 

3.5.2

• • It is not quantifiable/cannot be measured/do not declare income (2)
  • No legal registration of the informal business exists (2)
  • Panellists are not completely sure of the exact contribution to GDP that the  informal sector makes to the economy (2)
  • Due to the high employment rate many people are involved in the informal  sector (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.5.3

• • Lack of funding (2)
  • Lack of education or business development programme (2)
  • Lack of infrastructure (2)
  • Lack of property or rentable property (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.5.4 ADVANTAGES 

• • More people can work and earn a living (2)
  • Lower unemployment rate (2)
  • Can become semi-skilled (2)
  • Alleviates poverty (2)
  • Fewer people will depend on social grants (2)
  • Reduces crime as people have income (2)
  • Means for people to escape poverty (2)
  • Contributes to the economy in other sectors (2)
  • Competition reduces prices in formal sector (2)
  • Acts as tourist attractions to see craftsmen at work (2)

DISADVANTAGES 

• • Lowers income of formal businesses (2)
  • Associated with knock-off and counterfeit goods which impact on legal  business (2)
  • Associated with illegal importation of goods (2)
  • Little/No contribution to the GDP (2)
  • No contribution to tax or receiver of revenue (2)
  • Money spent on keeping the area clean (2)
  • Blocks entrances to formal businesses (2)
  • Dirty environment creates health hazard (2)
    [ANY FOUR – MUST REFER TO ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES]   . (4 x 2) (8) 

3.6

3.6.1

• • When people live in fear of hunger and starvation (1) 
  • When people do not have access to enough nutritious food (1) 
    [ANY ONE] 
    [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.6.2

• • 'The majority of these people live in developing countries' (1)
  • '75% of the world's hungry live in rural areas' (1)
  • The majority of rural people live in countries on the African and Asian  continents (1) 
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.6.3

• • 50% of the small scale farmers grow subsistence crops (2)
  • The small scale farmers rely on family labour (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.6.4

• • Subsistence farmers only grow enough food for their own needs (2)
  • Vulnerable to hunger and starvation with no surplus in times of drought (2)
  • Subsistence farmers have extended families (2)
  • They create a large burden on themselves with more family members to  feed or care for (2)
  • Subsistence farmers do not have access to capital (2)
  • No access to modern machinery to increase production (2)
  • Out-dated farming methods (2)
  • No subsidy from the government (2)
  • No exposure to recent farming research (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.6.5

• • Consolidation of smaller farms (2)
  • Roof top farming in urban areas (2)
  • Planting of drought resistant crops (2)
  • Planting surplus in good seasons (2)
  • Providing funding to small-scale farmers (2)
  • Empowering subsistence farmers on scientific method of farming (2)
  • Genetically Modified Foods that are more resistant to climate change can  be grown to feed a larger world population (2)
  • Governments can encourage family planning so that the world population  grows at a lesser rate; less people to feed in the future (2)
  • Encourage people to grow food in their own gardens (2)
  • Combat poverty to enable people to buy food (2)
  • Create job opportunities to earn money to buy food (2) 
    [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)

[75]

QUESTION 4 
4.1

4.1.1 E/urban growth (1) 
4.1.2 C/rural-urban fringe (1) 
4.1.3 F/urban blight (1) 
4.1.4 B/urban sprawl (1) 
4.1.5 A/urban morphology (1) 
4.1.6 H/urban hierarchy (1) 
4.1.7 G/urban expansion (1) (7 x 1) (7) 

4.2

4.2.1 D/quaternary (1) 
4.2.2 B/tertiary (1) 
4.2.3 C/export market (1) 
4.2.4 C/gross Domestic Product (1) 
4.2.5 A/PWV/Gauteng (1) 
4.2.6 D/industrial centralisation (1) 
4.2.7 B/secondary activities (1) 
4.2.8 D/Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage (1) (8 x 1) (8) 

4.3

4.3.1 The movement of people from rural to urban areas (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2

• • Employment opportunities (2)
  • Better salaries (2)
  • Improved housing conditions (2)
  • Improved educational/medical facilities (2)
  • Better service delivery (2)
  • Improved living standards (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.3.3

• • Forced to seek employment in the informal sector with lower wages (2)
  • Failure to find employment (2)
  • Inadequate skills to qualify for formal employment in the formal sector (2)
  • Lack of housing provision (2)
  • Seek refuge in informal settlements to reduce costs of living which results in  poorer living conditions (2)
  • Cost of living in the urban areas are high (2)
  • Expected service delivery not met as it is strained/overburdened (2)
  • When coming to cities people are exposed to social ills (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.3.4

• • Lack of housing leads to the growth of informal settlements (2)
  • High levels of unemployment (2) 
  • Increased in levels of crime/social ills due to unskilled people who cannot  find jobs (2)
  • Insufficient services such as water, electricity (2)
  • Unhygienic conditions prevail as waste removal in the city is under strain (2) 
  • Traffic congestion (2)
  • Pollution increases (2)
  • Overcrowding and lack of shelter leads to the rapid spread of diseases such  as tuberculosis (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

4.4

4.4.1 View of the city from the side/shows high buildings in the centre and lower  buildings on the outskirts/shows the skyline (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.2 High land values and rentals (2)  
         Competition to locate businesses in the most accessible part of the city (2) Intensive/maximum use of the land in the CBD (2) 
[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.3 Buildings are old and dilapidated as the landlords do not maintain them (2) It is the future expansion area for the CBD , thus landlords do not maintain  the buildings (2) 
[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.4

• • High land values (2)
  • High rentals (2)
  • Traffic congestion (inaccessible) discourages people from coming to the  CBD (2)
  • High levels of crime that make the CBD unsafe (2)
  • Lack of parking facilities creates inconvenience (2)
  • High pollution levels due to industrial activities and vehicles (2)
  • Unkept and unhygienic streets (2)
  • Lack of space for expansion (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.4.5

• • The status can be lowered if (2)
  • The CBD is no longer accessible (2)
  • Buildings are abandoned (2)
  • Businesses are occupied by foreigners (2)
  • The CBD is dominated by low quality/inferior goods (2)
  • Buildings are dilapidated and not maintained (2)
  • Illegal occupation of vacant buildings (2)
  • City no longer attractive/looses aesthetic appeal (2)
    OR 
  • The status can be increased if (2)
  • The CBD becomes less overcrowded (2)
  • Less motor vehicles in the CBD (2)
  • Safer for pedestrians in the CBD (2)
  • Reduced pollution in the CBD (2)
  • CBD becomes more attractive for investors (2)
    [ONE FOR STATUS AND TWO FOR REASONS] (3 x 2) (6) 

4.5

4.5.1 'as it struggles to recover from 23 000 job losses since April and falling  commodity prices from key markets like China' (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.2 7% (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.3 Primary, Secondary and Tertiary (2)  
        [MUST INDICATE ALL THREE SECTORS – NOT EXAMPLES FROM  TEXT] (1 x 2) (2)
4.5.4

• • It leads to less demand for metals, therefore production will decrease (2)
  • Income from exports would decrease (2)
  • It would affect the trade balance of the country negatively (2)
  • It would have a negative impact on the GDP of the country (2)
  • The company would make less profit (2)
  • Lowering of profits would result in job cuts (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.5.5

• • Labour unrest makes mines unprofitable and forces them to close (2)
  • The load shedding causes loss of revenue and income as activities cease  for hours which means mines and metal companies are less productive (2)
  • Poor mine safety leads to loss of skilled mine workers (2)
  • HIV and Aids resulted in many skilled workers dying due to this pandemic (2)
  • Mines are far away from harbours thus increasing the price of exported  minerals making them uncompetitive against low foreign prices (2)
  • Export of unprocessed minerals decreases gross profits and reduces their  sustainability (2)
  • Minerals are non-renewable making it difficult to plan for the future (2)
  • Geothermal gradients force the mining sector to spend more money on air  conditioning as it very hot underground(2)
  • Poor state of railways means that metals cannot be transported easily and  more cheaply to the ports (2)
  • Possible nationalisation discourages investment (2)
  • Dependence on foreign markets (2)
  • Income is dependent on exchange rates (2)
  • The increasing cost of water and water shortages (2)
  • Fluctuating market prices (2)
  • Faster growth rates in other sectors of the economy such as manufacturing  and finance (2)
  • Environmental factors such rehabilitation increase production costs (2)
  • Foreign investors are concerned about labour regulations (2)
  • Laws of a fixed minimum wage add to production costs (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

4.6

4.6.1 Promotes growth in those parts of South Africa that are underdeveloped but  where there is a potential for growth (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.2 Mozambique
        (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.3

• • To provide access between the coastal markets found from East London  towards Durban (2)
  • To provide jobs because of the poverty in this area (2)
  • Scenic beauty for ecotourism development (2)
  • Resources in this part of the country are bountiful and forms the basis for  industrial development (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.6.4

• • Construction of transport roads would make the area more accessible (2)
  • Better roads will mean greater safety for tourists when travelling (2)
  • Travel to remote destinations become possible (2)
  • Greater variety of curios from local communities (2)
  • Greater exposure to different cultures and traditions (2)
  • Access to the Kruger National Park is vastly improved (2)
  • Emerging rural tourism opportunities (2)
  • Ecotourism will encourage the development of new game lodges, and  camping facilities (2)
  • Development of cultural tourism (2)
  • Gaming tourism will increase due to the development of new casinos in  each major town (2)
  • Ownership of newly developed enterprises along these routes stabilises  tourism and promotes growth and educational opportunities in the tourism  sector (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.6.5

• • Generates economic growth where local communities are able to sell their  wares (2)
  • Generates employment opportunities in local communities (2)
  • Promotes skills development to the community members (2)
  • Enables the growth of SMME (Small and Medium Micro Enterprises) (2)
  • Upgrades local infrastructure (2)
  • Encourages tourism, training of guides and selling of crafts (2)
  • Greater income for local communities (2)
  • Better standard of living (2)
  • Money generated is used to develop community projects (2)
  • Develop ethnic/cultural pride (2)
    [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)

[75] 
GRAND TOTAL: 225

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

ANNEXURE

FIGURE 1.1: SYNOPTIC WEATHER MAP 

[Source: South African Weather Service] 
FIGURE 1.3: MID-LATITUDE CYCLONE OVER THE USA

[Source: http://www.geog.ucsb.edu/~joel/g110_w08/lecture_notes/midlat_surface] 
FIGURE 1.4: URBAN HEAT ISLAND 

[Adapted from Stuart McMillencartoons.recombinant.records]
FIGURE 1.5: A RIVER 

[Source: http://greatecology.com/restoring-ecosystems-lessons-science] 
FIGURE 1.6: TYPES OF RIVER FLOW 

 [Source: http://www.spikehampson.com/images/missouri_river_scenery.jpg] 
FIGURE 2.2: DIFFERENT DRAINAGE PATTERNS 

[Adapted from Geography GCSE] 

FIGURE 2.3: TRACKS OF TROPICAL CYCLONES IN THE USA 

[Adapted from http://www.metoffice.gov.uk/data/tropicalcyclone/tctracks/nat15.gif] 
FIGURE 2.4: ANTICYCLONES OVER SOUTHERN AFRICA 

[Adapted from http://icesjms.oxfordjournals.org/content/62/1/33/F1.large.jpg] 
FIGURE 2.5: RIVER REJUVENATION 

[Source: http://www.alevelgeography.com/wp-content/uploads/2013/11/inc2.gi] 
FIGURE 2.6: CATCHMENT AREAS IN SOUTH AFRICA

FIGURE 3.2: TYPES OF INDUSTRIES 

 [Source: Examiner's own graphic] 
FIGURE 3.3: SATELLITE IMAGE OF A RURAL SETTLEMENT SITUATED ON  THE INTERIOR PLATEAU IN SOUTH AFRICA 

[Adapted from Google Earth]
FIGURE 3.4: DATA ON LAND RESTITUTION 

 [Source: http://www.iea.org.uk/sites/default/files/publications/files/uldeconomicAffairs] 
FIGURE 3.5: INFORMAL TRADING IN SOUTH AFRICA

FIGURE 3.6: FOOD INSECURITY 

FIGURE 4.3: RURAL-URBAN MIGRATION 

FIGURE 4.4: URBAN PROFILE 

[Source: Examiner's own sketch]
FIGURE 4.5: SOUTH AFRICA'S DECLINING MINING SECTOR 

FIGURE 4.6: SPATIAL DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES 

[Source: www.mindset.co.za]

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

RESOURCE MATERIAL 

1. An extract from topographical map 2729BD VOLKSRUST. 
2. Orthophoto map 2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 3. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces  on the cover page.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper.
3. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (2729BD VOLKSRUST)  and an orthophoto map (2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST) of a part of the mapped  area.
4. You must hand the topographical map and the orthophoto map to the  invigilator at the end of this examination session.
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough  work and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper.
6. Show ALL calculations and formulae, where applicable. Marks will be  allocated for these.
7. Indicate the unit of measurement in the final answer of calculations.
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
9. The area demarcated in RED on the topographical map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
10. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographical map:
    ENGLISH 
    Aerodrome 
    Diggings 
    Furrow 
    Golf Course
    Rifle Range 
    River 
    Sawmills 
    Sewerage Works 
    Silos 
    Weir 

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographical map  (2729BD VOLKSRUST) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.  Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose  the answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question. 
1.1 Volksrust is situated in … 

1. the Free State.
2. KwaZulu-Natal.
3. Gauteng.
4. Mpumalanga.  

1.2 The photo index/code of the orthophoto map northwest of  2729 BD 13 VOLKSRUST is … 

1. 2729 BD 9.
2. 2729 BD 8.
3. 2729 BD 7.
4. 2729 BD 12. 

1.3 The direction of spot height 1634 in block H6 from spot height 1671 in block H7  on the topographical map is … 

1. south-southwest.
2. southwest.
3. west-southwest.
4. west. 

1.4 Volksrust is a … 

1. conurbation.
2. town.
3. metropolis.
4. megalopolis. 

1.5 Volksrust can be considered a … 

1. specialised town .
2. central place town.
3. mining area.
4. dormitory town. 

1.6 The feature found at 27°20.2'S 29°54.4'E/27°20'12''S 29°54'24''E is a/an … 

1. other road.
2. dam.
3. row of trees.
4. excavation.

1.7 The height at X in block F8 on the topographical map is ... metres. 

1. 1 720 
2. 1 740 
3. 1 700 
4. 1 760  

1.8 The feature in block B3 that was specifically developed to control the flow of  water in the river is a … 

1. catchment dam.
2. reservoir.
3. windpump.
4. weir. 

1.9 The … at W in block J5 indicates that rejuvenation has taken place. 

1. river terrace
2. incised meander
3. knickpoint
4. dry gap 

1.10 The general direction of flow of the Buffelsrivier (Buffalo River) in block J5: 

1. North
2. North-northeast 
3. East-southeast
4. South-southeast 

1.11 The human-made feature at 7 on the orthophoto map: 

1. Park
2. Golf course
3. Cemetery
4. School 

1.12 The human-made feature at 2 on the orthophoto map: 

1. Dam
2. Waterworks
3. Reservoir
4. Sewerage works 

1.13 In which urban land-use zone will the human-made feature at 2 on the  orthophoto map be found? 

1. Transition zone
2. Rural-urban fringe
3. Low-income residential area
4. Heavy industrial area

1.14 The straight-line distance between 4 and 9 on the orthophoto map is … kilometres. 

1. 1,32
2. 6,6 
3. 1,4 
4. 7  

1.15 Feature 11 on the orthophoto map can be identified as trees due to its … 

1. smooth appearance.
2. rough texture.
3. grey colour.
4. irregular shape. 

 (15 x 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 Refer to the magnetic declination on the topographical map and answer the  questions that follow. 

2.1.1 Calculate the current magnetic declination for Volksrust. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. 

Difference in years:
Mean annual change:
Total change:  
Magnetic declination for 2017: (5 x 1) (5) 

2.1.2 State the influence that the change in the magnetic declination  from 2010 to 2017 will have on the direction of the magnetic north  and the angle between true north and magnetic north. 

Direction:
Angle:(2 x 1) (2)

2.2 Refer to points 1 and 10 on the orthophoto map. 

2.2.1 Calculate the average gradient between points 1 and 10 on the  orthophoto map. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for  calculations. 

Formula: Gradient =       vertical interval (VI)             
                                     horizontal equivalent (HE)                                      (5 x 1) (5) 

2.2.2 Is the average gradient between points 1 and 10 steep or gentle?  Give evidence from the orthophoto map to substantiate the answer. (1 + 1) (2)

2.3 Refer to the area demarcated in RED on the topographical map which  represents the area covered by the orthophoto map. 

2.3.1 Calculate the area of the demarcated area in km². Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. 
Formula: Area = length x breadth   (5 x 1) (5) 
2.3.2 The area demarcated in RED on the topographical map represents  the area covered by the orthophoto map. Why do the features on  the orthophoto map look larger than the same features on the  topographic map? (1 x 1) (1) 

[20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 Refer to block B2. 

3.1.1 What is the purpose of the fire break in block B2? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.2 Explain why these fire breaks are especially necessary in July.  (1 x 2) (2) 
3.1.3 Identify a human-made drainage feature in block B2 that could be  used to extinguish fires.  (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.4 Identify the economic sector that will be most affected by veld fires  in block B2. Give a reason from the topographical map to  substantiate the answer.  

Economic sector: 
Reason:    (1 + 2) (3) 

3.2 Refer to blocks D8 and H5 on the topographic map. Give a reason why there  are a marsh and vlei in block D8 but not in block H5.  (1 x 2) (2)
3.3 Refer to blocks D8 and D9 showing a marsh and vlei and cultivated lands. 

3.3.1 Explain how the marsh and vlei affected the location of the  cultivated lands. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.3.1. (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4 Refer to the Volksrust urban area on the topographical and orthophoto maps. 

3.4.1 The Burgess concentric model and the Hoyt sector model are two  examples of models of urban structures. Which ONE of these two  models compare the best to the Volksrust urban area?  (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2 Give ONE reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.4.1. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.4.3 Urban expansion of the Volksrust urban area is hindered (limited) in a southerly direction, although there is enough space to do so.  What is the main reason for this?  (1 x 2) (2)

3.5 Maize is one of the agricultural products that are farmed in the Volksrust area.  

3.5.1 Refer to the information on page 3 and state how the distribution of  rainfall throughout the year promotes the maize industry in the  Volksrust area.  (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.2 Name ONE economic justice (benefit) for the inhabitants of Volksrust created by the maize industry. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.3 Describe an environmental injustice (damage to the natural  environment) caused by maize farming. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.4 Explain a measure (step) that the government can take to prevent maize farming in the woodland areas in block C2. (1 x 2) (2) 

[25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to the image below. 

4.1.1 Which GIS method was used by the satellite above to gather  information? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.1.2 Data gathered by a satellite is not always user-friendly. Which GIS  process is used to ensure that data can be used by all people?  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.1.3 Images from the satellite were used to construct the topographical map. Explain how South African topographical maps are  standardised. (2 x 2) (4)

4.2 Answer QUESTION 4.2.1 in the blocks below. 

 4.2.1 Draw ONE example of the following layers in block G8 in the  blocks above. Use the correct conventional signs (map symbols).  

1. 1. Drainage layer as a line feature
   2. Land-use as a polygon feature or an area feature (2 x 1) (2)

4.2.2 Identify ONE attribute of the drainage layer in block G8. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.2.3 State ONE advantage of single data-layer maps. (1 x 2) (2) 

4.3 The urban and regional planner of the town wants to expand the golf course (7 on the orthophoto map). How can he/she use GIS to decide on the most  suitable area for the development?  (2 x 2) (4) 

[15] 
TOTAL: 75

ROUGH WORK AND CALCULATIONS 
(NOTE: DO NOT detach this page from the question paper.)

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR questions.
2. Answer ANY THREE questions of 75 marks each.
3. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE. 
4. Leave a line between the subsections of questions answered. 
5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.  
7. Number the answers in the centre of the line.
8. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK.
9. Draw fully labelled diagrams when instructed to do so. 
10. Answer in FULL SENTENCES, except when you have to state, name, identify  or list.
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 
Answer at least ONE question in this section. If you answer ONE question in  SECTION A, you must answer TWO questions in SECTION B. 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Refer to FIGURE 1.1 showing a synoptic weather map of southern Africa.  Choose the correct word(s) from those given in brackets. Write only the  word(s) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 The synoptic weather map data was captured at (12:00/14:00). 
1.1.2 The season represented by this synoptic weather map is  (summer/winter). 
1.1.3 Area A on the synoptic weather map is a (ridge/trough). 
1.1.4 The weather system associated with the area at A creates  (stable/unstable) weather conditions. 
1.1.5 The wind at weather station B is a (NNE/SSW) wind. 
1.1.6 The wind speed at weather station B is (20/10) knots. 
1.1.7 The air pressure at the centre of the South Atlantic anticyclone is  (lower/higher) than 1 032 hPa/mb. (7 x 1) (7) 

1.2 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the geomorphological description in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–I) next to the question  number (1.2.1–1.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.9 J. 

 (8 x 1) (8)

1.3 FIGURE 1.3 is a three-dimensional representation of a mid-latitude cyclone over the United States of America. 

1.3.1 Name fronts A and B. (2 x 1) (2)
1.3.2 In what stage of development is this mid-latitude cyclone? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.3 Give evidence in the diagram to prove that this mid-latitude cyclone occurs in the Northern Hemisphere. (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.4 Give a reason why front B is associated with a greater rainfall extent  than front A. (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.5 Describe the likely weather conditions associated with the cloud type  at front A. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.3.6 Discuss TWO expected weather changes that could occur when the  mid-latitude cyclone reaches the occlusion stage. (2 x 2) (4) 

1.4 Study FIGURE 1.4 showing a cartoon on an urban heat island. 

1.4.1 Complete the statement describing an urban heat island in A: An urban heat island describes the phenomenon where … (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2 Refer to B and give TWO reasons for the heat generated in the city.  (2 x 1) (2) 
1.4.3 What impact will the increased temperatures have on people living in  the city? (2 x 2) (4) 
1.4.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, provide sustainable  methods that can be implemented in an attempt to control the  temperature in the city. (4 x 2) (8) 

1.5 FIGURE 1.5 shows the amount of water in a river in the dry season and the  rainy season. 

1.5.1 Name the type of river in the photograph. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.2 Provide evidence from the photograph to support your answer to  QUESTION 1.5.1. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.3 Define the term water table. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.4 Draw TWO labelled diagrams to show the different positions of the  water table in the dry season and the rainy season. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, explain the influence of  precipitation and gradient on the amount of deposited material evident  on the river bed. (4 x 2) (8)

1.6 Refer to FIGURE 1.6 showing two types of river flow, A and B. 

1.6.1 Identify the types of river flow A and B. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.6.2 In which course of the river would you expect to find river flow B?   (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.3 Give a reason for river flow A in the photograph. (1 x 2) (2)
1.6.4 Why is river flow A associated with more erosion? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.5 Explain the difference in the colour of the water associated with river  flows A and B in the photographs. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.6.6 Why is river flow A more suitable for adventure tourism? (2 x 2) (4)

[75] 

QUESTION 2 
2.1 Read the following statements. Choose the correct word(s) from those given  in brackets which will make each sentence geographically CORRECT.  Write only the word(s) next to the question number (2.1.1–2.1.8) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 

2.1.1 (Warm/Cold) air rises through convection currents resulting in a low  pressure on the earth's surface. 
2.1.2 The Coriolis force causes air that is moving horisontally across the  earth's surface in the Southern Hemisphere to deflect to the  (left/right). 
2.1.3 The (tropical easterlies/westerlies) are global wind systems that  influence the direction of movement of mid-latitude cyclones. 
2.1.4 A (low/high)-pressure system is called an anticyclone. 
2.1.5 A change in the wind direction associated with a mid-latitude  cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere is referred to as  (backing/veering). 
2.1.6 High pressure systems are associated with (stable/unstable)  weather conditions. 
2.1.7 A vertically developed cloud along the cold front of a mid-latitude  cyclone is called a (nimbostratus/cumulonimbus) cloud. 
2.1.8 A rise in sea level and resultant coastal flooding associated with a  tropical cyclone is known as a (storm surge/tsunami). (8 x 1) (8)

2.2 Refer to FIGURE 2.2 on different drainage patterns and match EACH of the  descriptions below with one of the drainage patterns A to E. You may choose  the same drainage pattern more than once. 

2.2.1 The stream pattern associated with rocks that have equal resistance  to erosion 
2.2.2 Main streams that are parallel to each other 
2.2.3 Main streams that have 90° bends along its course 
2.2.4 Streams with an irregular pattern 
2.2.5 Rivers flowing away from a central point 
2.2.6 A drainage pattern that forms on rocks that have varying resistance  to erosion due to folding 
2.2.7 Tributaries join the main stream at an acute angle (7 x 1) (7) 

2.3 Study FIGURE 2.3 showing the observed tracks of tropical cyclones in the  USA. 

2.3.1 How many tropical cyclones occurred in the 2015 season? (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2 Why do tropical cyclones move in a westerly direction? (1 x 1) (1) 
2.3.3 Give the term used to refer to tropical cyclones in this part of the  world. (1 x 1) (1) 
2.3.4 Discuss TWO conditions that promote the development of tropical  cyclones. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.3.5 The path of a tropical cyclone can be very erratic (unpredictable).  In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, give possible reasons  for the erratic path they follow and why this creates problems for  disaster management teams to effectively manage the impact of  tropical cyclones. (4 x 2) (8)

2.4 Refer to FIGURE 2.4 showing anticyclones over southern Africa.

2.4.1 Name high pressure cell B. (1 x 1) (1) 
2.4.2 Why does high pressure cell B dominate the interior of South Africa in winter? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.4.3 Give a reason for the lack of rainfall associated with high  pressure cell A. (1 x 2) (2) 
2.4.4 Explain the change in the position of the anticyclones over South  Africa between summer and winter. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.5 Explain why the South Indian High Pressure Cell feed more moist air  over the interior in summer than in winter. (3 x 2) (6)

2.5 Study FIGURE 2.5 which illustrates river rejuvenation.  

2.5.1 Define the term river rejuvenation. (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 State ONE condition that results in river rejuvenation. (1 x 2) (2)
2.5.3 What does a knickpoint indicate on a river profile? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.5.4 How does river rejuvenation impact on the grading of a river? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.5.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, describe, with  reasons, the changes that will occur in the fluvial features found in  the lower course of the river as a result of river rejuvenation. (4 x 2) (8) 

2.6 Read the extract in FIGURE 2.6 based on river catchment areas in  South Africa. 

2.6.1 What is a catchment area? (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.2 What evidence in the article indicates that drought is an  ever-present risk? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.6.3 Give ONE reason for the destruction of catchment areas. (1 x 2) (2) 
2.6.4 Suggest TWO steps that need to be taken by the government and  non-governmental organisations (NGOs) to manage catchment  areas that are at risk. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.6.5 Discuss the negative impact of poor catchment management  practices for South Africa. (3 x 2) (6) 

[75]

SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN  ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 
Answer at least ONE question in this section. If you answer ONE question in  SECTION B, you must answer TWO questions in SECTION A. 
QUESTION 3 
3.1 Indicate whether EACH of the statements below describes an URBAN or a  RURAL settlement. Write only URBAN or RURAL next to the question  numbers (3.1.1–3.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

3.1.1 Unifunctional settlement 
3.1.2 Includes towns, cities, a metropolis and a megalopolis 
3.1.3 Associated with secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities 
3.1.4 Includes farmsteads, hamlets and villages 
3.1.5 Displays a dispersed settlement pattern 
3.1.6 Has a variety of functions, such as shops, schools and places of  worship 
3.1.7 Characterised by primary economic activities 
3.1.8 Serves the role of a central place (8 x 1) (8) 

3.2 Refer to FIGURE 3.2 and match the types of industries in the diagram with the statements below. 

3.2.1 Industries that produce perishable goods 
3.2.2 Industries that can be located anywhere and are not restricted by the  location of markets or raw materials 
3.2.3 Industries that can be located anywhere without an effect from factors  such as resources or transport 
3.2.4 Industries that process bulky raw materials 
3.2.5 Industries located on the outskirts of the built-up areas because of  noise and air pollution 
3.2.6 Industries located between the source of the raw material and the  market (customers) 
3.2.7 Industries that occupy small spaces and can be located in the city  centre (7 x 1) (7)

3.3 Refer to FIGURE 3.3 showing a satellite image of a rural settlement situated  on the interior plateau in South Africa. 

3.3.1 Identify the rural settlement pattern in FIGURE 3.3. (1 x 1) (1)
3.3.2 Give ONE reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.3.1. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.3 Why is this type of settlement pattern associated with large-scale farming? (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.4 Why does this settlement pattern make farmers vulnerable (at risk) to farm attacks? (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, discuss the possible  factors that would have influenced the location of this settlement.  (4 x 2) (8) 

3.4 FIGURE 3.4 shows data on land restitution in the various provinces in South  Africa. 

3.4.1 Define the term land restitution. (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2 Give the total number of land claims made to date. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.3 Which province has allocated the largest amount of land for land  restitution thus far? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.4 Comment on the total land cost in relation to the total amount  awarded for the land restitution process. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.4.5 Give TWO reasons for your answer to QUESTION 3.4.4. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4.6 Explain the important role that land restitution plays in the social  justice process in a democratic South Africa. (3 x 2) (6) 

3.5 FIGURE 3.5 is an article on informal trading in South Africa. 

3.5.1 State TWO general characteristics of informal trading evident in the  photograph. (2 x 1) (2) 
3.5.2 State a reason why the contribution of the informal sector to the  GDP is estimated at 29%. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.3 Why do small businesses not have effective business models and  expansion strategies as mentioned in the article? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.5.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines to explain the  advantages and disadvantages of informal trading on the  South African economy. (4 x 2) (8)

3.6 Read the extract in FIGURE 3.6 based on food insecurity. 

3.6.1 What is food insecurity? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2 According to the article, why do most people who suffer from food  insecurity come from Asia and Africa? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.3 Explain why small-scale farmers in Asia and Africa are economically  vulnerable (at risk). (1 x 2) (2) 
3.6.4 Discuss TWO characteristics of subsistence farmers that make them  vulnerable. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.5 Provide solutions to reduce the problem of global hunger.  (3 x 2) (6) 

[75] 

QUESTION 4 
4.1 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the description in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question number (4.1.1–4.1.7) in the  ANSWER BOOK, for example 4.1.8 I. 

 (7 x 1) (7)
4.2 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  number (4.2.1–4.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 4.2.9 D. 
4.2.1 The high-technology sector of the economy linked to research and  development: 

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary 

4.2.2 An economic activity associated with transport, banking and other  services: 

1. Quaternary
2. Tertiary
3. Secondary
4. Primary 

4.2.3 A term that describes goods that are mainly produced for selling to  other countries: 

1. Home market
2. Import market
3. Export market
4. Regional market 

4.2.4 Total value of goods and services produced in a country in one year: 

1. Gross national product
2. Gross geographic product
3. Gross domestic product
4. Gross provincial product 

4.2.5 The smallest core industrial area that contributes the most to the  GDP of South Africa annually: 

1. PWV-Gauteng
2. Durban-Pinetown
3. Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage
4. South-Western Cape 

4.2.6 The agglomeration of industries in a few core areas: 

1. Industrial decentralisation
2. Spatial economic zones
3. Industrial development zones 
4. Industrial centralisation

4.2.7 The processing of raw materials to increase their value: 

1. Primary activities
2. Secondary activities
3. Tertiary activities
4. Quaternary activities  

4.2.8 The core industrial region where the deepest port in South Africa  has been completed recently: 

1. PWV-Gauteng 
2. Durban-Pinetown 
3. South-Western Cape
4. Port Elizabeth-Uitenhage (8 x 1) (8) 

4.3 Refer to FIGURE 4.3, an extract on rural-urban migration. 

4.3.1 What is rural-urban migration? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2 The extract implies 'hope' from rural-urban migration. What are the  migrants expecting in the urban areas? (1 x 2) (2) 
4.3.3 Explain why rural-urban migration does not always lead to an  improvement in the standard of living of rural migrants. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, evaluate the negative  impact of rural-urban migration on cities. (4 x 2) (8) 

4.4 Study FIGURE 4.4 based on the urban profile. 

4.4.1 What does an urban profile depict? (1 x 1) (1)
4.4.2 Give a reason for the building density in the CBD. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.3 Why is the transitional zone often referred to as the zone of decay?  (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.4 Discuss TWO problems experienced in the CBD that have led to the  mass exodus (leaving) of commercial functions. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4.5 Evaluate the impact the exodus of functions has had on the status of  the CBD. (3 x 2) (6)

4.5 Read the article in FIGURE 4.5 based on the declining mining sector in  South Africa. 

4.5.1 Quote from the article why South Africa's mining industry is 'in  trouble'. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.2 What percentage of the gross domestic product does mining  contribute towards the South African economy? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.3 Which sectors of the economy, according to the article, does the  government think should be developed, to grow South Africa's  economy? (1 x 2) (2) 
4.5.4 Briefly explain why the 'recent downturn in the metal industry and  subdued demand from China' has had a negative effect on  South Africa's mining sector. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.5.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, discuss factors that  have contributed to the instability of the mining sector in  South Africa. (4 x 2) (8) 

4.6 Study the map in FIGURE 4.6 showing the spatial development initiatives in  South Africa. 

4.6.1 What is a spatial development initiative (SDI)? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.2 Name a southern African country in the diagram which shares or  works together with South Africa on the Maputo Development  Corridor SDI. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.3 Give ONE reason why the Wild Coast was selected to be developed  as an SDI. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.6.4 Discuss TWO ways in which the development of the Maputo Development Corridor SDI will benefit tourism. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.6.5 Explain how the Maputo Development Corridor and the Wild Coast  SDI have benefited the surrounding local communities. (3 x 2) (6)

[75] 
 TOTAL: 225

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER 
In assessing a candidate's work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the  assessment rubric, must be borne in mind: 

• The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on the  final text produced
• Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as  register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B 
• Grammar, spelling and punctuation
• Language structures, including an awareness of critical language
• Choice of words and idiomatic language
• Sentence construction
• Paragraphing
• Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the  introduction, the development of ideas and the conclusion

MEMORANDUM

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING 
SECTION A: ESSAY 
Refer to SECTION A: Assessment Rubric for Essay, found on pages 7 and 8 of this  memorandum. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND  PLANNING. 
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE,  STYLE AND EDITING.
3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE. 

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
Refer to SECTION B: Assessment Rubric for Transactional Text, found on page 9 of  this memorandum. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING  AND FORMAT.
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE,  STYLE AND EDITING. 

NOTE: 

• Various formats of transactional/referential/informational texts have been taught/ are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the format.
• Give credit for appropriateness of format.
• Look for a logical approach in all writing. 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE  of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive,  reflective, argumentative, discursive, or any combination of these. 
1.1 'Only from the heart can you touch the sky.' 
 (Rumi) 

• Achievement is possible if you believe in your potential/dreams/wishes.
• Candidates could include aspects such as passion/sincerity/  determination/realising goals. 
• Credit responses that have opposing or mixed views. [50]

1.2 The silence of my narrative  

• Credit literal, figurative and mixed responses. [50] 

1.3 Messages in the streets 

• Candidates could focus on narratives/messages/signs/omens/events actions/experiences.
• Credit literal and figurative responses. [50]

1.4 A bridge too far … 

• Credit literal/metaphorical/mixed responses. [50] 

1.5 'The worst sin towards our fellow creatures is not to hate them, but to be  indifferent to them: that is the essence of inhumanity.' 
(George Bernard Shaw) 

• Focus should be on ignoring the plight of others.
• Altruism versus complacency could be discussed.
• Credit responses that focus on human rights issues. [50] 

1.6 NOTE: There must be a clear link between the essay and the picture chosen.
1.6.1 Baby with iPad/Boy eating scraps 

• Candidates could discuss the juxtaposition of privilege and  poverty.
• Interpretation should be figurative/symbolic. [50]

1.6.2 Prisoner in/of the mind 

• Candidates could focus on either the prison bars or the  prisoner, or both.
• Credit literal/figurative and mixed responses. [50]

1.6.3 Eye/Shattered glass 

• Credit literal/figurative and mixed responses. 
• Credit references to any part(s) of the image or image as a  whole. [50] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 
Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of the  responses should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register,  style and tone must be appropriate to the context. 

2.1 SPEECH 

• Candidates should deal with the health benefits of participating in  sport/physical activity.
• Candidates could include suggestions/advice.
• Speech must be convincing and persuasive. [25]

2.2 FORMAL REPORT 

• Report should contain realistic details regarding unemployment.
• Format: heading; terms of reference; findings; conclusion;  recommendations; date and signing off [25] 

2.3 OBITUARY  

• Candidates must show an understanding of an obituary.
• Details of the person's life must be clear, e.g. his/her impact on/contribution to the lives of others. [25] 

2.4 NEWSPAPER ARTICLE 

• Candidate's position on the headline must be clear.
• Format: heading and by-line [25]

2.5 INTERVIEW 

• Candidate should highlight the different conservation campaigns. 
• Dialogue should promote nature conservation.
• Format: dialogue format [25]

2.6 LETTER TO THE PRESS 

• Candidate should highlight his/her dissatisfaction with the event (any  aspect(s)) and suggest ways of improvement. 
• Format: own address; date; The Editor, name and address of newspaper;  salutation; subject line; signing off [25]

TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

NOTE: 

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A).
• Marks from 0–50 have been divided into FIVE major level descriptors.
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper and a lower level subcategory  with the applicable mark range and descriptors.
• Structure is not affected by the upper level and lower level division. 

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS]

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS] (continued)

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – HOME LANGUAGE [25 MARKS]

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

NOTE TO MARKERS 

• This memorandum is intended as a guide for markers.
• The memorandum will be discussed with the marking panel before marking commences at the marking centre.
• Candidates' responses must be considered on their merits. 

MARKING GUIDELINES 

1. Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of questions,  mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may NOT answer the essay  and the contextual question on the same genre.) 
2. If a candidate has answered all four questions in SECTION A (prescribed poems),  mark only the first two.
3. If a candidate has answered two contextual or two essay questions in SECTIONS B  and C, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has answered all six  questions (novel) and/or all four questions (drama), mark only the first answer in  each section, provided that one contextual and one essay have been answered. 
4. If a candidate gives two answers where the first is wrong and the next one correct,  mark the first answer and ignore the next. 
5. If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the memo.
6. If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the  meaning, mark correct. 
7. Essay questions: If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not  penalise, because the candidate has already penalised himself/herself. If the essay  is too long, assess on merit and discuss with senior markers.
8. Contextual questions: If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked  to quote, do not penalise.
9. For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I  AGREE/DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what  should be considered.
10. No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be marked.
11. Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically in the light of the  discussion during the standardisation of the marking memorandum. 

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
'AUTUMN' – Roy Campbell 

• Autumn prepares nature for the bare season ahead by stripping the trees of their  leaves.
• Winter is described as 'the paragon of art', which associates it with creativity.
• Together with Autumn, Winter destroys anything that is weak or inessential: 'kills all  forms of life'.
• It might be considered harsh and unforgiving, but it assists in preparing for new  growth/regeneration, keeping 'what is pure and will survive'.
• The geese migrate in order to survive. The weaker birds might not survive but the  stronger birds will return to breed in the summer.
• The trees, having lost their leaves, allow the sun to warm the earth, encouraging  new growth.
• In spite of the force of the wind, the olives continue their natural process of ripening  in order to be transformed into oil.
• The images of harvesting allude to agricultural processes that produce new goods  from the 'death' of natural resources – the 'grape' becomes the 'red froth' of the  fermenting wine; the 'olives' become the 'sun-gold oil' and the 'rotted stems' become  firewood to provide warmth. The fire, in destroying the wood, provides comfort; it is  a symbol of energy, rejuvenation and hope.
• The oxymoron, 'reviving pyre' suggests that life and death are intertwined. The  allusion to the phoenix is significant in that the new rises from the ashes of the old.
• The renewal of nature is dependent on the destruction of certain elements. The  poem conveys the interdependence of the seasons and how they continue the cycle  of life.
• The tone is of admiration/appreciation/joy at the regeneration that comes from the  changing of the seasons.

[10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'RUGBY LEAGUE GAME' – James Kirkup 
2.1 The speaker conveys how inappropriate/ironic it is for adult men to be playing a  boys' game. The speaker makes it clear that the men are not suited to the  game, which is for younger players. He suggests that the men need to let go of  their dreams of recapturing their youth. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.2 The word means to be chivalrous, gentlemanly, brave. The reference shows  how much effort these men put into the game. The word is used  incongruously/sarcastically: they are ostensibly acting like gentlemen, yet they  are violently tackling each other in the mud in public. The use of 'gallantly' ridicules the gravity and heroic endeavour with which they approach what is  only a game. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.3 The men's trying to recapture their past glory is compared to a blind man's  feeling his way. They are described as 'blind' as they do not know exactly how  to achieve their objective. Their attempts are awkward and ineffectual. The  image is appropriate because it conveys their lack of clarity and the futility of  their clumsy efforts. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three ideas.] (3) 
2.4 The contrast lies in the men who are 'domesticated', yet try to recapture a time  when they were wild and free. The speaker satirises their attempts to be young  and robust. He ridicules their efforts by reminding them that the time is long  gone. They romanticise a bygone era to escape their monotonous lives. 
The details, 'that was then' and 'a gay/And golden age ago', convey the  speaker's scornful opinion that the players idealise/romanticise their youth. The  words, 'golden age' and 'ago', convey that it is a time firmly in the past, yet they  are unable to let go. He mocks their unrealistic expectations. 
The men were still hopeful of a good future, but the words, 'in vain' convey the  futility of their efforts. The speaker satirises their preposterous attempts. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate had referred to both contrast and satire.] (3)

[10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'OLD FOLKS LAUGH' – Maya Angelou 
3.1 Old folks do not approach old age in a sombre manner. The speaker's  message is that old age can be enjoyed in spite of its many disadvantages. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
3.2 When they were younger, old folks would have held their 'lips this/and that  way', restraining their laughter and being insincere because it was expected of  them to behave with a certain decorum.  
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points OR one idea well  discussed.] (2) 
3.3 The laughter is compared to water rising and overflowing. The image is  appropriate because it conveys the unstoppable laughter of old folks. Their  laughter is spontaneous, uncontrolled and infectious. The image conveys the  abundance, uninhibited release and loud resonance of their laughter. The  image conveys the old folks' indifference to social restrictions. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
3.4 Death is usually associated with fear and apprehension. However, old folks  regard death with affection and something to look forward to. The paradox  conveys the sensible approach of old people to impending death. They have a  balanced attitude toward life and have accepted the good with the bad. Death  will be a release from pain and thus something to be welcomed, rather than  feared. The paradox is effective because it emphasises the reality that death is  an aspect of living. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate has referred to both paradox and attitude.] (3)

[10] 

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'ON THE MOVE' – Thom Gunn 
4.1 The use of 'nested' conveys the idea that the birds are settled; there is stability  in their world. Man, however, is constantly searching and struggles to find a  sense of purpose. 
[Award 2 marks only if the contrast is evident.] (2) 
4.2 The repetition underlines man's constant need to strive to achieve (moving  ‘toward’) his goals. It suggests that man does not succeed in reaching a  destination or a sense of fulfilment. The lack of clear direction is suggested by  the absence of any specific destination. The repetition conveys the shifting  nature of man's objectives. One should always be ambitious and desire more. 
[Award 2 marks only if the repetition has been discussed.] 
[Award 2 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any one idea.] (2) 
4.3 The word, 'dull' suggests that man's words are indistinct, unclear and difficult to  discern. 'Thunder' conveys the concept that our attempt at communication is  indistinguishable from other sounds, so the message is obscured. The use of  'approximate' emphasises the lack of precision of our words. The image is  appropriate because it conveys the ineffectiveness of man's communication.  The main idea of the poem is that man is uncertain about his purpose in life  and therefore is unable to communicate distinctly and with clarity. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate has referred to the main idea(s) of the  poem.] 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three ideas.] (3) 
4.4 The lines are not inherently contradictory as they convey the idea that whether  or not one achieves one's purpose, one is at least in motion and moving toward  a goal. Regardless of the reasons, man is like the bikers who are constantly on  the move in search of a reason for being. 
[It is unlikely that candidates would suggest that there is a contradiction.  However, treat all responses on their merits.] 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three ideas.] (3)

[10]

UNSEEN POETRY (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'EXODUS' – Don McLennan 
5.1 The word, 'ash' suggests that the day has burnt out and come to an end. The  impression is that the sky has turned grey/gloomy as the light fades at twilight. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
5.2 The mood is chaotic/frenzied because of the sudden activity of the bats as they  leave the cave. Their movements appear to be unpredictable and uncontrolled.  The air is alive/filled with various sounds associated with the bats. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
5.3 The bats are suspended upside down from the roof of the cave, similar to  foetuses. The bats are curled up in a protected position in the darkness of their  caves, which are like wombs. The 'iron darkness' suggests that the darkness is  impenetrable and enveloping. The image is appropriate because it conveys the  isolation of the bats from the outside world until they are ready to emerge from  the darkness and safety. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
5.4 The description, 'skinny little birds of death' conveys an unfavourable  impression of the bats. The speaker has a disparaging attitude toward the bats,  regarding them as repulsive creatures. They are opportunistic, taking  advantage of the darkness to prey on the unwary. The speaker regards the  bats as benefitting from the abundance of food available. Bats are traditionally  seen as evil/demonic. 
[Some candidates might suggest that there is some sympathy for the bats.  Credit such responses on their merits.] 
[Award 3 marks only if the response includes a critical comment on the  speaker's attitude.] (3)

[10] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
ANIMAL FARM – George Orwell 
QUESTION 6: ANIMAL FARM – ESSAY QUESTION 

The proficient candidate will discuss the degree to which the characters are variously  driven by self-interest and concern for others. 

• Napoleon uses the revolution to enhance his personal position.
• The pigs' early seizure of food indicates that they will look after themselves rather  than concern themselves with the needs of the community. They are greedy and  disregard the tenets of Animalism.
• The dogs are used by Napoleon to protect his position and he excludes the animals  from participation in decision-making, quickly betraying the principles of democracy  and becoming an autocratic leader.
• The pigs are able to convince the gullible animals that they have the animals' best  interests at heart. In reality, they do not uplift the living conditions of the lower  animals. Instead, they take on managerial roles on the farm while the animals work  harder for less. The products of the animals' labour are used to benefit Napoleon  and the other pigs.
• Even Snowball, who wants to uplift the animals, is motivated, to a degree, by self interest (the appropriation of the milk and apples).
• The pigs' mistreatment of their own comrades proves that the animals' best  interests are not considered.
• In an attempt to encourage the animals to see Napoleon as benevolent and acting  in their best interests, Squealer's propaganda portrays Napoleon as altruistic;  however, his actions contradict this portrayal.
• Mollie's departure is motivated by her self-interest: she is not prepared to give up  her luxuries (sugar and ribbons) for a life of hard work.
• Benjamin's unwillingness to oppose the pigs is evidence of his cynicism and his  selfish desire for self-preservation. However, he is spurred into action when he  realises Boxer's fate.
• The humans' attempt to discredit the developments on Animal Farm is based on  self-interest. They wish to protect their own farms from the spread of revolutionary  thoughts.
• However, animals like Boxer and Clover are selfless. They devote their lives to  Animalism. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 7: ANIMAL FARM – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
7.1 The animals believed that the revolution would put an end to their suffering. By  overthrowing Mr Jones, they would become their own masters and they would  run the farm in a collaborative and even-handed manner. Instead, the animals  are working harder than ever and have less food to eat. There is an enormous  gap between the tirelessness of their efforts and the benefits they receive.  They are worse off than when they were owned by Mr Jones. 
[Award 3 marks only if the difference between past and present circumstances  is discussed.] 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.2 The windmill is intended to mechanise the farm and generate electricity, thus  lightening the animals' workload, allowing them more leisure time and ensuring  quality of life. Instead, it is used by the pigs to distract the animals from their  hardship and it reflects the exploitative nature of the pigs. The animals' pride in  their achievement helps to unify them, ensuring their compliance with and  acceptance of the pigs' authority and demands. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.3 The animals have rebelled against Jones in order to take responsibility for their  own lives and to manage the farm. They are aware that the outside world  expects them to fail and they feel the pressure to prove that they can be  successful. Failure would leave them vulnerable to the return of human  domination. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.4 Boxer becomes a role model for the other animals, who admire his devotion,  determination, hard work and sacrifice to make a success of Animal Farm. This  is detrimental because they do not consider the negative/adverse  consequences of his devotion. The animals are inspired to follow Boxer's maxims and his loyalty to Napoleon, without considering whether they derive  any benefits. Because the animals follow Boxer's example, the success of the  farm becomes more important than their own well-being. 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.5 Previously, the hens had been forced by Napoleon to sacrifice their eggs for  sale to the humans. The hens had objected to the contravention of the  Commandment that no animal should kill another animal. Napoleon forced  them to abandon their protest by cutting their rations. It is ironic that the hen is  now crediting Napoleon with her ability to lay eggs.
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3)
7.6 At first, Napoleon is an ordinary pig. Now, however, he has gained status. The  cockerel announces Napoleon's arrival in public arenas, reminding the animals  of his importance. This reinforces the ceremonial nature of his appearances  and portrays him as someone worthy of being worshipped. The cockerel  introduces Napoleon as a cult figure, emphasising his elevated status/authority  as well as his separation from the other animals. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.7 The intention is for the animals to view Napoleon as a benevolent if highly  authoritative (‘Leader’) figure. The use of 'our' suggests that Napoleon was  chosen and approved by the animals. The implication is that Napoleon works  for the good of all the animals on the farm; it is intended to create a sense of  camaraderie. The use of the title, 'Comrade' expresses the animals' belief that  they are all equal. This persuades the animals that all derive the same benefits  on Animal Farm and ensures their compliance. The effect is that the animals  are far more malleable and submissive.  
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
7.8 Valid. 
The animals' lack of memory means that they have no basis for any  comparison of the past and the reality of their current situation. The ignorance  and lack of intelligence of the lower animals enable the success of Squealer's  indoctrination. 
The animals believe Squealer's propaganda because of their faulty memories,  allowing for their manipulation and exploitation. Their memory of the past is  unclear because they have been conditioned and they are unable to think  rationally. Their lack of memory allows them to be indoctrinated into accepting  their harsh living conditions. 
The animals accept the altered version of their history. When the  commandments are changed, Squealer easily persuades the animals that their  memories are faulty. 
OR 
Invalid. 
[Such a response is unlikely; however, treat all responses on their merits.] 
[Award 4 marks only if the candidate has made reference to the novel as a  whole.] (4)

[25]

PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – Jane Austen 
QUESTION 8: PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – ESSAY QUESTION 

The proficient candidate will recognise that this statement is not entirely true and argue  that it is partly valid and partly invalid. 

• Mr Bennet manages his household in a self-interested way. He is insufficiently  involved in the lives of his daughters.
• Mrs Bennet is governed by self-interest in her efforts to get her daughters married:  their marriages will elevate her status.
• Lydia is frivolous and headstrong. She has no moral code and is determined to  marry because marriage, for her, equals status.
• Miss Bingley wants to marry Darcy to secure her future. She is envious of Darcy's  growing attachment to Elizabeth and is disdainful and rude to her. She interferes in  the Bingley-Jane relationship because, in her opinion, the Bennets are unsuitable.
• Wickham dreams of a life of ease. He pursues women with money and uses his  charm to disguise his dishonourable motives.
• Lady Catherine's aim is for Darcy to marry her daughter. For this reason, she  confronts Elizabeth about her relationship with Darcy because she wants to secure  the preservation of the old order.
• Charlotte Lucas marries Mr Collins to secure her future. Candidates might argue  that while she has the interests of her future at heart, she is unselfish in not wanting  to be a burden to her parents.
• Mr Collins wants to ingratiate himself with Lady Catherine and will marry because  she expects him to.
• Candidates might argue that Elizabeth is driven by self-interest when she  contemplates the affluence of Pemberley and recalls the material possessions she  could have had if she had accepted Darcy's proposal.
• However, there are characters not driven by self-interest. These include the  Gardiners, who genuinely care for the Bennet girls, and Jane.
• Darcy's unselfish, empathetic nature is illustrated by his housekeeper's description  of him.
• Darcy's intervention in the Lydia-Wickham affair is unselfish. He does so to save the  family embarrassment. On the other hand, candidates might argue that Darcy is  driven by self-interest to gain Elizabeth's favour.
• Darcy's interference in the Bingley-Jane relationship is motivated by his concern for  Bingley, as well as his snobbishness. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 9: PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION  
9.1 Lydia is attracted to the officers in their 'scarlet' coats and she pursues them at  every opportunity. She visits Brighton in search of fun. Her concept of romance  is based on physical attraction and romantic stereotyping. She finally elopes  with Wickham, who is an officer. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.2 In Mr Collins's letter he spoke about his desire to heal the breach that had  existed between his father and the Bennets. He makes reference to his  patroness, Lady Catherine, which impresses Mrs Bennet. He describes his  desire to make amends to the Bennet girls. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.3 Mr Bennet chooses to remain as disengaged as possible from the concerns of  the people around him. This is typical of his parental style since he avoids  making decisions regarding his family or exerting an influence on them. He is  irresponsible and chooses to remain silent when he could have participated in  discussion about important aspects of the lives of those around him. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.4 For most women, marriage is a necessity since they rely on men to support  them. A law that favours males over females sees women like the Bennet girls  at the mercy of a male relative because they are forbidden to inherit property.  Women are not permitted to work or attend social events unchaperoned. The  option of remaining single is a dismal alternative. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas will discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.5 When Mrs Bennet first hears about Mr Collins's visit, she is furious. She thinks  that it is 'impertinent' and 'hypocritical' of him to write to them under the  circumstances. Perhaps she has the idea that he is visiting them to gloat over  his good fortune. Ironically, her own hypocrisy is evident as she has been  critical of him, but now she claims to absolve him of all blame for the situation. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.6 Elizabeth is witness to Charlotte's life with Mr Collins and the interfering Lady  Catherine. She feels sorry for her friend, who has to endure not only Mr  Collins's constant fawning on Lady Catherine, but also his overbearing  arrogance. In addition, Charlotte's life is lived according to Lady Catherine's  dictates. She appears to be sandwiched between the two with no prospect of  escape. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3)
9.7 The novel satirises the obsequious attitude to the nobility of those of lower  social position. Maria Lucas is overwhelmed with excitement at having had the  opportunity to dine and have tea with someone of Lady Catherine's stature.  She will undoubtedly be an object of envy when she shares the details of those  visits with people of her own class. She has been afforded a rare privilege and  her own status in her community will be elevated. The preoccupation with the  trivial obscures any consideration of substantial matters. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.8 Valid. 
Normally, Elizabeth is forthright in her opinions. Except in the interests of  propriety, she does not usually disguise her own feelings. Here she is  concealing her thoughts and feelings. For the first time she is overwhelmed  emotionally. She has received a marriage proposal from Darcy and does not  know how to react to it. She is in a dilemma for the first time since it is difficult  for her to verbalise this momentous event. Because of her ethics and normally  frank opinions, it is unusual for Elizabeth to experience contradictions. 
OR  
Invalid. 
[Such a response is unlikely; however, treat all responses on their merits.] 

[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to the novel as a whole.] (4) [25]

THE GREAT GATSBY – F Scott Fitzgerald 
QUESTION 10: THE GREAT GATSBY – ESSAY QUESTION 

The proficient candidate will recognise that this statement is not entirely true and argue  that it is partly valid and partly invalid. 

• Daisy is motivated by self-interest. She is spoilt, superficial and purposeless. She  lacks maternal feelings and treats her daughter like a possession to be shown off. ∙ Despite Daisy's love for Gatsby, she cannot remain faithful. It is important for her to  be part of the social scene. She marries Tom and chooses to remain with him out of  self-interest.
• When Daisy kills Myrtle, she does not accept responsibility.
• Tom's actions are driven by self-interest. He has had many affairs and shows no  respect or concern for his wife.
• Myrtle believes that Tom will marry her; however, he has no intention of doing so.  When he does not like her behaviour, he hits her. 
• He toys with Wilson about the car as a pretext to facilitate his affair with Myrtle and  shows no sympathy for Wilson's predicament.
• Jordan has questionable morals; her actions are dictated by self-interest. She  remains aloof when there is conflict. She enjoys gossip and eavesdrops on Tom  and Daisy's arguments, but does not offer comfort to a distraught Daisy at the Plaza  Hotel. After witnessing the scene of Myrtle's death, she feels no compassion.
• Myrtle acts out of self-interest, marrying George, thinking he is wealthy and then  callously discarding him when she realises he is poor. She sees her affair as a  means of escape from her trapped life.
• Gatsby's actions are motivated by his dream of winning Daisy and proving to her  that he is worthy of her. However, his single-minded dedication to his dream means  that he acts selfishly to attain his goals. 
• Nick does not usually act out of self-interest. He grows to admire Gatsby and  understands him. He is Gatsby's only friend at the end of the novel and shows  concern for his wellbeing. He alone takes responsibility for Gatsby's funeral, even  though he is under no obligation to do so.
• The party-goers are motivated by self-interest, abusing Gatsby's hospitality. Except  for Owl Eyes, none of them attends the funeral. 

[Candidates may provide a range of examples in support of their statements.]
[Credit mixed responses/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 11: THE GREAT GATSBY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
11.1 Gatsby is nervous and ill-at-ease. He tries to assume a nonchalant pose by  leaning against the mantelpiece; however, he is very awkward and unsure of  what to do or how to behave. The reason for this is that he has waited for five  long years to reconcile with Daisy, but now that the moment has come, he is  plagued by doubts and not confident that Daisy will be pleased to see him. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.2 Since arriving in New York, Nick has turned a blind eye to the immoral  behaviour of various people. He facilitates the reunion between Gatsby and  Daisy, ignoring the fact that Daisy will be committing adultery. He accepts  Tom's affair with Myrtle, the immoral behaviour at the parties, as well as  Jordan's dishonesty. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.3 The clock symbolises Gatsby's attempt to stop time and recreate the past. He  later tells Nick that he wants things to be exactly as they were before he left  Louisville for the war. The fact that the clock is 'defunct' clearly symbolises the  impossibility of this happening and the unrealistic nature of his dream.  Moreover, the instability/vulnerability of events in time is suggested. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.4 Gatsby's response is precise. He can remember exactly how long they have  been apart, which clearly reveals that his whole being, from the time they  parted, has been dominated by thoughts of Daisy. His attitude reveals his  obsession with her, as well as his single-minded determination to win her back. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.5 Daisy's insistence shows that she wants to avoid a confrontation between Tom  and Gatsby. She would prefer things to continue as they are as she is not  prepared to make a choice between Tom and Gatsby. She also dislikes conflict  and will do anything to avoid such an unpleasant situation. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.6 Gatsby's belief that his relationship with Daisy has been 'going on for five  years' is based on an illusion as he and Daisy have not been together during  this period. While he may have been faithful to his dream of being with her,  Daisy has moved on and built a life with Tom. 
[Award 3 marks only if the difference between illusion and reality is discussed.] (3)
11.7 Nick, the narrator, compares Tom's behaviour to that of a 'clergyman',  someone of supposed high moral stature. Tom is a philanderer and his self righteous attitude toward Daisy and Gatsby's affair is ironic. He has no moral  qualms about his own extramarital affairs, but here he adopts a holier-than thou attitude. It is Nick's satirical observation on Tom's sanctimonious  behaviour. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas. (3) 
11.8 Valid.  
In the given observation, Nick comments that Daisy had never intended to  leave Tom for Gatsby. This clearly illustrates that she has been dishonest with  Gatsby as he is under the impression that Daisy is his. Although she enjoys an  affair with Gatsby, she is unable to commit to him as she prefers her secure life  with Tom. Her dishonesty is also apparent when she allows Gatsby to take the  blame for Myrtle's death. 
Jordan is a dishonest woman who lies and cheats at golf, in order to gain  materially and maintain her social status. She also regards infidelity as wrong  only if one is indiscreet. Myrtle deceives her husband by having an affair with  Tom. 
OR  
Invalid 
[Such a response is unlikely; however, treat all responses on their merits.] 
[Award 4 marks only if the candidate has made reference to the novel as a  whole.] (4)

[25] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 

When people feel effectively omnipotent, they abuse their power and manipulate others  to satisfy their own needs. Candidates, however, might argue that not all characters  with the requisite power abuse it. 

• The Duke does not abuse his power: he displays fairness.
• Initially Othello is fair and just. However, he later abuses his authority/power.
• Othello's pride, insecurities and fear of humiliation lead to his abuse of his position  as husband. He verbally abuses and eventually murders Desdemona.
• His denying Desdemona and Cassio the chance to defend themselves also  demonstrates his abuse of power. He acts as judge and executioner.
• Candidates might argue that it is not Othello's abuse of power that motivates him, but his jealousy.
• Iago's greatest satisfaction comes from asserting his power and superiority over  others. He derives sadistic pleasure from the suffering of his victims.
• Iago's power comes from his superior intellect, his excellent understanding of  human nature, and his ability to discern his victims' weaknesses/vulnerabilities,  which he then exploits: Cassio's weak head for alcohol and need for  popularity/social success; Roderigo's gullibility and lust for Desdemona; Emilia's  desire to please him (Iago).
• Iago taps into Othello's insecurities to drive him mad with jealousy in order to take  revenge on him.
• Iago uses Desdemona's generosity of spirit and loyalty to enmesh her in his plans  to destroy her marriage to Othello.
• Iago abuses people's inaccurate perception of him as honest in order to manipulate  them. He plays God by ending their lives once their usefulness to him is over. ∙ Brabantio abuses his position as a senator and nobleman in Venice in his attempt  to satisfy his desire to have Othello punished.
• Cassio abuses both his social status and his identity as a man in his mistreatment  of Bianca. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
13.1 Othello is sent to Cyprus to conduct the war. Iago is in another ship, with  Desdemona. The ships are caught in a very bad storm. There is fear for their  safety. Iago and Desdemona's safe arrival is cause for great relief. 
[Award 3 marks for any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.2 Cassio's attitude to Desdemona is respectful and admiring. He puts her on a  pedestal. The word, 'divine' suggests she is like a goddess. He also refers to  her as precious treasure on board the ship. 
Iago uses sexual innuendo when referring to Desdemona. He is disrespectful  when referring to her as being 'full of game'. In his comments to Othello, he  suggests that her choice of Othello as husband is unnatural and abnormal. 
[Award 3 marks only if both Cassio's and Iago's attitudes are discussed.]
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.3 Referring to Desdemona as Othello's 'captain' suggests that Desdemona is  important in Othello's life and that she has influence over him. Othello's  emotions are therefore that much easier to control because his love for  Desdemona makes him vulnerable. If Iago then raises doubts about her in  Othello's mind, he will cause Othello to act irrationally and to destroy himself. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.4 The storm is a device used by Shakespeare to remove the Turkish threat,  allowing the reader to focus on Iago's plot to destroy Othello. 
Symbolically, the storm is a foreshadowing of the destruction and chaos that  will be unleashed as a result of Iago's machinations. The storm is also symbolic  of the chaos unleashed in Othello's mind as a result of his overwhelming  jealousy, as well as the conflict between his love for Desdemona and his desire  to make her pay for her betrayal of their love. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.5 When Iago uses the words 'duty' and 'slave', he uses them ironically, to create  the impression that he is subservient and loyal. However, he disregards 'duty' and all other virtues. He focuses only on himself and has no honour. He does  not regard himself as bonded to anybody. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3)
13.6 For example, Iago might raise his arms in a pleading manner. He might place  one hand on his heart, with the other outstretched toward Othello. This would  be to convince Othello of his sincerity. 
His tone might be concerned/sincere/self-effacing in order to convince Othello  that he has Othello's best interests at heart. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate discusses both body language and tone.]
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] (3) 
13.7 Cassio and Othello regard their reputations as crucial to their honour. When  Cassio is stripped of his position as a result of his drunken brawling, he is  devastated about losing his reputation, referring to it as 'the immortal part' of  himself. He is desperate to regain his reputation as well as Othello's esteem. 
Othello, too, highly prizes his reputation as a soldier, as well as the regard in  which he is held by the Duke and the Senate. He believes that Desdemona's  alleged infidelity is a stain on his reputation. 
Iago, on the other hand, uses the concept of reputation expediently and to  manipulate characters. In this extract, he calls reputation 'the immediate jewel' of men's souls. In order to win Cassio's trust and to use him in his plot to  destroy Othello, Iago dismisses reputation as a 'false imposition' which is  unfairly gained. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.8 Iago's manipulative strategy ensures that he keeps Othello's trust and creates  the impression that he has Othello's best interests at heart. This exacerbates  Othello's mistrust of Cassio and Desdemona, and ultimately leads to his desire  to have them both killed. 
Despite the fact that Othello has pledged his trust in Desdemona's love and  loyalty ('my life upon her faith'), he later believes Iago and doubts Desdemona,  leading to the tragic ending of the play. 
Brabantio mistrusts Othello's courting and marrying his daughter. This causes  a rift in his relationship with Desdemona, later resulting in his own death.  Othello's insecurities are awakened by Brabantio's words. This makes Othello  more susceptible to Iago's innuendo, contributing to the tragedy. 
Candidates might argue that other factors, such as Othello's and Desdemona's  naivety, as well as Iago's deviousness, are important elements in the tragedy. 
[Award 4 marks only if candidates discuss how mistrust culminates in tragedy.] (4)

[25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Abigail and the girls are granted unusual power which goes largely unchallenged.  Their recently-gained respect makes them arrogant. They abuse their power for  their own selfish interests, leading to tragedy.
• The girls are prepared to protect their power at all costs, even to the extent of  sacrificing innocent people. They ruthlessly exploit the villagers' superstitions and  turn on anyone who dares to challenge them.
• The girls are remorseless in their accusations. They have no concern for the people  they accuse, even morally upright and frail villagers like Rebecca Nurse. They  conspire and target the weak, such as Mary Warren.
• Abigail is merciless and exercises tyrannical power over the girls. She has  persuaded them to cast spells in the woods. She threatens them with death if they  dare tell the truth. Abigail is the instigator of the attack on Mary Warren in the court. 
• Abigail cruelly exploits the trials and her new-found respect. She is callously  prepared to sacrifice Elizabeth to satisfy her desire for Proctor.
• Some exploit the gullibility of the other villagers to settle grudges and satisfy their  greed for land. They become increasingly corrupt to feed their desire for  vengeance.
• Parris is believed to be honest and immune to witchcraft. He abuses this belief to  further his power and status in the village. He shamelessly sacrifices others to  protect his reputation. Parris is a corrupt hypocrite who brazenly participates in the  trials once he realises the advantages.
• Hale is arrogant and abuses the respect the villagers initially have for his 'scientific' knowledge of witchcraft. This single-minded and uncompromising attitude gives rise  to the hysteria.
• The judges, aided and abetted by the court officials, take advantage of the fame  and power they derive from the trials. They are too arrogant and selfish to show  compassion when they realise they have been deceived. Instead, they callously  continue the executions to protect their power and escape censure.
• Elizabeth is self-absorbed and too proud to forgive Proctor in spite of his best  efforts. On the other hand, she selflessly compromises her morality, to some extent,  by lying to protect Proctor. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
15.1 Ruth's mother (Mrs Putnam) sends her to commune with her dead babies to  find out what has caused their deaths. Ruth joins Tituba and the other girls to  cast a spell in the woods. They are caught by Parris. Ruth is afraid of the  repercussions and has apparently fallen ill in an attempt to escape punishment. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.2 Hale is supposedly experienced in rooting out witchcraft, yet he has 'found' only  one alleged witch. Parris believes that Hale will refute the rumours of witchcraft;  however, Hale is determined to find evidence of witchcraft. Parris wishes to use  Hale as a safety measure to discount accusations of witchcraft, but Hale only  intensifies the hysteria. On the one hand, Parris wants to use Hale as a  safeguard ('precaution'), while, on the other, he will exploit Hale's fervour to  uncover witchcraft. It is ironic, therefore, that Parris relies on Hale to save the  situation while Hale actually exacerbates it. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.3 The inhabitants use the supposed presence of the devil to accuse others of  witchcraft. The accused are helpless in the face of the accusations. The  villagers use the alleged presence of evil to serve their own nasty purposes,  namely revenge, as in the case of Abigail and Mrs Putnam, and/or personal  gain, as in the case of Mr Putnam's wanting to grab more land. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.4 Putnam is saying that the events that are unfolding in Salem are a result of  God's intervention. However, these events have been brought about by the  girls who are pretending to be afflicted in order to avoid punishment for  behaving contrary to Puritan values. Moreover, Putnam is a hypocrite since he  is willing to use these events for material gain. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.5 Proctor is both rational and perceptive. He is outspoken and determined to  stand for what is right. He has a forceful character and a passionate preference  for honesty. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.6 Proctor brings Mary to court in an attempt to refute the girls' lies and save  Elizabeth. The stage directions make it clear that Danforth does not want Mary  to expose the truth since he is too arrogant to admit that he has been  responsible for the execution of innocent people. Mary is intimidated by  Danforth's attempts to frighten her into submission. His aggressive style of  talking and body language are threatening and make her hesitant. Mary is in a  position to disrupt the court proceedings and judgements, and Danforth is  determined to prevent her from revealing the truth. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR any three distinct ideas.] (3)
15.7 Abigail might look fearful and desperate. She might be cowering in a  corner/holding her hands up to ward off the 'yellow bird'. Her face might be  contorted in 'fear'. Her tone might be anxious/panicky/fearful/desperate in order  to convince those present that there really is evil in the room and that Mary  does have supernatural powers. Abigail has to put on a display so that the girls' deception is not exposed. Abigail's plan to destroy Elizabeth is working and she  will not allow anything to thwart her. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to and motivates both body  language and tone.] 
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] (3) 
15.8 Hale remains logical and rational, and attempts to remind Danforth that he  needs to listen objectively and maintain perspective. Danforth is arrogant and  refuses to listen to reason. He adamantly perseveres in his single-minded  determination to root out witchcraft. 
Since Hale's advice is ignored, the implication for Salem is that the innocent  people are hanged, while the girls are allowed to wield power and exact  revenge on their chosen victims. The court proceedings are allowed to  continue; Danforth's power and reputation increase and more lives are  destroyed. The conflict leads to Hale's brief departure from Salem, which  allows the hysteria to escalate unchecked. 
[Award 4 marks only if the candidate has discussed both characters.] 
[Award 4 marks for any three points well discussed OR any four distinct ideas.] (4)

[25] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 25 
GRAND TOTAL: 80

SECTION A: Assessment rubric for literary essay – Poetry (10) 

• A creative response must be awarded 0 for Content and 0 for Language and Structure.

SECTION B AND C: Assessment rubric for literary essay – Novel and Drama (25) 

• There must not be more than two categories' variation between the Structure and Language mark and the Content mark.
• A creative response must be awarded 0 for Content and 0 for Language and Structure.

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 
Marking the comprehension: 

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in  responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the  meaning/understanding. (Errors must still be indicated.)
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined,  disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise.  However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an  answer, this will be acceptable. 
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/ I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be  considered. 
• No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be considered. 
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence,  mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first  two/three. 
• Accept dialectal variations. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING 
1.1 Under normal circumstances, a major international event would attract a wide  audience, showing how popular extreme sport has become./The jump was  not the usual type of event to attract mass attention/People love to see how  far boundaries can be pushed. 
[Award 2 marks for any of the above alternatives.] (2)
1.2 It is an event that is unusual and defies logic. 
[Accept synonymous words and phrases, e.g. strange/weird.] (2) 
1.3 The rhetorical questions probe the core issues of why people engage in  extreme sports. 
OR 
The rhetorical questions elicit a response from the reader./Encourage the  reader to become directly involved. 
Rhetorical questions elicit a response. [Award 1 mark only.] (2) 
1.4 There is a contradiction in people’s response to danger: in order to survive,  some will fight for their lives, but others will run away (fight-or-flight). Both  groups see their actions as essential for survival. (3) 
1.5 The repetition of 'more' supports the notion that human beings readily adapt  to dangerous situations when they regularly participate in risky activities./ Human beings have an insatiable need for the thrill of danger. (2) 
1.6 The writer uses a foreboding tone to reiterate how an individual's choices  determine his/her destiny/fate.  
[Accept synonyms for ‘foreboding’, e.g. ominous/harsh.] (2) 
1.7 The direct speech creates a celebratory tone and it has dramatic effect. It  makes the speaker's achievement more real. He feels reaffirmed. The reader  is invited to identify with the positive experience and envision a sense of  accomplishment. (3) 
1.8 Taking risks is a life-changing experience and it allows the individual to  reassess his/her value system. Facing death makes people surer of what they  believe in/they become more spiritual and they see their own position among  others and on the scale of eternity more clearly. 
[Award a maximum of TWO marks for mere lifting.] (3)
1.9 There is a distinct link between the introductory paragraph and the conclusion  of the text. In both paragraphs Felix Baumgartner's famous risky jump is  mentioned. Paragraph 10 brings about cohesion in the text as a whole because it is thematically linked with the preceding paragraphs. The  concluding paragraph creates a sense of anticipation in the reader; it  suggests that the writer wants to challenge the reader to explore 'the limit'.  
[Credit cogent alternative responses.] (3) 
1.10 The child stares directly at the reader and draws the reader into the situation  being focused on. The child appears to be vulnerable; this is intended to elicit sympathy/concern from the reader. 
[Award 2 marks for two points or 2 marks for any single idea well discussed.] (2) 
1.11 The emotive statement, 'Promise you will buy me …' introduces an innocent  plea for safety by a vulnerable child. The use of personal pronouns like 'I',  'you' and 'me' makes the message more personal. The diction in Text B  reinforces the message – the natural need for protection.  
'A helmet when … promise me' emphasises the responsibility of the adult in  promoting development in the child and protecting her from any possible  injury and safe-guarding her future. The use of 'promise you will' and 'promise  me' emphasise the child's trust in the adult. 
[Award 3 marks for any three distinct ideas OR 3 marks for any two well discussed ideas.] (3) 
1.12 YES 
Text B is relevant to the information in Text A because it focuses on the  natural need for protection in risky activities. This need is debunked in Text A.  In Text B, an innocent child makes a plea to her parents or guardians for  protection – the helmet. In Text A, the individual takes responsibility for  his/her own risky action. In contrast with the girl in Text B, Text A presents the risk-taker as fearless and one who seeks an adrenaline rush, irrespective of  the consequences. Text B is thus relevant in the sense that it highlights the  importance of most-needed safety features when one participates in extreme  activities.  

NO 

Text B is not relevant to the information in Text A; while Text A concentrates  on extreme activities that are more risky than ordinary sporting codes, Text B focuses on a child's need for protection when he/she participates in sports.  The child in Text B displays a natural need for protection and safety. In  contrast with this, the adults in Text A are willing to compromise the natural  need for safety by participating in life-threatening and extreme sports.  
[Credit cogent alternative responses.] (3)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS  
Use the following main points that the candidate should include in the summary as a  guideline. 
Any 7 valid points in paragraph-form are to be credited. 
(Sentences and/or sentence fragments must be coherent.) 

PARAGRAPH-FORM 
NOTE: What follows is merely an example. It is not prescriptive and must be used very  carefully.

Marking the summary: 
The summary should be marked as follows: 

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
  • 3 marks for language
  • Total marks: 10
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim:
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim:
  • 6–7 quotations: award no language mark
  • 1–5 quotations: award 1 language mark 

NOTE: 

• Format: 
  Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be assessed.
• Word Count:
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of  words used or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly.
  • If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the  stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.
  • Summaries that are short but contain all the required main points should not be penalised. 

 TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS  
Marking SECTION C: 

• Spelling: 
  • One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect,  unless the error changes the meaning of the word. 
  • In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should not be penalised if the error  is in the language structure being tested. 
  • Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly.
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as  per instruction. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct.  

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
3.1 The advertiser emphasises the fact that this is a reputable brand. Its quality  has stood the test of time. (2) 
3.2 The illustration effectively conveys the advertiser's intention because attention  is drawn to the superior and the unusual characteristics of the product. The  watch's large size and unusual horizontal position accentuate its distinctive  features. (2) 
3.3 The inclusion of the statement was made for a specific reason – to identify a  definite target market, viz. men. The statement in bold could be perceived as  being sexist/stereotyped/biased in favour of men. It highlights the gender specific target market. The word 'engineered' reinforces the sense of the  sophisticated and special qualities of the watch. (3) 
3.4 The advertiser makes a personal appeal by using the second-person  pronoun. Emotive words/phrases, e.g. 'gigantic', 'even more impressive',  'envious glances' reinforce the notion that this product is a cut above the rest.  Jargon, e.g. 'Pellaton winding system', creates the impression that the watch  is technically sophisticated.  
The emotive diction and jargon could be perceived as elitist. 
[Award full marks only if candidate gives a critical evaluation of the diction.] (3) 
[Credit valid alternative responses.]  

[10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA 
4.1 The boy is marginalised to the far left of frame 1./He is voiceless./The  speaker's tone and the girls' facial expression show hostility./The bold 'YOU' shows the speaker's domineering attitude. 
[Award 2 marks for TWO valid points.] (2) 
4.2 In frame 2, the boy's head is moving from side to side and this illustrates his  reaction to the overbearing assault. Both girls are verbally abusing him. He is  left completely confused. 
In frame 3, the boy's slumped shoulders show that he is completely defeated.  He is left depressed because he is rejected. The speech bubble illustrates his  state of mind.  
[Award 2 marks only if candidate makes reference to both frames 2 and 3.] (2) 
4.3 The bold font effectively highlights the authoritarian/demanding/domineering  tone. The use of several exclamation marks shows that the girls raise their  voices and shout at the boy in unison. The repetition of the command, 'GO  ON HOME' underlines how adamant the girls are.  
[Award 3 marks for any three points OR 3 marks for any two well-discussed  points.] (3) 
4.4 The last frame is grimly ironic. The girls blame the boy for his dejection, while  they are wholly responsible for his lack of humour. The girls take no  responsibility for their abusive actions. They are utterly insensitive.  
[Accept responses that discuss the nature and effects of bullying, with  reference to the cartoon.] 
[The explicit use of the word irony or its derivatives is not necessary for full  marks.] 
[Credit cogent alternative responses.] (3)

[10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY  
5.1 B adjective (1)
5.2 It is a book/film title. (1)
5.3 I thought he was attractive/good-looking. 
[Accept appropriate formal English synonyms.] (1)
5.4 perfect singing voice/flawless singing voice (1) 
5.5 I thought that those crushes were incomprehensible (1), the ones to which  one/you could assign no sense or meaning (1). 
[Award 1 mark for the first and second pair of words respectively.] (2) 
5.6 You will never meet someone who is the ideal crush object. (1) 
[Accept ...someone that…] 
5.7 would have together/would have had together 
[If the candidate changes are to would be, the second verb must be would  have had together.] (1)
5.8. stationery (1)
5.9 it exists 
Crashes … they exist (1)

[10] 
TOTAL SECTION C:  30 
GRAND TOTAL: 70

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections:
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Transactional Texts (2 x 25) (50)
2. Answer ONE question in SECTION A and TWO questions in SECTION B.
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
5. You must plan (e.g. using a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words), edit and  proofread your work. The plan must appear BEFORE the answer.
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line through all planning. 
7. You are strongly advised to spend your time as follows:
   SECTION A: approximately 80 minutes
   SECTION B: approximately 70 (2 x 35) minutes
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
9. The title/heading must NOT be included when doing a word count. 
10. Write neatly and legibly. 

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics. 
Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay.  
1.1 'Only from the heart can you touch the sky.' (Rumi) [50] 
1.2 The silence of my narrative [50]
1.3 Messages in the streets [50]
1.4 A bridge too far … [50]
1.5 'The worst sin towards our fellow creatures is not to hate them, but to be  indifferent to them: that is the essence of inhumanity.' 

(George Bernard Shaw) [50] 

1.6 The pictures reproduced below and on the next page may evoke a reaction or  feeling in you or stir your imagination.  
Select ONE picture and write an essay in response. Write the question  number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3) of your choice and give your essay a title. 
NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you  have chosen. 

1.6.1 

[Source: www.genius.com] [50] 

1.6.2
 
[Source: www.genius.com]

[50] 

1.6.3 

[Source: http://4.bp.blogspot.com]

[50] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to TWO of the following topics.
• The body of each of your answers should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines)  in length.
• Pay careful attention to the following:
  • Audience, register, tone and style
  • Choice of words and language structure
  • Format
• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen,  e.g. 2.1 Speech.  

2.1 SPEECH 
The World Health Organisation claims that there is a significant increase in  diabetes, heart disease and obesity among young people. One of the major  causes of these diseases is living an inactive lifestyle. This is a matter of concern to your community.  
As a health and lifestyle coach in your community, you have been invited to  present a speech on the importance of participation in sport/physical activity and how an active lifestyle could combat diseases. Write the speech.  
You may use the image below as inspiration.  

[Source: www.antalya-outdoor.com]

[25]

2.2 FORMAL REPORT 
You are a youth member of the Social Welfare Committee of the local  municipality. The mayor has requested you to investigate unemployment  levels in your community. 
Write a formal report in which you record your findings and make  recommendations.

[25] 

2.3 OBITUARY  
There have been a number of protests in your area. A close friend of yours  lost his/her life during one of these uprisings. 
Write an obituary honouring him/her.

[25]

2.4 NEWSPAPER ARTICLE 
Write a newspaper article with the headline:  

QUALITY EDUCATION DOES NOT HAVE A PRICE TAG!

[25]

2.5 INTERVIEW 
You have been crowned Miss/Mr Earth South Africa for your active  participation in various conservation campaigns. In dialogue form, write the  interview that takes place between you and a reporter from a leading  conservation magazine.

[25]

2.6 LETTER TO THE PRESS 
A competition that promotes innovative ideas was advertised in a national  newspaper. However, this competition has not met your expectations. Write a  letter to the press in which you express your dissatisfaction about the event  and suggest how it could be improved.

[25] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Read this page carefully before you begin to answer the questions. 
2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of contents  on page 4 and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts you have  studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the ones you  wish to answer. 
3. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Poetry (30)
   SECTION B: Novel (25)
   SECTION C: Drama (25)
4. Answer FIVE QUESTIONS in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B  and ONE in SECTION C as follows:
   SECTION A: POETRY
   PRESCRIBED POETRY – Answer TWO questions.
   UNSEEN POETRY – COMPULSORY question.
   SECTION B: NOVEL
   Answer ONE question.
   SECTION C: DRAMA 
   Answer ONE question.
5. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA):
   • Answer questions ONLY on the novel and the drama you have studied.
   • Answer ONE essay question and ONE contextual question. If you answer  the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the contextual  question in SECTION C. 
     If you answer the contextual question in SECTION B, you must answer  the essay question in SECTION C. 
     Use the checklist to assist you. 
6. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
   • The essay question on Poetry should be answered in about 250–300  words.
   • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered  in 400–450 words.
   • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by  the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and  relevance. 
7. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully.
8. Number your answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
9. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
10. Suggested time management:
    SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
    SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
    SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes
11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS 

*NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, answer ONE ESSAY and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.
CHECKLIST 
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.  

NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, ensure that you have answered ONE ESSAY question  and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. 
You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
Answer any TWO of the following questions.  
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the question that follows. 

'Autumn' explores the idea of regeneration and hope. 
With close reference to diction, imagery and tone, critically discuss this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words  (about ONE page).

[10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

2.1 What impression does the speaker convey in his reference to 'Those grown  men' (line 2)? (2) 
2.2 Comment on the use of the word, 'gallantly' (line 7). (2)
2.3 Refer to lines 15–16: 'Groping their blind way back/To noble youth'. Discuss the appropriateness of the image in the context of the poem. (3) 
2.4 Critically discuss how the contrast in the last stanza reflects the satirical  nature of the poem. (3)

[10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

3.1 Refer to the title.  
How does the inclusion of the word, 'laugh' contribute to your understanding  of the central idea of the poem? (2)
3.2 Refer to lines 3–4: 'holding their lips this/and that way'. 
Suggest why the old folks would have behaved in this manner. (2)
3.3 Refer to lines 9–11: 'The hollers/rise … way they want.' 
Comment on the appropriateness of this image in the context of the poem as  a whole. (3) 
3.4 Refer to lines 22–25: 'When old folks … happening/to them.' 
Critically discuss how the paradox in these lines conveys the attitude of old  folks toward life. (3)

[10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

4.1 How does the inclusion of the word, 'nested' (line 4) convey the difference  between man and birds? (2) 
4.2 Comment on the effect of the repetition of 'toward' (line 32) in the poem. (2)
4.3 Refer to line 8: 'Or the dull thunder of approximate words.' 
Discuss the appropriateness of this image in the context of the poem as a  whole. (3) 
4.4 Refer to lines 38–40: 'At worst, one … not keeping still.' 
Critically discuss whether these lines suggest a contradiction in the way in  which people respond to life. (3)

[10] 

AND

UNSEEN POETRY (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: UNSEEN POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

Glossary:

¹convalesces – recovers; recuperates  
²prognathous – having a projecting lower jaw or chin 
³manganese – greyish-white metallic appearance
⁴manna – God-given food 

5.1 What impression of the day is created by the use of the word, 'ash' (line 2)? (2)
5.2 Refer to line 5: 'a wild, erratic exodus of bats'. 
Describe how this line contributes to the mood in the second stanza. (2)
5.3 Refer to lines 14–15: 'They've hung like foetuses all day/in iron darkness'. Comment on the appropriateness of the imagery in these lines. (3)
5.4 Refer to lines 17–20: 'Skinny little birds … crammed with manna.' 
Critically discuss how these lines convey the speaker's attitude toward  the bats. (3)

[10] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied. 
ANIMAL FARM – George Orwell 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 6: ANIMAL FARM – ESSAY QUESTION 
The characters in Animal Farm are driven by self-interest rather than concern for  others.  
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages).

[25] 

QUESTION 7: ANIMAL FARM – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION  
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT A  

7.1 Using this extract as a starting point, discuss how the animals' present  circumstances differ from what they had envisaged. (3) 
7.2 Explain the importance of the windmill on Animal Farm. (3)
7.3 Refer to lines 3–5: 'the outside world … not finished on time.' 
Discuss the implications for the animals of being watched closely by the  outside world. (3) 
7.4 Refer to lines 15–16: 'but the other animals ... "I will work harder!" ' 
In your opinion, is Boxer's attitude toward making a success of Animal Farm  harmful to the animals? Justify your response. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT B  

7.5 Refer to lines 20–21: 'You would often ... in six days".' 
Explain the irony of the hen's praising of Napoleon. (3)
7.6 Refer to lines 9–12: 'When he did appear ... before Napoleon spoke.' 
Comment on how Orwell uses the cockerel to reflect Napoleon's changed  status. (3)
7.7 Refer to line 18: ' "our leader, Comrade Napoleon".' 
Comment on the effect that this reference to Napoleon is intended to have on  the animals. (3) 
7.8 Refer to lines 4–5: 'The animals … could no longer remember very clearly'.  When the past is not remembered, there are dangerous consequences. 
Using your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss the validity of the  above statement. (4)

[25]

PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – Jane Austen 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual  question)
QUESTION 8: PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – ESSAY QUESTION 
The characters in Pride and Prejudice are driven by self-interest rather than concern  for others.  
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages).

[25] 

QUESTION 9: PRIDE AND PREJUDICE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT C 

9.1 Refer to lines 2–4: 'It was next to ... any other colour.' 
Explain how the specific reference to the men wearing scarlet coats assists in  preparing the reader for Lydia's later actions. (3)
9.2 Refer to line 4: 'As for their mother ... of her ill-will'.  
Discuss how Mr Collins succeeds in impressing Mrs Bennet. (3)
9.3 Refer to line 8: 'Mr Bennet indeed said little'. 
How is Mr Bennet's reaction typical of his attitude toward the concerns of  those around him? (3) 
9.4 Refer to lines 14–15: 'he did not doubt … disposed of in marriage.' 
Discuss how these lines contribute to your understanding of the position of  women of the time. (3) 
9.5 Refer to lines 20–21: 'Not that I mean to find fault with you'. 
Comment on Mrs Bennet's hypocrisy in the context of her statement. (3)

AND 
EXTRACT D

9.6 Refer to line 1: 'Poor Charlotte! … to such society!' 
Account for Elizabeth's compassion for Charlotte. (3)
9.7 Refer to lines 21–22: 'We have dined … have to tell!' 
How do Maria Lucas's sentiments illustrate the values satirised in the novel? (3)
9.8 Refer to line 23: 'And how much I shall have to conceal.' 
This is an unusual thought for Elizabeth to express. 
Using your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss the validity of the  above statement. (4)

[25]

THE GREAT GATSBY – F Scott Fitzgerald 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 10: THE GREAT GATSBY – ESSAY QUESTION 
The characters in The Great Gatsby are driven by self-interest rather than concern for  others.  
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages).

[25]

QUESTION 11: THE GREAT GATSBY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.  
EXTRACT E

11.1 Account for Gatsby's behaviour in this extract. (3) 
11.2 Explain how Nick's reuniting Gatsby and Daisy is consistent with his  behaviour since coming to New York. (3) 
11.3 Refer to lines 3–4: 'His head leaned … defunct mantelpiece clock'. Discuss the symbolism of the clock in the context of the novel as a whole. (3)
11.4 Refer to line 19: 'Five years next November.' 
Critically comment on Gatsby's response to Daisy at this point in the novel. (3)
AND 
EXTRACT F

11.5 Refer to lines 3–4: 'Please let's all … all go home?' 
Account for Daisy's insistence that they 'all go home'. (3)
11.6 Refer to lines 10–13: 'I told you … for five years?' 
Explain how these lines illustrate the conflict between illusion and reality. (3)
11.7 Examine lines 17–18: 'Oh – that's all … in his chair.' 
Critically discuss what these lines reveal about narrator's attitude toward Tom. (3)
11.8 Refer to lines 25–26: 'and as though … anything at all.' 
Fitzgerald portrays the women in the novel as essentially dishonest. 
Using your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss the validity of the  above statement. (4)

[25] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 25 

AND
SECTION C: DRAMA 
Answer ONLY on the play you have studied. 
OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 
Shakespeare's play, Othello, suggests that when people believe they have complete  power, they abuse that power.  
Critically discuss the validity of this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages).

[25] 

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT G

13.1 Place this extract in context. (3) 
13.2 Refer to line 10: 'The divine Desdemona' and line 23: 'The riches of the ship is come ashore!' 
Explain how Cassio's attitude toward Desdemona differs from Iago's attitude  toward her elsewhere in the play. (3) 
13.3 Refer to line 12: 'our great Captain's captain'. 
Discuss how this detail about Desdemona is used by Iago to further his plans. (3) 1
3.4 Refer to lines 5–7: 'Tempests themselves, high … the guiltless keel'. Discuss the significance of the storm in the context of the play as a whole. (3)
AND 
EXTRACT H 

13.5 Refer to lines 2–3: 'Though I am bound ... slaves are free to.' 
Comment on Iago's ironic use of the words, 'duty' and 'slaves'. (3)
13.6 Refer to lines 13–23: 'I do beseech … know my thoughts.' 
If you were the director of a production of Othello, describe how you would  direct the actor to play Iago in this extract. Motivate your answer with  reference to both body language and tone. (3) 
13.7 Refer to lines 25–26: 'Good name in man … of their souls.' 
Discuss the significance of reputation in the context of the play. (3)
13.8 Refer to line 10: 'Thou dost conspire against thy friend, Iago'. 
Using your knowledge of the play as a whole, discuss the extent to which  mistrust is an important element in the tragedy of Othello. (4)

[25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION  
The Crucible suggests that when people have supreme power, they abuse that power.  Critically discuss the validity of this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages).

[25] 

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT I

15.1 Account for Ruth's being 'sick' (line 10). (3)
15.2 Refer to lines 21–22: 'A precaution only. … demonic arts'. 
Explain the irony of the trust that Parris places in Hale. (3)
15.3 Refer to lines 11–13: 'I'd not call it sick ... forked and hoofed.' 
Discuss how this idea is used by some inhabitants of Salem to further their  own interests. (3) 
15.4 Refer to line 4: 'It is a providence the thing is out now! It is a providence.' 
Critically comment on Putnam's reference to 'providence' (i.e. God's  influencing human affairs) in this line. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT J

15.5 Discuss what Proctor's comments in this extract (lines 5, 13 and 20) reveal  about his character. (3)
15.6 Refer to the stage directions in lines 11, 17–18 and 24. 
Comment critically on what these stage directions indicate about Mary's role  in the play. (3) 
15.7 If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, describe how you  would direct the actor playing Abigail in this extract. Motivate your answer with reference to both body language and tone. (3) 
15.8 Examine lines 6–23: 'Why did you turn … nothing, Your Honour!'  
Critically discuss the implications of the conflicting attitudes of Danforth and  Hale, for Salem society. (4)

[25] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL:  80