BUSINESS STUDIES
GRADE 12 
MEMORANDUM
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

NOTES TO MARKERS 

1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
   Marker: Red 
   Senior Marker: Green  
   Deputy Chief Marker: Brown 
   Chief Marker:  Pink 
   Internal Moderator:  Orange 
   DBE Moderator:  Turquoise
2. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.  However, this would depend on the nature of the question. 
3. A comprehensive memorandum has been provided but this is by no means  exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
   • uses a different expression from that which appears in the memorandum
   • comes from another source
   • original
   • a different approach is used
     NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A. 
4.  Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks  accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some  understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead  of the maximum of two marks.) 
5. The word 'Sub-max' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a  question or sub-question.
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on  the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of  scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the  subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max' in the memo. Only the total for each question should appear in the left-hand  margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and  related to the question.
9. Incorrect numbering of answers to questions or sub-questions in SECTIONS A  and B will be severely penalised. Therefore, correct numbering is strongly  recommended in all sections. 
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with a 'R'. 
11. Note that no marks will be awarded for indicating Yes/No in evaluation type  questions requiring substantiation or motivation. (Applicable to SECTIONS B  and C.) 
12. The differentiation between 'evaluate' and 'critically evaluate' can be explained  as follows:
    12.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either  a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)  stance, e.g. Positive: 'COIDA eliminates time and costs spent√ on  lengthy civil court proceedings.'√
    12.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond  in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and  negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to  support their responses with more depth, e.g. 'COIDA eliminates time  and costs spent√ on lengthy civil court proceedings√, because the  employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for  injuries sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved  that the business was not negligent.'√
    NOTE: The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
13. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,  cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the memorandum and the context of  each question.
    Cognitive verbs, such as:
    13.1 Advise, name, state, mention, recommend, suggest, (list not  exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates' responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer  appears at the end.
    13.2 Describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, justify, devise, analyse,  evaluate, critically evaluate (list not exhaustive) require a greater depth  of understanding, application and reasoning. Therefore, the marks  must be allocated more objectively to ensure that assessing is  conducted according to established norms so that uniformity,  consistency and fairness are achieved.
14. SECTION B
    14.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE  responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line  across the unmarked portion or use the word 'Cancel'.
    NOTE: This applies only to questions where the number of facts is  specified.
    14.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit.  Point 14.1 above still applies.
    14.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this  at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers.
    14.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
           14.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require candidates  to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
    1. • Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the memorandum)
         Explanation 1 mark
         The 'fact' and 'explanation' are given separately in the memorandum to  facilitate mark allocation.

14.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks  must be informed by the nature of the question and the maximum mark  allocated in the memorandum. 

14.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires  one-word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This  applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable). 

15.  SECTION C
    15.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:

15.2 Insight consists of the following components: 

NOTE: 

1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the  introduction and conclusion. 
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated. 
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings  INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an  explanation.
4. With effect from November 2017 a candidate will be  awarded a maximum of ONE (1) mark for  headings/subheadings and ONE (1) mark for interpretation  (16 or more out of 32 marks). This applies specifically to the  analysis and interpretation part of insight. 

15.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A, S and/or O') 
15.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/ marking guidelines to each question. 
15.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has  been attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been  obtained.
15.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks  for insight as follows: 
(L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality) as in the table  below. 

15.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,  especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.  Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to  insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.  (See MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question.) 
15.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then  he/she may still obtain marks for layout. 
15.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are  assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the  memorandum. 
15.10

15.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for  phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers. 
15.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not  necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The  ticks (√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.  'Product development is a growth strategy√, where businesses aim  to introduce new products into existing markets.'√ This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as  well as the cognitive verb used.  

15.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts  shown as headings in the memo, will not necessarily apply to each question.  This would also depend on the nature of the question.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1

1.1.1 B√√ 
1.1.2 D√√ 
1.1.3 A√√ 
1.1.4 D√√ 
1.1.5 B√√ 
1.1.6 C√√ 
1.1.7 A√√ 
1.1.8 A√√ 
1.1.9 C√√ 
1.1.10 D√√ (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2

1.2.1 Consumer Protection Act√√ 
1.2.2 Managers√√ 
1.2.3 Retrenchment√√ 
1.2.4 Problem-solving√√ 
1.2.5 Piecemeal√√ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.3

1.3.1 E√√ 
1.3.2 J√√ 
1.3.3 F√√ 
1.3.4 I√√ 
1.3.5 H√√ (5 x 2) (10)

TOTAL SECTION A: 40 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

SECTION B 
Mark the FIRST THREE answers only. 
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS 
2.1 PESTLE analysis 

• Political√ 
• Economical√ 
• Social√ 
• Technological√
• Legal√
• Environmental√
  NOTE: Mark the first SIX (6) only. (6 x 1) (6) 

2.2 Business Environments and the extent of control 

NOTE: The extent of control must be linked to the business environment. Max (9) 

2.3 Learnerships 

• Theoretical/Practical training opportunities√ that can lead to a recognised  occupational qualification.√ 
• Structured learning programme√ completed during work hours for a specified period of time.√ 
• Agreement√ between a learner/trainee, employer and a training provider.√
• May include employment for a specified period√ after learnership is completed.√ 
• Includes a training course with learning material√ as well as practical work  experience.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the explanation of learnerships. Max (4) 

2.4 Integration strategies 
2.4.1 Backward integration/Backward√√ 
Motivation 

• GSS merged with Clear Beverages/a supplier of soft drink.√
  NOTE: Do not award marks for motivation without the correct identification  of the integration strategy.
  Identification (2)
  Motivation (1)
  Max (3) 

2.4.2 Other types of integration strategies 

• Forward integration√ 
• Horizontal integration√ (2)

2.4.3 Reasons why businesses use integration strategies  

• Businesses use integration strategies when they want to expand their scope of  operations.√√ 
• Distribution channels of products are shortened/middleman is eliminated,  therefore supply/distribution challenges are managed more effectively/Gain more  control over the distribution channel.√√ 
• Gain direct distribution by obtaining franchise/mergers/Take control of other  businesses which produce/sell similar products/services.√√ 
• Access new markets.√√ 
• New/Different products can be offered.√√ 
• Creates an opportunity for synergy, e.g. two businesses achieve more when combining resources.√√ 
• Reduce operating costs.√√ 
• Less competition, as similar businesses in the market were taken over/ eliminated.√√ 
• Ensure reliable flow of raw materials/finished goods at competitive prices.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to reasons why businesses may use  integration strategies.
  NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only. (3 x 2) (6)

2.5 National Credit Act 
2.5.1 Non-compliance by QCF 

• QCF makes loans available to anyone who needs cash at short notice.√
• QCF encourages people to apply for loans regardless of their financial status.√ 
• QCF uses misleading and deceptive methods to attract potential clients.√
  NOTE: 
  1. Only allocate marks for responses relating to non-compliance  with the NCA.
  2. Responses must be quoted from the scenario. (2 x 1) (2) 

2.5.2 Ways in which QCF can comply with the National Credit Act (NCA)

•  QCF should register with the National Credit Regulator.√√ 
• Submit an annual compliance report to the National Credit Regulator.√√
• Obtain credit records/checks of clients before granting loans.√√ 
• Conduct credit affordability assessments to ensure that clients are able to meet  their obligations on time.√√ 
• Offer applicants pre-agreement statements.√√ 
• Disclose all costs of a loan/No hidden costs should be charged/added.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to ways in which QCF can comply with NCA. Max (8) 

2.6 Impact of BBBEE on businesses 
Positives/Advantages  

• Previously disadvantaged workers will be skilled√ because businesses are  compelled to send them for skills training.√ 
• Compliance with BBBEE regarding the pillars√ will be rated high on the BEE  score card/may get government tenders.√ 
• Encourages businesses to address the demands for redress√ and equity  directly.√
• Provides a variety of business codes√ to improve employment equity.√ 
• Provides opportunities for/Empowers previously disadvantaged employees/ employers√ through uplifting socio-economic programmes.√ 
• Provides for human resources development√ through training.√ 
• Promotes enterprise development√, by developing entrepreneurial skills of  designated people/supporting them to start their own businesses.√ 
• Businesses will have a good overview on how it is performing√ with regard to  BBBEE requirements.√ 
• A good BEE rating√ will improve the image of the business.√ 
• By focusing on BBBEE, the business will show commitment√ towards social/  educational/economic development in the community/country.√ 
• Once rated, the business will understand how to develop strategies√ that will  increase its BEE ratings on an annual basis.√ 
• Fronting is discouraged√, as it may lead to the disqualification of a business's  entire score card/BEE status.√ 
• Share prices of BBBEE compliant businesses are likely to increase√ as they  attract more business.√ 
• Businesses that support Small, Micro, Medium Enterprises (SMMEs)√, may  increase their own BEE ratings.√ 
• Complying with BBBEE requirements gives businesses experience/exposure√ to  be able to provide better employment opportunities/staff development.√ 
   Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of BBBEE on  businesses. 
  AND/OR 

Negatives/Disadvantages  

• Businesses have to go through the process of having their BBBEE compliance  measured/verified√ by an independent BBBEE verification agency.√ 
• Businesses that want to do business with the government√, must have their  BEE status assessed annually.√ 
• Provides for preferential procurement√, so certain businesses may be excluded  from supplying goods/services.√ 
• Processes may lead to corruption/nepotism√, if not monitored properly.√
• Many businesses have been disadvantaged due to BEE ratings√ as they may  not be able to meet all the criteria for scoring.√
• Processes and procedures may be costly√ as there are many legal  requirements for scoring enough points to be compliant.√ 
• Large financial implications/penalties may be imposed √ if businesses do not  comply with BBBEE.√ 
• Expenditure increases in areas covered by the seven/five pillars of BBBEE√ to  obtain a good BEE rating.√ 
• Investment/Ownership issues√ can cause unhappiness amongst existing share holders/owners.√ 
   Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of BBBEE on  businesses. Max (10)

2.7 Effectiveness of the Employment Equity Act (EEA) on businesses

• Promotes equal opportunity√ and fair treatment in the workplace.√
• Ensures the implementation of affirmative action measures√ to redress the  imbalances in employment.√ 
• Encourages diversity in business √ by employing people from various racial/  cultural/religious backgrounds.√ 
• Provides all employees with an equal opportunity√ to be selected/appointed/  promoted in a position.√ 
• Prevents unfair discrimination against employees√ in any employment policy/ practice on one/more grounds, including race/gender/disability/language√, etc.
• Creates a framework of acceptable employment practices√ and affirmative  action measures.√
• Provides employees with legal recourse√ if they believe they have been unfairly  discriminated against.√ 
• Encourages consultation√ between employer and employees.√ 
• Compels businesses to develop/implement√ an employment equity plan.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the effectiveness of EEA on businesses.  Max (10) 

[60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS VENTURES 
3.1 Responding to questions at the end of a presentation  

• Ensure that you understand each question/what is being asked.√√
• Comment/Rephrase questions if uncertain, before responding.√√
• Listen carefully to each question/Think carefully before responding.√√
• Address questions and not the person.√√
• Acknowledge good questions.√√ 
• Remain professional/polite/calm/open/non-aggressive.√√ 
• Do not get involved in a debate/argument.√√ 
• Do not allow one member of the audience to dominate the discussion/session  and ask all the questions.√√ 
• Avoid answering difficult questions when the answer is not known.√√
• Apologise for an error and promise to provide everyone with the correct  details.√√ 
• Address the whole audience and not only the person asking the question.√√
• Promise to follow up on answers you do not know/unsure about.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to factors to be considered when responding  to questions at the end of a presentation.
  NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. Max (8) 

3.2 Types of shares 

3.2.1 Bonus shares√√ 
3.2.2 Preference shares√√ 
3.2.3 Founder shares√√ 
3.2.4 Ordinary shares√√ Max (8) 

3.3 Functions of JSE 

• Gives opportunities to financial institutions such as insurance companies to  invest their funds in shares.√√ 
• Serves as a barometer/indicator of economic conditions in South Africa.√√
• Keeps investors informed on share prices by publishing the share prices daily.√√ 
• Acts as a link between investors and public companies.√√ 
• Shares are valued and assessed by experts.√√ 
• Small investors are invited to take part in the economy of the country through  the buying/selling of shares.√√ 
• Venture capital market is made available on the open market.√√ 
• Orderly market for securities/serves as a disciplined market for securities.√√
• Encourages new investments.√√ 
• Mobilises the funds of insurance companies and other institutions.√√
• Raises primary capital.√√ 
• Regulates the market for dealing with shares.√√ 
• Plans, researches and advises on investment possibilities.√√ 
• Ensures that the market operates in a transparent manner.√√ 
• Provides protection for investors.√√ 
• Encourages short-term investment.√√ 
• Facilitates electronic trading of shares/STRATE.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to the functions of the Johannesburg  Securities Exchange (JSE). Max (8)

3.4 Importance of investing in fixed deposits 

• Interest is earned at a fixed rate√ regardless of changes in the economic  climate.√ 
• The period of investment√ can be over a short/medium/long term.√
• Ensures financial discipline√ as investors cannot withdraw their funds before the  maturity date.√ 
• Investors can choose√ the investment period that suits them.√ 
• Investors earn a better return on investment√ than on an ordinary savings  account.√ 
• Principal amount plus interest earned√ is paid out on the maturity date.√
• It has a low risk√ as investors are guaranteed of the final payment.√
• The higher the principal amount/The longer the investment period√, the higher  the interest rate offered by a financial institution.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the importance of investing in fixed  deposits. Max (3) 

3.5 Differences between simple and compound interest 

NOTE:

1. The answer should be in tabular format/differences listed in an  organised way. 
2. The differences must be clearly linked. 
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the differences are not clear/Mark either compound or simple interest only. Max (8) 

3.6 Leadership styles 

3.6.1 Democratic√√ 
NOTE: Accept Participative/Consultative leadership style. 

Motivation: 

• Ms Green regularly requests her employees to contribute ideas on how to improve business profits/Employees are involved in decision making.√ NOTE: Do not award marks for motivation without the correct identification  of the leadership style.
  Identification (2)
  Motivation (1)
  Max (3) 

3.6.2 Impact of democratic leadership style on Baloyi Traders/business
Positives/Advantages 

• Ms Green allows her employees to participate in the decision-making process√,  so they feel empowered/positive.√
• Staff gives a variety of ideas/inputs/feedback/viewpoints√ that can lead to  innovation/improved production methods/increased sales.√ 
• Clear/Two way communication√ ensures group commitment to final  decision(s).√ 
• Authority is delegated√ which can motivate/inspire workers to be more  productive.√ 
• Complex decisions can be made√ with inputs from specialists/skilled workers.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to a positive impact of the democratic  leadership style on Baloyi Traders/business.  

AND/OR 
Negatives/Disadvantages 

• Incorrect decisions may be made√ if staff is inexperienced/not fully informed.√
• Decision making may be time consuming√ as all stakeholders have to be  consulted.√ 
• Employees may feel discouraged√ if their opinions/inputs are not considered.√ 
• Ms Green may rely too much on the inputs of her followers√ and fail to make a  final decision.√ 
• Not effective in times of crisis√ when quick decisions need to be made.√
• Some employees only pretend to participate in decision making√ and their  feedback may not always be accurate.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to a negative impact of the democratic  leadership style on Baloyi Traders/business. 

NOTE: 

1. Accept relevant facts, if the democratic leadership style was  incorrectly identified as answer in QUESTION 3.6.1
2. Accept Participative/Consultative leadership style.
   Max (8) 

3.6.3 Benefits of the situational leadership theory 

• Different leadership characteristics are needed for different situations.√√
• The task/situation dictates the leadership style that should be applied, so  leaders are adaptable/flexible/self-assured.√√ 
• Effective application of this theory may enable Ms Green to accomplish her  goals.√√ 
• Relationships between leaders and employees are based on mutual  trust/respect/ loyalty/integrity/honesty.√√ 
• She may have the ability to 'read' the situation/get the most suitable people in  the right positions to complete tasks successfully.√√ 
• Leaders analyse group members/objectives/time constraints, to adopt a suitable/ relevant leadership style.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to benefits of using the situational leadership  theory. Max (6)

3.7 Success and/or failure of non-profit companies (NPC) 

Max (4) 

Max (4) 
NOTE: The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 

[60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

QUESTION 4: BUSINESS ROLES
4.1 Economic rights of employees in the workplace 

• Freedom from forced labour.√ 
• Freedom to choose/accept work.√ 
• Fair wages/Equal pay.√ 
• Reasonable/Legal limitation of working hours.√ 
• Safe and healthy working conditions.√ 
• Right to join/form a trade union.√ 
• Right to participate in a legal strike.√ 
• Right to training/improvement of skills for career advancement.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the economic rights of employees in the  workplace. 
  NOTE: Mark the first FIVE (5) only. (5 x 1) (5) 

4.2 Handling conflict in the workplace 

• Acknowledge√ that there is conflict in the workplace.√ 
• Identify the cause√ of the conflict√/Evaluate√ the situation objectively.√ 
• Make intentions for intervention clear√, so that parties involved may feel at ease.√
• Arrange a meeting√ between the conflicting parties and management.√
• Blame shifting should be avoided√ and joint team solutions must be found.√
• Devise/Suggest strategies√ to solve the conflict.√ 
• Parties must agree√ on the best solution.√ 
• Direct conflicting parties√ towards finding/focusing on solutions.√ 
• Select the appropriate solution√ and implement it.√ 
• Expertise on handling conflict√ may be sourced from outside the business.√
  Any other relevant answer related to how businesses should handle conflict in the  workplace. 
  NOTE: If problem-solving steps do not demonstrate the handling of conflict  (explanation), award a maximum of 4 marks. Max (8) 

4.3 Unethical or unprofessional business practices 

4.3.1 Pricing of goods in the rural areas.√√ 
4.3.2 Unauthorised use of funds.√√ 
4.3.3 Abuse/Misuse of work time.√√ Max (6) 

4.4 Application of the brainstorming technique 

• State/Define the business problem clearly√, so that all participants/stake-holders  understand the problem.√ 
• Members state possible causes√ of the business problems.√ 
• Set a time limit√ for each brainstorming session.√ 
• Record/Write ideas down√, where all participants can see it.√/Ideas may also be  shared online√ during an e-brainstorming session.√ 
• Use each suggestion√, to inspire new thoughts/ideas.√ 
• Do not judge/criticise/discuss the ideas√, so that many ideas could be generated  as quickly as possible.√
• All members of the group√ randomly make suggestions.√ 
• The group rates ideas√ according to its usefulness/success/difficulty/cost to  implement.√ 
• The group evaluates all ideas√, and combines similar ones/draw up a refined list.√ 
• Discuss a plan of action√ on how to implement the best ideas.√
   Any other relevant answer related to the application of the brainstorming  technique to solve business problems. 
  NOTE: 1. Do not allocate marks for advantages and disadvantages. 2. Steps could be in any order. Max (8) 

4.5 Criteria for assessing team performance 
4.5.1 Interpersonal attitude and behaviour 

• Members have a positive attitude of support√ towards each other.√
• Good/Sound interpersonal relationships√ will ensure job satisfaction/increase productivity of the team.√ 
• Members are committed/passionate√ towards achieving a common goal/  objectives.√ 
• Team leader acknowledges/gives credit to members√ for positive contributions.√
• Team members must respect each other's√ skills and knowledge.√
  Any other relevant answer related to interpersonal attitudes and behaviour as  criteria for assessing team performance. Max (2) 

4.5.2 Communication 

• A clear set of processes/procedures for team work√, ensures that every team  member understands his/her role.√ 
• Effective communication between team members√ can lead to quick decisions.√
• Quality feedback√ improves the morale of the team.√ 
• Open communication√ allows for effective solutions to problems.√ 
• Continuous review of team progress√ ensures that team members can rectify mistakes/act pro-actively to ensure that goals/targets are reached.√
  Any other relevant answer related to communication as criteria for assessing  team performance. Max (2) 

4.6 Importance of team dynamic theories 

• Team dynamic theories explain√ how effective teams work/operate.√
• Businesses are able to allocate tasks√ according to the roles of team members.√ 
• Team members can maximise performance√ as tasks are allocated according  to their abilities/skills/attributes/personalities.√ 
• Team members with similar strengths√ may compete for team tasks/ responsibilities that best suit their abilities/competencies.√ 
• Theories assist team leaders to understand the personality types of team  members√ so that tasks are assigned more effectively.√ 
• Conflict may be minimised√ when team members perform different roles.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the importance of team dynamic theories in improving team performance. Max (4)

4.7 Benefits of diversity in the workplace 

• Workforce diversity improves the ability of a business√ to solve problems/  innovate/cultivate diverse markets.√ 
• Employees value each other's diversity√ and learn to connect/communicate  across lines of difference.√ 
• Diversity in the workforce√ improves morale/motivation.√ 
• Employees demonstrate greater loyalty to the business√ because they feel  respected/accepted/understood.√
• Diversified workforce can give businesses a competitive advantage√, as they  can render better services.√ 
• Being respectful of differences/demonstrating diversity√ makes good business  sense/improves profitability.√ 
• Diverse businesses ensure that its policies/practices√ empower every  employee to perform at his/her full potential.√ 
• Stakeholders increasingly evaluate businesses√ on how they manage diversity  in the workplace.√ 
• Employees from different backgrounds√ can bring different perspectives to the  business.√ 
• A diversified workforce stimulates debate√ on new/improved ways of getting  things done.√ 
• Employees represent various groups√ and are therefore better able to  recognise customer needs and satisfy consumers.√ 
• Businesses with a diverse workforce are more likely to have a good public  image√ and attract more customers.√ 
   Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of diversity in the workplace. Max (8) 

4.8 Professional, responsible and ethical business practice 

NOTE: 

1. Only allocate marks for responses that are quoted from the scenario 
2. The business practice must be linked to the quote from the scenario.
3. Do not allocate marks if quotes are mentioned only.
   Max (9)

4.9 Ways to promote creative thinking in the workplace 

• Emphasise the importance of creative thinking to ensure that all staff know that  you want to hear their ideas.√√
• Encourage staff to come up with new ideas/opinions/solutions.√√
• Make time for brainstorming sessions to generate new ideas, e.g. regular workshops/generate more ideas/build on one another's ideas.√√ 
• Place suggestion boxes around the workplace and keep communication channels open for new ideas.√√ 
• Train staff in innovative techniques/creative problem-solving skills/mind mapping/ lateral thinking.√√ 
• Encourage job swops within the organisation/studying how other businesses are  doing things.√√ 
• Encourage alternative ways of working/doing things.√√ 
• Respond enthusiastically to all ideas and never let anyone feel less important.√√ 
• Reward creativity by introducing reward schemes for teams/individuals who  come up with creative ideas.√√ 
• Provide a working environment that is free from distractions.√√ 
  Any other relevant recommendations related to ways in which businesses can  promote creative thinking in the workplace.
  NOTE: The emphasis is on 'ways', not necessarily advantages.
  Max (8) 

[60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

QUESTION 5: BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
5.1 Methods of external recruitment 

• Printed media, e.g. newspapers/flyers√ 
• Electronic media, e.g. radio/TV√ 
• Social media/Social networks/Internet/Business websites√ 
• Recruitment agencies√ 
• Walk-ins√ 
• Head hunting√ 
• Professional associations√ 
• Networking√ 
• Educational/Training institutions√ 
• Posters/Bill boards just outside the business√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the methods of external recruitment.
  NOTE: 
  1. Mark the first FIVE (5) only. 
  2. Allocate a maximum of ONE (1) mark for examples on each method  (5 x 1) (5) 

5.2 Aspects to be included in an induction programme 

• Safety regulations and rules.√√ 
• Overview of the business.√√ 
• Information about business products/services.√√ 
• Tour of the premises.√√ 
• Introduction to management and close colleagues.√√ 
• Conditions of employment, e.g. working hours/leave application process/  disciplinary procedures√√, etc. 
• Administration details, e.g. systems/processes/logistics.√√ 
• Meeting with senior management who will explain the company's vision/values/  and job description/daily tasks.√√ 
• Discussion of the employment contract and conditions of service.√√
• Discussions on staff policies, e.g. making private calls/using the internet√√, etc.
• Discussion on employees' benefits.√√ 
• Information on CSR/CSI programmes.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in an induction programme.
  NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only.   (3 x 2) (6)

5.3.1 Employment contract 

NOTE: 

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The recommendations must be linked to the scenario/challenges.
3. Do not award marks for recommendations that are changed into  positives unless it is linked to the legal requirements.
   Challenges (3)
   Recommendation (6)
   Max (9)

5.3.2 Other legal requirements of the employment contract 

• The employment contract is a legally binding document even though certain aspects  of the contract are negotiable.√√ 
• Neither Mr Du Preez/employee nor TF/employer may unilaterally change aspects of  the employment contract.√√
• TF/Employer must explain the terms and conditions of the employment contract to  Mr Du Preez/employee, if deemed necessary.√√
• Employers must allow employees to read through the conditions of service and  code of conduct before they sign the contract.√√ 
• Mr Du Preez may also consult legal experts to help him understand the terms and  conditions of the contract.√√ 
• Both parties involved must have contractual capacity.√√ 
• It should include a code of conduct and/or a code of ethics for employees.√√
• Specific details of the remuneration package should be clearly explained to  employees/stipulated in the contract.√√ 
• It must stipulate what employees would receive in terms of benefits and labour  legislation.√√ 
• All business policies/procedures/disciplinary codes should form part of the  employment contract.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to other legal requirements of the employment  contract. 
  NOTE: 
  1. Mark the first TWO (2) only. 
  2. Do not award marks for legal requirements that are stated in  QUESTION 5.3.1. (2 x 2) (4) 

5.4 Selection procedure 

• Determine fair assessment criteria√ on which selection will be based.√ 
• Applicants must submit the application forms/curriculum vitae√ and certified copies  of personal documents/IDs/proof of qualifications√, etc.
• Sort the received documents/CVs√ according to the assessment/selection criteria.√
• Screen/Determine which applications meet the minimum job requirements√ and separate these from the rest.√ 
• Preliminary interviews are conducted√ if many suitable applications were  received.√ 
• Reference checks should be made to verify the contents of CV's√, e.g. contact  previous employers to check work experience.√ 
• Compile a shortlist√ of potential candidate's identified.√ 
• Shortlisted candidates may be subjected to various types of selection tests√ e.g.  skills tests√, etc. 
• Invite shortlisted candidates√ for an interview.√ 
• A written offer is made√ to the selected candidate.√ 
• Inform unsuccessful applicants√ about the outcome of their application.√/Some  adverts indicate the deadline√ for informing only successful candidates.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the selection procedure.
  NOTE: Procedure may be in any order. Max (8) 

5.5 TQM elements  

5.5.1 Total client/customer satisfaction√√ 
5.5.2 Continuous skills development/Education and training√√ 
5.5.3 Continuous improvement to processes and systems√√ 
5.5.4 Involvement of all employees/People based management√√ 
5.5.5 Adequate financing and capacity√√ (5 x 2) (10)

5.6 Reduction of cost of quality through TQM 

• Introduce quality circles/small teams of five to ten employees√, who meet  regularly to discuss ways of improving the quality of their work.√ 
• Schedule activities to eliminate√ duplication of tasks/activities.√ 
• Share responsibility for quality output√ between management and workers.√
• Train employees at all levels√, so that everyone understands their role in quality  management.√ 
• Develop work systems that empower employees√ to find new ways of improving  quality.√ 
• Work closely with suppliers√ to improve the quality of raw materials/inputs.√
• Improve communication about the quality challenges/deviations√, so that  everyone can learn from past experiences.√
• Reduce investment√ on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures in the  production process.√ 
• Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/machinery√ to  reduce/eliminate breakdowns.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to ways in which business can reduce the  cost of quality through TQM. Max (6)  

5.7 Distinction between quality performance and quality management 

NOTE:

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The distinction must be clear. Max (4)

5.8 Business functions 
5.8.1 Quality indicators of the marketing function 

• Acquire a greater market share through good customer service.√√
• Win customers loyalty by satisfying their needs and wants/building positive  relationships.√√ 
• Adhere to ethical advertising practices when promoting products and  services.√√ 
• Identify competitive edge and conduct regular market research.√√
• Differentiate products to increase the target market/profitability.√√
• Constantly review value issues.√√ 
• Communicate effectively with customers to get their feedback about their  experiences of the products and services sold.√√
• Ensure that the production and advertising strategies are aligned.√√
• Use pricing techniques to ensure a competitive advantage.√√ 
• Measure the gaps between customer expectations and their actual experiences  so that problems regarding quality of products can be diagnosed and  addressed.√√ 
• Make adjustments and changes to products and services based on feedback  received from customers.√√ 
• Use aggressive advertising campaigns to sustain the market share.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to quality indicators of the marketing function.
  NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 2) (4) 

5.8.2 Quality indicators of the administration function 

• Fast and reliable data capturing and processing systems.√√ 
• Make reliable information available to management on time.√√ 
• Make relevant information available for quick decision-making.√√ 
• Handle complaints quickly and effectively.√√ 
• Use modern technology efficiently.√√ 
• Implement effective risk management policies to minimise business losses.√√
• Quality assurance/Control/Evaluation is recorded accurately.√√ 
• All documentation is kept neatly and orderly in a safe place.√√ 
• Easy to recall/find information/documentation.√√ 
• Financial documents are kept up to date and recorded accurately.√√
• All systems and processes are documented.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to quality indicators of the administration  function.
  NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 2) (4)

[60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

QUESTION 6: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS 
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT 
6.1 Swot analysis and business strategies 
6.1.1 Swot analysis 

Max (4) 

6.1.2 Strategies to handle the weakness and threat

NOTE: 

1. Do not award marks for strategies that are not linked to the identified threat or weakness in QUESTION 6.1.1. 
2. Mark the FIRST strategy for each weakness and threat. 
3. Do not award marks for the weakness/threat. Max (4)  

6.2 Advantages of COIDA 

• Promotes safety√ in the workplace.√ 
• Creates a framework√ for acceptable employment practices/safety regulations.√ 
• Supply administrative guidelines/mechanisms√ for dealing with/processing  claims.√ 
• Eliminates time and costs spent√ on lengthy civil court proceedings.√
• Employers are protected from financial burden should an accident occur in the  workplace√ provided that the employer was not negligent.√ 
• Claiming processes√ are relatively simple.√ 
• Makes businesses more socially responsible√ as they cannot just employ  workers at random in dangerous working conditions.√ 
• Workers are treated with dignity and respect√ as businesses view them as  valuable assets and not just as workers.√ 
• Covers all employees at the workplace√ if both parties meet all the necessary  safety provisions in the Act.√ 
• Employees do not contribute√ towards this fund.√ 
• Employees are compensated financially for any injury/disability√ resulting from  performing their duties at their workplace.√ 
• In the event of the death of an employee as a result of a work-related accident/  disease√, his/her dependent(s) will receive financial support.√ 
• Employees receive medical assistance√ provided there is no other medical  assistance option.√/Cannot claim medical assistance from the fund√ and  medical aid.√ 
• Any compensation to an employee/the family√ is exempt from income tax.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of COIDA. Max (6)

BUSINESS VENTURES 
6.3 Examples of non-verbal presentation methods 

• Tables√ 
•  Graphs/bar graph/line graph/histogram/pie graph√ 
• Diagrams√ 
• Illustrations/Pictures/Photographs/Scenarios√ 
• Written/Business reports√ 
• Flip charts√ 
• Handouts√ 
• Slide shows  √ 
  Any other relevant examples of non-verbal presentation methods.
  NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 1) (2) 

6.4 Investment in shares  
Return on investment (ROI) 

• ROI/Pay out/Declaration of dividends√ depends on the decision of directors.√
• Dividends are paid in cash√ or in the form of additional/bonus shares.√
• Investors have to pay tax√ on dividends earned.√ 
•  Higher dividends paid out by some companies√ attract more potential  investors.√ 
• Holders of ordinary shares√ may receive higher dividends when the company  performs well.√
  Any other relevant answer related to how the return on investment may influence the decision to invest in shares. 
  Sub max (2) 

Risk 

• Shares have low/medium risk√ over a longer investment period.√ 
• Shares with higher risks√ have a greater potential for higher returns.√
• Ordinary shares have the highest risk√ as the investor may lose the full/part of  the investment when the company is dissolved/bankrupt/liquidated.√ 
• Preference shareholders' risk is lower√, as they have preferential claims on the  assets of the liquidated company/may receive some compensation before  ordinary shareholders.√ 
•  Share prices are linked to factors that investors cannot control√, e.g. economic  conditions, operational success of the company√, etc. 
• Share prices are volatile/unstable/unpredictable/may increase/ decrease sharply  within hours√ which contribute to the uncertainty of the value of an investment in  shares on the short term.√ 
   Any other relevant answer related to how the level of risk may influence the  decision to invest in shares. 
  Sub max (2) 

Max (4) 

6.5 Comparison between a partnership and personal liability company (PLC) 

Max (4)

Max (4) 

NOTE:

1. The comparison must be clearly linked.  
2.  Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks, if the comparison is  not clear. 

BUSINESS ROLES  
6.6 Problem-solving steps 

• Identify the problem.√ 
• Define the problem.√ 
• Identify alternative solutions.√ 
• Evaluate alternative solutions.√ 
• Choose the best solution.√ 
• Formulate/Develop an action plan/strategy.√ 
• Implement the action plan/strategy.√ 
• Evaluate the action plan/strategy/final solution.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the problem-solving steps.
  NOTE: 
  1. Mark the first FOUR (4) only. 
  2. Steps can be in any order.
  3. Award marks when different approaches in problem-solving are  used, e.g. 3 or 4 steps, etc. (4 x 1) (4) 

6.7 King Code principles 

6.7.1 Transparency√√ (2)
6.7.2 Accountability√√ (2)

6.8 Grievance procedure  

• An aggrieved employee/Mr Nel must verbally report the incident/grievance to  his/her supervisor/manager√, who needs to resolve the issue within 3 to 5  working days.√ 
• Should the employee and supervisor not be able to resolve the grievance√, the  employee may take it to the next level of management.√ 
• The employee may move to a more formal process√ where the grievance must  be lodged in writing/completes a grievance form.√ 
• Mr Nel must receive a written reply√ in response to the written grievance.√ 
• A grievance hearing/meeting√ must be held with all relevant parties present.√
• Minutes of the meeting must be recorded√ and any resolution passed must be recorded on the formal grievance form.√ 
• Should the employee not be satisfied√, then he/she could refer the matter to the  highest level of management.√ 
• Top management should arrange a meeting√ with all relevant parties  concerned.√ 
• Minutes of this meeting should be filed/recorded√ and the outcome/decision  must be recorded on the formal grievance form.√ 
• Should the employee still not be satisfied, he/she may refer the matter to the  CCMA√ who will make a final decision on the matter.√
• The matter can be referred to Labour Court on appeal√ if Mr Nel is not satisfied  with the decision taken by the CCMA.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the correct procedure to deal with  grievances in the workplace.
  NOTE: The procedure may be in any order. Max (8)

BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
6.9 Fringe benefits 
6.9.1 Examples of fringe benefits 

• Free accommodation√ 
• Medical aid√
  NOTE: Only allocate marks for examples that are quoted from the scenario. (2 x 1) (2) 

6.9.2 Benefits/Advantages of fringe benefits for CB/businesses 

• Attractive fringe benefit packages√ may result in higher employee retention/ reduces employee turnover.√ 
• Attracts qualified/skilled/experienced employees√ who may positively contribute  towards CB/business goals/objectives.√ 
• It increases employee satisfaction/loyalty√ as they may be willing to go the extra  mile/do more than what is required.√ 
• Improves productivity√ resulting in higher profitability.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the benefits/advantages of fringe benefits  to CB/businesses. Max (6)

6.10 Negative impact of poorly implemented TQM 

• Setting unrealistic deadlines√ that may not be achieved.√ 
• Employees may not be adequately trained√ resulting in poor quality products.√
• Decline in productivity√, because of work stoppages.√ 
• Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes√ to satisfy the needs  of customers.√ 
• The reputation of the business√ may suffer because of faulty goods.√
• Investors might withdraw their investment√, if there is a decline in profits.√
• Bad publicity√ due to poor quality products supplied.√ 
• Decline in sales√, as returns from unhappy customers' increase.√ 
• Loss of customers√ may lead to bankruptcy/business closure.√
• High staff turnover√, because of poor skills development.√ 
• Undocumented quality control systems/processes√ could result in error or  deviations from pre-set quality standards.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact resulting from poorly  implemented TQM. Max (8)

[60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS 

TOTAL SECTION B: 180

SECTION C 
Mark the first TWO (2) questions only. 
QUESTION 7: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION) 
7.1 Introduction 

• The Labour Relations Act regulates the relationship between employees and  their trade unions/employers and their organisation.√ 
• The Act may include amendments/repeal laws related to labour relations in  order to promote sound labour relations.√ 
• The Act promotes employment equity and democracy in the workplace through  prevention of unfair labour practices.√ 
• LRA deals with hiring/disciplining/firing employees/trade union negotiation/  strikes.√ 
• Labour relations usually involves three parties namely the employer, the  employee and the government.√ 
  Any other relevant introduction related to LRA. Max (2) 

7.2 The rights of employees and employers 
7.2.1 Rights of employers 

• Employers have the right to lockout employees who engage in  unprotected/illegal strike/labour action.√√
• Form employer organisations.√√
• Form a bargaining council for collective bargaining purposes.√√
• Dismiss employees who are engaged in an unprotected strike/misconduct such  as intimidation/violence during a strike action.√√ 
• Right not to pay an employee who has taken part in a protected strike for  services/work they did not do during the strike.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the rights of employers according to the  LRA. Sub max (8)  

7.2.2 Rights of employees 

• Employees may join a trade union of their choice.√√ 
• Request trade union representatives to assist/represent employees in the  grievance/disciplinary hearing.√√ 
• Trade union representatives may take reasonable time off work with pay, to  attend to trade union duties.√√ 
• Embark on legal strikes as a remedy for grievances.√√ 
• Refer unresolved workplace disputes to the CCMA.√√ 
• Refer unresolved CCMA disputes to the Labour Court on appeal.√√
  Any other relevant answer related to rights of employees according to the LRA. Sub max (8)
  Max (12) 

7.3 Purpose of LRA  

• Provides a framework/structure for labour relations√ between employers/  employees/trade unions/employer organisations.√ 
• Promotes/Facilitates collective bargaining√ at the workplace/at sectorial level.√
• Promotes workplace forums√ to accommodate employees in decision making.√
• Provides for the right to lock-out by the employer√ as a reaction to lengthy  strikes.√ 
• Promotes fair labour practice√ between the employers and employees.√
• Clarifies the transfer of employment contracts√ between the existing and new  employers.√ 
• Promotes simple procedures√ for the registration of trade unions/employer  organisations.√ 
• Advances economic development/social justice/labour peace√ to ensure that the  workplace maintains the basic rights of employees.√ 
• Establishes the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Arbitration (CCMA)√ for dispute resolutions.√ 
• Establishes Labour Courts√ and Labour Appeal Courts.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the LRA. Max (12) 

7.4 Impact of LRA on businesses 
Positives/Advantages  

• Protects the rights of businesses√ in labour related issues.√ 
• Protect employers who embark on lawful lockouts√ when negotiations between  parties fail.√ 
• Ensures participation of all parties in collective bargaining/decision making√ which reduces conflict in the workplace.√ 
• Labour disputes√ are settled quicker√ are less expensive.√ 
• Workplace forums can also be tasked to resolve workplace issues√ as they take  part in decision making.√ 
• Provides for dispute resolution through consensus√ between organised labour,  businesses and the state.√ 
• Provides mechanisms√, e.g. statutory councils/collective bargaining/CCMA to  settle labour disputes.√ 
• Prevents unfair discrimination in the workplace√ as all employees should be  given equal opportunities.√ 
• Employers can dismiss employees√ who engage in unprotected strikes.√
• Employers may claim compensation√ through the Labour Court for losses  suffered as a result of an unprotected strike.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of LRA on businesses.

AND/OR 
Negatives/Disadvantages  

• Productivity may decrease√ if employees are allowed to participate in the  activities of trade unions during work time.√ 
• Profitability may decrease√ due to a decline in sales/production.√ 
• Quick decision making may be negatively affected√ as some workplace forum  representatives may only focus on the interest of employees and neglect that of  the business.√ 
• Dispute resolution through consensus√ may be time consuming.√
• Incompetent employees may be inherited when a business is transferred/sold√,  because the new owner has to take over/continue with the existing employees' contracts.√ 
• Information about workplace issues may be disclosed to trade unions√ which  may be leaked to competitors/media.√ 
• Costs of labour increases√ because of legal strikes.√
• Labour consultants may be employed to deal with labour related issues√ which  may be costly.√ 
• Reduced global competitiveness√ due to lower productivity.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of the LRA on  businesses. Max (14)  

7.5 Ways in which businesses can comply with the LRA  

• Businesses must allow employees to form trade unions/participate in union  activities/legal strikes.√√ 
• Allow/Support the establishment of workplace forums.√√ 
• Employees should not be unfairly/illegally dismissed.√√ 
• Employers should not breach/ignore any collective agreement.√√ 
• Disclose all relevant information required by trade union representatives to do  their jobs effectively.√√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses can comply with  the LRA. Max (8) 

7.6 Conclusion  

• LRA provides for conflict resolution mechanisms in the workplace.√√
• Fair labour practices in the workplace may result in efficient business operations  with minimal disruptions.√√ 
• The Act requires agreement through sound labour relations between trade  unions and employer organisations.√√ 
• Businesses need to comply with the Act to promote a healthy working/workplace  relationship.√√ 
  Any other relevant conclusion related to the LRA. Max (2)

[40] 

QUESTION 7: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met. 
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met. 
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.

QUESTION 8: BUSINESS VENTURES (INSURANCE AND PRESENTATION) 
8.1 Introduction 

• Insurance is extremely beneficial to both businesses and individuals.√
• Insurance provides some source of financial relief to the business.√
• Business needs to know which risks are insurable or non-insurable.√
• Presentation methods should be improved regularly to stay abreast with the  latest trends.√ 
  Any other relevant introduction related to insurance and presentations. Max (2) 

8.2 Distinction between compulsory and non-compulsory insurance  

NOTE: 

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The distinction must be clear.
3. . Mark the first TWO (2) examples of each type of insurance.
   Max (12)

8.3 Importance of insurance to businesses 

• Transfers the risk from businesses/insured√ to an insurance company/insurer.√ 
• Transfer of risk is subject to the terms and conditions√ of the insurance contract.√
• Protects businesses against theft/loss of stock/damages√ caused by natural  disasters e.g. floods/storm damage√, etc. 
• Businesses will be compensated√ for insurable losses.√ 
• Valuable business assets√ e.g. vehicles/equipment/buildings need to be insured  against damage and/or theft.√ 
•  Businesses are protected against the loss of earnings√, e.g. strikes by employees  which result in losses worth millions.√ 
•  Protects businesses√ against dishonest employees.√ 
• Life insurance can be taken on the life of partners in a partnership√ to prevent loss  of capital.√ 
• Should the services of key personnel be lost due to accidents/death√, the  proceeds of an insurance policy can be paid out to the business.√ 
• Replacement costs for damaged machinery/equipment are very high√, therefore  insurance can reduce/cover such costs.√ 
•  Protects the business against losses√ due to the death of a debtor.√
• Insurance policies can be ceded to financial institutions√ as security/collateral for  loans√. 
  Any other relevant answer related to the importance of insurance to businesses.   Max (8) 

8.4 Principles of insurance  
8.4.1 Security/Certainty√√ 

• Applies to long-term insurance√ where the insurer undertakes to pay out an  agreed upon amount in the event of loss of life.√ 
• A predetermined amount will be paid out √ when the insured reaches a pre determined age/or gets injured due to a predetermined event.√ 
• Aims to provide financial security√ to the insured at retirement/the dependents of  the deceased.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to security/certainty as a principle of insurance. Principle (2) 
  Explanation (6) 
  Sub max (8) 

8.4.2 Indemnification/Indemnity√√ 

• Usually applies to short term insurance√, as the insured is compensated for  specified/proven harm/loss.√ 
• Insurer agrees to compensate the insured for damages/losses specified in the  insurance contract√, in return for premiums paid by the insured to the insurer.√
• Protects the insured against the specified event√ that may occur.√ 
• Pay-outs from insurance companies/insurer will only be made√, if there is proof  that the specified event took place/if the insured can prove the amount of the loss/ damage.√ 
• The amount of indemnification/compensation is limited to the amount of provable  loss/damage√, even if the amount in the policy/insurance contract is higher.√
• The insured must be placed in the same position√ as before the occurrence of  the loss/damage√/The insured√ may not profit from insurance.√
  Any other relevant answer related to indemnification/indemnity as a principle of  insurance.
  Principle (2)
  Explanation (6)
  Sub max (8) 

8.4.3 Insurable interest√√ 

• Insured must prove that he/she will suffer a financial loss√ if the insured object is  damaged/lost/ceases to exist.√ 
•  An insurable interest must be expressed√ in financial terms.√ 
•  Insured must have a legal relationship√ with the insured object in the contract.√
  Any other relevant answer related to insurable interest as a principle of  insurance.
  Principle (2)
  Explanation (6)
  Sub max (8) 

8.4.4 Utmost good faith√√ 

• Insured has to be honest in supplying details√ when entering in an insurance  contract.√ 
• Both parties√ must disclose all relevant facts.√ 
• Insured must disclose everything√ that may affect the extent of the risk.√ 
• Details/Information supplied when claiming√ should be accurate/true.√
  Any other relevant answer related to utmost good faith as a principle of  insurance.
  Principle (2)
  Explanation (6)
  Sub max (8)
  NOTE:
  1. Mark the first THREE (3) only.
  2. . Award marks if the example demonstrates understanding of the  principles/requirements. Max (16)  

8.5 Advice on the improvement of the next presentation 

• Mr Funa should revise objectives that were not achieved.√√ 
• Use humour appropriately.√√ 
• Always be prepared to update/keep the information relevant.√√ 
• Reflect on any problem/criticism and avoid it in future presentations.√√
• Any information that Mr Funa receives as feedback from a presentation should  be analysed and where relevant, incorporated/used to update/amend his  presentation.√√ 
• Reflect on the time/length of the presentation to add/remove content.√√
• Increase/Decrease the use of visual aids or replace/remove aids that do not work  well.√√ 
• Reflect on the logical flow of the format/slides/application of visual aids.√√
  Any other recommendation related to how Mr Funa can improve his next  presentation. Max (10)

8.6 Conclusion  

• Insurance plays an important role in securing the future of any business.√√
• The purpose of insurance is to provide businesses with financial peace of  mind.√√ 
• Effective presentation of business information is one of the key elements of  communicating with various stakeholders.√√ 
• Any other relevant conclusion related to insurance and presentations. Max (2) 

[40] 

QUESTION 8: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met. 
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met. 
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.  

QUESTION 9: BUSINESS ROLES (SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY AND CORPORATE  CITIZENSHIP) 
9.1 Introduction  

• Corporate Social Responsibility/CSR is the way a business conducts its  operations ethically and morally, regarding the use of human, physical and  financial resources.√ 
• CSR programmes help to conserve the environment by ensuring that the  community has sustainable resources.√ 
• Businesses should consider the impact of the business's operations on the  environment in their decision making.√ 
• Businesses are corporate citizens and therefore have a responsibility towards  society.√ 
• CSI is a component of CSR, where social responsibility is the intention and  social investment is the action.√ 
• Business should consider the importance of the wellbeing of the community in  relation to profitability and productivity.√ 
  Any other relevant introduction related to social responsibility and corporate  citizenship. Max (2) 

9.2 Differences between CSR and CSI  

NOTE:

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format, but differences  must be clear. 
2. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if differences are not clear. Max (8) 

9.3 Impact of CSI on businesses 
Positives/Advantages 

• May attract experienced employees/increase the pool of skilled labour√ which  could increase productivity.√ 
• Positive/Improved image√ as the business looks after employees/conducts itself  in a responsible way.√ 
• A business may have a competitive advantage√, resulting in good publicity/an  improved reputation.√ 
• Promotes customer loyalty√ resulting in more sales.√ 
• CSI projects√ may be used as a marketing strategy to promote their products.√
• The business enjoys the goodwill/support√ of communities.√ 
• CSI projects promote teamwork√ within businesses.√ 
• CSI helps to attract investors√ because of increased profits/income.√
• Gives businesses tax advantages√ such as tax reduction/-rebates.√ 
• Assists in solving socio-economic issues√ like poverty/unemployment√, etc. 
• The government is less likely to enforce issues through legislation√ to  businesses that voluntarily participate in CSI projects.√ 
• Employees feel as if they are making a difference√ in working for the business.√
• It helps to retain staff/lower staff turnover√ as employees' health and safety are  considered.√ 
• Improves the health of its employees√ through focused CSI projects.√
• Businesses become more community-based√ by working closely with the  community to roll out skills development projects.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of CSI on businesses.

AND/OR
Negatives/Disadvantages  

• Business may not be supported/Customers may not buy their  products/services√ resulting in a decrease in sales.√ 
• Small and medium enterprises find it difficult√ to implement CSI programmes.√
• Detailed reports must be drawn up√, which can be time consuming.√
• Social spending reduces business/economic efficiency√ which makes it less  competitive.√ 
• Social involvement is funded from business profits√ which could have been used  to the benefit of customers/reduce prices.√ 
• CSI activities distract business focus√ from its core business functions.√
• Businesses find it difficult√ to adhere to legislation governing CSI.√
• It can increase financial risk√, as programmes cost money and may impact  negatively on profits.√ 
• It is difficult to accurately measure√ the effectiveness of social investment.√
• It is not easy to determine the exact needs of the communities√, which may  result in fruitless expenditure on CSI.√ 
• Most managers are not trained/lack experience√ to handle social programmes.√
• Employees may spend more time working on CSI projects√ instead of focusing  on their core duties.√ 
• Providing goods/services that meet the needs of consumers is√, according to  some stakeholders, already socially responsible.√ 
• Shareholders may receive less dividends√, as some profits are spent on CSI.√
• Some shareholders/stakeholders might withdraw their support from the  business√ as they feel that social issues should be the government's  responsibility.√
  - Any other negative impact of CSI on businesses. Max (16)

9.4 Relationship between triple bottom line and social responsibility  
9.4.1 Profit/Economic√√ 

• Triple Bottom line means that businesses should not only focus on profit/charge  high prices√, but should also invest in CSI projects.√ 
•  Businesses should not make a profit√ at the expense of its community.√ 
   Any other relevant answer related to the relationship between profit/economic  and social responsibility. 
  Aspect (2)
  Explanation (2)
  Sub max (4)

9.4.2 People/Social√√ 

• Business operations should not have a negative impact on/exploit√ people/  employees/customers/community.√ 
• Businesses should engage/invest in sustainable community programmes/  projects√ that will benefit/uplift communities.√ 
• Improve the life style/quality of life√ of their human resources/employees.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the relationship between people/social  responsibility.
  Aspect (2)
  Explanation (2)
  Sub max (4) 

9.4.3 Planet/Environment√√ 

• Businesses should not exhaust resources/harm the environment√ for  production/profit purposes.√ 
• They may support energy-efficient/eco-friendly√ products/production methods.√
• Recycle/Re-use waste√, e.g. packaging from recycled material.√
  Any other relevant answer related to the relationship between the  planet/environment and social responsibility.
  Aspect (2)
  Explanation (2)
  Sub max (4)
  NOTE:
  1. The relationship should be clear in each of the three P's (people,  planet and profit).
  2. . Award a maximum of SIX (6) marks for listing the aspects without a clear explanation.
     Max (12) 

9.5 Ways of contributing to the well-being of the employees 

• Businesses should improve the general quality of life of employees, e.g. pay fair  wages/skills development√√, etc. 
• Start a nutritional programme so that employees may enjoy at least one healthy  meal per day.√√
• Provide subsidised housing/accommodation for their employees.√√
• Allow staff to use some working time to get involved/participate in projects of  their choice.√√ 
• Provide overtime schedules for fair workload distribution.√√ 
• Provide transport to employees who work unusually long hours.√√
• Establish coaching/mentoring programmes for junior employees.√√
• Conduct team-building sessions to improve employees' morale.√√
• Encourage employees to attend capacity-building workshops/training/staff  development/team-development programmes.√√ 
•  Offer counselling sessions to employees with personal/emotional challenges.√√
• Encourage employees to stay fit/healthy by getting them involved in health  activities to minimise stress/substance abuse/obesity.√√ 
  Any other relevant recommendations related to ways in which businesses may  contribute to the well-being of employees.
  NOTE: Mark the first FIVE (5) only. (5 x 2) (10)

9.6 Conclusion  

• Corporate social responsibility is an obligation required by law and benefits both  business and society.√√ 
• CSI projects allow businesses to influence people's lives in many ways.√√
• Businesses use CSR programmes to comply with laws and ethical business  practices.√√ 
• Any other relevant conclusion on CSR/CSI/social responsibility and corporate  citizenship/the well-being of the community.
  Max (2)  

[40] 

QUESTION 9: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met. 
Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met. 
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all. 

QUESTION 10: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (HUMAN RESOURCES AND QUALITY OF  PERFORMANCE) 
10.1 Introduction 

• The objective of recruitment is to attract the best possible applicants with the  required skills/qualification/competency to fill vacancies.√ 
• Reliable recruitment procedures and systems should be in place to ensure that  businesses achieve their goals.√ 
• The aim of induction is to introduce the new employee to the job/the new  environment.√ 
• Effective monitoring and evaluating processes may ensure quality products/  services.√ 
• The general manager should take a lead in ensuring that all activities that are  performed by various departments/functions meet the required standards.√
  Any other relevant introduction related to recruitment/induction/monitoring and  evaluating processes/quality of performance. 
  Max (2) 

10.2 Recruitment procedure  

• SML/The human resource manager (HRM) should evaluate the job/prepare a  job analysis√, that includes the job specification/job description/in order to  identify recruitment needs.√/HRM should indicate the job specification/key  performance areas√ to attract suitable candidates.√ 
• Choose the source of recruitment, e.g. internal/external√, to reach/target the  suitable applicants/candidates.√ 
• Vacancies can be internally advertised√ via internal email/word of mouth/posters/ staff notices.√ 
• External recruitment should be considered√ if internal recruitment was  unsuccessful. √ 
• If the external recruitment is done, the relevant recruitment method should be  selected√, e.g. recruitment agencies, tertiary institutions, newspapers√, etc.
• The advertisement should be prepared with the relevant information√, e.g. the  name of the company, contact details, contact person√, etc. 
• Place the advertisement in the selected media√ that will ensure that the best  candidates apply.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to recruitment procedures.
  Max (12) 

10.3 Benefits of induction 

• Increases quality of performance/productivity.√√ 
• Allows new employees to settle in quickly and work effectively.√√ 
• Ensures that new employees understands rules and restrictions in the  business.√√ 
• The results obtained during the induction process provide a base for focussed  training.√√ 
• Minimises the need for on-going training and development.√√ 
• New employees may establish relationships with fellow employees at different  levels.√√ 
• Employees will be familiar with organisational structures, e.g. who are their  supervisors/low level managers.√√
• Opportunities are created for new employees to experience/explore different  departments.√√ 
• New employees will understand their role/responsibilities concerning safety  regulations and rules.√√ 
• New employees will know the layout of the building/factory/offices/where  everything is, which saves production time.√√ 
• Learn more about the business so that new employees understand their roles/  responsibilities in order to be more efficient.√√
• Make new employees feel at ease in the workplace, which reduces anxiety/  insecurity/fear.√√ 
• Company policies are communicated, regarding conduct and procedures/safety  and security/employment contract/conditions of employment/working hours/  leave.√√ 
• Realistic expectations for new employees as well as the business are created.√√
• New employees may feel part of the team resulting in positive morale and  motivation.√√ 
• Employees may have a better understanding of business policies regarding  ethical/professional conduct/procedures/CSR√√, etc. 
  Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of induction.
  Max (12) 

10.4 Advantages of monitoring and evaluating quality processes

• Monitoring and evaluating quality processes prevent product defects√ and  minimises customer complaints.√ 
• Good quality control checks/procedure minimises√ the replacement/breakdown  of items/equipment/machinery on a regular basis.√ 
• May be better equipped√ to get things right the first time.√ 
• Improve performance√ and increase productivity/sales/profitability.√
• Improve current and future management√ of quality outputs/outcomes/impact.√
• Provide a clear indication about quality aspects√ that are contributing to the  achievement of goals/targets.√ 
• Modify interventions√ that may improve the efficient use of resources.√
• Support management√ to acquire information needed to make informed  decisions about processes.√ 
  Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of monitoring and  evaluating quality processes as a TQM element of SML as a large business.   
  Max (8) 

10.5 Ways in which the general manager can contribute to quality of performance

• Develop/Implement/Monitor effective strategic plans/goals.√√ 
• Efficient organisation/allocation of business resources to allow for the successful  achievement of long-term/short-term plans.√√ 
• Ensure that structured standards/norms are in place so that control mechanisms  can be implemented.√√ 
• Learn about/Understand changes in the business environment on an on-going  basis.√√
• Set direction and establish priorities for the business.√√ 
• Communicate shared vision, mission and values effectively.√√ 
• Set an example of expected behaviour in terms of ethics as well as  productivity.√√ 
• Ensure that employees have the necessary resources to do their work/allocate  resources effectively.√√ 
• Be proactive and always seek to improve the competitive advantage over  competitors.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to ways in which the general manager can  contribute to the quality of performance of the business.
  Max (16) 

10.6 Conclusion 

• Recruitment is an on-going process as employees leave their jobs for other  jobs/get promoted/retire.√√ 
•  A good induction programme enables new employees to have a basic  understanding of what is expected in the new job/position.√√ 
• An effective monitoring and evaluating quality process may result in higher  quality products/customer satisfaction.√√ 
• The quality of performance of the general manager plays an important role in  ensuring that the business produces quality goods and services.√√ 
• Any other relevant conclusion related to recruitment/monitoring and evaluating  processes/quality of performance of general management.
  Max (2) 

[40] 

QUESTION 10: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 
Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met. 
Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met. 
Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all. 

TOTAL SECTION C: 80 
GRAND TOTAL: 300

AGRICULTURAL TECHNOLOGY
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
   1.1 This question paper consists of TWO sections, namely SECTION A  and SECTION B.
   1.2 BOTH sections are COMPULSORY.
   1.3 Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
   1.4 Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system  used in this question paper.
   1.5 You may use a non-programmable calculator.
   1.6 Write neatly and legibly. 
2. SECTION A: SHORT QUESTIONS
   2.1 This section consists of THREE questions.
   2.2 Follow the instructions when answering the questions.
3. SECTION B: STRUCTURED LONG QUESTIONS 
   3.1 This section consists of FIVE questions.
   3.2 Start EACH question on a NEW page.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Write down the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10), choose the answer and make  a cross (X) over the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 Plasma cutting machines may be used to cut … sheets. 

1. aluminium 
2. copper 
3. stainless steel
4. brass (2) 

1.1.2 A gas mixture used to cut thick steel with the plasma cutting  machine, which is preferred because of its ability to produce high  temperatures: 

1. Argon hydrogen 
2. Oxyacetylene
3. Nitrogen oxide
4. Carbon dioxide (2) 

1.1.3 ONE of the following metals may be arc-welded successfully: 

1. Zinc
2. Brass
3. Copper
4. Mild steel (2) 

1.1.4 The pipe-weld joining method used most commonly when  manufacturing a farm gate is the … roll position. 

1. butt joint
2. open butt joint
3. spot weld
4. overlap T-joint (2) 

1.1.5 The function of the gas shield around the welding bead when  MIG welding: 

1. Prevents oxidation
2. Cleans the weld bead
3. Ensures the correct temperature for welding
4. Ensures a faster welding speed (2)

1.1.6 This metal CANNOT be welded with the MIG welding machine: 

1. Aluminium
2. Stainless steel 
3. Mild steel
4. Titanium (2) 

1.1.7 Using a/an … is cost effective and an easy way to conduct aerial  surveys of a farm.  

1. aeroplane
2. helicopter
3. drone
4. satellite (2) 

1.1.8 Modernisation of farm implements implies … 

1. environmentally safe implements that leave a green footprint.
2. industrialisation of a farm.
3. that all implements must adhere to uniform standards.
4. a switch to robotics and computers. (2) 

1.1.9 The main function of the hopper on a hammer mill is to … 

1. facilitate the feeding process.
2. pulverise the fodder.
3. house the guard plates and wearing plates.
4. determine the size of the final ground product. (2) 

1.1.10 Solar power technology is environmentally friendly because  no … is released into the atmosphere. 

1. hydrogen vapour
2. water vapour
3. pollution 
4. heat (2) 

1.2 Change the UNDERLINED word(s) in each of the following statements to  make the statements TRUE. Write only the word(s) next to question number  (1.2.1–1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.6 Tractor. 

1.2.1 The large overhead water pipe of a centre pivot is manufactured  from copper. (2) 
1.2.2 Wind power converts the kinetic energy present in wind into  chemical energy and then into electrical energy. (2) 
1.2.3 Standardisation in agriculture is less time-consuming and more  cost-effective than working by hand. (2) 
1.2.4 Non-stick pots and pans used for cooking are coated with bakelite. (2) 
1.2.5 Bacteria in a septic tank prevent the breakdown of solids into  a liquid form. (2)

1.3 Choose a word/term from COLUMN B that matches the description in  COLUMN A. Write down only the letter (A–G) next to the question number  (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.3.6 H. 

(5 x 2) (10) 
TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: MATERIALS AND STRUCTURES 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
2.1 When certain elements are added to stainless steel they may cause changes  in the properties of the stainless steel. 

2.1.1 Name THREE influences of nickel on stainless steel. (3) 
2.1.2 Name the final product formed when two or more pure metals are  melted together. (1) 

2.2 What happens to a metal when it is annealed? (1)
2.3 Give TWO reasons for removing flux residues after soft soldering. (2) 
2.4 Give a reason why brass, which has been heated to a red hot temperature,  should NOT be cooled in cold water. (1) 
2.5 State THREE properties of tin. (3)
2.6 Adhesives are used daily to join materials. 

2.6.1 Define the term adhesion. (1) 
2.6.2 Name TWO important aspects that must be considered when an  adhesive is chosen. (2) 

2.7 Describe FOUR precautionary measures to consider when working with  glass fibre. (4) 
2.8 A vesconite bush is removed easily from the shaft.  Give TWO reasons to support this statement. (2)
2.9 The photograph below shows an electric fence. Answer the questions that  follow. 

2.9.1 Name THREE factors which may cause interference on an  electric fence. (3) 
2.9.2 According to safety regulations, what should be installed in an electric fence where it crosses the path of pedestrians? (2) 
2.9.3 Name THREE types of material that may be used as isolators between the wires and posts of an electric fence to prevent  short circuits. (3) 
2.9.4 State TWO types of batteries which may be used as a power  supply for an electric fence. (2) 

2.10 The wires of an electric fence must be very strong because of the enormous  strain in the wires.  

2.10.1 Name the type of wire used for erecting an electric fence. (1)
2.10.2 What is the minimum thickness of the wires for an electric fence? (1) 
2.10.3 Name a cost-effective process that may be used to protect the iron  components of an electric fence against corrosion. (1) 
2.10.4 Name TWO factors which must be taken into consideration when  installing a fence energiser. (2)

[35]

QUESTION 3: ENERGY 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
3.1 A photograph of a wind turbine is shown below. Answer the questions  that follow. 

3.1.1 Name THREE aspects to consider when selecting a wind turbine  to generate power for an electric fence on a game farm. (3) 
3.1.2 Describe FOUR advantages of using a wind turbine to generate  electrical energy. (4) 

3.2 Solar energy is one of the greatest sources of alternative energy, but it is also  a source that is mostly underutilised. 

3.2.1 Name TWO types of energy that are generated directly from solar  energy and give an example of a device that can convert this  energy effectively. (4) 
3.2.2 Name the component that is used to change direct current (DC)  generated by photovoltaic cells into alternating current (AC). (1) 
3.2.3 What is the most common semiconducting material used to  manufacture solar panels? (1)

3.3 Methanol is used in various fuel applications on a farm. 

3.3.1 Name the gas that is used to manufacture methanol fuel and state a source of this gas. (2) 
3.3.2 State TWO advantages of methanol fuel. (2) 

3.4 A geothermal power plant uses steam from deep within the earth to generate  electricity. Describe how this steam is used to generate electricity. (3)

[20]

QUESTION 4: SKILLS AND CONSTRUCTION PROCESSES 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
4.1 MIG welding is easy because it requires less skill than conventional  arc welding. 

4.1.1 Name THREE settings on the MIG welding machine that should be  adjusted before starting a welding project. (3) 
4.1.2 You can tell a fair amount about the quality of a MIG welding  process by the way it sounds. Describe the correct sound that the  MIG welding process should make. (2) 
4.1.3 What is wrong with the setting of the MIG welding machine if the  welding operator burns holes into the work piece? (1) 

4.2 The picture below shows an oxyacetylene welding apparatus. Answer the  questions that follow. 

4.2.1 Explain the procedure to extinguish an oxyacetylene flame when  a welding job has been completed. (5) 
4.2.2 Describe the symptoms experienced when welding vapours from  galvanised steel has been inhaled and give the name of this kind  of poisoning. (2)

4.3 You have to install burglar proofing for a room in which poisonous insecticides  are stored.  
The window is 800 mm high and 600 mm wide.  
The burglar proofing should consist of two vertical and three horizontal bars. 
You may only use 10 mm square bars.  
The cost of the metal is R5,00 per metre. 

4.3.1 Make a neat, freehand drawing of the window frame and indicate  the placing of the burglar proofing.  
Marks will be awarded as follows:  (4) 

4.3.2 Calculate the cost of the materials that will be used to manufacture the burglar proofing. (Show ALL calculations.) (3) 

4.4 Discuss the overhead arc-welding technique when the metal trusses of  a shed are being welded. (5) 
4.5 Name THREE circumstances when the horizontal square butt welding joint  will be used. (3) 
4.6 A plasma jet creates high amounts of ultraviolet radiation that may harm the eyes.  

4.6.1 What is the correct source of information to consult to choose the  correct eye protection for plasma cutting? (1) 
4.6.2 Give THREE advantages of a plasma cutting machine compared to  an oxyacetylene cutting set. (3) 

4.7 Plasma cutting machines have built-in regulators with air filters to remove  moisture or other contaminants. Explain the results if the air filters of the plasma cutting machine become  saturated with moisture. (3)

[35]

QUESTION 5: TOOLS, IMPLEMENTS AND EQUIPMENT 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
5.1 Describe FIVE safety measures applicable when using a push lawn mower. (5) 

5.2 A power take-off shaft is shown below. Answer the questions that follow.  

5.2.1 Name the device that allows the power take-off shaft to operate  at an angle. (1) 
5.2.2 Safety screens must always be used when working with a power  take-off shaft so that people are not injured when it is being  operated.  State TWO requirements that these safety screens should  comply with. (2)

5.3 A combine harvester is shown below. Answer the questions that follow. 

5.3.1 Why would a combine harvester break the maize kernels during  the threshing process? (2) 
5.3.2 Why would the maize kernels and the chaff be blown out the back  of the harvester? (2) 

5.4 The photograph below shows a hammer mill used on a farm to pulverise feed. 

Name the part of the hammer mill responsible for EACH of the following actions: 

5.4.1 Pulverising feed (1)
5.4.2 Determining the size of the final ground product (1)
5.4.3 Separating the ground material effectively from the air (1)

5.5 Describe the procedure that must be followed when the silage cutter shown  below is prepared for use. (5) 

5.6 Safety is very important when working with the front-end loader shown below.  

Name the preventative measures that the operator must take to prevent the  following injuries: 

5.6.1 The driver is injured by a falling bale (1)
5.6.2 Bystanders are injured by a bale falling from the loader (1) 
5.6.3 The front-end loader falls on its side while it is moving up a steep  slope (1) 

5.7 A ram-type baling machine is shown below. Answer the questions that follow. 

5.7.1 Name TWO safety mechanisms used on the ram-type baling  machine. (2) 
5.7.2 Describe the function of the auger in the ram-type baling machine. (3)

5.8 Name the parts that are used to connect the implement below to the tractor. (3) 

5.9 Name the THREE shafts found in the manual gearbox of a tractor. (3) 
5.10 Compare the two types of drive belts shown below by redrawing and  completing the table in the ANSWER BOOK.  

(6) 

[40]

QUESTION 6: WATER MANAGEMENT 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
6.1 South Africa is a country where water shortages occur frequently. Farmers  must use more efficient irrigation systems to conserve water. A farmer wants to water one hectare of land with drip irrigation. A sketch of  the one-hectare field with a closed network of pipes is shown below.  

6.1.1 Calculate the length and cost of the pipes you will need for  the field. The pipes are 100 m long each and will be connected and  evenly spread across the field. The price of the pipes that will be  used is R6,50 per metre. (3) 
6.1.2 Calculate the total cost of the T-joints and elbows that you will  need if there are 19 T-joints at R8,00 per T-joint and 4 elbows at  R6,50 per elbow. (3)

6.2 Explain the function of a one-way irrigation valve. (3)
6.3 State FOUR advantages of sprinkler irrigation over flood irrigation. (4) 
6.4 Briefly describe the safety feature built into the centre pivot irrigation system  to prevent the centre pivot from falling when a wheel gets stuck. (3) 
6.5 Give THREE important reasons why a farmer would prefer drip irrigation to  an overhead irrigation system. (4) 
6.6 Name TWO types of equipment that may be used to determine evaporation levels in a specific field. (2) 
6.7 Name THREE types of irrigation systems that may be used by farmers  to irrigate large fields. (3)
6.8 State the main problem commonly experienced by farmers who irrigate fields  from rivers. (1) 
6.9 Name the kind of capital represented by EACH of the following:

6.9.1 Irrigation pipeline between the water source and the centre pivot (1)
6.9.2 Irrigation system water filters (1)
6.9.3 Wages of the labourers (1) 
6.9.4 Tractor (1)

[30] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 160
GRAND TOTAL:  200

AGRICULTURAL TECHNOLOGY
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1

1.1.1 C✔✔ 
1.1.2 A✔✔ 
1.1.3 D✔✔ 
1.1.4 B✔✔ 
1.1.5 A✔✔ 
1.1.6 D✔✔ 
1.1.7 C✔✔ 
1.1.8 D✔✔ 
1.1.9 A✔✔ 
1.1.10 C✔✔  (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2

1.2.1 Aluminium✔✔ 
1.2.2 Mechanical/motion✔✔ 
1.2.3 Mechanisation✔✔ 
1.2.4 Teflon✔✔ 
1.2.5 Chemicals ✔✔ (5 x 2) (10) 

  1.3

1.3.1 B✔✔ 
1.3.2 A✔✔ 
1.3.3 D✔✔ 
1.3.4 C✔✔ 
1.3.5 F✔✔  (5 x 2) (10)

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: MATERIALS AND STRUCTURES 
2.1
2.1.1 THREE influences of nickel on stainless steel.  

• Improves the toughness and the hardening ability.✔ 
• Gives steel a fair amount of toughness at low temperature.✔ 
• Steel which is alloyed with chromium and nickel is resistant to air,✔ water and many chemical acids and alkali. (3) 

2.1.2 The final product when two or more pure metals are melted together.

• Alloy✔ (1) 

2.2 What happens to a metal when it is annealed? 

• Metal becomes soft✔ (1) 

2.3 TWO reasons why flux residues must be removed after soft soldering.

• To reduce the tendency to cause staining.✔ 
• To reduce the tendency to cause corrosion.✔ (2) 

2.4 A reason why brass, which has been heated to a red hot temperature,  should not be cooled in cold water. 

• Cracks may be caused✔ 
• Becomes hard and brittle (Any 1) (1) 

2.5 THREE properties of tin.  

• Silvery-white in colour✔  
• Soft✔ 
• Malleable✔ 
• Prevents corrosion/anti-corrosive 
• Prevents contamination of food (Any 3) (3) 

2.6
2.6.1 Definition of adhesion. 

• Ability of the molecules of an adhesive to cling to the molecules of other  substances.✔ (1) 

2.6.2 TWO important aspects when an adhesive is chosen. 

• Type of material to be joined.✔ 
• Conditions under which this joint will be used.✔ (2) 

2.7 FOUR precautionary measures when working with glass fibre. 

• Catalyst and accelerator should always be stored separately.✔ 
• Remove all resin catalyst and accelerator from skin.✔ 
• Wear gloves if skin is sensitive.✔ 
• Use acetone in well ventilated room.✔ 
• Handle resin casting carefully as they are brittle. 
• Glass fibre matting has small pieces of fibre that can penetrate the skin.
• Wear nose mask. 
• Wear eye protection (Any 4) (4)

2.8 TWO reasons why a vesconite bush is easily removed from a shaft.

• No electrolytic corrosion occurs with vesconite.✔ 
• It does not seize like metallic bearings.✔ (2) 

2.9
2.9.1 THREE factors which cause interference on an electric fence.

• Bad joints✔ 
• Leaking insulation✔ 
• Vegetation touching the fence line✔ 
• People 
• Animals 
• Bad earthing/dry soil 
• Too long distances 
• Water (Any 3) (3) 

2.9.2 Must be included in the electric game fence where it crosses the  pathway of humans. 

• A non-electrified✔gate✔ (2) 

2.9.3 THREE types of material that can be used as isolators between  wires and posts of electric fences to prevent short circuits. 

• Ceramic✔ 
• Rubber✔ 
• Plastic✔ (Any 3) (3) 

2.9.4 TWO types of batteries for an electric fence. 

• Disposable/rechargeable battery✔ 
• 12 volt wet rechargeable battery✔ 
• Deep cycle battery (Any 2) (2) 

2.10
2.10.1 A type of wire that is for constructing an electric fence.

• Steel ✔wire (1) 

2.10.2 The minimum thickness of the wire for the electric fence. 

• 2–3 mm✔ (1) 

2.10.3 A cost-effective process used to protect electric fence components  from corrosion. 

• Galvanize✔ 
• Paint (Any 1) (1) 

2.10.4 TWO factors when installing the electric fence energizer.  

• Constructed so as to exclude dust and water✔ 
• Not installed in dusty locations✔ 
• Fire hazard 
• Theft 
• Damage by animals (Any 2) (2)

[35]

QUESTION 3: ENERGY 
3.1
3.1.1 THREE aspects when selecting a wind turbine to generate power for  the electric fence on a game farm. 

• Surrounding environment/site selection/topography✔ 
• Cost effectiveness✔ 
• The average wind speed✔ 
• Length of the fence 
• Capacity 
• Theft 
• Maintenance (Any 3) (3) 

3.1.2 FOUR advantages of using a wind turbine to generate electrical  energy. 

• Wind power has no fuel costs✔ 
• Low maintenance costs✔ 
• Wind power has no clean-up costs✔ 
• Natural gas and oil imports can be reduced✔ 
• Do not contribute to air pollution 
• Wind is a renewable energy source  
• Personal energy independence (Any 4) (4) 

3.2
3.2.1 TWO types of energy that are generated directly from solar energy and an example of a device that can effectively convert such type of  solar energy for use. 

• Heat✔ Solar/sun geyser or solar cooker✔ 
• Electricity✔ Solar cell/photo-electric cells✔ (4) 

3.2.2 The component that is used to change direct current (DC) generated by photovoltaic cells into alternating current (AC).  

• Alternator/Inverter/rectifier✔ (1) 

3.2.3 The most common semiconducting material used for the  manufacturing of solar panels. 

• Silicon✔ (1) 

3.3
3.3.1 The gas that is used to manufacture methanol fuel and an example for the gas source.  

• Methane gas✔  (1) 
• Rubbish dump/sewage/manure✔ (Any 1)  (1) 

3.3.2 TWO advantages of methanol fuel. 

• It offers lower exhaust emissions and higher vehicle performance.✔
• It can easily be made into hydrogen, offering a promising future for use  in methanol fuels cells.✔ 
• Methanol has a lower risk of flammability than gasoline. (Any 2) (2) 

3.4 Describe how geothermal steam is used to generate electricity.

• The pressurized steam is channelled to a turbine which begins to turn  under the large force of the steam.✔ 
• This turbine is linked to the generator✔ that generates electricity.✔ (3)

[20]

QUESTION 4: SKILLS AND CONSTRUCTION PROCESSES 
4.1
4.1.1 THREE settings on the MIG welding machine that must be done  before welding. 

• Welding current/arc strength/arc force/power✔ 
• Gas supply pressure/working pressure. (Between 15 and 25 PSI) ✔ 
• Speed of the wire feed✔ 
• Appropriate shielding gas 
• Time setting for continuous welding (Any 3) (3) 

4.1.2 Sound that the MIG welding process makes. 

• Continuous sparking✔ 
• An egg frying sound✔ (2) 

4.1.3 Wrong setting on the MIG welding machine when holes occur when  welding. 

• The power of the welding machine is too high.✔ (1) 

4.2
4.2.1 How must an oxy-acetylene flame be extinguished after completing a  welding job? 

• Turn off the acetylene valve on the torch handle.✔ 
• This will extinguish the flame.✔ 
• Turn off the oxygen valve on the torch handle.✔ 
• Next, remove your safety goggles or mask and your welding gloves.✔
• Turn the main cylinder valve clockwise on the top of both gas cylinders to close the bottles.✔ 
• Now open the two valves on the torch handle to 'bleed' the system.  
• Turn both the oxygen and acetylene regulator handles counter clockwise until they are loose. 
• Close both valves on the torch handle.  
• Put the handle and tips away, and return the gas cylinders and their  hoses to their proper storage area. (Any 5) (5) 

4.2.2 Symptoms experienced when inhaling welding vapours from  galvanized steel. 

• Flu like symptoms✔ (fever/headaches/red eyes/sinus) (1)
• Heavy metal poisoning✔ (welding shivers)  (1) 

4.3
4.3.1 Drawing of the burglar proofing. 
   

• Drawing of burglar bars in frame: (Horizontal x 3 ✔and Vertical x 2✔) 2 marks 
• Dimensions✔ 1 mark • Spacing off the bars✔ 1 mark (4) 

4.3.2 Calculate the cost of the materials to be used for manufacturing the  burglar proofing bars. 

• Total length of horizontal square bars is: 
  (600 mm x 3 = 1800 mm) + (800 mm x 2 = 1600 mm) = 3400 mm✔
  = 3,4 metres✔
• Price of square bar is R5,00 x 3,4 m
  = R15,20✔ (3) 

4.4 Discussion of the overhead arc welding technique. 

• Use an arc as short as possible.✔ 
• Weld a number of runs without any side wards movement.✔ 
• When molten metal starts dripping, the amperage should be reduced  slightly.✔  
• Move electrode slightly faster.✔ 
• Hold electrode in same position as in relation to base metal.✔ (5) 

4.5 THREE circumstances for using the horizontal square butt welding joint.

• When two pieces of metal less than 6 mm in thickness are welded.✔ 
• The metal is in an upright position.✔ 
• One work piece is on top of the other.✔ (3)

4.6
4.6.1 Information source to consult for choosing the correct eye protection  for plasma cutting. 

• User manual✔ 
• Internet 
• Supplier (Any 1) (1) 

4.6.2 THREE advantages of a plasma cutting machine over the  oxy-acetylene cutting set. 

• Rapid cutting speeds✔ 
• Wide range of metals and thickness✔ 
• Easy to use✔ 
• Economical (Any 3) (3) 

4.7 Explanation of the end result if the air filters on the plasma cutting  machine becomes saturated with moisture. 

• Moisture is going to penetrate the machine.✔ 
• The moisture entering the torch is highly conductive✔and can cause internal  arcing ✔that can damage the torch. (Any 3) (3) 

[35]

QUESTION 5: TOOLS, IMPLEMENTS AND EQUIPMENT 

5.1 FIVE safety measures applicable when using a push lawn mower.

• Read and understand the operator's manual and become familiar with the  machine.✔ 
• Remove all debris from lawns before mowing.✔ 
• Use recommended PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) including  closefitting clothing when operating a lawn mower.✔ 
• Disengage the blade before starting.✔ 
• Keep all guards and safety shields in place.✔ 
• Never disengage any safety interlock switches.  
• Never refuel the mower when the engine is hot or running.  
• Store gasoline in an approved container with proper label.  
• Turn off the motor before cleaning the area under the deck.  
• Disconnect the spark or electric plug before trouble-shooting or repairing  the mower.  
• Perform routine maintenance according to the schedule recommended by  the manufacturer.  
• Keep a running mower away from bystanders and pets. (Any 5) (5) 

5.2
5.2.1 Device that allows the power take-off shaft to operate at an angle.

• Universal joint✔ (1) 

5.2.2 TWO requirements of power take-off shaft screens.  

• Strong✔ 
• Not become lose/tight✔ 
• Weight saving/Light 
• Must provide sufficient protection (Any 2) (2)

5.3
5.3.1 Reason why a combine harvester breaks the kernels. 

• Happens when the drum speed✔is incorrect✔ (2) 

5.3.2 Reason why the kernels are blown out with the chaff. 

• The blower ✔of the combine harvester creates too much wind.✔ (2) 

5.4 The part of the hammer mill that is responsible for each of the following:
5.4.1 Pulverize the feed. 

• Rotor and hammer✔ (1) 

5.4.2 Determine the size of the final ground product. 

• Sieve✔ (1) 

5.4.3 Separate the ground material effectively from the air. 

• Cyclone✔ (1)

5.5 The procedure to follow when the silage cutter is prepared for use.

• All grease points must be well greased.✔ 
• The correct tension must be set for all belts or chains.✔ 
• Check that all parts are functioning correctly by operating it slowly.✔
• Replace all worn parts immediately especially the cutter blades.✔ 
• Service according to manufacturer's specifications.✔ 
• Lift up all dust release guards. 
• Check that there is no damage to the blades and that they are sharp.  (Any 5) (5) 

5.6 Preventative measures that the operator must keep in mind to prevent the  following injuries: 
5.6.1 The driver injured by a falling bale. 

• The tractor should have roll-over protective structures.✔ 
• Do not lift or carry the bale too high. 
• Carry the bale in the front of the tractor. (Any 1) (1) 

5.6.2 Bystanders injured by a bale falling from the loader. 

• Never drive close near people.✔ 
• Never walk or work under a raised loader. 
• Never move or swing a load as long as people are in the work area.  (Any 1) (1) 

5.6.3 Side overturn of the tractor on a steep slope. 

• Never work with two wheels on the downhill side and two wheels  on uphill side.✔ 
• As the bale is lifted, the centre of gravity gets higher and the  potential for the tractor to roll down the slope increases. (Any 1) (1) 

5.7
5.7.1 TWO safety mechanisms used in ram type baling machine. 

• Slip clutch✔ 
• Screens✔ 
• Shear bolts 
• Ram stop (Any 2) (2) 

5.7.2 Function of the auger in the ram type baling machine. 

• The auger constantly rotates✔ and feeds the hay✔ to the packing  arms.✔ (3) 

5.8 Name the parts that are used to connect an implement to the tractor.

• Two lifting arms✔ 
• Top link✔ 
• Two stabilising chains✔   (3)   

5.9 THREE shafts that are found in the manual gearbox of a tractor. 

• Main shaft/Input shaft✔ 
• Counter shaft✔ 
• Output shaft✔ (3)

5.10 Comparison of the two different types of drive belts. 

(6) 
[40]

QUESTION 6: WATER MANAGEMENT 
6.1
6.1.1 Calculation of the length and costs of the pipes. 

• 13 x 100 m = 1 300 m✔ of pipe
  1 300 m x R6,50 ✔
  = R8 450,00✔ (3) 

6.1.2 Calculation of the total cost of T-joints and elbows 

• 19 x R8,00 = R152,00✔ 
• 4 x R6,50 = R26,00✔ 
• Total Cost: R152,00 + R26,00 = R178,00✔ (3) 

6.2 The function of a one-way irrigation valve. 

• An irrigation valve regulates✔the one-directional flow✔of water in an irrigation  system.✔ (3) 

6.3 FOUR reasons for preferring sprinkler irrigation to flood irrigation. 

• When water supply is weak✔ 
• Surface gradient (steep) leads to erosion✔ 
• Infiltration tempo not constant✔ 
• Drainage problems with the soil✔ (4) 

6.4 The safety feature that is built into the centre pivot irrigation system to  prevent it from falling when one of the wheels gets stuck. 

• When the system gets out of line✔a safety switch cuts the electricity to the  wheels✔preventing the other wheels from moving forward.✔ (3) 

6.5 THREE important reasons why a farmer will choose a drip irrigation system  instead of an overhead irrigation system. 

• Water saving✔ 
• Application of herbicides✔ 
• Liquid fertiliser can be given effectively through this system on the spot✔ 
• More economical✔ (4) 

6.6 TWO types of equipment that can be used to determine evaporation in a  specific field. 

• Tensio-meter✔ 
• Evaporation pan/class-A pan✔ 
• Neutron probe (Any 2) (2)

6.7 THREE types of irrigation systems that can be used by farmers to water  large fields. 

• Flood irrigation✔(furrow/bed irrigation) 
• Hand moved sprinkler pipes✔ 
• Centre Pivot (Drop down pipes) or high fixed sprinklers✔ (3) 

6.8 A problem that is commonly experienced by irrigation farmers. 

• Rivers that dries up✔ 
• Price of water 
• Low water quotas 
• Pollution-heavy metals (Any 1)    (1) 

6.9 Kind of capital. 
6.9.1 Fixed capital✔ (1)
6.9.2 Working or floating capital✔ (1)
6.9.3 Working or floating capital✔ (1)
6.9.4 Moveable capital✔ (1) [

30] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 160
GRAND TOTAL:  200

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCES
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections, namely SECTION A and  SECTION B.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
3. Start EACH question on a NEW page.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
5. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
6. Show ALL calculations, including formulae, where applicable.
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Write down the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10), choose the answer and make  a cross (X) over the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 The compartment of the ruminant stomach that corresponds to the  simple stomach of the pig: 

1. Abomasum
2. Omasum
3. Rumen
4. Reticulum 

1.1.2 Mechanical digestion of food in a fowl takes place in the … 

1. crop.
2. proventriculus.
3. ventriculus.
4. cloaca. 

1.1.3 … secrete(s) an alkaline secretion rich in mucus in the duodenum  that protects it from the acidic chyme. 

1. Duodenal glands
2. Brunner's gland
3. The parotid gland
4. The gland of Lieberkühn 

1.1.4 Bile is produced in the ... and then stored in the gall bladder. 

1. bile ducts  
2. liver
3. pancreas
4. small intestine

1.1.5 The best description of external parasites on cattle: 

1. Live on the skin of cattle
2. Can damage the skin
3. Can produce toxins
4. Found in the liver 

Choose the CORRECT combination: 

1. (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. (i), (iii) and (iv) 

1.1.6 The body temperature of farm animals is usually ... the  environmental temperature.  

1. the same as
2. in the same ratio as  
3. higher than  
4. lower than 

1.1.7 Which of the statements below with regard to a feedlot production  enterprise are TRUE?  

1. Shade and shelter are provided to animals.
2. All pastures and feeds are harvested and then fed to the  animals.
3. Rotational grazing is practised.
4. This enterprise is labour and capital intensive. 

Choose the CORRECT combination: 

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv) 

1.1.8 The purpose of vaccination is mainly to … diseases in farm animals.  

1. control 
2. treat 
3. prolong 
4. prevent 

1.1.9 A bacterial venereal infection causing the worst cases of abortion which results in infertility in cows: 

1. Anthrax
2. Trichomoniasis
3. Brucellosis
4. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

1.1.10 The congenital defect where the testes are underdeveloped: 

1. Hypoplasia
2. Impotence
3. Cryptorchidism
4. Hermaphroditism (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2 Indicate whether each of the descriptions in COLUMN B applies to A ONLY,  B ONLY, BOTH A AND B or NONE of the items in COLUMN A. Write A only, B only, both A and B or none next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.5) in  the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.6 B only. 

 (5 x 2) (10) 
1.3 Give ONE word/term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the  word/term next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3.1 The enzyme in the saliva of pigs responsible for the chemical  change from starch to simple sugars  
1.3.2 A farmer who produces on a large scale and is profit-orientated  
1.3.3 The phenomenon where a superior cow is treated with hormones  to produce many ova  
1.3.4 A powerful contraction of the urethra that deposits semen into the  vagina of the cow  
1.3.5 The stage of mating where male and female animals are attracted  to one another (5 x 2) (10)

1.4 Change the UNDERLINED WORD(S) in each of the following statements to make them TRUE. Write only the answer next to the question number  (1.4.1–1.4.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.4.1 Fundic muscles prevent food from the oesophagus from entering the stomach of a pig. 
1.4.2 Free-range is a system where chickens are kept on the floor of a  house until they stop laying eggs.  
1.4.3 The gestation period in dairy cattle refers to the period between two lactations.  
1.4.4 Dolly, the famous sheep, produced seven identical lambs through  the process of genetic modification.  
1.4.5 A spermatozoon is the end product of the process of oogenesis.   (5 x 1) (5) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: ANIMAL NUTRITION 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
2.1 The diagram below represents the alimentary canal of a farm animal. 

2.1.1 Name the farm animal represented by the alimentary canal in the  diagram above. (1) 
2.1.2 Indicate the importance of parts A and C in the digestion of feed of  the farm animal identified in QUESTION 2.1.1. (2) 
2.1.3 Explain mechanical digestion as it occurs in the alimentary canal of  the farm animal identified above. (2)

2.2 The diagram below shows the absorption of nutrients from the small intestines  into the blood circulatory system. 

2.2.1 Identify the types of nutrient transport in A and B. (2)
2.2.2 Give a reason for the answer to QUESTION 2.2.1. (2)
2.2.3 Identify structure C. (1)
2.2.4 Name the nutrient that is absorbed through each of the following: 

1. 1. Blood capillaries (1) 
   2. Lacteal (1) 

2.3 The graph below shows the feed components of a ration. 

2.3.1 Identify ONE example of an energy-rich concentrate in the graph  above. (1) 
2.3.2 Identify the feed supplement that is mainly added to licks as a  source of energy in the graph above. (1) 
2.3.3 Comment, with a reason, on the suitability of urea as a supplement  for pigs. (2) 
2.3.4 Tabulate, using the rations in the graph above: 

1. 1. A source of natural protein 
   2. A source of NPN protein (3) 

2.4 The table below is a farm fodder flow programme for a period of 120 days  during winter.  

2.4.1 Use the data above to calculate A and B. (4) 
2.4.2 Use the data above and determine the average cost of feeding ONE animal for ONE day. (3)

2.5 The table below shows the composition of two animal feeds.  

2.5.1 Use a formula to calculate the nutritive ratio (NR) of FEED B. (3) 
2.5.2 FEED A cannot be recommended for milk-producing cows. Refer to the nutritive ratio above to justify this statement. (2) 

2.6 The table below shows information regarding animal feeds. 

Use the Pearson square method to calculate the ratio of the two feeds  mentioned above. (4)

[35]

QUESTION 3: ANIMAL PRODUCTION, PROTECTION AND CONTROL
Start this question on a NEW page. 

3.1 Explain how EACH of the following impacts on an extensive production  system:   

3.1.1 Natural resources (2)
3.1.2 Feeding (2)
3.1.3 Exploitative practices (2) 

3.2 The pictures below indicate management practices applied to piglets. 

3.2.1 Identify management practices A and B in the pictures above. (2)
3.2.2 Give a reason for management practice A and B. (2)
3.2.3 Refer to A and name the mineral that is usually given to piglets. (1)
3.2.4 Give TWO reasons to motivate the answer to QUESTION 3.2.3. (2)

3.3 

The table below shows the lowest critical temperatures of different farm  animals. 

3.3.1 Use the data in the table above and draw a bar graph to indicate  the lowest critical temperature of the different farm animals. (6) 
3.3.2 Which farm animal in the table above will NOT utilise the feed  efficiently if the environmental temperature is at 24 °C? (1) 
3.3.3 Dairy cows can produce milk even when environmental  temperatures are at 6 °C. Substantiate this statement. (1) 

3.4 The illustration below represents the life cycle of a parasite that affects farm  animals. 

3.4.1 Classify and name the parasite represented above. (2)
3.4.2 Identify the letter (A–F) representing EACH of the following: 

1. 1. Intermediate host (1) 
   2. Eggs hatch into larva (1) 

3.4.3 Suggest ONE precautionary measure a farmer can take to ensure  that animals are not infected by this parasite. (1) 
3.4.4 State THREE economic implications of this parasite for the farmer. (3)

3.5 

3.5.1 Identify TWO purposes of chicken housing in the extract above. (2) 3.5.2 State TWO factors to consider when building a chicken house. (2) 
3.5.3 Name TWO examples of equipment in a poultry house. (2)

[35]

QUESTION 4: ANIMAL REPRODUCTION 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
4.1 The diagram below shows the embryo and foetus development in farm  animals. 

4.1.1 Identify structures B, E and F. (3)
4.1.2 State the following about structure D:  

1. 1. ONE function (1) 
   2. ONE constituent (1)
   3. Place where it is found (1) 

4.1.3 Indicate the time (in months) during which dairy farmers should be  able to detect the presence of a foetus with a rectal pregnancy  diagnosis test. (1)

4.2 Hormones play an important role in the reproduction cycle of farm animals. 

4.2.1 Explain the term hormone. (2)
4.2.2 Give the main function of EACH of the following hormones:  

1. 1. Testosterone (1)
   2. Luteinising hormone (LH) (1)
   3. Oestrogen (1)

4.2.3 Name the hormone responsible for: 

1. 1. Maintaining the corpus luteum (1)
   2. Growth and development of the Graafian follicle (1)

4.3 The graph below shows information on the oestrus cycle of dairy cattle. 

4.3.1 Determine the number of cows in oestrus from 12:00 to 18:00. (1)
4.3.2 Indicate the time during which 20 cows will be in oestrus. (1) 
4.3.3 Refer to the graph and predict the trend of the number of cows in  oestrus from 12:00 to 06:00. (1) 
4.3.4 Calculate the number of cows in oestrus from 18:00 to 06:00. (2) 
4.3.5 Refer to the graph above and suggest the best time to inseminate  the cows. (1) 
4.3.6 Give ONE reason for the answer to QUESTION 4.3.5. (1)

4.4 The diagram below represents the udder of a dairy cow.  

4.4.1 Identify parts A, B and C. (3)
4.4.2 Define the term lactation in dairy cows. (2)
4.4.3 Compare the change in milk production and butterfat production  during ONE lactation period. (2) 

4.5 

4.5.1 Give an appropriate term commonly used for difficult births. (1)4.5.2 Explain the reason for difficult births in heifers. (2) 
4.5.3 Indicate TWO managerial measures to reduce the probability of  difficult births. (2) 
4.5.4 Define the term placenta retention. (2)

[35] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 105 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCES
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections, namely SECTION A and  SECTION B.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
3. Start EACH question on a NEW page.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
5. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
6. Show ALL calculations, including formulae, where applicable.
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Write down the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10), choose the answer and make  a cross (X) over the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 The factor that influences the supply and the demand of a product: 

1. An increase in the supply of the product
2. Range of products available
3. Price of the product  
4. Attitude and values of consumers 

1.1.2 ONE of the following refers to the movement of products from the  producer to consumers: 

1. Grading
2. Processing
3. Value adding
4. Marketing 

1.1.3 The factor that ensures a secure market and price for products: 

1. Demand 
2. Supply 
3. Contract 
4. Risk 

1.1.4 The measure of how much the demand for a product changes with  a change in price: 

1. Equilibrium
2. Fluctuation 
3. Price elasticity of demand
4. Price inelasticity of demand 

1.1.5 An example of production capital in a dairy farming enterprise: 

1. Feed 
2. Breeding cows
3. Fencing 
4. Milking machines

1.1.6 Net worth of a farming enterprise may be defined as … 

1. the value of assets minus the liabilities.
2. the owner's equity.
3. expenditure minus income.
4. assets plus liabilities. 

1.1.7 Capital that is invested in items of a more permanent nature, like a  dam, is called … capital.  

1. floating
2. movable 
3. working
4. fixed 

1.1.8 A worker who works on a farm only during the harvesting of  oranges may be classified as a … labourer. 

1. seasonal
2. casual
3. permanent
4. semi-permanent  

1.1.9 Nguni cattle are preferred for breeding in South Africa due to the  following traits: 

1. Very fertile
2. Resistant to ticks and diseases 
3. Large frames
4. High adaptability to harsh conditions 

Choose the CORRECT combination: 

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (iv)
4. (ii), (iii) and (iv) 

1.1.10 The structure that is changed by genetic modification: 

1. Cell
2. Gene
3. Nucleus
4. Antigen (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Choose a term/phrase from COLUMN B that matches a description in  COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–J) next to the question number  (1.2.1–1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.6 K. 

(5 x 2) (10) 
1.3 Give ONE word/term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the  word/term next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3.1 Telling people more about a product in order to convince them to  buy it 
1.3.2 The production output in relation to the financial input in a farming  enterprise 
1.3.3 An instrument used to transfer desirable genes into plant tissue  
1.3.4 A form of biotechnology that involves the manipulation of genes to  obtain desired characteristics 
1.3.5 Characteristics that are determined by the outcome of only one  gene (5 x 2) (10)

1.4 Change the UNDERLINED WORD(S) in each of the following statements to make them TRUE. Write only the answer next to the question number  (1.4.1–1.4.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.4.1 Grading is the provision of standard specifications which will give  uniformity to a group of products.  
1.4.2 An asset list is a record of capital goods on a farm.  
1.4.3 A single hereditary factor is called dihybrid inheritance. 
1.4.4 An allele represented by a capital letter is always recessive.  
1.4.5 The law of independent assortment states that alleles separate into separate gametes so that each gamete contains only one gene for  the characteristic. (5 x 1) (5) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: AGRICULTURAL MANAGEMENT AND MARKETING 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
2.1 The graph below indicates the quantities offered and bought at different prices  for a particular agricultural product. 

2.1.1 Identify curves A and B. (2)
2.1.2 Define the term equilibrium price. (2)
2.1.3 Explain the relationship between curves A and B in relation to price. (3)

2.2 The following are channels of a free marketing system.  

2.2.1 Match the channels of a free marketing system above to EACH of the  following: 

1. The farmer sells spinach directly to consumers on the farm. (1)
2. Goats, sheep and cattle are sold to the highest bidder. (1)
3. An agreement or arrangement to sell directly to a wholesaler. (1)
4. Mangoes and apples are delivered to markets immediately. (1)
5. Goods are advertised and sold electronically. (1) 

2.2.2 Name TWO disadvantages of a free marketing system for a farmer. (2)
2.3 The flow chart below illustrates the path of agricultural products from the  producer to the consumer.  

2.3.1 Indicate the letter (A–F) in the flow chart above, that represents EACH of the following: 

1. 1. Demand (1) 
   2. Supply  (1) 

2.3.2 Which factor may hamper marketing between stages C and D? (1)
2.3.3 Give TWO guidelines for packaging in stage C. (2)
2.3.4 State TWO factors determining the demand for peaches. (2) 

2.4 The table below shows the number of bags of butternuts bought at different prices at a local market.  

2.4.1 Use the data in the table above and draw a line graph to show the  number of bags of butternuts bought at different prices. (6) 
2.4.2 Refer to the line graph and identify the tendency in the price, as the  number of bags of butternuts decline. (1)

2.5 Different phases in the process of entrepreneurship are shown below: 

1. Focus on carrying out the plan to produce and supply goods or  services
2. Determine available capital, labour and equipment
3. Realisation of the absence of suitable products and services
4. Plan the business to secure funding 

2.5.1 Re-arrange the entrepreneurial phases (A–D) above in the correct order. (4) 
2.5.2 State THREE problems that may be encountered during the planning  phase. (3)

[35] 

QUESTION 3: PRODUCTION FACTORS
Start this question on a NEW page. 
3.1 

3.1.1 Calculate the interest this farmer will have to pay to the financial  institution. (2) 
3.1.2 Use a formula to calculate the profitability of this farming enterprise. (3) 
3.1.3 Recommend whether the farmer should continue with this enterprise. Give a reason for the answer. (2) 

3.2 

3.2.1 Briefly explain the purpose of this Act. (2) 
3.2.2 State THREE guidelines that the farmer has to comply with, as  stipulated by the legislation above. (3) 

3.3 The picture below shows the coordination of production factors for effective  agricultural production. 

3.3.1 Identify the letter (A–F) representing EACH of the following: 

1. 1. Farm manager (1)
   2. Farm labourer (1)
   3. Movable capital (1)
   4. Fixed capital (1)

3.3.2 Give the main management principle in the picture on the previous  page. Give a reason for the answer. (2) 
3.3.3 List THREE entrepreneurial skills in the picture. (3) 

3.4 

3.4.1 Indicate the measure to improve land productivity, as indicated by  EACH of the following statements: 

1. 1. Combining grain crops and leguminous crops (1)
   2. Using a larger field rather than individual smaller plots to  cultivate (1)
   3. Burying water pipes to reduce damage and leaks  (1)
   4. Determining the type and amount of fertiliser to use for a crop (1) 

3.4.2 State THREE economic functions of land. (3) 

3.5 The table below shows the records of a farming enterprise for a period of  three months. 

3.5.1 Identify the farming record in the table above. (1) 
3.5.2 Refer to TWO items in the record above to support the answer to QUESTION 3.5.1. (2) 
3.5.3 Name a document that a farmer may use to determine the net worth  of a farming business. (1) 
3.5.4 Name TWO benefits for a farmer to have a record such as the one  above. (2) 
3.5.5 Indicate the implication of negative net cash in March. (1)

[35]

QUESTION 4: BASIC AGRICULTURAL GENETICS  
Start this question on a NEW page. 
4.1 Nowadays farming demands the use of different methods and technologies for animal breeding. 

4.1.1 Identify the breeding method indicated by EACH of the following  scenarios:  

1. 1. Commercial Holstein cow x stud Holstein bull using artificial  insemination
   2. Sussex bull x Sussex cow (the bull's daughter)
   3. Afrikaner bull x Shorthorn cows (3) 

4.1.2 Choose the breeding method in QUESTION 4.1.1 that will be the best  option to change the enterprise from a commercial dairy herd to a  dairy stud. (1) 
4.1.3 Name the breeding method in QUESTION 4.1.1 that will ensure  heterosis or hybrid vigour.  (1) 
4.1.4 State TWO disadvantages of crossbreeding. (2)

4.2 

4.2.1 Identify TWO potential benefits of this genetically modified (GM) crop. (2)4.2.2 State TWO negative effects of GM crops on the environment. (2) 
4.2.3 Explain the technique of using the bacterium in the scenario above to  modify maize plants genetically. (2) 

4.3 Variation is a phenomenon used for selection and breeding. 

4.3.1 Give TWO benefits of variation in a breeding programme. (2)
4.3.2 Name TWO internal causes of variation. (2)
4.3.3 Differentiate between variation and selection. (4)

4.4 The gene for a brown coat in goats is dominant over that for a white coat. In  the diagram below two brown-coated goats mated.  
(Use the symbol B/b for coat colour.) 

4.4.1 Determine the genotypes of individuals 1 and 2. (2)
4.4.2 Identify the phenotypes of offspring 3 and 5 in the F1 generation. (2) 
4.4.3 Refer to the diagram and give the percentage of the F1 generation that  is heterozygous for a brown coat. (1) 
4.4.4 Predict the coat colour of the progeny, if individual 6 is crossed with  another individual of similar genetic composition. Give a reason to  substantiate the answer. (2) 

4.5 

4.5.1 Use the Punnet square method to show the offspring of the  F2 generation from the F1 parents above. (4) 
4.5.2 Indicate the type of dominance in the offspring of the F1 generation  that are all pink. (1) 
4.5.3 Give a reason for the answer to QUESTION 4.5.2. (1) 
4.5.4 Give the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation. (1) 

[35] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 105 
 GRAND TOTAL: 150

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCES
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A
QUESTION 1 
1.1

1.1.1 C ✔✔ 
1.1.2 D ✔✔ 
1.1.3 C ✔✔ 
1.1.4 C ✔✔ 
1.1.5 A ✔✔ 
1.1.6 A ✔✔ 
1.1.7 D ✔✔ 
1.1.8 A ✔✔ 
1.1.9 B ✔✔ 
1.1.10 B ✔✔ (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2

1.2.1E ✔✔ 
1.2.2 J ✔✔ 
1.2.3 B ✔✔ 
1.2.4 C ✔✔ 
1.2.5 A ✔✔ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.3

1.3.1Promotion/advertising ✔✔ 
1.3.2 Productivity ✔✔ 
1.3.3 Gene gun ✔✔ 
1.3.4 Genetic modification/engineering/GMO ✔✔
1.3.5 Qualitative characteristics ✔✔ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.4

1.4.1Standardisation ✔ 
1.4.2 Inventory ✔ 
1.4.3 Monohybrid ✔ 
1.4.4 Dominant ✔ 
1.4.5 Segregation ✔ (5 x 1) (5) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: AGRICULTURAL MANAGEMENT AND MARKETING 
2.1 Supply and demand for a particular agricultural product 
2.1.1 Identification of curves 

• A – Demand ✔ (1)
• B – Supply ✔ (1) 

2.1.2 Definition of equilibrium price 

• When the price of a product settles at the point where  demand ✔ 
• Is equal to supply ✔ (2) 

2.1.3 Explanation of the relationship between curves A and B with  price  

• The higher the price ✔ 
• The higher the supply ✔ 
• The lesser/lower the demand ✔
  OR 
• The lower/lesser the price ✔ 
• The lower the supply ✔ 
• The higher the demand ✔ (Any 1) (3)

2.2 Marketing channels are related to a free market system 
2.2.1 Matching of the marketing channels 

• A. Farm-gate marketing ✔ (1)
• B. Stock sales ✔ (1)
• C. Marketing with contract ✔ (1)
• D. Fresh produce market ✔ (1)
• E. Internet marketing ✔ (1) 

2.2.2 TWO disadvantages of a free marketing system to the farmer 

• Prices fluctuate ✔ 
• Market costs are high/takes place on a small scale ✔ 
• Producer is responsible for marketing and producing ✔ 
• Limited bargaining power ✔ 
• High risk as many things can go wrong ✔ 
• Cartels formed and consumers are exploited ✔ 
• Agents leads to smaller profits ✔ (Any 2) (2)

2.3 Flow chart of the path of products from the producer to the consumer
2.3.1 Identification of the letters representing the stages marketing 

1. Demand – E ✔ (1)
2. Supply – D ✔  (1) 

2.3.2 Factor that can hamper marketing between stages C and D 

• High marketing costs ✔ 
• Limited availability of transport/rail/poor access roads/ Infrastructure ✔ 
• Spoilage/perishability/accidents/theft/risk✔ (Any 1) (1)  

2.3.3 TWO guidelines for packaging at stage C 

• Identify and provide useful information about the produce ✔ 
• Enclose the produce in convenient units for handling ✔ 
• Ensure that the produce is protected from mechanical  damage ✔ 
• Packaging should not contain chemicals that could be toxic to  the produce ✔  
• Packaging must be recyclable ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

2.3.4 Factors determining the demand of peaches  

• Price of the product ✔ 
• Consumer income ✔ 
• Number of consumers ✔ 
• Taste/preference of consumers ✔ 
• Price of competing/complimentary commodities ✔ 
• Range/use of the products ✔ 
• Price expectations ✔ (Any 2) (2)

2.4 The quantity of butternuts bought at different prices 
2.4.1 Line graph to indicate the quantity and the price of butternuts  

Criteria/rubric/marking guidelines 

• Correct heading ✔ 
• Y-axis: correctly calibrated with label (price per bag) ✔ 
• X-axis: correctly calibrated with label (number sold) ✔ 
• Correct units (Rand and bags) ✔ 
• Accuracy ✔ 
• Line graph ✔ (6) 

2.4.2 The tendency in the price as the quantity of butternuts declines

• The price increases/higher/more ✔ (1) 

2.5 Different phases in the process of entrepreneurship 
2.5.1 Re-arrangement the entrepreneurial phases 

• C ✔ (1) 
• B ✔ (1) 
• D ✔ (1) 
• A ✔  (1) 

2.5.2 THREE problems that can be encountered with the phase of  planning 

• Insufficient research ✔ 
• Leaving gaps/being vague/providing too much information ✔
• Insufficient technical details ✔ 
• Unrealistic assumptions and projections ✔ 
• Not highlighting potential competition ✔ 
• Hiding weaknesses and risks ✔ 
• Using the incorrect format ✔ (Any 3) (3)

[35] 

QUESTION 3: PRODUCTION FACTORS  
3.1 Farming enterprise 
3.1.1 The interest the farmer will pay back  

• R190 000 x 0,125 (12,5%) ✔ 
• R23 750 ✔ (2) 

3.1.2 The profitability of the farming enterprise 

• Income – expenditure ✔ 
• R212 500 – R213 750 ✔ 
• = – R1 250 ✔ (3)

3.1.3 Recommendation for farmer to continue with a reason  

• Should not continue/not recommended ✔  (1)
  Reason 
• Not profitable/runs at a loss/deficit of R1 250/ – R1 250 ✔ (1) 

3.2 The Occupational Health and Safety Act, 1993 (Act 85 of 1993) 
3.2.1 Brief explanation of the intention of this Act  

• Aims to provide and regulate ✔ 
• Health/safety in the work place ✔ (2)

3.2.2 THREE guidelines for the farmer to comply with this legislation

• Protective clothing ✔ 
• Gloves ✔ 
• Footwear/gumboots ✔ 
• Goggles/eye protection ✔ 
• Dust masks ✔  
• Training on operating equipment/handling chemicals/apparatus✔ 
• Noise/ear protection ✔ (Any 3) (3)

3.3 Production factors are coordinated for effective agricultural production
3.3.1 Identification of each of the following 

1. Farm manager – A ✔  (1)
2. Farm labourer – C ✔  (1)
3. Movable capital – D/E ✔  (1)
4. Fixed capital – B/F ✔  (1) 

3.3.2 Management principle reflected with a reason  

• Supervision/Control/Coordination ✔  (1)
  REASON 
• Entrepreneur is supervising workers according to the plan ✔ (1) 

3.3.3 Entrepreneurial skills that are visible in the illustration above

• Planning/interpretation ✔ 
• Management skills ✔ 
• Organisational skills ✔ (3)

3.4 Different ways in which the farmer can improve land productivity 
3.4.1 Measures of improving land productivity  

1.  Improving soil fertility ✔ (1)
2. Consolidation of uneconomical farm units ✔ (1) 
3. Water management ✔ (1)
4. Scientific method ✔ (1) 

3.4.2 THREE economic functions of land 

• Source of wealth ✔ 
• Enables production of food/fibre/fuel/biotic materials ✔ 
• Physical space for settlement/industry/recreation/transport ✔ (3)

3.5 Record of a farming enterprise for a period of three months 
3.5.1 Identification of the farming records 

• Cash flow budget ✔ (1)

3.5.2 Items on the record to support the answer  

• Opening balance ✔ 
• Receipts/income/ ✔ 
• Payments/expenses✔ (Any 2) (2)  

3.5.3 Document to determine the net worth of the farming business Income statement ✔ (1) 
3.5.4 TWO benefits for the farmer to have a record  

• Shows the need for borrowing ✔ 
• Money available for investment ✔ 
• Money available to make purchases ✔ 
• Enough cash to meet the needs of the enterprise ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

3.5.5 The implication of negative net cash in March 

• Restricted cash flow ✔ 
• Need for borrowing money to meet the needs ✔ (Any 1) (1)

[35] 

QUESTION 4: BASIC AGRICULTURAL GENETICS  
4.1 Different breeding methods and technologies  
4.1.1 Identification of the breeding method  

1. Upgrading ✔ 
2. Inbreeding ✔
3. Crossbreeding ✔ (3)  

4.1.2 Methods to change the enterprise from commercial to stud  

• Upgrading ✔ (1) 

4.1.3 Breeding method that heterosis or hybrid vigour derives from 

• Crossbreeding ✔  (1) 

4.1.4 TWO disadvantages of crossbreeding  

• Required expert knowledge ✔ 
• Progeny is of poor quality ✔ 
• Destroys characteristics/more heterozygote’s ✔ (Any 2) (2)

4.2 The improvement of maize with Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) 
4.2.1 TWO potential benefits of this GM crop 

• Environmental benefits/pest/insect resistance/use less  chemicals/less susceptible to diseases ✔ 
• Economic benefits/higher yields/production/mature quicker ✔  
• Health benefits/healthier/tastier/more nutritious foods ✔ (Any 2) (2)

4.2.2 TWO negative effects of GM crops on the environment

• Bt is only specific on certain classes of insects and still impacts on the environment ✔ 
• Indiscriminate use of weed killers can destroy useful plants ✔
• Insect resistant plants also kill beneficial insects ✔ 
• Production of super weeds ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

4.2.3 The technique using this bacterium to modify maize  

• The gene is incorporated into the maize plant where it produces  toxins ✔ 
• To protects the plant against the maize stalk borer✔  (2) 

4.3 The phenomenon of variation  
4.3.1 TWO benefits of variation in a breeding programme  

• Improving existing breeds/cultivars ✔ 
• Producing new breeds/cultivars ✔ (2) 

4.3.2 Two internal/genetic causes of variation 

• Mutations/recombination of genes/abnormalities ✔ 
• Translocation/duplication/inversion/ deletion/ crossing over/ omission of chromosomes ✔ 
• Meiosis ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

4.3.3 Difference between variation and selection  
Variation – is the phenomenon that refer to differences✔ in the  characteristics of individuals ✔ (2) 
Selection – is the process of choosing individuals ✔ with desirable characteristics to be used as parents ✔  (2) 

4.4 Brown coat colour in goats is dominant over that for white coat colour 
4.4.1 Genotypes of the individuals  

• 1 – Bb ✔ (1)
• 2 – Bb ✔ (1) 

4.4.2 Phenotypes of the offspring in the F1 generation labelled  

• 3 – Brown ✔ (1)
• 5 – Brown ✔ (1) 

4.4.3 The percentage of the F1 heterozygous for a brown coat colour 

• 50% ✔ (1) 

4.4.4 Coat colour of progeny if 6 is crossed with individual of similar  genetic compound with reason 

• White ✔ (1)
  Reason  
  
• Both are homozygous white/bb ✔ (1) 

4.5 White flowers (W) are crossed with red flowers (R)  
4.5.1 Punnett square method to illustrate the offspring of the F2 

 Punnett square ✔ (4) 

4.5.2 The type of dominance in QUESTION 4.5.1 

• Incomplete dominance ✔ (1) 

4.5.3 Reason for the answer in QUESTION 4.5.2 

• Intermediate colour/all the offspring are pink ✔ (1) 

4.5.4 The phenotypic ratio of the F2 -generation  

• 1:2:1 ✔ (1)

[35] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 105 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCES
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A
QUESTION 1 
1.1

1.1.1 A ✔✔ 
1.1.2 C ✔✔ 
1.1.3 A/B ✔✔ 
1.1.4 B ✔✔ 
1.1.5 B ✔✔ 
1.1.6 C ✔✔ 
1.1.7 D ✔✔ 
1.1.8 D ✔✔ 
1.1.9 C ✔✔ 
1.1.10 A ✔✔ (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2

1.2.1 Both A and B ✔✔ 
1.2.2 B only ✔✔ 
1.2.3 None ✔✔ 
1.2.4 B only ✔✔ 
1.2.5 A only ✔✔ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.3

1.3.1 Amylase/ptyalin ✔✔ 
1.3.2 Commercial farmer ✔✔ 
1.3.3 Superovulation ✔✔ 
1.3.4 Ejaculation ✔✔ 
1.3.5 Courtship ✔✔ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.4

1.4.1 Cardiac ✔ 
1.4.2 Deep litter ✔ 
1.4.3 Dry ✔
1.4.4 Cloning/nuclear transfer✔ 
1.4.5 Ovum/egg/female/reproductive sex cell/gamete✔ (5 x 1) (5) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: ANIMAL NUTRITION 
2.1 A representation of the alimentary canal of a farm animal. 

2.1.1 Farm animal represented by the alimentary canal  
Pig ✔ (1)
2.1.2 Importance of parts A and C 
A – Assists in chemical digestion of food✔ (1) 
C – Assists in chemical digestion and absorption of food✔ (1) 
2.1.3 Explanation of mechanical digestion  

• • Breaking down of the complex food particles into smaller,  simpler particles ✔
  • through physical objects/teeth ✔ (2)

2.2 The absorption of nutrients from the small intestines 

2.2.1 Identification of transport  
A – Active absorption/carrier molecule theory ✔ (1) 
B – Passive absorption/osmosis/diffusion ✔ (1) 
2.2.2 Reason  
Active absorption 

• • Nutrients move from a lower concentrated area to a higher  concentrated area/against the concentration gradient through  an energy carrier (ATP) ✔ 

Passive absorption 

• • Nutrients move from a higher concentrated area to a lower  concentrated area/along the concentration gradient ✔ (2) 

2.2.3 Identification of the structure labelled C 
Differential permeable/partially/semi-permeable membrane ✔ (1) 
2.2.4 Nutrient absorbed through 

1. 1. Blood capillaries – Digested protein/carbohydrates/  amino acids /glucose/vitamins/minerals ✔ (1)
   2. Lacteal – Digested fats/glycerol and fatty acids ✔ (1) 

2.3 The various feed components of a ration  

2.3.1 Example of an energy rich concentrate 
Maize meal ✔ (1) 
2.3.2 Feed supplement acting as a source of energy in licks 
Molasses ✔ (1)
2.3.3 Suitability of urea for pigs 

• • Not suitable ✔
    Reason 
  • It cannot be digested by pigs/pigs are monogastric/only  ruminant animals can utilise ✔ (2) 

2.3.4 Tabulation of rations 

 Table ✔ (3)
2.4 Fodder flow programme  

2.4.1 Completion of the table 

1. 1. 600 x 120 = 72 000 ✔ = 72 tons ✔ 
                            1000 
   2. 200 x 120 = 24 000 ✔ = 24 tons ✔ 
                           1000                                      (4) 

2.4.2 Determining the average cost to feed ONE animal for ONE day

• • R114 277,80 ÷ 113 animals ✔
  • = R1011,31 ÷ 120 days ✔
  • = R8,43 ✔
    OR 
  • R114 277,80 ÷ 120 days ✔
  • = R952,32 ÷ 113 animals ✔
  • = R8,43 ✔ (3)

2.5 Composition of two animal feeds 
2.5.1 Calculating nutritive ration (NR) of FEED B 

• NR = 1: % digestible non-nitrogen nutrients ✔ 
                         % digestible protein 
• = 1: 58 ✔ 
         12 
   NR = 1: 4,831:5 ✔ 
  OR 
• NR = TDN-DP ✔ 
               DP  
• = 1 : 70% – 12% ✔ 
                12%  
• NR = 1: 4,83/1:5 ✔ (3) 

2.5.2 Justification for not recommending feed A 

• Wide nutritive ratio ✔ 
• It has more carbohydrates and fats than proteins/fewer  proteins than carbohydrates and fats ✔ (2)

2.6 Pearson square method  
Calculating Pearson square 

Ratio of oats : sunflower is 24:5 ✔ (4)

[35] 

QUESTION 3: ANIMAL PRODUCTION, PROTECTION AND CONTROL 
3.1 Scenario on the optimising of production
3.1.1 Natural resources 

• Lower production outputs ✔ due to animals fending for  themselves ( 2) 

3.1.2 Feeding  

• Enough feed (pastures) ✔ will lead to good production✔  
  OR
• Less feed (pastures) ✔ will lead to poor production. ✔ ( 2)

3.1.3 Exploitative practices  

• Where the natural balance/equilibrium is disturbed ✔/due to  poor veld management ✔ 
• Utilise the natural resources to such an extent that it is  permanently damaged ✔and impossible to recover✔
• More is taken out and nothing is put back in return ✔ 
• Maximum production no matter what the cost ✔ 
• Deliberate actions to damage the environment ✔ (Any 2) (6)

3.2 Management practices conducted on piglets  
3.2.1 Identification of management practices 
A – Injection/inoculation/vaccination ✔ (1) 
B –Tail docking ✔ (1) 
3.2.2 Reason for the management practices 
A – To administer iron/Fe to  piglets/supplementing/medication/immunisation ✔ (1) 
B – Prevent tail biting/cannibalism ✔ (1) 
3.2.3 Mineral administered to piglets 
Iron/Fe ✔ (1) 
3.2.4 Justification with TWO reasons 

• Sow milk contains a limited quantity of iron/not enough✔ 
• Most effective way to administer iron/Fe ✔ 
• Initial feed intake of piglets is low/inadequate to support their iron requirements ✔ (Any 2) (2)

3.3 Body temperature and the lower critical temperature  
3.3.1 Bar graph showing the lower critical temperatures of the  different farm animals 

Criteria/rubric/marking guidelines  

• Correct heading ✔ 
• X-axis – correctly calibrated with label (Farm animals) ✔ 
• Y-axis – correctly calibrated with label (Lower critical temperature) ✔
• Correct units (°C) ✔ 
• Bar graph ✔  
• Accuracy ✔ (6) 

3.3.2 Identification of the animal inefficiently using feed 
Piglets ✔ (1) 
3.3.3 Reason for dairy cows producing milk at 6°C.  
Their critical temperature is lower than 6°C ✔ (1) 
3.4 Life cycle of a parasite  
3.4.1 Classification and name the parasite above 

• Internal parasite ✔ 
• Liver fluke ✔ (2)

3.4.2 Letter representing  

1. An intermediate host - D ✔ (1)
2. Eggs hatch into larva - C ✔ (1) 

3.4.3 Precautionary measure  

• Keep animals away from moist/wet places/camping off infested ✔
• Control intermediate host (snails) burn infested areas✔
• Keep areas around drinking places dry✔
• Breed resistant animals✔
• Graze animals on clean pastures/apply hygienic measures/use of  feeders✔
• Zero grazing/ rotational grazing✔
• Provision of clean drinking water✔
• Provision of good nutrition✔
• Deworming animals at certain intervals✔
• Isolation/separation of animals✔ (Any1) (1) 

3.4.4 THREE economic implications of the parasite  

• Decrease/poor/degradation of products/loss of production✔ 
• Higher production costs/labour/time/medicines/ decreased  profits/income ✔ 
• Poor reproduction outputs ✔  
• Poor food conversion rate✔ 
• Negative impact on economy/no export✔ (Any3) (3)

3.5 Passage on chicken housing  
3.5.1 TWO purposes of housing 

• To protect chickens from predators ✔ 
• To create an environment for growth and development ✔ (2) 

3.5.2 TWO to consider when building a chicken house 

• Building to be cost effective ✔ 
• Orientation of the building to be east to west ✔ 
• Building site to be well drained and aerated✔ 
• Roofing material should be insulated and be reflective✔ 
• Enough ventilation✔ 
• Even distribution of light✔ 
• Should provide the right amount of heat✔ (Any 2) (2) 

3.5.3 TWO examples of equipment in a poultry house 

• Feed troughs ✔ 
• Water drinkers/troughs ✔ 
• Lighting ✔ 
• Nesting boxes ✔ 
• Roosts ✔ 
• Bedding ✔  
• Foot baths ✔  
• Air conditioning/fans/heaters✔ 
• Incubators✔ 
• Thermometer✔ 
• Egg trays✔ 
• Egg scales✔ (Any 2) (2)

[35]

QUESTION 4: ANIMAL REPRODUCTION 
4.1 Embryo and foetus development 
4.1.1 Identification of the structures  

1. B – Allantois ✔
2. E – Foetus✔ 
3. F – Umbilical cord/placenta ✔ (3)

4.1.2 Provision of the following : 

1. ONE function
   • Protection of the foetus against shock/shock absorber ✔
   • Prevents desiccation of the foetus/dehydration/drying of foetus ✔
   • Lubrication of birth canal✔
   • Regulates temperature around the foetus✔ (Any 1) (1)
2. ONE constituent of D 
   • Amniotic fluid/water/liquid ✔  (1)
3. Place where D occurs 
   • Inside amnion/C ✔ (1) 

4.1.3 Time to detect rectal pregnancy 
3–4 months into pregnancy/gestation ✔ (1)
4.2 Role of hormones  
4.2.1 Explanation of hormone  

• The chemical substance secreted by endocrine glands/ovaries/ uterus transported in the blood ✔to specific parts/target organ of the body performing specialised functions ✔ (2) 

4.2.2 Primary function of hormones 

1. Testosterone  (1)
   • Development of the secondary male characteristics ✔ 
   • Enhances sexual desires✔
   • Stimulate sperm production✔
2. Luteinising hormone (LH)
   • Rapture the membrane of the follicle during ovulation ✔
   • Tightening the infundibulum around the ovary ✔
   • Stimulates secretion of progesterone✔
   • Maturation of the oocytes✔ 
   • Formation of the corpus luteum ✔ (Any 1) (1)
3. Oestrogen  
   • Develop the functions of the secondary sex organs ✔
   • Responsible for the onset of oestrus/behaviour changes ✔ 
   • Signs of oestrus ✔
   • Contraction of the uterus ✔
   • Promote growth of the mammary duct system ✔
   • Stimulates Graafian follicle✔
   • Stimulates secretion of LH✔
   • Delays/inhibits secretion of FSH✔
   • Increases blood supply to the uterus✔
   • Prevents bacterial infection of the uterus✔ (Any 1) (1)

4.2.3 Hormone responsible for : 

1. Maintaining the Corpus luteum – Progesterone ✔ (1)
2. Growth and development of the Graafian follicle – FSH ✔ (1) 

4.3 Oestrus cycle of dairy cattle 

4.3.1 Determination of the number of cows on oestrus 
10 ✔ (1) 
4.3.2 Indication of time 20 cows will be in oestrus 
18:00 to 00:00 ✔ (1) 
4.3.3 Tendency of cows in oestrus from 12:00 to 06:00 
Increase/higher/more/from 10 to 45 cows ✔ (1) 
4.3.4 The number of cows in oestrus from 18:00 to 06:00 
20 + 45 cows ✔ 
= 65 cows✔ (2) 
4.3.5 Best time to inseminate 
12:00 to 18:00/in the afternoon✔ (1) 
4.3.6 Reason  
Time when most (45 cows) are in oestrus/in heat ✔ (1) 

4.4 The udder of a dairy cow  

4.4.1 Identification of the parts  

• • A – Alveolus ✔  (1)
  • B – Lobe ✔  (1)
  • C – Teat ✔   (1)

4.4.2 Definition of lactation  

• • Period of milk production by female animals/cows ✔
  • Starting soon after parturition for an average of 305 days ✔
  • Involves the hormones prolactin and oxytocin ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

4.4.3 Comparison of milk and butterfat production 

• • Milk production increases until peak production thereafter it  decreases ✔
  • Butterfat production decreases until peak production thereafter  it increases ✔ (2) 

4.5 Difficult births  
4.5.1 Scientific term for difficult births
Dystocia ✔  (1)

4.5.2 Reason for difficult births in heifers 

• Heifers are physically smaller✔and less developed  (younger)/age ✔ 
• Incorrect presentation/position/posture✔ 
• Too large foetus/hydrocephalus✔ 
• Deformities of the foetus✔ 
• Torsion/twisting of the foetus✔ 
• Prolapsed uterus✔ 
• Multiple births/twins✔ 
• Size of pelvic area✔ 
• Weak/ ineffective labour✔ 
• Cervix failing to dilate✔ 
• Prolonged gestation/pregnancy period✔ 
• Malnutrition✔ 
• Diseases✔ (Any 2) (2) 

4.5.3 TWO managerial measures to reduce difficult births 

• Use bulls renowned for small calves/low birth weight ✔  
• Mate heifers at the ideal age/mass/not too early ✔  
• Use a controlled/well-planned breeding season ✔  
• Well planned feeding programme/avoid overfeeding✔  
• Planned health programme ✔ (Any 2) (2) 

4.5.4 Definition of placenta retention 

• The failure to expel the placenta/membranes ✔ 
• within 12 hours after parturition/birth ✔ 
• with negative effects/complications ✔ (Any 2) (2)

[35] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 105 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

AGRICULTURAL MANAGEMENT PRACTICES
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
3. Read the questions carefully and answer only what is asked.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
5. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
6. Round off ALL calculations to TWO decimal places, unless stated otherwise.
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Write down the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10), choose the answer and make  a cross (X) over the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 You have to … to determine the nutritional status of soils. 

1. take a soil sample
2. do a soil reaction test
3. do a soil survey
4. dig/drill a soil profile 

1.1.2 A farmer has to … to minimise the effect of drought on pastures. 

1. exceed the carrying capacity
2. adhere to the carrying capacity
3. acquire different types of animals
4. cultivate the soil and leave it bare 

1.1.3 An advantage of extensive farming is that … 

1. a lot of capital is needed to buy equipment.
2. labourers must be trained to use the new technology.
3. production cost is low.
4. markets are very far from the farm. 

1.1.4 It is important that a farmer … when he sets up a yearly budget for  a farm. 

1. predicts future prices
2. knows the inflation rate on inputs and outputs
3. knows the type of marketing system for agricultural products
4. uses current financial statements 

Choose the CORRECT combination: 

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

1.1.5 The balance sheet is best represented by … 

1. income and expenditure.
2. debits and credits.
3. assets and liabilities.
4. pros and cons. 

1.1.6 Part of the farm labourer contract: 

1. Place to spend the holiday
2. Job description
3. Mode of transport to work
4. HIV/Aids status of the labourer 

1.1.7 A dry-land crop farmer will definitely keep track of … records that  will have the biggest influence on the yield of the crop. 

1. fertiliser
2. rainfall
3. mechanisation
4. labour 

1.1.8 The best way to pay for small daily expenditures: 

1. Petty cash
2. Big overdraft facilities at the bank
3. Loan sharks
4. Vegetable production 

1.1.9 The quality of a meat product can be sustained for short- to  medium-term periods by means of … 

1. cold storage.
2. pasteurisation.
3. filtration.
4. infrared light. 

1.1.10 Marketing function that ensures the quality of agricultural produce: 

1. Transport
2. Sorting
3. Advertising
4. Grading (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches a term in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–L) next to the question number  (1.2.1–1.2.10) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.11 M. Each  description in COLUMN B may be used only ONCE. 

(10 x 2) (20)

1.3 Give the CORRECT agricultural term for each of the following descriptions.  Write only the term next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.10) in the  ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.3.11 Recording. 

1.3.1 Determine the value of agricultural products to indicate the money  the consumer will spent 
1.3.2 Structural diagram of the different staff and levels of staff, which is easy to view  
1.3.3 Type of leave that a farm worker will take once a year to go on  holiday 
1.3.4 Total of all the trading receipts for a given period of time 
1.3.5 Direct and indirect costs a producer must incur to market a product
1.3.6 Type of capital derived from the selling of agricultural products
1.3.7 Proof of work done on a farm, indicating cost 
1.3.8 Records that big commercial farmers use to see who was driving  their vehicles and the distances they travelled 
1.3.9 A resource utilised by farm owners, involving all staff on the farm, which is needed for the smooth running of the farming enterprise 
1.3.10 Cultivation of different crops successively on the same piece of  land (10 x 1) (10) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: PHYSICAL AND FINANCIAL PLANNING 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
2.1 CANDIDATE A and CANDIDATE B have been evaluated for different  positions on a farm. 
The following rating criteria were used: 3 = good, 2 = fair, 1 = weak 

2.1.1 Choose a candidate from the evaluation above that would be most  suitable for the following positions on the farm and in EACH case  give a reason for your choice: 

1. 1. Farm manager (2)
   2. Farm worker (2) 

2.1.2 Choose a candidate that would NOT be suitable to work in the farm  workshop. (1) 
2.1.3 Identify a possible unskilled worker from the candidates above.  Give a reason for your answer. (2) 

2.2 

2.2.1 Identify THREE examples of fixed capital in the case study above. (3) 
2.2.2 Name THREE methods that the farmer could use to improve the  productivity of this agricultural land. (3) 
2.2.3 Explain ONE of the methods named in QUESTION 2.2.2 that can  be implemented to reduce the risk in a small-scale agricultural  industry. (2)
2.2.4 State TWO advantages of organic farming to the environment. (2)

2.3 Management of the different veld types can be a challenging activity. 

2.3.1 Describe the carrying capacity of the following FIVE natural veld  types. Choose from the following criteria: HIGHEST, MODERATE,  LOW, VERY LOW 

1. 1. Savannah  (1) 
   2. Forest  (1) 
   3. Grassland  (1) 
   4. Karoo  (1) 
   5. Fynbos   (1) 

2.3.2 Sweet veld and sour veld differ with reference to feeding value and  management. Briefly explain the difference between the two veld  types with reference to feeding value and management as follows: 

1. 1. Sweet veld  (2)
   2. Sour veld  (3) 

2.4 The following phases are part of whole farm planning. Arrange the phases in  the CORRECT sequence. 

• Systems 
• Land utilisation planning 
• Sustainability 
• Data collection 
• Management 
• Alternative and potential (6) 

2.5 Budgets are prepared in advance to predict income and expenditures for the  future against the current economic climate.  

2.5.1 Name the physical aspects of a farm, as set out by a farm budget. (3)
2.5.2 Name TWO basic elements of a budget. (2)
2.5.3 Discuss the use of a cash flow budget as a financial tool. (4)

2.6 Give TWO reasons for the cultivation of soils. (2) 
2.7 

2.7.1 State whether this farmer adheres to the principles of precision  farming. (2) 
2.7.2 Suggest farming practices that will adhere to the principles of  precision farming. (4)

[50]

QUESTION 3: ENTREPRENEURSHIP, RECORDING, MARKETING, BUSINESS  PLANNING AND ORGANISED AGRICULTURE 
Start this question on a NEW page. 
3.1 The budget below shows the estimated financial aspects for an animal  production enterprise for the 2016/2017 financial year. 

3.1.1 Name the management principle of the budget above. (1) 
3.1.2 Identify THREE possible markets in the data above that this farmer  is targeting. (3) 
3.1.3 Calculate the possible profit/loss that this farmer could generate. Show ALL calculations. (3) 
3.1.4 State TWO possible ways to increase the income of the enterprise. (2) 
3.1.5 Identify the section of a business plan that is addressed in this  scenario above. (2) 

3.2 An entrepreneurial process is needed to establish a new agribusiness.

3.2.1 Identify FOUR different phases of an entrepreneurial process. (4)
3.2.2 Explain the economic importance of a business plan. (5)

3.3 Describe THREE important reasons of reviewing a business plan. (3)
3.4 The table below shows the number of bags of produce sold at different prices at a local market per week. 

3.4.1 Predict a factor in the scenario above that determines the price for  an agricultural product on the market. (1) 
3.4.2 Use the data in the table above and draw a line graph to represent  the relationship between the numbers of bags sold at a certain  price. (6) 
3.4.3 Identify, in the graph, the TWO values where the most bags were bought. (2) 

3.5 A group of small-scale farmers wanted to make sure that their products were  effectively marketed. They had to develop a marketing strategy. 

3.5.1 Briefly describe the marketing strategy using the following  headings: 

1. 1. Product (3) 
   2. Place/Location (2) 

3.5.2 Name THREE marketing costs in the production of a specific  product. (3) 

3.6 Study the list below indicating available assets on a farm. 

3.6.1 Place the farm assets under the following headings: 

1. 1. Fixed assets (2) 
   2. Current assets (2)
   3. Medium-term assets  (2)

3.6.2 Name the type of document (recording tool) where you will find the  assets and liabilities with their corresponding values. (1) 

3.7 A debit note serves as proof of returned goods by the business to the creditor. Give THREE reasons for purchased items being returned by a farming  enterprise. (3)

[50]

QUESTION 4: HARVESTING, PROCESSING, MANAGEMENT AND AGRITOURISM
Start this question on a NEW page. 
4.1 In future the storage of agricultural products will be more common than in the  past. 

4.1.1 Discuss TWO advantages of storing farm products on the farm  after harvesting. (2) 
4.1.2 State FOUR storage requirements that must be complied with during the storage of agricultural products. (4) 

4.2 The Foodstuffs, Cosmetics and Disinfectant Act, 1972 (Act 54 of 1972) contains the regulations according to which the labelling of products  (Regulation GNR 1206/2008) is controlled. The main aim of this regulation is  to protect South African consumers. State TWO aspects of this legislation against which consumers are protected. (2) 
4.3 The behaviour of micro-organisms at different temperatures during food  processing influences the final quality of the final product. Complete the  table below by indicating the behaviour of micro-organisms at different  environmental temperatures. Write the answer next to the question  number (4.3.1–4.3.3) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

(3 x 1) (3) 

4.4 Regular monitoring and surveillance by health authorities and management of  the food handling process are crucial elements in the prevention of food borne diseases. Recommend FOUR principles that should be part of a food handling strategy to a farmer. (4) 
4.5 Name TWO legal documents that regulate importing meat and dairy products  into South Africa. (2) 
4.6 Explain TWO ways in which the farmer can be included as an agritourism  entrepreneur. (2) 
4.7 Preserving food is very important in sustainable food provision.

4.7.1 Distinguish between pasteurisation and sterilisation of food. (4)
4.7.2 Name TWO acids that can be used in preserving food. (2)

4.8 The planning process has six steps. State the SIX steps. (6)
4.9 Niche markets are particular markets for certain agricultural produce.

4.9.1 Define the term niche market. (2)
4.9.2 Give FIVE steps to be followed in establishing a niche market. (5) 

4.10 State FIVE management functions that a farmer has to apply to ensure that activities on the farm run smoothly. (5) 
4.11 Discuss FOUR safety requirements the processing of agricultural products  should adhere to, with reference to the Occupational Health and Safety Act  (OHSA), 1993 (Act 85 of 1993). (4) 
4.12 Describe the steps followed in the management control process. (3)

[50] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 150 
GRAND TOTAL: 200

AGRICULTURAL MANAGEMENT PRACTICES
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Multiple-choice questions 

1.1.1 A ✓✓ 
1.1.2 B ✓✓ 
1.1.3 C ✓✓ 
1.1.4 D ✓✓ 
1.1.5 C ✓✓ 
1.1.6 B ✓✓ 
1.1.7 B ✓✓ 
1.1.8 A ✓✓ 
1.1.9 A ✓✓ 
1.1.10 D ✓✓ (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Matching items 

1.2.1 C ✓✓ 
1.2.2 G ✓✓ 
1.2.3 D ✓✓ 
1.2.4 H ✓✓ 
1.2.5 I ✓✓ 
1.2.6 K ✓✓ 
1.2.7 J ✓✓ 
1.2.8 F ✓✓ 
1.2.9 E ✓✓ 
1.2.10 B ✓✓ (10 x 2) (20)

1.3 Correct agricultural term 

1.3.1 Price setting/price ✓ 
1.3.2 Organogram ✓ 
1.3.3 Annual leave ✓ 
1.3.4 Turnover ✓ 
1.3.5 Marketing costs ✓ 
1.3.6 Production capital ✓ 
1.3.7 Invoice ✓ 
1.3.8 Logbook ✓ 
1.3.9 Human resources ✓ 
1.3.10 Crop rotation ✓ (10 x 1) (10)

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: PHYSICAL AND FINANCIAL PLANNING
2.1 2.1.1 Examination of a candidate and motivation 

1. Farm manager 
   Candidate A ✓
   Has good qualifications and management skills ✓ (2)
2. Farm worker 
   Candidate B ✓
   Is good in technical skills ✓ (2) 

2.1.2 A candidate that would not work in the workshop 

• Candidate A ✓ (1) 

2.1.3 Unskilled worker 

• No unskilled worker ✓ 
• Because both candidates are trained and have qualifications and certificates ✓ (2) 

2.2.1 THREE fixed capital from the case study 

• Borehole ✓ 
• Reservoir ✓ 
• Land ✓ 
• Small-stock housing ✓ (Any 3) (3) 

2.2.2 THREE methods to improve the productivity of agricultural  land 

• Scientific farming methods/Intercropping ✓ 
• Irrigation system ✓ 
• Diversification ✓ (3) 

2.2.3 One method to reduce risks in a small-scale agricultural  enterprise 

• Diversification✓ 
• The risks are spread to different enterprises ✓
  OR 
• Irrigation ✓ 
• less dependence on rainfall and unpredictable climate ✓
  OR 
• Scientific practices ✓ 
• More precise to measure inputs ✓ (2)

2.2.4 Advantages of organic farming 

• Less pollution with chemicals ✓ 
• Protection of the natural predators ✓ (2)

2.3 2.3.1 Description of the carrying capacity 

1. Savannah: moderate ✓ (1) 
2. Forest: very low ✓ (1) 
3. Grassland: highest ✓ (1) 
4. Karoo: low ✓ (1) 
5. Fynbos: low ✓  (1) 

2.3.2 Feeding value and management of sweet and sour-veld 

1. Sweet veld 
   • Feeding value stays the same throughout the year ✓
2. • If veld is well managed, animals can be kept on pastures  throughout the year without extra feeding✓
   • Longer grazing periods as grass retains it nutritional value  ✓ 
   • Less to no supplementation in winter✓ (Any 2) (2)
3. Sour-veld 
   • Feeding value is high during spring and summer ✓
   • Feeding values during winter months are very low ✓
   • Management include supplementary feeds during the  winter ✓ 
   • Shorter grazing periods as older grass tends to lose its  palatability. ✓
   • Providing supplementary feeds and licks in winter. ✓ (Any 3)  (3) 

2.4 Whole enterprise planning phases in their correct sequence

• Data collection ✓ 
• Land utilization planning ✓ 
• Alternative and potential ✓ 
• Systems ✓ 
• Sustainability ✓ 
• Management ✓ (6)

2.5 2.5.1 The physical aspects of the farm set out by farm budget

• What to produce ✓ 
• How much to produce/total hectares used for production ✓ 
• Resources to be invested ✓ (3) 

2.5.2 TWO basic elements of a budget 

• Estimated income ✓ 
• Estimated costs ✓ (2) 

2.5.3 The use of cash flow budget as a financial tool 

• To monitor expenditure/Checking whether money is spent as  planned ✓ 
• To avoid cash management problems/The budget shows  whether income will be enough to pay for expenditures when  they arise ✓ 
• To indicate when surplus funds become available ✓ 
• Indicate the spread of funds for new investments ✓ 
• Indicate that the farm will always have enough money to  operate/Ensure no cash flow problems during off seasons ✓  (Any 4) (4) 

2.6 TWO reasons for soil cultivation 

• To prepare veld for crop production ✓ 
• To form a seedbed ✓ 
• To break hardened soils/plough layer/pan ✓ 
• To control weed ✓ 
• Improve aeration/drainage ✓ (Any 2) (2)

2.7 Precision farming 
2.7.1 Debate principle of precision farming 

• No✓, farmer does not adhere to principles of precision  farming ✓
  OR 
• No accurate fertilisation✓ or irrigation 
• no chemical soil analysis ✓ (2)

2.7.2 Farming practices to increase precision farming 

• Chemical soil analysis ✓ 
• Fertiliser application according to chemical soil status ✓ 
• Fertiliser spread throughout the season/as plant grow ✓ 
• Irrigation scheduling/schedule irrigation according to plant  growth ✓ 
• Take amount of rainfall into account for irrigation ✓ (Any 4) (4)

[50] 

QUESTION 3: ENTREPRENEURSHIP, RECORDING, MARKETING, BUSINESS  PLANNING AND ORGANISED AGRICULTURE 
3.1 Budget 
3.1.1 The management principle that this budget addresses 

• Financial planning ✓ (1) 

3.1.2 THREE possible markets  

• Livestock auctioning ✓ 
• Farm gate marketing ✓ 
• Manure retailers ✓ (3) 

3.1.3 Calculate the possible profit or loss 

• profit/loss = total income – total expenditure
  = R477 500, 00 − R113 564,00 ✓
  = R363 936,00 ✓ profit✓ (3) 

3.1.4 TWO possible ways to increase income 

• Find more markets ✓ 
• Add value to the product/processing ✓ 
• Sell at markets with higher prices ✓ 
• Find a different place/time to auction to get higher prices ✓  (Any 2) (2) 

3.1.5 Identification of the section of a business plan 

• Financial aspects/budget ✓ 
• Marketing ✓ (2)

3.2 Entrepreneurship 
3.2.1 FOUR main distinct phases of the entrepreneurial process

• Identify and evaluate the opportunity/Notice a need ✓ 
• Develop the business plan ✓ 
• Determine the resources required ✓ 
• Start and manage the agribusiness ✓ (4)

3.2.2 Economic importance of a business plan 

• Determine the possible income/profit ✓ 
• Compare different alternatives to choose the best one ✓ 
• Needed for financial institutions to obtain credit ✓ 
• Make the management and control on financial aspects  easier ✓ 
• Determine viability of a new enterprise ✓ (5) 

3.3 THREE important reasons of reviewing the business plan

• To provide for any changes in the market ✓ 
• To help the owner to make the best use of opportunities ✓ 
• To be prepared for possible events ✓ 
• Adopt the plan to any changes in the external environment ✓ (Any 3) (3)

3.4 Price setting 
3.4.1 A factor that determines price 

• Supply ✓ 
• Demand ✓ (Any 1) (1)

3.4.2 Line graph to represent  

Rubric: 

• Correct heading ✓ 
• Correct calibration or labelling of both axes ✓ 
• Graph start at (50; 60) ✓ 
• Straight line to (140; 35) ✓ 
• Short dip in line to (150; 30) ✓ 
• Straight line from (150: 30) to (200; 20) ✓ (6) 

3.4.3 The values where greatest number of bags were bought 

• At the price of R20,00 ✓: 200 bags ✓
  OR 
• (200 bags ✓; R20,00 ✓) (2)

3.5 Marketing 
3.5.1

1. The marketing strategy 
   Product – consider 
   • Quality of the product ✓
   • Design of packaging the product ✓
   • The size of the product ✓
   • The variety of the products ✓
   • The brand/commercial name ✓ (Any 3) (3)
2. Placement - consider
   • Process of distributing the product from one point to the  other ✓
   • Transportation, storage and refrigeration of the product ✓
   • Logistics/the control of movement of goods ✓ (Any 2) (2) 

3.5.2 THREE marketing costs 

• Packaging costs ✓ 
• Handling costs ✓ 
• Transport costs ✓ 
• Product losses ✓ 
• Promoting costs ✓ (Any 3) (3)

3.6 Statements 
3.6.1 List farm assets 

1. Fixed assets
   • Borehole ✓
   • Farm shed ✓
   • Land ✓ (Any 2)  (2)
2. Current assets 
   • Pesticides ✓
   • Fertilizers ✓
   • Cash ✓ (Any 2)  (2)
3. Medium term assets 
   • Tractor ✓
   • Farm vehicle ✓
   • Livestock ✓ (Any 2) (2) 

3.6.2 Statement of assets and liabilities 

• Balance sheet ✓ (1) 

3.7 THREE reasons for returning items 

• Incorrect items received ✓ 
• Faulty items received ✓ 
• Business/farmers not satisfied with the purchased items ✓ (3)

[50] 

QUESTION 4: HARVESTING, PROCESSING, MANAGEMENT AND AGRITOURISM
4.1 Storage 
4.1.1 The advantages of storing farm products on the farm after  harvesting 

• Products can be sold when there are better prices on the market ✓ 
• Products can be stored and processed on the farm to add value  and increase income ✓ 
• Storing is essential to buffer irregular supply ✓ 
• No external storage costs ✓ 
• To provide a regular flow of products to the consumer throughout  the year ✓ (Any 2) (2) 

4.1.2 Requirements for storage of agricultural products 

• Dry ✓ 
• Well ventilated ✓ 
• Cool ✓ 
• Dark place ✓ (4)

4.2 Labelling Act 54 of 1972 

• To protect consumers from buying contaminated food ✓ 
• To protect consumers from misleading labels ✓ (2) 4.3 Behaviour of micro-organisms at different temperatures 

4.3.1 5–10 °C 

• Microbes are inactive /not very active ✓ (1) 

4.3.2 Above 100°C 

• Microbes are killed ✓ (1) 

4.3.3 Below 0°C 

• Microbes are dormant ✓ (1) 

4.4 Principles that should be part of a food handling strategy 

• Management commitment to healthy/hygienic procedures ✓ 
• Education and training on preventative handling ✓ 
• Health interviews to ensure good hygienic procedures ✓ 
• Reporting illness of workers to management ✓ 
• Applying basic good/correct food handling practices ✓ 
• Applying basic personal hygiene practices ✓ (Any 4) (4) 

4.5 Legal documents that regulate importing of meat and dairy products  into South Africa 

• Import permit ✓  
• Veterinary health certificate ✓ (2) 

4.6 Farmer as an agritourism entrepreneur 

• To promote the farm as an agritourist destination by direct selling of  products ✓ 
• By establishing educational facilities for schools and communities ✓ (2)

4.7 Preserving 
4.7.1 Pasteurisation and sterilisation 
Pasteurisation 

• High temperatures (72°C–90°C)✓ 
• Longer period of time (15–40 minutes) ✓ 

Sterilisation 

• Very high temperatures (90°C–105°C) ✓ 
• For very short time (30–40 seconds) ✓ (4) 

4.7.2 TWO acids in preserving of food 

• Benzoic acid ✓ 
• Propionic acid ✓ 
• Scorbutic acid ✓ (2)

4.8 The planning process 

• Formulate aims and objectives ✓  
• Collect ideas and information and organise it ✓  
• Consider all variables which cannot be controlled ✓  
• Consider various possible methods of action then decide on a particular  production in farming ✓  
• Draw up a plan of action for a particular production direction ✓  
• Evaluate the plan to eliminate possible short comings ✓ (6)

4.9 Niche market 
4.9.1 Niche market 

• Specific market you give all your attention to ✓ 
• With special attention to a specific market segment ✓ (2) 

4.9.2 Steps followed in establishing a niche market 

• Identify the niche market ✓ 
• Write down the goals of the market ✓ 
• Decide which resources you need for the undertaking of the  niche marketing ✓ 
• Determine the resources not available and how to compensate  for them ✓ 
• Develop a business plan ✓ (5) 

4.10 Management functions  

• Planning and Decision making ✓ 
• Organising ✓ 
• Motivation and Leadership ✓ 
• Control ✓ 
• Coordination and evaluation ✓ (5) 

4.11 Safety requirements for processing agricultural products 

• Wear protective clothing at all times in the processing unit ✓ 
• Provide a first aid kit at different stations ✓ 
• Train first aid staff on a regularly basis ✓ 
• Train staff on safe handling of machinery ✓ 
• Train staff on safety rules applicable in the processing plant ✓ 
• Clean the place regularly during the day or in case of spoilage ✓ 
• Identify and indicate hazardous areas by proper methods ✓ (Any 4) (4) 

4.12 Steps is the management control process 

• Develop norms and standards for control ✓ 
• Measure real performance ✓ 
• Measure and evaluate deviation ✓ (3)

[50]  
TOTAL SECTION B: 150 
GRAND TOTAL: 200

ACCOUNTING
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM 

MARKS: 300 
MARKING PRINCIPLES: 

1. Penalties for foreign items are applied only if the candidate is not losing marks elsewhere in the  question for that item (no penalty for misplaced item). No double penalty applied. 
2. Penalties for placement or poor presentation (e.g. details) are applied only if the candidate is earning  marks on the figures for that item.
3. Full marks for correct answer. If answer incorrect, mark the workings provided. 
4. If a pre-adjustment figure is shown as a final figure, allocate the part-mark for the working for that  figure (not the method mark for the answer). Note: If figures are stipulated in memo for components  of workings, these do not carry the method mark for final answer as well.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the positive or negative effect of any figure must be considered to award  the mark. If no + or – sign or bracket is provided, assume that the figure is positive. 
6. Where indicated, part-marks may be awarded to differentiate between differing qualities of answers  from candidates.
7. This memorandum is not for public distribution, as certain items might imply incorrect treatment. The  adjustments made are due to nuances in certain questions.
8. Where penalties are applied, the marks for that section of the question cannot be a final negative.
9. Where method marks are awarded for operation, the marker must inspect the reasonableness of the  answer and at least one part must be correct before awarding the mark.
10. Operation means ‘Check operation’. ‘One part correct’ means ‘Operation & one part correct’. Note: Check operation means must be +, -, x, or ÷ per memo, but some items can be + or – such as  prov for bad debts adj.
11. In awarding method marks, ensure that candidates do not get full marks for any item that is incorrect  at least in part. Indicate by way of ?
12. Be aware of candidates who provide valid alternatives beyond the marking guideline. 13. Codes: f = foreign item; p = placement/presentation. 

QUESTION 1 
1.1 CONCEPTS 

(3) 
1.2 VALUE-ADDED TAX (VAT) 
1.2.1

1.2.2

1.3 BANK RECONCILIATION 
1.3.1

1.3.2 Bank Reconciliation Statement as at 31 July 2016 

1.3.3

TOTAL MARKS: 30

QUESTION 2 
2.1 CONCEPTS 

2.2.1

2.2.2

2.2.3

2.2.4

 2.2.5

2.3

TOTAL MARKS : 40

QUESTION 3 
3.1 GANDHI LTD 
INCOME STATEMENT FOR THE YEAR ENDED 28 FEBRUARY 2017 

Foreign items -1 (max -2)       (33)

3.2.1 ORDINARY SHARE CAPITAL 
AUTHORISED SHARE CAPITAL 

ISSUED SHARE CAPITAL 

3.2.2 RETAINED INCOME  

3.3 EQUITY AND LIABILITIES SECTION OF THE BALANCE SHEET 

 (16)

3.4.1

3.4.2

TOTAL MARKS : 75

QUESTION 4 
4.1 CONCEPTS 

(4)
4.2 BRAZILIA LTD 

4.2.1

4.2.2 CASH FLOW STATEMENT FOR THE YEAR ENDED 31 OCTOBER 2016

(27) 
** Award marks to workings if item misplaced; -1 for placement; no max 
# One part correct and answer must indicate inflow/outflow

4.2.3

4.3 GRAYSON LTD AND JONI LTD 
4.3.1

4.3.2 The companies have made different decisions regarding the use of  loans. Comment on the degree of risk and financial gearing. Give ONE  financial indicator in EACH case for EACH company.