GRADE 12 MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions.

1. This question paper consists of ELEVEN questions. Answer ALL the questions.
2. Clearly show ALL calculations, diagrams, graphs, et cetera that you have used in  determining your answer. 
3. You may use an approved scientific calculator (non-programmable and non graphical), unless stated otherwise. 
4. Answers only will not necessarily be awarded full marks.
5. If necessary, round off answers to TWO decimal places, unless stated otherwise.
6. Diagrams are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
7. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
8. Write neatly and legibly.
9. An information sheet with formulae is included at the end of the question paper.

QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1 
Solve for x: 
1.1 2x(x+ 1) − 7(x + 1) = 0 (3)
1.2 x² − 5x − 1 = 0 , correct to two decimal places. (3)
1.3 4x² + 1 ≥ 5x (4)
1.4 5^4x+3_. 100^−2x+1 = 50 000 (4)
1.5 Solve for x and y simultaneously. 
x = 2y and x² + 2x − y − y² = 36 (5) 
1.6 Show that the roots of x² − kx + k − 1 = 0 are real and rational for all real  values of k. (4)

[23] 

QUESTION 2 
2.1 Given the following linear series: 3 + 7 + 11 + … … … + 483

2.1.1 How many terms does the above series have? (3)
2.1.2 Write the above series in sigma notation. (2) 

2.2 2t − 4 ; t − 3 ; 8 − 2t are the 10th , 11th and 12th terms of an arithmetic  sequence. 

2.2.1 Determine the value of t . (3)
2.2.2 Calculate the value of the first term. (3) 

2.3 The following information of a geometric pattern is given:  

T₁ + T₂ = −1 and T₃ + T₄ = −4 
Determine the numerical values of the first three terms if r > 0. (6)

[17]

QUESTION 3 
Given the following list of numbers in a quadratic sequence:  
41 ; 43 ; 47 ; 53 ; 61 ; 71 ; 83 ; 97 ; 113 ; 131 
3.1 Determine the general term of the above sequence if it has a constant second  difference. (5) 
3.2 Calculate T₄₁ and show that it is not a prime number. (3) 
3.3 Determine the unit digit of the 49 999 998^th term of the above sequence. (3)

[11] 

QUESTION 4 

4.1 Wayde invest R500 000 at 7,2% per annum compounded monthly. 

4.1.1 Write down an expression for the value of his investment after n full  years. (2) 
4.1.2 Determine the value of his investment after 5 full years. (2) 
4.1.3 If the investment exceeds R1 million rand after nfull years, calculate  the value of n . (3) 

4.2 Mr Jones wants to purchase a new car. The car cost R350 000 and he wants to  pay R10 000 per month for three years. The interest rate on a financed loan,  payable monthly, is 15% p.a. compounded monthly. 

4.2.1 Calculate how much he will have to give as a deposit, to the auto dealer. (5) 
4.2.2 Calculate his monthly payment if he pays no deposit and the car is  financed over 5 years, at an interest rate of 18,5% p.a. compounded  monthly. (4)

[16]

QUESTION 5 
The sketch shows the graph of f(x) = x(x + 3) and g(x) = −½x + 2. 

5.1 Determine the coordinates of A. (1)
5.2 Calculate the coordinates of P, the turning point of f . (3)
5.3 Determine the average gradient of f between x = −5 and x = −3 . (3)
5.4 Determine the value(s) of x for which f(x) > 0. (2)
5.5 Determine the coordinates of the turning point of ℎ if ℎ(x) = f(x − 2). (2) 
5.6 L is a point on the straight line and M is a point on the parabola. LM is  perpendicular to the x-axis. Show that the length LM can be written as:  
LM =  - [x + ⁷/₄]²   + ⁸¹/₁₆    (4)

[15] 

QUESTION 6 
Given: ℎ(x) = 2^−x 

6.1 Draw a neat sketch of ℎ . (3) 
6.2 Determine the equation of q, the graph obtained by reflecting ℎ in the line  y = 0 . (1) 
6.3 Write down the equation of ℎ⁻¹, the inverse of ℎ, in the form y = … (2)
6.4 Write down the range of ℎ . (1)
6.5 Sketch the graph of ℎ−1 on the same set of axes as ℎ . (2) 
6.6 Determine the x-value(s) for which ℎ⁻¹(x) ≥ −3 . (2)

[11] 

QUESTION 7 
A sketch of the hyperbola f(x ) =  d - f
                                                     x - p ,  where p and d are constants, is given below.  
The dotted lines are the asymptotes. The point A(5; 0) is given on the graph of f.  

7.1 Determine the values of d and p . (2)
7.2 Show that the equation can be written as  y =         3        - 1
                                                                                  x - 2                               (2)
7.3 Write down the image of A if A is reflected about the axis of symmetry  y = x − 3. (2)

[6] 

QUESTION 8 
8.1 Given: f(x) = −2x² + p
Determine f′(x) from first principles. (5) 
8.2 Determine:    (4)

[9] 

QUESTION 9 
Given: f(x) = (x − 1)²(x + 3) 
9.1 Determine the turning points of f. (5) 
9.2 Draw a neat sketch of f showing all intercepts with the axes as well as the  turning points. (4) 
9.3 Determine the coordinates of the point where the concavity of f changes. (3)
9.4 Determine the value(s) of k, for which f(x) = k has three distinct roots. (2) 
9.5 Determine the equation of the tangent to f that is parallel to the line y = −5x if x < 0 . (6)

[20] 

QUESTION 10 
A closed rectangular box, with a rectangle as base, has a length (2x) cm and width  (x) cm. The total surface area (all 6 sides) is 243 cm^2. 
10.1 Show that the height, ℎ , is equal to [ 81 - 2x] cm
                                                                 [ 2x    3 ]
10.2 Show that the volume of the box, in terms of x , is given by the formula: 
V = 81x − ⁴/₃x³     (2) 
10.3 Calculate the value of x if the volume of the box is a maximum. (3) 

[7]

QUESTION 11 
11.1 You have to select a new password for your “Dropbox” account on your  computer. The password must consist of 3 digits and 2 letters of the alphabet in  that order. The digit 0(zero) is not allowed and no consonants are allowed. Any  digit may be repeated but the vowels may not be repeated. How many different  passwords are possible? (3) 
11.2 Using the letters in the word FUNDAMENTALS , determine: 

11.2.1 The number of unique 12 letter arrangements that can be formed (3) 
11.2.2 The probability that a new arrangement will start and end with the  letter N (3) 
11.3 In a city where the ratio of male to female is 1 : 2, one person is selected to flip a fair coin for the kick-off of a soccer tournament. 
11.3.1 Draw a tree diagram to show all possible outcomes of the coin toss. (3) 11.3.2 Determine the probability that it will be a woman who flips the coin. (1) 
11.3.3 Determine the probability that it will be a man who flips a head. (2)

[15] 
TOTAL: 150

PHYSICAL SCIENCES: CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1
1.1 B ✔✔ (2)
1.2 B ✔✔ (2)
1.3 A ✔✔ (2)
1.4 A ✔✔ (2)
1.5 C ✔✔ (2)
1.6 D ✔✔ (2)
1.7 C ✔✔ (2)
1.8 B ✔✔ (2)
1.9 C ✔✔ (2) 
1.10 A ✔✔ (2)

[20] 

QUESTION 2
2.1 

2.1.1 B ✔ (1)
2.1.2 D OR/OF E ✔ (1)
2.1.3 F ✔ (1) 

2.2 

2.2.1 Butanal ✔ (1) 
2.2.2 2,3,3-trimethyl✔but-1-ene ✔ 
Accept
2,3,3- trimethyl ✔-1- butene

(3) 

(2) 
2.4 

2.4.1 Esterification / Condensation ✔   (1) 
2.4.2 Propan-1-ol ✔ ✔ 
If propanol (1 mark)  (2) 
2.4.3  

(2) 

2.4.4 Propyl ✔ butanoate ✔(2)

[16] 

QUESTION 3
3.1

• The temperature at which the vapour pressure equals atmospheric (external)  pressure. ✔✔ (2 or 0)  (2) 

3.2

• Flammable / Catch fire easily. / Volatile ✔ (1) 

3.3 
3.3.1

• Use straight chain✔ primary alcohols ✔ (2) 

3.3.2. OPTION 1

• Structure
  Chain length / more C atoms in chain / molecular size / molecular mass / surface area increases from top to bottom / butan-1-ol to hexan-1-ol.✔
• Intermolecular forces
  Intermolecular forces / Van der Waals forces / London forces / dispersion  forces increases from top to bottom / butan-1-ol to hexan-1-ol. ✔
• Energy
  Energy needed to overcome / break intermolecular forces increases from  top to bottom / butan-1-ol to hexan-1-ol. ✔

OPTION 2

• Structure
  Chain length / number of C atoms in the chain / molecular size / molecular  mass/surface area decreases from bottom to top / hexan-1-ol to  butan-1-ol. ✔
• Intermolecular forces
  Intermolecular forces / Van der Waals forces/London forces / dispersion  forces decreases from bottom to top/hexan-1-ol to butan-1-ol. ✔
• Energy
  Energy needed to overcome / break intermolecular forces decreases from  bottom to top / hexan-1-ol to butan-1-ol. ✔  (3) 

3.4 Remains the same / Bly dieselfde ✔ (1) 
3.5 

3.5.1 Functional group / Type of homologous series ✔ (1) 
3.5.2

• Type of intermolecular forces
  Between molecules of aldehyde / hexanal are dipole-dipole forces. ✔
• Between molecules of alcohols / hexan-1ol are (in addition to dipole-dipole  forces and London forces) hydrogen bonds. ✔
• Strength of intermolecular forces
  Dipole-dipole forces are weaker than hydrogen bonds. ✔
  OR
  Hydrogen bonds are stronger than dipole-dipole forces.
• Energy
  More energy needed to overcome / break intermolecular forces in  hexan-1-ol. ✔
  OR
  Less energy needed to overcome / break intermolecular forces in  hexanal.✔  (4)

[14]

QUESTION 4
4.1 

4.1.1 Substitution / hydrolysis ✔ (1)
4.1.2 H₂O/water ✔
OR
Dilute sodium hydroxide /NaOH(aq) 
OR
Dilute potassium hydroxide/KOH(aq)(1)
4.1.3 Tertiary ✔ (1) 
4.1.4 Elimination / dehydrohalogenation / dehydrobromination ✔ (1) ✔✔
4.1.5 2-methylprop-1-ene / methylpropene / 2-methylpropene  (2) 
4.1.6 Halogenation / bromination ✔ (1) 
4.1.7   (4) 

4.2 

4.2.1 Monomers  ✔ (1)
4.2.2 Alkenes ✔ (1) 
4.2.3 Addition (polymerisation) ✔ (1)

[14] 

QUESTION 5/VRAAG 5 
5.1 ANY TWO:

• Increase temperature of HCℓ. ✔
• Add a catalyst ✔
• Increase the concentration of HCℓ. ✔
• Increase the state of division of CuCO₃ ✔
• Agitation / Stirring  ✔ (2)

5.2 Accepted range : 42 s to 50 s ✔ (1) 
5.3 
5.3.

• average = - Δ m
                      Δ t
  = - (169,76 - 170,000)✔
               (20 - 0) ✔
  = 0,012(g.s^-1)✔

If answer is negative (minus 1 mark)  (3) 
5.3.2 Pure sample:
m(CO₂)_formed = 170,00 – 169,73 ✔
 = 0,27 g  
Impure sample:
m(CO₂)_formed = 170,00 - 169,78 ✔
 = 0,22 g  
%Purity = 0,22 × 100  ✔
                0,27 
= 81,48% ✔ (4) 

5.3.3 POSITIVE MARKING FROM QUESTION 5.3.2. 

• n(CO₂) formed  = m 
                              M
  = 0,27
      44
  = 6,13   ×  10^-3 mol
  n(CO₂) formed  = V 
                              V_M
  6,13 × 10^-3 =      V  
                          22,4
  V = 0,137 dm³    (3) 

5.4 POSITIVE MARKING FROM QUESTION 5.2. 

(2) 

[15] 

QUESTION 6
6.1 Amount / number of moles / volume of (gas) reactants equals amount/number  of moles/volume of (gas) products. ✔
OR
A change in pressure will change the concentration of the reactants and  products equally. (1) 
6.2 

OPTION 1
K_C =    [HI]²   
         [H₂][I₂]
∴55,3 =         [H_I]²               
             (0,014)(0,0085)
∴[HI] = 0,08112 mol.dm^-3

OR
K_C =    [HI]²   
         [H₂][I₂]
∴55,3 =         X²               
             (0,014)(0,0085)
∴X = 0,08112 mol.dm^-3

Initial quantity I₂(mol) (mol) = 0,08112 + 0,017 
= 0,09812 mol 
m(I₂) = nM 
 = (0,09812)(254) ✔
= 24,92 g ✔

OPTION 2

n(HI at equilibrium) = (0,08112)(2) = 0,1622 mol 
n(HI formed) = n(HI at equilibrium) = 0,1622 mol
n(I₂ reacted) = ½n(HI formed) = 0,08112 mol 
n(I₂ initial) = n(I₂ reacted) + n(I2 equilibrium)  
= 0,08112 + 0,017 
 = 0,09812 mol 
m(I₂ initial) = nM 
 = (0,09812)(254) 
 = 24,92 (g)✔

OPTION 3

6.3 (Chemical/dynamic) equilibrium 
OR
The rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction. ✔  (1) 
6.4

• Addition of a catalyst.
• Increase in pressure. (2) 

6.5.1 Endothermic 

• The rate of the forward reaction decreases more. / The rate of the reverse  reaction decreases less.
• A decrease in temperature favours the exothermic reaction. (3)

6.5.2 Decreases  (1) 
6.6 Reactants / H2 / I2 removed

[18] 

QUESTION 7
7.1 A substance that ionises incompletely/to a small extent.(2) 
7.2

• Oxalic acid
• Higher K_a value
  OR
• Carbonic acid has a lower Ka value .(2) 

7.3 

• H₂O
• (COO)2⁻₂ (2) 

7.4 (4) 
7.5 
7.5.1 (5)

7.5.2

• C / phenolphthalein
• Titration of weak acid and strong base.
  OR
• The endpoint will be at pH > 7 which is in the range of the indicator.  (2)

[17] 

QUESTION 8
8.1 

8.1.1 Salt bridge  (1) 
8.1.2 Voltaic / Galvanic cell (1) 

8.2 

8.2.1 Decreases(1)
8.2.2 Increases (1) 

8.3 

8.3.1 Y(s) → Y²⁺(aq) + 2e^- Ignore phases
OR
Mg(s) → Mg²⁺(aq) + 2e ^-

(2) 

8.3.2 Y(s) |Y²⁺(aq) ||Aℓ³⁺(aq) | Aℓ(s) OR/OF Mg(s) |Mg²⁺(aq) ||Aℓ³⁺(aq) | Aℓ(s 
OR
Y(s) | Y²⁺ (1 mol∙dm^-3) || Aℓ³⁺(1 mol∙dm^-3) | Aℓ(s) 
Accept
Y | Y²⁺ || Aℓ³⁺ | Aℓ (3) 
8.4 (5) 

[14] 

QUESTION 9
9.1 Bauxite (1)
9.2 Oxidation  (1)
9.3 Reduce melting point .
OR
To lower the temperature / energy needed to melt the Aℓ₂O₃. (1) 

9.4 Aℓ³⁺(aq) + 3e^- → Aℓ(s)
Ignore phases

(2) 
9.5

• C + O₂  → CO₂  Bal
  OR
• 2Aℓ₂O₃ + 3C  → 4Aℓ + 3CO₂  Bal  

(3) 

[8]

QUESTION 10/VRAAG 10 
10.1 
10.1.1 Ostwald (process) (1) 
10.1.2 Catalyst/Speeds up the rate of the reaction (1)
10.1.3 Nitrogen dioxide  (1)
10.1.4 3NO₂ + H₂O ⇌ 2HNO₃(aq) + NO Bal.  (2) 

10.1.5

• Decrease pressure / Increase volume
• Decrease temperature \ (2) 

10.2 
10.2.1 (Ratio of the) nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium in the fertiliser.  (1)
10.2.2 (6) 

Marking criteria: Use ratio 3/8 x 50 kg x 25 / 25 % Divide previous answer by  39 Multiply by 74,5  Final answer 8,94 kg

OPTION 4 %K =3/8 x 25 = 9,38%  m(K) = 9,38  x 50 = 4,69 kg              100  %K in KCℓ =   39   x 100 = 52,35%                      74,5  52,35% KCℓ: 4,69 kg  m(100% KCℓ) = 4,69  x 100                           52,35   = 8,96 kg

[14] 
TOTAL: 150

PHYSICAL SCIENCES: CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your examination number and centre number in the appropriate spaces on the ANSWER BOOK. 
2. This question paper consists of TEN questions. Answer ALL the questions in  the ANSWER BOOK.
3. Start EACH question on a NEW page in the ANSWER BOOK.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
5. Leave ONE line between two subquestions, for example between  QUESTION 2.1 and QUESTION 2.2.
6. You may use a non-programmable calculator. 
7. You may use appropriate mathematical instruments. 
8. You are advised to use the attached DATA SHEETS.
9. Show ALL formulae and substitutions in ALL calculations.
10. Round off your final numerical answers to a minimum of TWO decimal places.
11. Give brief motivations, discussions, et cetera where required.
12. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Write  down the question number (1.1–1.10), choose the answer and make a cross (X) over  the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 
EXAMPLE: 
1.11    
1.1 Which ONE of the following is the product formed in the Haber process? 

1. Nitrogen
2. Ammonia
3. Nitric acid
4. Sulphuric acid (2) 

1.2 A carbonyl group is the functional group of … 

1. alcohols.
2. ketones.
3. haloalkanes.
4. carboxylic acids. (2) 

1.3 Consider the structure of an organic compound below.

The IUPAC name of this compound is … 

1. 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene.
2. 2,2-dimethylbut-2-ene.
3. 1,1,2-trimethylprop-1-ene.
4. 1,1,2,2-tetramethylethene. (2) 

1.4 Consider the reaction represented below. 
CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CH₃     →     CH₃CHCH₂ + X
Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY gives the type of reaction that  takes place and the IUPAC name of product X? 

(2) 
1.5 Consider the following balanced equation of a chemical reaction:
2NaCℓ + 2H₂O → Cℓ₂ + H₂ + 2NaOH 
Which ONE of the following statements about the reaction is correct? 
The reaction takes place in a/an … 

1. galvanic cell and absorbs energy.
2. galvanic cell and releases energy.
3. electrolytic cell and absorbs energy.
4. electrolytic cell and releases energy. (2) 

1.6 The following equation represents the reaction taking place in an  electrochemical cell: 
Ni(s) + Pb²⁺(aq) → Ni²⁺(aq) + Pb(s) 
The flow of electrons through the external circuit of this cell is from … 

1. Pb at the anode to Ni at the cathode. 
2. Pb at the cathode to Ni at the anode.
3. Ni at the cathode to Pb at the anode.
4. Ni at the anode to Pb at the cathode. (2) 

1.7 A solution has a pH = 1. This solution … 

1. contains no OH^─ ions.
2. neutralises a hydrochloric acid solution of pH = 1.
3. contains a higher concentration of H₃O⁺ ions than OH^─ ions.
4. contains a higher concentration of OH^─ ions than H₃O⁺ ions. (2) 

1.8 A potential energy diagram can be used to show the activation energy (E_A)  and the heat of reaction (ΔH) of a reaction. 
Which ONE of the following combinations of values of E_A and ΔH CANNOT be obtained for any reaction? 

(2) 
1.9 Initially, 2 mol CO(g) and 2 mol H₂₍g) are sealed in a container. The reaction  reaches equilibrium according to the following balanced equation: 
CO(g) + 2H₂(g) ⇌ CH₃OH(g) 
At equilibrium the amount of CH₃OH(g) in the mixture will be … 

1. 1 mol.
2. 2 mol.
3. less than 1 mol.
4. greater than 1 mol. (2)

1.10 The graph below represents the change in concentration of a reactant against  time for a chemical reaction. 

In which ONE of the following graphs does the dotted line show the effect of a  catalyst on this reactant? 
(2) 

[20] 

QUESTION 2 (Start on a new page.) 
The letters A to F in the table below represent six organic compounds. 

2.1 Write down the letter that represents EACH of the following: 

2.1.1 A hydrocarbon (1)
2.1.2 An alcohol (1)
2.1.3 An ester (1)

2.2 Write down the IUPAC name of: 

2.2.1 Compound A (1)
2.2.2 Compound B (3) 

2.3 Compound C is a functional isomer of compound A. Write down the structural  formula of compound C. (2) 
2.4 Compound D is used as one of the reactants to prepare compound F.  Write down the: 

2.4.1 Type of reaction which takes place to prepare compound F (1)
2.4.2 IUPAC name of compound D (2)
2.4.3 Structural formula of the other organic reactant used (2) 
2.4.4 IUPAC name of compound F (2)

[16]

QUESTION 3 (Start on a new page.) 
Learners investigate factors which influence the boiling points of alcohols. 
They use equal volumes of each of the alcohols and heat them separately in a water  bath. The temperature at which each boils is measured. The results obtained are  shown in the table below. 

3.1 Define the term boiling point. (2)
3.2 What property of alcohols requires them to be heated in a water bath? (1)
3.3 The boiling points of the alcohols are compared with each other.  

3.3.1 What structural requirements must the alcohols meet to make it a  fair comparison? (2) 
3.3.2 Fully explain the trend in the boiling points. (3) 

3.4 How will the boiling point of hexan-1-ol be affected if the volume of hexan-1-ol used is doubled? Choose from INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS  THE SAME. (1) 
3.5 In another investigation the learners compare the boiling points of hexan-1-ol  and hexanal. 

3.5.1 Write down the independent variable for this comparison. (1) 
3.5.2 They find that the boiling point of hexan-1-ol is higher than that of  hexanal.  Fully explain this observation. (4)

[14]

QUESTION 4 (Start on a new page.) 
4.1 Consider the reactions represented in the flow diagram below.

Write down the: 

4.1.1 Type of reaction represented by reaction 1 (1) 
4.1.2 NAME or FORMULA of the inorganic reactant needed for  reaction 1 (1) 
4.1.3 Type of alcohol (PRIMARY, SECONDARY or TERTIARY) of which  alcohol A is an example (1) 
4.1.4 Type of reaction represented by reaction 2 (1)
4.1.5 IUPAC name of compound B (2)
4.1.6 Type of addition reaction represented by reaction 3 (1)
4.1.7 Balanced equation for reaction 3 using structural formulae (4) 

4.2 A wide range of synthetic polymers are produced by combining large  numbers of similar small organic molecules bonded to each other in a  repeating pattern. 
Polymer C below is an example of such a polymer. 

Write down: 

4.2.1 ONE word for the underlined phrase (1) 
4.2.2 The homologous series to which the 'small organic molecules' used  to produce polymer C belong (1) 
4.2.3 The type of polymerisation which takes place to produce polymer C (1)

[14] 

QUESTION 5 (Start on a new page.) 
The reaction of copper(II) carbonate with excess dilute hydrochloric acid is used to  investigate the rate of reaction. The balanced equation for the reaction is: 
CuCO₃(s) + 2HCℓ(aq) → CuCℓ₂(aq) + H₂O(ℓ) + CO₂(g) 
The apparatus used is illustrated below. 

5.1 State TWO ways in which the rate of the reaction above can be increased. (2) 
During the investigation, samples of both PURE and IMPURE copper(II) carbonate of  EQUAL mass are used. The graphs below are obtained from the results. 

5.2 Write down the reaction time for the reaction of the pure CuCO₃ with HCℓ. (1) 
5.3 Assume that all the gas formed during the two reactions escape from the flask and that the impurities do not react. 
Calculate the: 

5.3.1 Average rate of the reaction of the pure sample over the first 20 s (3)
5.3.2 Percentage purity of the impure sample (4) 
5.3.3 Maximum volume of CO2(g) produced during the reaction of the  pure sample of CuCO₃ if the reaction takes place at STANDARD  CONDITIONS (3) 

5.4 Sketch a graph of the volume of gas produced versus time for the reaction of  the pure CuCO₃. Indicate the reaction time on the x-axis. (2)

[15] 

QUESTION 6 (Start on a new page.) 
Hydrogen and iodine are sealed in a 2 dm³ container. The reaction is allowed to reach  equilibrium at 700 K according to the following balanced equation: 
H₂₍g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) 
6.1 Give a reason why changes in pressure will have no effect on the equilibrium  position. (1) 
6.2 At equilibrium, 0,028 mol H₂(g) and 0,017 mol I₂(g) are present in the  container.  
Calculate the initial mass of I₂(g), in grams, that was sealed in the container, if  K_c for the reaction is 55,3 at 700 K. (9) 
The reaction rate versus time graph below represents different changes made to the  equilibrium mixture. 

6.3 What do the parallel lines in the first two minutes indicate? (1) 
6.4 State TWO possible changes that could be made to the reaction conditions at  t = 2 minutes. (2) 
6.5 The temperature of the equilibrium mixture was changed at t = 4 minutes. 

6.5.1 Is the forward reaction EXOTHERMIC or ENDOTHERMIC?  Fully explain the answer. (3) 
6.5.2 How will this change influence the Kc value? Choose from  INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME. (1) 

6.6 What change was made to the equilibrium mixture at t = 8 minutes? (1)

[18] 

QUESTION 7 (Start on a new page.) 
The Ka values for two weak acids, oxalic acid and carbonic acid, are as follows: 

7.1 Define the term weak acid. (2) 
7.2 Which acid, OXALIC ACID or CARBONIC ACID, is stronger? Give a reason  for the answer. (2) 
7.3 Oxalic acid ionises in water according to the following balanced equation:
(COOH)₂(s) + 2H₂O(ℓ) ⇌ (COO)²⁻₂ (aq) + 2H₃O⁺(aq) 
Write down the FORMULAE of the TWO bases in this equation. (2) 
7.4 Learners prepare 2 dm³ of a sodium hydroxide solution of concentration  0,1 mol∙dm^-3.  Calculate the pH of the solution. (4) 
7.5 During a titration of the sodium hydroxide solution in QUESTION 7.4 with  dilute oxalic acid, the learners find that 25,1 cm3 of the NaOH(aq) neutralises  exactly 14,2 cm³ of the (COOH)₂(aq). 
The balanced equation for the reaction is as follows: 
2NaOH(aq) + (COOH)₂(aq) → (COO)₂Na₂(aq) + 2H₂O(ℓ) 

7.5.1 Calculate the concentration of the oxalic acid solution. (5) The following indicators are available for the titration: 

7.5.2 Which ONE of the indicators above is most suitable for this  titration? Give a reason for the answer. (2)

[17]

QUESTION 8 (Start on a new page.) 
In the electrochemical cell shown below an aluminium electrode and another metal  electrode, Y, are used.  

8.1 Write down the: 

8.1.1 Name of component Q (1)
8.1.2 Type of electrochemical cell represented above (1) 

It is found that the mass of the aluminium electrode increases whilst the cell is  functioning. 
8.2 How will EACH of the following change while the cell is functioning?  Choose from INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS THE SAME. 

8.2.1 The concentration of Aℓ³⁺(aq) (1)
8.2.2 The concentration of Y²⁺(aq) (1)

8.3 Write down the: 

8.3.1 Half-reaction that takes place at electrode Y (2)
8.3.2 Cell notation of the cell (3)

8.4 The initial emf of this cell measured under standard conditions is 0,7 V. Identify metal Y by means of a calculation. (5)

[14] 

QUESTION 9 (Start on a new page.) 
The simplified diagram below shows an electrolytic cell used in the industrial extraction  of aluminium (Aℓ) from aluminium oxide at temperatures as high as 1 000 ºC. 
Electrode X is a carbon rod.  

The cell reaction that takes place is as follows: 
2Aℓ₂O₃(ℓ) → 4Aℓ(ℓ) + 3O₂(g) 
9.1 Write down the name of the ore used as source of aluminium oxide. (1) 
9.2 Which half-reaction (OXIDATION or REDUCTION) takes place at  electrode X? (1) 
9.3 What is the function of the cryolite? (1) 9.4 Write down the reduction half-reaction. (2) 
9.5 Write down a balanced equation that shows why the carbon rod, X, must be  replaced regularly. (3)

[8] 

QUESTION 10 (Start on a new page.) 
10.1 The reactions represented below take place during one of the industrial  processes used in the fertiliser industry. 
                                           _PT

1. : 4NH₃(g) + 5O₂(g) ⇌ 4NO(g) + 6H₂O(g)                                 ∆H < 0 
2. NO(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ X 
3. : NO₂ + H₂O(ℓ) ⇌ HNO₃(aq) + _____
   Write down: 

10.1.1 The name of this industrial process (1)
10.1.2 The function of Pt in reaction I (1)
10.1.3 The NAME of product X (1)
10.1.4 A balanced equation for reaction III (2) 
10.1.5 TWO ways in which the yield of the NO(g) obtained in reaction I can be increased without changing the amount of reactants and  products (2)

10.2 NPK fertilisers contain NH₄NO₃, (NH₄)₃PO₄ and KCℓ in varying proportions.

10.2.1 What does NPK mean? (1)
10.2.2 Consider the fertiliser illustrated below.  

Calculate the mass, in kg, of KCℓ needed to produce this fertiliser. (6)

[14] 
TOTAL: 150 

DATA FOR PHYSICAL SCIENCES GRADE 12 
PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY) 
TABLE 1: PHYSICAL CONSTANTS

TABLE 2: FORMULAE

TABLE 3: THE PERIODIC TABLE OF ELEMENTS 

TABLE 4A: STANDARD REDUCTION POTENTIALS

TABLE 4B: STANDARD REDUCTION POTENTIALS

PHYSICAL SCIENCES: PHYSICS
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your centre number and examination number in the appropriate spaces  on the ANSWER BOOK.
2. This question paper consists of 10 questions. Answer ALL the questions in  the ANSWER BOOK. 
3. Start EACH question on a NEW page in the ANSWER BOOK.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
5. Leave ONE line between two subquestions, for example between  QUESTION 2.1 and QUESTION 2.2.
6. You may use a non-programmable calculator. 
7. You may use appropriate mathematical instruments. 
8. You are advised to use the attached DATA SHEETS.
9. Show ALL formulae and substitutions in ALL calculations.
10. Round off your final numerical answers to a minimum of TWO decimal places.
11. Give brief motivations, discussions et cetera where required.
12. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Write  down the question number (1.1–1.10), choose the answer and make a cross (X) over  the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 
EXAMPLE: 
1.11   
1.1 According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the acceleration of an  object is … 

1. independent of its mass. 
2. always equal to its mass.
3. directly proportional to its mass.
4. inversely proportional to its mass. (2) 

1.2 The diagram below shows three blocks, P, Q and R, suspended from a  ceiling. The blocks are identical, stationary and have the same mass but are  at different heights above the ground.  
The connecting strings are massless and inextensible. The tensions in the  strings attached to blocks P, Q and R are T_P, T_Q and T_R respectively. 

Which ONE of the following statements about the tensions is CORRECT? 

1. TP > TQ > TR
2. TP < TQ < TR 
3. TP = TQ = TR
4. TP > TQ and TQ < TR (2)

1.3 A ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground. It returns to the ground,  makes an elastic collision with the ground and then bounces to a maximum  height. Ignore air resistance. 
Which ONE of the following velocity-time graphs CORRECTLY describes the  motion of the ball? 
(2) 
1.4 When the velocity of a moving object is doubled, the … 

1. net work done by the object is doubled.
2. kinetic energy of the object is doubled.
3. potential energy of the object is doubled.
4. linear momentum of the object is doubled. (2) 

1.5 The net work required to stop a moving object is equal to the … 

1. inertia of the object. 
2. change in kinetic energy of the object.
3. change in momentum of the object.
4. change in impulse of the object. (2)  

1.6 A stationary observer is listening to the sound coming from a sound source.  The listener hears a sound of a lower pitch when compared to that produced  by the source.  
What can you conclude about the source from this observation? 

1. The source is at rest.
2. The source is moving towards the listener.
3. The source is moving away from the listener.
4. There is an obstacle between the source and the listener. (2) 

1.7 Two charged particles are placed a distance, r, apart. The electrostatic force  exerted by one charged particle on the other is FE. 
Which ONE of the graphs below CORRECTLY represents the relationship  between the electrostatic force, FE, and the square of the distance, r2, between the two charges? 
(2) 
1.8 In the circuit diagram below, the resistance of resistor R₁ is TWICE the  resistance of resistor R₂. 
The two resistors are connected in series and identical high-resistance  voltmeters are connected across each resistor. 
The readings on the voltmeters are V₁ and V₂ respectively. 

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the voltmeter readings is  CORRECT? 

1. V₁ = 2V₂ 
2. V₁ = ½V₂ 
3. V₁ = ¼V₂ 
4. 2V₁ = V₂  (2) 

1.9 In a DC generator the current to the external circuit is delivered through the … 

1. coils. 
2. battery.
3. slip rings. 
4. split rings (commutators). (2) 

1.10 In an experiment on the photoelectric effect, the frequency of the incident light  is high enough to cause the removal of electrons from the surface of the  metal. 
The number of electrons ejected from the metal surface is proportional to the … 

1. kinetic energy of the electrons.
2. number of incident photons.
3. work function of the metal.
4. frequency of the incident light. (2)

[20] 

QUESTION 2 (Start on a new page.) 
In the diagram below, a small object of mass 2 kg is sliding at a constant velocity of  1,5 m⋅s^-1 down a rough plane inclined at 7º to the horizontal surface.  

At the bottom of the plane, the object continues sliding onto the rough horizontal  surface and eventually comes to a stop. 
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the surface is the same for  both the inclined surface and the horizontal surface. 

2.1 Write down the magnitude of the net force acting on the object. (1) 
2.2 Draw a labelled free-body diagram for the object while it is on the inclined  plane. (3) 
2.3 Calculate the: 

2.3.1 Magnitude of the frictional force acting on the object while it is sliding down the inclined plane (3) 
2.3.2 Coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the surfaces (3) 
2.3.3 Distance the object travels on the horizontal surface before it  comes to a stop (5)

[15] 

QUESTION 3 (Start on a new page.) 
A hot-air balloon moves vertically downwards at a constant velocity of 1,2 m∙s^-1.  When it reaches a height of 22 m from the ground, a ball is dropped from the balloon. 
Refer to the diagram below. 

Assume that the dropping of the ball has no effect on the speed of the hot-air balloon.  Ignore air friction for the motion of the ball. 

3.1 Explain the term projectile motion. (2)
3.2 Is the hot-air balloon in free fall? Give a reason for the answer. (2)
3.3 Calculate the time it takes for the ball to hit the ground after it is dropped. (4) 

When the ball lands on the ground, it is in contact with the ground for 0,3 s and then it bounces vertically upwards with a speed of 15 m∙s^-1. 

3.4 Calculate how high the balloon is from the ground when the ball reaches its  maximum height after the first bounce. (6)

[14]

QUESTION 4 (Start on a new page.) 
4.1 Define the term impulse in words. (2) 
4.2 The diagram below shows a gun mounted on a mechanical support which is  fixed to the ground. The gun is capable of firing bullets rapidly in a horizontal  direction. 
Each bullet travels at a speed of 700 m∙s-1 in an easterly direction when it  leaves the gun. 
(Take the initial velocity of a bullet, before being fired, as zero.) 

The gun fires 220 bullets per minute. The mass of each bullet is 0,03 kg. Calculate the: 

4.2.1 Magnitude of the momentum of each bullet when it leaves the gun (3)
4.2.2 The net average force that each bullet exerts on the gun (5) 

4.3 Without any further calculation, write down the net average horizontal force  that the mechanical support exerts on the gun. (2)

[12] 

QUESTION 5 (Start on a new page.) 
A lift arrangement comprises an electric motor, a cage and its counterweight.  The counterweight moves vertically downwards as the cage moves upwards. The cage  and counterweight move at the same constant speed. Refer to the diagram below. 

The cage, carrying passengers, moves vertically upwards at a constant speed, covering 55 m in 3 minutes. The counterweight has a mass of 950 kg. The total mass  of the cage and passengers is 1 200 kg. The electric motor provides the power needed  to operate the lift system. Ignore the effects of friction. 

5.1 Define the term power in words. (2)
5.2 Calculate the work done by the: 

5.2.1 Gravitational force on the cage (3)
5.2.2 Counterweight on the cage (2) 

5.3 Calculate the average power required by the motor to operate the lift  arrangement in 3 minutes. Assume that there are no energy losses due to  heat and sound. (6)

[13] 

QUESTION 6 (Start on a new page.) 
6.1 A sound source is moving at constant velocity past a stationary observer. The  frequency detected as the source approaches the observer is 2 600 Hz. The  frequency detected as the source moves away from the observer is 1 750 Hz. 
Take the speed of sound in air as 340 m∙s^-1

6.1.1 Name the phenomenon that describes the apparent change in  frequency detected by the observer. (1) 
6.1.2 State ONE practical application of the phenomenon in  QUESTION 6.1.1 in the field of medicine. (1) 
6.1.3 Calculate the speed of the moving source. (6) 
6.1.4 Will the observed frequency INCREASE, DECREASE or REMAIN  THE SAME if the velocity of the source increased as it: 

1. 1. Moves towards the observer (1) 
   2. Moves away from the observer (1) 

6.2 Spectral lines of star X at an observatory are observed to be red shifted.

6.2.1 Explain the term red shifted in terms of wavelength. (2) 
6.2.2 Will the frequency of the light observed from the star INCREASE,  DECREASE or REMAIN THE SAME? (1)

[13]

QUESTION 7 (Start on a new page.) 
7.1 A metal sphere A, suspended from a wooden beam by means of a  non-conducting string, has a charge of +6 µC. 

7.1.1 Were electrons ADDED TO or REMOVED FROM the sphere to  obtain this charge? Assume that the sphere was initially neutral. (1) 
7.1.2 Calculate the number of electrons added to or removed from the  sphere. (3) 

7.2 Point charges Q₁, Q₂ and Q₃ are arranged at the corners of a right-angled  triangle, as shown in the diagram below. 

The charges on Q₁ and Q₂ are + 2 µC and – 2 µC respectively and the  magnitude of the charge on Q₃ is 6 µC. 
The distance between Q₁ and Q₃ is r. The distance between Q₂ and Q₃ is  also r. 
The charge Q₃ experiences a resultant electrostatic force of 0,12 N to  the west. 

7.2.1 Without calculation, identify the sign (positive or negative) on the  charge Q_3. (1) 
7.2.2 Draw a vector diagram to show the electrostatic forces acting on Q₃ due to charges Q₁ and Q₂ respectively. (2) 
7.2.3 Write down an expression, in terms of r, for the horizontal  component of the electrostatic force exerted on Q₃ by Q₁. (3) 
7.2.4 Calculate the distance r. (4) 

7.3 The magnitude of the electric field is 100 N·C^-1 at a point which is 0,6 m away  from a point charge Q. 

7.3.1 Define the term electric field at a point in words. (2) 
7.3.2 Calculate the distance from point charge Q at which the magnitude  of the electric field is 50 N∙C^-1. (5)

[21] 

QUESTION 8 (Start on a new page). 
8.1 In Circuit 1 below three identical light bulbs, P, Q and R, with the same  resistance, are connected to a battery with emf ε and negligible internal  resistance. 

8.1.1 How does the brightness of bulb P compare with that of bulb Q? Give a reason for the answer. (2)
8.1.2 How does the brightness of bulb P compare with that of bulb R? Give a reason for the answer. (2) 

A fourth, identical bulb T, with the same resistance as the other three, is  connected to the circuit by means of an ordinary wire of negligible resistance, as shown in Circuit 2 below. 

8.1.3 How does the brightness of bulb T compare with that of bulb R? Give a reason for the answer. (2)

8.2 A battery with an emf of 20 V and an internal resistance of 1 Ω is connected  to three resistors, as shown in the circuit below. 

Calculate the: 

8.2.1 Current in the 8 Ω resistor (6)
8.2.2 Potential difference across the 5 Ω resistor (4) 
8.2.3 Total power supplied by the battery (3)

[19] 

QUESTION 9 (Start on a new page.) 
The diagram below shows a simplified version of an AC generator. 

9.1 Name the component in this arrangement that makes it different from a DC  generator. (1) 
9.2 Sketch a graph of induced emf versus time for TWO complete rotations of the  coil. (2) 
A practical version of the generator above has a large number of turns of the coil and it  produces an rms potential difference of 240 V. 
9.3 State TWO ways in which the induced emf can be increased. (2)
9.4 Define the term root mean square (rms) value of an AC potential difference. (2) 
9.5 The practical version of the generator above is connected across an  appliance rated at 1 500 W. Calculate the rms current passing through the appliance. (3)

[10]

QUESTION 10 (Start on a new page.) 
The graph below is obtained for an experiment on the photoelectric effect using different frequencies of light and a given metal plate. 

The threshold frequency for the metal is 6,8 x 1014 Hz. 
10.1 Define the term threshold frequency. (2)
In the experiment, the brightness of the light incident on the metal surface is increased.
10.2 State how this change will influence the speed of the photoelectrons emitted. 
Choose from INCREASES, DECREASES or REMAINS UNCHANGED. (1) 
10.3 Show by means of a calculation whether the photoelectric effect will be  OBSERVED or NOT OBSERVED, if monochromatic light with a wavelength of 6 x 10^-7 m is used in this experiment. (5) 
One of the radiations used in this experiment has a frequency of 7,8 x 10¹⁴ Hz. 
10.4 Calculate the maximum speed of an ejected photoelectron. (5)

[13] 
TOTAL: 150 

DATA FOR PHYSICAL SCIENCES GRADE 12 
PAPER 1 (PHYSICS) 
TABLE 1: PHYSICAL CONSTANTS

TABLE 2: FORMULAE
MOTION

FORCE

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

WAVES, SOUND AND LIGHT

ELECTROSTATICS

ELECTRIC CIRCUITS

ALTERNATING CURRENT

PHYSICAL SCIENCES: PHYSICS
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

GENERAL MARKING GUIDELINES
1. CALCULATIONS

1.1 Marks will be awarded for: correct formula, correct substitution,  correct answer with unit. 
1.2 No marks will be awarded if an incorrect or inappropriate  formula is used, even though there may be relevant symbols and  applicable substitutions. 
When an error is made during substitution into a correct  formula, a mark will be awarded for the correct formula and for the  correct substitutions, but no further marks will be given. 
1.3 If no formula is given, but all substitutions are correct, a  candidate will forfeit one mark. 
1.4 No penalisation if zero substitutions are omitted in calculations  where correct formula/principle is given correctly.  
1.5 Mathematical manipulations and change of subject of appropriate  formulae carry no marks, but if a candidate starts off with the  correct formula and then changes the subject of the formula  incorrectly, marks will be awarded for the formula and the correct  substitutions. The mark for the incorrect numerical answer is  forfeited. 
1.6 Marks are only awarded for a formula if a calculation has been  attempted, i.e. substitutions have been made or a numerical  answer given. 
1.7 Marks can only be allocated for substitutions when values are  substituted into formulae and not when listed before a calculation  starts. 
1.8 All calculations, when not specified in the question, must be done  to a minimum of TWO decimal places. 
1.9 If a final answer to a calculation is correct, full marks will not  automatically be awarded. Markers will always ensure that the  correct/appropriate formula is used and that workings, including  substitutions, are correct. 
1.10 Questions where a series of calculations have to be made (e.g. a  circuit diagram question) do not necessarily always have to follow  the same order. FULL MARKS will be awarded provided it is a valid  solution to the problem. However, any calculation that will not bring  the candidate closer to the answer than the original data, will not  count any marks. 

2. UNITS

2.1 Candidates will only be penalised once for the repeated use of an  incorrect unit within a question. 
2.2 Units are only required in the final answer to a calculation. Eenhede word slegs in die finale antwoord op 'n vraag verlang. 
2.3 Marks are only awarded for an answer, and not for a unit per se.  Candidates will therefore forfeit the mark allocated for the answer  in each of the following situations: 

• • Correct answer + wrong unit 
  • Wrong answer + correct unit
  • Correct answer + no unit 

2.4 SI units must be used except in certain cases, e.g. V∙m-1instead of  N∙C^-1, and cm∙s^-1or km∙h-1 instead of m∙s^-1 where the question  warrants this. 

3. GENERAL

3.1 If one answer or calculation is required, but two given by the  candidate, only the first one will be marked, irrespective of which  one is correct. If two answers are required, only the first two will be  marked, etc. 
3.2 For marking purposes, alternative symbols (s, u, t, etc.) will also be  accepted. 
3.3 Separate compound units with a multiplication dot, not a full stop,  for example, m·s ^-1. For marking purposes m.s^-1and m/s will also  be accepted. 

4. POSITIVE MARKING 
Positive marking regarding calculations will be followed in the following cases: 

4.1 Subquestion to subquestion: When a certain variable is  incorrectly calculated in one subquestion (e.g. 3.1) and needs to be  substituted into another subquestion (3.2 or 3.3), full marks are to  be awarded for the subsequent subquestions 
4.2 Multi-step question in a subquestion: If the candidate has to  calculate, for example, current in the first step and gets it wrong  due to a substitution error, the mark for the substitution and the  final answer will be forfeited.

5. NEGATIVE MARKING
Normally an incorrect answer cannot be correctly motivated if based on a  conceptual mistake. If the candidate is therefore required to motivate in  QUESTION 3.2 the answer given to QUESTION 3.1, and 3.1 is incorrect, no  marks can be awarded for QUESTION 3.2. However, if the answer for e.g.  QUESTION 3.1 is based on a calculation, the motivation for the incorrect  answer in QUESTION 3.2 should be considered. 

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1
1.1 D✔✔ (2)
1.2 C✔✔ (2)
1.3 A✔✔ (2)
1.4 D✔✔ (2)
1.5 B✔✔ (2)
1.6 C✔✔ (2)
1.7 B✔✔ (2)
1.8 A✔✔ (2)
1.9 D✔✔ (2) 
1.10 B✔✔ (2)

[20]

QUESTION 2
2.1 0 N/zero✔ (1)
2.2 

2.3.1

• F_net = ma
  f_k - mgsinθ = 0
  f_k = mgsinθ 

 f_k = (2)(9,8) sin7º ✔ 
f_k = 2,39 N ✔ (2,389) N (3) 

2.3.2 POSITIVE MARKING FROM QUESTION 2.3.1

• f_k = μ_kN
  = μ_kmgcos7º
  ✔ 1 mark for any of these
  2,389 = μ_k(2)(9,8)cos7º ✔ 
  µ_k = 0,12 ✔ (3) 

2.3.3 POSITIVE MARKING FROM QUESTION 2.3.2
OPTION 1

• F_net = ma
  - f_k = ma
  - μ_kN = ma - μ_k(mg) = ma
  ✔ 1 mark for any of these
  - (0,12)(2)(9,8) ✔= 2a✔
  a = -1,176 m.s^-2      (-1,18)
  v_f² = v_i² + 2aΔx
  0 = (1,5)²+ 2(-1,176)Δx✔
  Δx = 0,96 m
  Distance is 0,96 m✔ 

OPTION 2

• W_net = ΔK 
  W_net = ΔE_K 
  W_nc = ∆K + ∆U
  W_nc = ∆E_K + ∆EP
  μ_kN∆x cos θ = ½ mv_f²– ½ mv_i² 
  1 mark for any of these
  NOTE: substituting into any of the above equations will lead to the  following:
  (0,12) (2)(9,8) ✔∆x cos 180º ✔= 0 – ½ (2)(1,5)²✔
  ∆x = 0,957 m✔ (5) 

[15] 

QUESTION 3
3.1

• (Motion of) an object in which the only force acting is the gravitational  force. ✔✔ 
  OR
  (Motion of)an object which has been given an initial velocity and which follows  a path entirely determined by the effects of gravitational  acceleration/force. ✔✔
  OR
  The (motion of )an object that is projected, thrown or shot either upwards or  downwards into the air and on which the only force considered/acting is  gravitational. ✔✔ (2)
  Note: 2 or/of 0 

3.2 No ✔ 

• The balloon is not accelerating at the rate of 9,8 m∙s^-2/moving with constant  velocity/acceleration is 0 m∙s^-2✔ (2)
  OR
  There are other forces (e.g.,friction) acting on the balloon besides  gravity.✔
  Net force acting on the balloon is zero

3.3 

 (4) 

3.4 

(6) 
[14] 

4.1 It is the product of the resultant/net force acting on an object✔ and the time  the resultant/net force acts on the object. ✔  (2)
NOTE: ONLY 1 MARK FOR “CHANGE IN MOMENTUM”
4.2.1 (3) 

4.2.2 

(5) 

4.3 

(2) 
[12] 

QUESTION 5
5.1 (2) 

5.2.1 (3) 

5.2.2 (2) 

5.3 

(6) 
[13] 

QUESTION 6
6.1.1 The Doppler effect.✔ (1)
6.1.2 Measuring the rate of blood flow
OR
Ultrasound (scanning)✔ (1) 

6.1.3 (6) 

6.1.4

1. Increase✔ (1) 
2. Decrease/✔ (1) 

6.2.1 The spectral lines (light) from the star are shifted towards longer  wavelengths. ✔✔ (2) 
6.2.2 Decrease ✔ (1)

[13]

QUESTION 7
7.1.1 Removed✔  (1) 
7.1.2 (3) 

7.2.1 Negative ✔ (1) 
7.2.2 (2) 

7.2.3 (3)

7.2.4 (4) 

7.3.1 The electric field at a point is the (electrostatic) force experienced ✔per unit positive charge ✔placed at that point   (2)
7.3.2  (5) 

[21]

QUESTION 8
NEGATIVE MARKING FOR 8.1.1,8.1.2 AND 8.1.3
8.1.1

• P and Q burn with the same brightness ✔ same potential difference/same  current✔  (2) 

8.1.2

• P is dimmer (less bright) than R
  OR
• R is brighter than P✔
  R is connected across the battery alone therefore the voltage (terminal pd) is  the same as the emf source (energy delivered by the source). ✔
  OR
  The potential difference across R is twice (larger/greater than) that of P./The  current through R is twice (larger/greater than) that of P.
  OR
  P and Q are in series and are both connected across the same battery, ✔ hence the voltage (terminal pd) is shared equally ✔(P and Q are potential  dividers) Therefore R is brighter.
  OR
  Potential difference across P is half that across R(2)

8.1.3 T does not light up at all✔ 
ACCEPT

• T is dimmer (less bright) than R✔
• R is brighter than T✔
  Reason
  • The wire acts as a short circuit. ✔
    OR
  • The potential difference across T / current in T is zero.✔  (2) 

8.2.1 
(6) 

8.2.2 

(4)

(4) 
8.2.3 

NOTE: Range 32,35- 32,45 

[19]

QUESTION 9
9.1 Slip rings ✔ (1)
9.2     (2) 

9.3 Any TWO

• Increase the speed of rotation✔
• Increase the number of coils (turns)✔
• Use stronger magnets
  ACCEPT: Increase surface area(2) 

9.4

• The rms value of an AC voltage it that value of the AC voltage which will  dissipate the same amount of energy as DC. 
  OR
• The rms value of an AC voltage it that value of the AC voltage which will  produce the same joule heating effect as DC.  (2)

9.5 (3) 

[10]

QUESTION 10
10.1

• The minimum frequency of light ✔needed to emit electrons from a certain  metal surface.✔
  OR
• The minimum frequency of light✔ below which electrons will not be emitted  from the surface of a certain metal. ✔ . (2) 

10.2 The speed remains unchanged. ✔  (1) 
10.3 (5)

10.4 (5)  

[13] 
TOTAL: 150

MUSIC
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FIVE sections, namely SECTIONS A, B, C,  D and E.  
2. SECTIONS A and B are COMPULSORY.
3. SECTION C: WESTERN ART MUSIC (WAM), SECTION D: JAZZ and  SECTION E: INDIGENOUS AFRICAN MUSIC (IAM) are choice questions.  Answer only ONE of these sections (SECTION C or D or E).
4. Write all music notations in SECTION A in pencil and all written text in blue or  black ink on this question paper.
5. Answer SECTION B and SECTION C or D or E in blue or black ink in the  ANSWER BOOK provided.
6. Number the questions correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
7. The last page of this question paper is manuscript paper intended for rough  work. Candidates may remove this page.
8. Candidates may NOT have access to any musical instrument for the duration  of this examination.
9. Candidates must take note of the mark allocation for each question to provide  enough information in their answers.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

MARKING GRID

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: THEORY OF MUSIC (COMPULSORY) (90 minutes) 
Answer QUESTION 1  
AND QUESTION 2.1 OR 2.2  
AND QUESTION 3.1 OR 3.2  
AND QUESTION 4.1 OR 4.2. 
Answer the questions in the spaces provided on this question paper. QUESTION 1 (25 minutes) 
Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

 Schuber
t

1.1 Name the main key of this piece. ______________________________________________ (1)
1.2 Name the intervals at 1.2.1 and 1.2.2 according to type and distance.

1.2.1 ______________________________________________ 

1.2.2 ______________________________________________ (2) 

1.3 Write and name the inversion of the interval at 1.3.   _______________________ (1)

1.4 Name the triads at 1.4.1 and 1.4.2 according to type and position/inversion. 

1.4.1 _____________________________________________

1.4.2  ______________________________________________ (2) 

1.5 Rewrite bar 1 of the violin part for viola using the same pitch.  
(2) 
1.6 Transpose the bass part from bars 7–10 a perfect fourth higher.  Do NOT use a key signature. 
(2) 
1.7 Rewrite bar 1 of the right-hand part of the piano in compound time.  Add the new time signature. 
(2)
1.8 Write the scales below as indicated. Use semibreves. 

1.8.1 Write F# melodic minor, ascending and descending, with key  signature. Mark the semitones. 
(3) 
1.8.2 Write the Aeolian mode on E, descending in the alto clef.  
Do NOT use a key signature. 
(2)
1.8.3 Write a chromatic scale on Bb, ascending only. 
(3)

[20]

QUESTION 2 (25 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 2.1 OR QUESTION 2.2. 
2.1 Complete the opening motif below to form a twelve-bar melody in ternary form  for any single-line melodic instrument of your choice. Name the instrument for  which you are writing. Indicate the tempo and add dynamic and articulation  marks. 

Instrument: _________________________ 

Tempo: _________________________ 

The melody will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 

OR
2.2 Complete the opening motif below to form a twelve-bar melody in ternary form  for any single-line melodic instrument of your choice. Name the instrument for  which you are writing. Indicate the tempo and add dynamic and articulation  marks. 
Instrument: ________________________ 

Tempo: _________________________ 

The melody will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15]

QUESTION 3 (10 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 3.1 OR QUESTION 3.2. 
3.1 Study the extract by Mendelssohn below and answer the questions that  follow.

3.1.1 Name the key of this extract. 
___________________________________________________ (1) 
3.1.2 Identify chords (a)–(e) and figure them on the score. Use EITHER  figuring below the score, for example V⁶, OR chord symbols above  the score, for example C/E. (5) 
3.1.3 Name the types of non-chordal notes at (i) and (ii).  

1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________ (2) 

3.1.4 Which ONE of the following do you associate with the note at Z?  Make a cross (X) in the appropriate block. (1) 

3.1.5 Name the cadence with which this extract ends. 
_____________________________________________________ (1)

[10] 

OR
3.2 Study the extract from Till by Charles Danvers below and answer the  questions that follow. 

3.2.1 Name the key of this extract. 
___________________________________________ (1) 
3.2.2 Identify the chords from (a) to (e) and figure them on the score.  Use chord symbols above the score, for example Bb/D. (5) 

3.2.3 Name the types of non-chordal notes at (i)–(iii). 

1. _________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________ (3)

3.2.4 Name the cadence at the end of this extract. 
__________________________________________________ (1)

[10]

QUESTION 4 (30 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 4.1 OR QUESTION 4.2. 
4.1 Complete the four-part vocal harmonisation below by adding the alto, tenor  and bass parts.  

The harmonisation will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 

OR
4.2 Complete the piece below by adding a suitable bass line and harmonic  material in the open staves. Continue in the style suggested by the given  material in bars 1–4.

The harmonisation will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 60

SECTIONS B, C, D, E: GENERAL MUSIC KNOWLEDGE (90 minutes) 
Answer SECTION B  
AND SECTION C (Western Art Music) 
OR SECTION D (Jazz) 
OR SECTION E (Indigenous African Music).  
Answer these questions in the ANSWER BOOK provided. 
SECTION B: GENERAL (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5  
5.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Write down the question number (5.1.1–5.1.10), choose the answer and make  a cross (X) over the letter (A–D) of your choice in the ANSWER BOOK. 

5.1.1 Royalties paid to composers when their music is performed in public  are called … 

1. copyright.
2. performance rights.
3. needletime rights.
4. mechanical rights. 

5.1.2 Royalties paid to songwriters and performers for CD sales or digital  downloads are called … 

1. copyright.
2. performance rights.
3. needletime rights.
4. mechanical rights. 

5.1.3 SAMRO is the abbreviation for the … 

1. South African Music Relevance Organisation.
2. South African Music Rights Organisation.
3. South African Music Recording Organisation.
4. South African Music Restrictions Organisation. 

5.1.4 A person who writes the words of a song is a/an … 

1. arranger.
2. editor.
3. lyricist.
4. performer.

5.1.5 A musical work is copyrighted … 

1. immediately after it has been composed.
2. for 80 years after the work has been composed.
3. until the year of the composer's death.
4. only two weeks after it has been composed. 

5.1.6 The symbol above the given note is called a/an … 

1. lower mordent.
2. appoggiatura.
3. upper mordent.
4. turn. 

5.1.7 In a Dorian mode, semitones occur between the … 

1. 3rd and 4th notes and the 6th and 7th notes. 
2. 2nd and 3rd notes and the 7th and 8th notes.
3. 3rd and 4th notes and the 7th and 8th notes.
4. 2nd and 3rd notes and the 6th and 7th notes. 

5.1.8 Which ONE of the following means to become softer gradually?  

1. Accelerando
2. Morendo
3. Crescendo
4. Rallentando 

5.1.9 The musical term for is … 

1. lungo.
2. portato.
3. fermata.
4. staccato. 

5.1.10 The blues scale can be constructed by …. 

1. lowering the 3rd, 5th and 7th degrees of the major scale.
2. raising the 3rd, 5th and 7th degrees of the major scale.
3. lowering the 3rd, 5th and 7th degrees of the minor scale.
4. raising the 3rd, 5th and 7th degrees of the minor scale. (10 x 1) (10)

5.2 Give the correct term for any FIVE of the following descriptions. Write down  only the term next to the question number (5.2.1–5.2.8) in the ANSWER  BOOK. 

5.2.1 A musical texture consisting of a single melodic line 
5.2.2 A musical texture consisting of a melodic line with accompaniment
5.2.3 A musical texture consisting of several independent melodic lines 
5.2.4 A rhythmic pattern which repeats while other music material  changes around it 
5.2.5 Ancient scales with Greek names that are used in various music  styles 
5.2.6 The quality or colour of a voice or an instrument 
5.2.7 Vocal music without instrumental accompaniment 
5.2.8 The technical name for the third degree of a scale (5)

5.3 Write a paragraph in which you describe binary form. (5)

TOTAL SECTION B: 20

Answer SECTION C (WAM)  
OR SECTION D (JAZZ)  
OR SECTION E (IAM). 
SECTION C: WESTERN ART MUSIC (WAM)  
QUESTION 6 
6.1 Which characters are associated with the following voice types in The Magic  Flute by Mozart? 

6.1.1 Soprano 
6.1.2 Tenor 
6.1.3 Baritone 
6.1.4 Bass 
6.1.5 Coloratura (5)

6.2 The Magic Flute is considered to be a Singspiel. 
Write notes to substantiate this statement using examples from this opera. (5)

[10] 

QUESTION 7

Study the table below which represents sonata form and answer the questions  that follow. 

7.1 In which section would one expect to find an episode? (1)
7.2 What is the function of the bridge in the exposition of this form? (1)
7.3 Briefly describe what happens in the development section. (2) 
7.4 How is the recapitulation different from the exposition? (1)

[5] 

QUESTION 8 
Write a paragraph on the final (fifth) movement of Beethoven's Symphony No. 6  in which you link the title of this movement to the programmatic content. [5]

QUESTION 9 
Define the Classical symphony and expain how Beethoven's Pastoral Symphony differs from the Classical symphonic model. [5] 

QUESTION 10 
Mendelssohn demonstrates both Classical and Romantic features in his Hebrides Overture.  
Write an essay in which you discuss this statement. 
You will be credited for the logical presentation of facts and the structure of your essay. The essay will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40 

OR

SECTION D: JAZZ 
QUESTION 11 
11.1 Describe prominent music characteristics of kwela. (3)
11.2 Name the instruments used in a typical mbaqanga band. (3) 
11.3 Write down the title of a song associated with EACH of the following  artists/groups: 

11.3.1  Dolly Rathebe 
11.3.2  Miriam Makeba 
11.3.3  Sakhile 
11.3.4  Philip Tabane (4)

[10] 

QUESTION 12  
Indicate whether the following statements concerning Cape jazz are TRUE or FALSE. Write down only 'true' or 'false' next to the question number (12.1–12.5) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 

12.1 It is inspired by blues and folk songs sung by descendants of the former slave  communities living in the Western Cape. 
12.2 It is influenced by the street carnival parade and instrumentation of the Mardi  Gras. 
12.3 It is a mixture of Xhosa and Zulu songs, as well as Latin-American styles.
12.4 It was originally mainly a piano jazz style. 
12.5 Robbie Jansen is a famous saxophone player who is linked to the  development of Cape jazz.

[5] 

QUESTION 13 
Discuss TWO international influences and TWO local influences on Miriam Makeba's  music style. Comment on her unique vocal style. [5] 

QUESTION 14 
Write a paragraph in which you discuss the importance of the Jazz Epistles in the  development of South African jazz. [5]

QUESTION 15 
Marabi is a true example of an early South African jazz style. 
Write an essay in which you expand on this statement by refering to the origins,  characteristics and music examples of marabi. 
You will be credited for the logical presentation of facts and the structure of your essay. The essay will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 
TOTAL SECTION D: 40 

OR

SECTION E: INDIGENOUS AFRICAN MUSIC (IAM) 
QUESTION 16 
16.1 Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Write only  'true' or 'false' next to the question number (16.1.1–16.1.4) in the ANSWER  BOOK. If the statement is FALSE, write down the correct information. 

16.1.1 Isicathamiya was popularised internationally by Ladysmith Black  Mambazo's collaboration with Simon and Garfunkel. 
16.1.2 Julian Bahula played drums for Sello Galane. 
16.1.3 Mahotella Queens is a group that sings free kiba. 
16.1.4 The Manhattan Brothers was a kwela group. (4)

16.2 Define malombo. (2)
16.3 Define the following terms associated with maskandi: 

16.3.1 Ikati 
16.3.2 Ukupika (4)

[10] 

QUESTION 17  
Write a paragraph in which you define and describe free kiba. Refer to the traditional  drums used in this style of music. [5] 

QUESTION 18 
Briefly discuss ONE of the following ceremonies. Refer to the function, ceremonial  features and the role of dance, music and instruments. 

• AmaZulu: Amahubo 
• AmaSwati: Incwala 
• AmaXhosa: Intonjane 
• AmaNdebele: Luma 
• Basotho: Lebollo 
• Bapedi: Byale 
• Batswana: Bojale 
• Vhavenda: Domba  
• Batsonga: Mancomane [5]

QUESTION 19 
Discuss the features of praise poetry as used in African music. [5]

QUESTION 20 
Isicathamiya has become one of the most readily recognised South African music  genres of the late 20th and early 21st centuries. 
Write an essay in which you discuss this statement with specific reference to  Ladysmith Black Mambazo. 
You will be credited for the logical presentation of facts and the structure of your essay.
The essay will be marked according to the following criteria: 

[15] 
TOTAL SECTION E: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 120

MUSIC
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Aural (10)
   SECTION B: Recognition (12)
   SECTION C: Form (8)
2. QUESTION 1, QUESTION 2, QUESTION 3 and QUESTION 7 are  COMPULSORY. 
3. Answer QUESTION 4: Western Art Music (WAM) OR QUESTION 5: Jazz OR  QUESTION 6: Indigenous African Music (IAM).
4. Write ALL your answers on this question paper. Use a pencil for music notation  and blue or black ink for the other answers.
5. This examination will be written while candidates are listening to a CD. 6.
6. The music teacher of the centre must conduct the examination in the presence  of the invigilator. 
7. The last page of this question paper is manuscript paper intended for rough  work. The candidate MAY NOT remove this page.
8. Candidates may NOT have access to any musical instrument for the duration of  this examination.
9. Candidates must take note of the mark allocation at each question to provide  enough information in their answers.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

SUMMARY OF MARKS

QUESTIONS  

SECTION A: AURAL 
QUESTION 1 

1.1 Listen to the melodic and rhythmic phrase. Notate the rhythm of the missing  notes in bars 3–4 below. 

(3) 

1.2 Which ONE of the extracts below best represents the solo violin part? Make a  cross (X) in the appropriate block. 
(1) 

[4] 

QUESTION 2 

Listen to the extract from Menuet in G by Mozart. Answer the questions that follow.

2.1 The notation of bars 2^3b–4² has been omitted at 2.1 in the score. Fill in the  missing pitches on the score that correspond to the music that you hear. (3) 

2.2 Name the cadence at (a) in bars 7³–8². (The track starts in bar 1.) (1) 

2.3 Listen to the music in bars 8³–12². Which compositional technique is used  at (b)? (The track starts in bar 8³.) (1) 

2.4 Complete the missing bass notes at (c) on the score. (The track starts in  bar 12³.) (1)

[6] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 10

SECTION B: RECOGNITION OF MUSIC CONCEPTS 
QUESTION 3: GENERAL LISTENING (COMPULSORY) 
Listen to the following tracks and answer the questions that follow. 

3.1 Listen to the music and indicate ONE feature that you hear. Make a cross (X)  in the appropriate block. 

(1) 

3.2 Choose any ONE item in COLUMN A and briefly describe what you hear in  COLUMN B. 

(1) 

3.3 Choose any TWO items in COLUMN A and briefly describe what you hear in  COLUMN B. 

(2)

3.4 In Tracks 12 and Track 13 you will hear TWO different performances of the  same piece. Compare these two extracts in terms of the following: 

(4) 
(8 ÷ 2) [4]

Answer QUESTION 4 (WAM) OR QUESTION 5 (JAZZ) OR QUESTION 6 (IAM).
QUESTION 4: WAM 
4.1 Listen to the following extract and answer the questions that follow. 

4.1.1 Name the work from which this extract has been taken. 
____________________________________________________ (1) 
4.1.2 Identify the tonality of this extract. Make a cross (X) in the  appropriate block. 

(1) 

4.1.3 Describe the melodic line. (2) 
4.1.4 Identify the cadence at the end of this extract. (1) 
4.2 Listen to the extract from Mozart's The Magic Flute in Track 16 and answer  the questions that follow. 

4.2.1 Name the character who sings in this extract. (1) 
4.2.2 What does this character represent in the opera? (1) 
4.2.3 Name the voice type that you hear in this extract. (1) 
4.2.4 Suggest a suitable Italian tempo indication for this extract. (1)
4.2.5 Where in the opera is this extract sung? (1) 
4.2.6 Describe what is happening in the storyline at this point. (1) 

4.3 Listen to the extract from Beethoven's Symphony No. 6 in Track 17 and  answer the questions that follow. 

4.3.1 Choose the term that refers to this extract. Make a cross (X) in the  appropriate block. (1) 

4.3.2 Name the woodwind instrument which plays the high-pitched  melodic fragment in this extract. (1) 
4.3.3 From which movement of the Symphony No. 6 by Beethoven has  this extract been taken? (1) 

4.4 Describe TWO style characteristics that you hear in this extract. (2) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 12 

OR
QUESTION 5: JAZZ 
5.1 Listen to the extracts below and answer the questions that follow. 

5.1.1 With which of the following styles would you associate this extract?  Make a cross (X) in the appropriate block.  (1) 

5.1.2 Identify the piece in this extract. (1) 
5.1.3 Name TWO artists that are associated with the music style in this  extract. (2) 
5.1.4 Identify TWO idiophones that are part of the rhythm section in the  music in this extract. (2) 

5.2 Listen to the Track 21 and answer the questions that follow. 

5.2.1 Identify the jazz style in this extract. (1) 
5.2.2 Give reasons, related to the music, for your answer to  QUESTION 5.2.1. (3) 
5.2.3 Which jazz artist from the 1950s had an influence on this type of  jazz? (1)

5.3 Listen to Track 22 and answer the questions that follow. 

5.3.1 Give reasons why you would regard the extract as a typical Cape  jazz piece. (3) 

5.3.2 Describe the style of saxophone-playing in your own words. (2) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 

OR
QUESTION 6: IAM 
6.1 Listen to the extracts below and answer the questions that follow. 

6.1.1 Identify the style of music in this extract. (1) 

6.1.2 Choose the order in which the instruments appear. Make a cross (X)  in the appropriate block.  (1) 

6.1.3 What is the role of the female voices in this song? (1) 
6.1.4 What typical African compositional technique is heard in this  extract? (1) 
6.2 Listen to the following TWO tracks which will be played in succession and  answer the questions that follow. 

6.2.1 The TWO extracts have a similar purpose or function. Explain the  purpose or function of the music in these two extracts. (2) 
6.2.2 Indicate ONE group associated with Track 27. Make a cross (X) in  the appropriate block.  (1)

6.2.3 Describe the use of rhythm in the membranophones. (1) 

6.2.4 Describe the texture of this song. (1) 
6.3 Listen to the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

6.3.1 With what indigenous South African music style would you  associate this extract? (1) 
6.3.2 Which music performance characteristics heard in this extract, are  common to the style of music in QUESTION 6.3.1? (3)

6.4 Identify the style of music in this extract. Give TWO reasons for your answer.
Style:  
Reasons: (3) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 12

SECTION C: FORM 
QUESTION 7  
Read and study the questions for ONE minute. 

Listen to the following piece while you study the score.

7.1 What is the overall form of this piece? (1)  
7.2 Motivate your answer to QUESTION 7.1 by giving a schematic layout of the  form of this piece. Use the table below.  (3) 

7.3 Name the key of this piece. (1) 
7.4 Choose the term that describes the mood of this piece. Make a cross (X) in  the appropriate block.  (1) 

7.5 Which compositional technique is used in bars 31–32? (The track starts  in bar 31.) (1) 

7.6 Write down an Italian term which describes what happens to the tempo in  bar 34. (The track starts in bar 33.) (1) 

[8] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 8 
GRAND TOTAL: 30

MUSIC
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Aural (10)
   SECTION B: Recognition (12)
   SECTION C: Form (8)
2. QUESTION 1, QUESTION 2, QUESTION 3 and QUESTION 7 are  COMPULSORY. 
3. Answer QUESTION 4: Western Art Music (WAM) OR QUESTION 5: Jazz OR  QUESTION 6: Indigenous African Music (IAM).
4. Write ALL your answers on this question paper. Use a pencil for music notation  and blue or black ink for the other answers.
5. This examination will be written while candidates are listening to a CD. 6.
6. The music teacher of the centre must conduct the examination in the presence  of the invigilator. 
7. The last page of this question paper is manuscript paper intended for rough  work. The candidate MAY NOT remove this page.
8. Candidates may NOT have access to any musical instrument for the duration of  this examination.
9. Candidates must take note of the mark allocation at each question to provide  enough information in their answers.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

SUMMARY OF MARKS

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: AURAL 
QUESTION 1 

1.1 Listen to the melodic and rhythmic phrase. Notate the rhythm of the missing  notes in bars 3–4 below. 

Answer: 
(3) 

1.2 Which ONE of the extracts below best represents the solo violin part? Make a  cross (X) in the appropriate block. 

(1) 

[4] 

QUESTION 2 

Listen to the extract from Menuet in G by Mozart. Answer the questions that follow.

2.1 The notation of bars 23b–42has been omitted at 2.1 in the score. Fill in the  missing pitches on the score that correspond to the music that you hear. 
Answer: 
   (3) 

2.2 Name the cadence at (a) in bars 73–82. (The track starts in bar 1.)
Answer: 

• Perfect (cadence) (1) 

2.3 Listen to the music in bars 83–122. Which compositional technique is used  at (b)? (The track starts in bar 83.) 
Answer: 

• Sequence
• Rhythmic repetition  (1) 

2.4 Complete the missing bass notes at (c) on the score. (The track starts in  bar 123.) 

Answer:  (1) 

[6] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 10

SECTION B: RECOGNITION OF MUSIC CONCEPTS 
QUESTION 3: GENERAL LISTENING (COMPULSORY) 
Listen to the following tracks and answer the questions that follow. 

3.1 Listen to the music and indicate ONE feature that you hear. Make a cross (X)  in the appropriate block. 
Answer: 

• String ensemble  (1) 

3.2 Choose any ONE item in COLUMN A and briefly describe in COLUMN B what  you hear. 
Answer: 

(1) 

3.3 Choose any TWO items in COLUMN A and briefly describe in COLUMN B what you hear. 
Answer: 

(2)

3.4 In Tracks 12 and 13 you will hear TWO different performances of the same  piece. Compare these two extracts in terms of the following: 
Answer:  (4) 

(8 ÷2) (4) 
TOTAL SECTION B: 4

Answer QUESTION 4 (WAM) OR QUESTION 5 (JAZZ) OR QUESTION 6 (IAM).
QUESTION 4: WAM 
4.1 Listen to the following extract and answer the questions that follow. 

4.1.1 Name the work from which this extract has been taken. 
Answer: 

• Hebrides Overture 
• Fingal's Cave  (1) 

4.1.2 Identify the tonality of this extract. Make a cross (X) in the  appropriate block. 
Answer: 

• Major  (1) 

4.1.3 Describe the melodic line. 
Answer: 

• Legato/Smooth/Flowing 
• Cantabile/in a singing style/Lyrical
• Rapid crescendos and decrescendos 
• Constant ascending and descending line
• Played by cello section   (2) 

4.1.4 Identify the cadence at the end of this extract. 
Answer: 

• Perfect cadence   (1)

4.2 Listen to the extract from Mozart's The Magic Flute in Track 16 and answer  the questions that follow. 

4.2.1 Name the character who sings in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Sarastro   (1) 

4.2.2 What does this character represent in the opera? 
Answer:  

• Goodness
• Fatherhood
• Reverence  (1) 

4.2.3 Name the voice type that you hear in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Bass   (1) 

4.2.4 Suggest a suitable Italian tempo indication for this extract. 
Answer: 

• Adagio
• Largo  (1) 

4.2.5 Where in the opera is this extract sung? 
Answer: 

• Act 2 
• Before Tamino is subjected to the trials  (1) 

4.2.6 Describe what is happening in the storyline at this point. 
Answer: 

• Sarastro sings of the ideals of the Brotherhood after Pamina  pleads for mercy for her mother, the Queen
• Sarastro makes a plea to the Egyptian gods to assist Tamino  during his trials ∙  (1)

4.3 Listen to the extract from Beethoven's Symphony No. 6 in Track 17 and  answer the questions that follow. 

4.3.1 Choose the term that refers to this extract. Make a cross (X) in the  appropriate block. 
Answer:  

• Tutti  (1) 

4.3.2 Name the woodwind instrument which plays the high-pitched  melodic fragment in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Flute (1) 

4.3.3 From which movement of the Symphony No. 6 by Beethoven has  this extract been taken? 
Answer: 

• First movement  (1) 

4.4 Describe TWO style characteristics that you hear in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Homophonic texture 
• Regular phrasing 
• Clear-cut cadences
• Melodic motifs used abundantly
• Concerto genre used (oboe and strings)  (2) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 12 

OR
QUESTION 5: JAZZ 
5.1 Listen to the extracts and answer the questions that follow. 

5.1.1 With which of the following styles would you associate this extract?  Make a cross (X) in the appropriate block. 
Answer: 

• Modern jazz  (1) 

5.1.2 Identify the piece in this extract 
Answer: 

• Shebeen (by Hugh Masekela & The Union of South Africa)  (1) 

5.1.3 Name TWO artists that are associated with the music style in this  extract. 
Answer: 

• Hugh Masekela (Trumpet)
• Jonas Gwangwa (Trombone) 
• Caiphus Semenya (Alto saxophone)  

OR 

•  Hugh Masekela and The Union of South Africa  (2) 

5.1.4 Identify TWO idiophones that are part of the rhythm section in the  music in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Shakers
• Cow bell
• Cymbals 
• Tambourine  (2)

5.2 Listen to the extract in Track 21 and answer the questions that follow. 

5.2.1 Identify the jazz style in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Kwela  (1) 

5.2.2 Give reasons, related to the music, for your answer to  QUESTION 5.2.1. 
Answer:  

• Cyclic chord structure 
•  Solo player with band
• Lively tempo 
• Skiffle-like beat
• Jive/Swing rhythms
• Melodic material developed in improvisation 
• Pennywhistle   (3) 

5.2.3 Which jazz artist from the 1950s had an influence on this type of  jazz? 
Answer: 

• Spokes Mashiyane 
• Lemmy Mabaso 
• Elias Lerole  (1)

5.3 Listen to the extract in Track 22 and answer the questions that follow. 

5.3.1 Give reasons why you would regard the extract as a typical Cape  jazz piece. 
Answer: 

• Rhythmic characteristics of amaXhosa music
• Ghoema beat 
• Marching and Christmas band harmonies 
• Banjo and guitar rhythms from Kaapse Klopse 
• Specific playing style of piano
• Saxophone produces melody in a nasal tone with vibrato at the  end of phrases 
• Characteristics of Khoi-San mouth bow evident  (3)

5.3.2 Describe the style of saxophone playing in your own words.
Answer: 

• It plays the melody 
• Uses a scooping performance technique
• Plays in the middle register 
• Nasal tone colour used 
• Vibrato at the end of phrases  (2) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 12 

OR

QUESTION 6: IAM 
6.1 Listen to the extracts and answer the questions that follow. 

6.1.1 Identify the style of music in this extract. 
Answer: 

• Free Kiba
• Malombo
• African Jazz  (1) 

6.1.2 Choose the order in which the instruments appear. Make a cross  (X) in the appropriate block. 
Answer: 

(1) 

6.1.3 What is the role of the female voices in this song? 
Answer:  

• Backing vocals
• Response to the 'call' of leader (male) 
• Fills in the harmony  (1) 

6.1.4 What typical African compositional technique is heard in this  extract? 
Answer: 

• Call and response (1)

6.2 Listen to the following TWO tracks which will be played in succession and  answer the questions that follow. 

6.2.1 The TWO extracts have a similar purpose or function. Explain the  purpose and function of the music in these two extracts. 
Answer: 

• Religious or sacred purpose
• Ritualistic
• Communication with Ancestors/God
• Relate to African divinity  (2) 

6.2.2 Indicate ONE group associated with Track 27. Make a tick (X) in  the appropriate block. 

Answer: 

• Amazayoni  (1) 

6.2.3 Describe the use of rhythm in the membranophones. 
Answer: 

• Polyrhythms
• Syncopation
• Repetitive  (1) 

6.2.4 Describe the texture of this song. 
Answer: 

• Overlapping voices 
• Call and response  (1)

6.3 Listen to the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 
6.3.1 With what indigenous South African music style would you  associate this extract? 
Answer: 

• Isicathamiya  (1) 

6.3.2 Which music performance characteristics heard in this extract, are  common to the style of music in 6.3.1? 
Answer: 

• Overlapping voices 
• Male choir/ensemble
• Use of falsetto 
• Repetitive cyclic harmonic progressions  (3) 

6.4 Identify the style of music in this extract. Give TWO reasons for your answers. 
Answer: 

• Style: Mbaqanga 

Reasons:  

• Small ensemble of players 
•  Use of repetitive guitar melodic riffs 
•  Interweaving electric guitar lines repeated throughout
• Guitar introduction 
• Guitar strings have a soft tone quality on electric guitar
• R&B fused with the cyclic structure of Marabi 
• Emphasis on off-beats typical of the style  (3) 

(16 ÷ 2) [8] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 12

SECTION C: FORM 
QUESTION 7  
Read and study the questions for ONE minute. 

Listen to the following piece while you study the score.

7.1 What is the overall form of this piece? 
Answer: 

• Ternary form 
•  ABA   (1) 

7.2 Motivate your answer to QUESTION 7.1 by giving a schematic layout of the  form of this piece. Use the table below. 
Answer: 

(3) 
7.3 Name the key of this piece. 
Answer: 

• A minor  (1) 

7.4 Choose the term that describes the mood of this piece. Make a cross (X) in  the appropriate block. 
Answer: 

• Affettuoso  (1) 

7.5 Which compositional technique is used in bars 31–32? (The track starts in  bar 31.) 
Answer: 

• Imitation/Repetition of a three- note motive an octave higher   (1)

7.6 Write down an Italian term which describes what happens to the tempo in  bar 34. (The track starts in bar 33.) 
Answer: 

• Ritardando
• Rallentando   (1) 

[8] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 8 
GRAND TOTAL: 30

   MUSIC
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2017

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FIVE sections, namely SECTIONS A, B, C, D  and E. 
2. SECTIONS A and B are COMPULSORY.
3. SECTION C: WESTERN ART MUSIC (WAM), SECTION D: JAZZ and  SECTION E: INDIGENOUS AFRICAN MUSIC (IAM) are choice questions.  Answer only ONE of these sections (SECTION C or D or E).
4. Write all music notation in SECTION A in pencil and all written text in blue or  black ink on this question paper.
5. Answer SECTION B and SECTION C or D or E in blue or black ink in the  ANSWER BOOK provided.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
7. The last page of this question paper is manuscript paper intended for rough  work. Candidates may remove this page.
8. Candidates may NOT have access to any musical instrument for the duration  of this examination.
9. Candidates must take note of the mark allocation for each question to provide  enough information in their answers.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

MEMORANDUM 

MARKING GRID

SECTION A: THEORY OF MUSIC (COMPULSORY) (90 minutes) 
Answer QUESTION 1  
AND QUESTION 2.1 OR 2.2  
AND QUESTION 3.1 OR 3.2  
AND QUESTION 4.1 OR 4.2. 
Answer the questions in the spaces provided on this question paper.
QUESTION 1 (25 minutes) 
Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

  Schuber
t

1.1 Name the main key of this piece. 
Answer: 

• D minor  (1) 

1.2 Name the intervals at 1.2.1 and 1.2.2 according to type and distance. Answer: 

1.2.1 Compound major 3rd/Major 10th  
1.2.2  Minor 6th  (2)

1.3 Write and name the inversion of the interval at 1.3. 
Answer: 

•  Minor 7th  (1) 

1.4 Name the triads at 1.4.1 and 1.4.2 according to type and position/inversion.
Answer: 

1.4.1  Minor – second inversion 
1.4.2  Major – root position  (2) 

1.5 Rewrite bar 1 of the violin part for viola using the same pitch. 
                              ½             ½  
  (2)

1.6 Transpose the bass part from bars 7–10 a perfect fourth higher.  Do NOT use a key signature. 
Answer: 
 (2) 

1.7 Rewrite bar 1 of the right-hand part of the piano score in compound time. Add the new time signature. 
Answer:  
 ½ ½  
  (2) 

1.8 Write the scales below as indicated. Use semibreves. 
1.8.1 Write F# melodic minor, ascending and descending, with key  signature. Mark the semitones. 
Answer: 
  (3) 

1.8.2 Write the Aeolian mode on E, descending in the alto clef.  
Do NOT use a key signature. 
Answer: 
  (2) 

1.8.3 Write a chromatic scale on Bb, ascending only. 
Answer: 
 (3) 

[20]

QUESTION 2 (25 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 2.1 OR QUESTION 2.2. 
2.1 Complete the opening motif below to form a twelve-bar melody in ternary form  for any single-line melodic instrument of your choice. Name the instrument for  which you are writing. Indicate the tempo and add dynamic and articulation  marks. 
Concept answer: 
Instrument: Violin/Clarinet 
                   Andante 

OR 

2.2 

Concept answer: 
Instrument: Cello/Trombone/Bassoon/Double Bass/Bass Guitar 
 Andante

The melody will be marked according to the following criteria:

QUESTION 3 (10 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 3.1 OR QUESTION 3.2.
3.1 Study the extract by Mendelssohn below and answer the questions that  follow. 
Answer: 

3.1.1 Name the key of this extract. 
Answer: 

• G major  (1) 

3.1.2 Identify the chords from (a)–(e) and figure them on the score.  Use EITHER figuring below the score, for example V6, OR chord  
symbols, for example C/E above the score. 
Answer: 

• See score  (5) 

3.1.3 Name the types of non-chordal notes at (i) and (ii).  
Answer: 

1. Passing note 
2. (Upper) Auxiliary   (2) 

3.1.4 Which ONE of the following do you associate with the note at Z?  Make a cross (X) in the appropriate block. 

Answer:(1) 

3.1.5 Name the cadence with which this extract ends. 
Answer: 

• Imperfect (cadence)   (1) 

[10] 

OR
3.2 Study the extract from Till by Charles Danvers below and answer the  questions that follow. 
Answer: 

                                                                                                             3.2.4  Imperfect cadence

3.2.1 Name the key of this extract. 
Answer: 

• F major  (1) 

3.2.2 Identify the chords from (a) to (e) and figure them on the score.  Use chord symbols above the score, for example Bb/D 
Answer: 

• See score  (5) 

3.2.3 Name the type of non-chordal notes at (i)–(iii). 
Answer: 

1. (Chromatic lower) Auxiliary
2. Suspension
3. Anticipation  (3) 

3.2.4 Name the cadence at the end of this extract. 
Answer: 

• Imperfect (cadence)  (1) 

[10]

QUESTION 4 (30 minutes)
Answer EITHER QUESTION 4.1 OR QUESTION 4.2. 
4.1 Complete the four-part vocal harmonisation below by adding the alto, tenor  and bass parts.  
Concept answer: 

The harmonisation will be marked according to the following criteria: 

Candidates must be credited for an alternative and correct harmonisation not given in  the memorandum. The figuring serves as a guide for the marker, but no marks are  allocated for the symbols as such.

[15]

OR
4.2 Complete the piece below by adding a suitable bass line and harmonic  material in the open staves. Continue in the style suggested by the given  material in bars 1–4. 
Concept answer:

The harmonisation will be marked according to the following criteria: 

Candidates must be credited for an alternative and correct harmonisation not given in the  memorandum. The figuring serves as a guide for the marker, but no marks are allocated  for the symbols as such. 

TOTAL SECTION A: 60

SECTIONS B, C, D, E: GENERAL MUSIC KNOWLEDGE (90 minutes) 
Answer SECTION B  
AND SECTION C (Western Art Music) 
OR SECTION D (Jazz) 
OR SECTION E (Indigenous African Music). 
Candidates must answer these questions in the ANSWER BOOK provided. 

SECTION B: GENERAL (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5  
5.1

5.1.1 B 
5.1.2 D 
5.1.3 B 
5.1.4 C 
5.1.5 A 
5.1.6 C 
5.1.7 D 
5.1.8 B 
5.1.9 C 
5.1.10 A  (10) 

5.2

5.2.1 Monophony 
5.2.2 Homophony 
5.2.3 Polyphony 
5.2.4 Ostinato 
5.2.5 Modes 
5.2.6 Tone colour/Timbre 
5.2.7 A Cappella 
5.2.8 Mediant  (5) 

5.3

• Divided into two sections/AB
• Section A usually starts in the tonic key
• Modulates to the dominant (or to the relative major if tonic was a minor  key) 
• Section B starts in the new key and modulates back to the tonic
• Both sections contain repeat signs
• The music material is similar in both sections
• Phrases are usually symmetrical  (5) 

TOTAL SECTION B: 20

Answer SECTION C (WAM)  
OR SECTION D (JAZZ)  
OR SECTION E (IAM). 
SECTION C: WESTERN ART MUSIC (WAM)  
QUESTION 6 

6.1

6.1.1 Pamina/Papagena 
6.1.2  Tamino 
6.1.3  Monostatos/Papageno 
6.1.4  Sarastro 
6.1.5  Queen of the Night (5) 

6.2

• Has a German text throughout 
• Includes a spoken dialogue
• Arias are often simply strophic or folk-like (Papageno's song)
• The plot contains
  • Comical elements (Papageno)
  • Romantic elements (Tamino and Pamina) 
  • Fairytale elements (Rescue of a Princess) 
  • Magical and fantasy elements (Magic flute/Magic bells)
  • Characterisations of good and evil (Sarastro/Queen of the Night) (5)  [10] 

QUESTION 7 
7.1 Development (1) 

7.2 To facilitate the modulation from Theme 1 to Theme 2. 
(Major tonic to dominant/Minor tonic to relative major) (1) 

7.3

• The music modulates to various keys 
• Music material from the exposition is varied using different compositional  devices 
• New material may be included (2) 

7.4

• Both Themes of the Recapitulation are in the tonic key
• Exposition ends with codetta in dominant key and Recapitulation ends with  Coda in tonic key (1)  [5]

QUESTION 8 
Title given by Beethoven to describe the programmatic content. 

Hirtengesang. Frohe, dankbare Gefühle nach dem Sturm,
or 
Shepherds' song. Feelings of joy and gratitude after the Storm,
or 
Herderslied, Vrolike en dankbare gevoelens na die Storm 

Programmatic content realised through music: 

• a portrayal of calmness, a general feeling of relief after the storm
• brings us back to the pastoral nature of the first movement 
• pastoral mood created by yodelling figure/a shepherd's pipe is heard on clarinet;  this is answered by another (horn), and then another call (violin)
• starts with a gentle, lyric theme followed by more vigorous sections

Tempo: Allegretto – reinforces pastoral association 
Key: F major – tonic key of work helps to establish the return of pastoral mood
Harmony: Simple harmony/tonal stability to set a relaxed, easy-going atmosphere
Time signature: 6/8 – lilting, relaxed mood [5] 

QUESTION 9 
Definition: orchestral work usually in four movements 

Explanation of differences: 

[5]

QUESTION 10 
Classical Features 
Form and structure: 

• Uses Sonata form  

Tone Colour/Instrumentation:  

• Standard classical orchestra 

Melodic Material:  

• Motivic development 
• Clearly defined melodies 

Harmony:  

• Modulations to relative keys
• Strongly influenced by Mozart and Beethoven 
• Use of tonal/classical harmony  

Texture:  

• Mainly homophonic with some polyphonic texture 

Romantic Features 
Form and structure: 

• Uses Sonata form but more free and varied e.g. unusual long codetta after the  second subject in the exposition