GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 Atlantic Ocean (1) 
1.1.2 Ridge/Wedge (1) 
1.1.3 1021 hPa/mb/between 1020 hPa and 1022 hPa (1) 
1.1.4 South Indian/Mauritius High Pressure/Anticyclone (1) 
1.1.5 Stable (1) 
1.1.6 Clockwise (1) 
1.1.7 25 °C (1) 
1.1.8 Summer (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.2
1.2.1 A (1) 
1.2.2 F (1) 
1.2.3 C/D (1) 
1.2.4 D (1) 
1.2.5 E/C (1) 
1.2.6 B (1) 
1.2.7 G (1) (7 x 1) (7) 
1.3
1.3.1

• West (1)
• Westerly (1)
• Westwards (1)
• East to West/Southwest (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

1.3.2

• 10°S/south of the equator (1)
• Path of the Tropical Storm is east to southwest (1)
• Dangerous quadrant is in the bottom left/southwestern quadrant of the  system (1)
• Clockwise circulation of ascending air (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)

1.3.3

• The forward movement of the system and wind direction in the system is  moving in the same direction and combines (2)
• The intense winds of the cyclone meets with the force of the entire cyclone  moving forward in this quadrant/semi-circle (2) 
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.4

• Deflected by the Westerlies (2)
• Anticyclonic circulation in Southern Hemisphere will deflect the cyclone (2)
• Weakening of tropical easterlies (2)
• Changes/differences in sea temperatures (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.5 EXPECTED WEATHER AND ITS IMPACTS ON COASTAL AREAS Torrential (heavy) rainfall: 

• flooding of coastal areas (2)
• infrastructural damage (2) 
• destruction of crops/livestock (2)
• injury/loss of life (2)
• devastation of coastal communities/economies (2)
• fertile top soil washed away (2)
• create difficulties for ships in docking in harbours (2) 

Gale/hurricane force winds/storm surges: 

• increases damage to roofs (2)
• destroy vegetated areas along coastline regions (2)
• increase the likelihood of storm surges (2) 
• creates a likelihood of power failures and other service disruptions on  coastal regions (2) 

High level of water will make swimming impossible (2) 
Storm conditions: 

• will have an adverse effect on ecosystems (2)
• will have negative effect on tourism (2) 

Positive:  

• Torrential rainfall is a source of water for coastal areas (2)
• Wind clears air pollution/smog
  [ANY FOUR IMPACTS EXPLAINED] (4 x 2) (8)

1.4
1.4.1 Night (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2

• Terrestrial radiation which results in the cooling of the surface (2)
• Cold surface of valley slopes is required to cool down the air which develops  a cold, downslope wind at night (2)
• The cool air on the cooled surface gets heavy/dense and rolls down the  slope naturally under gravity (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.4.3

• Cool air descends onto the valley floor and forces the warm air that was in  the valley to rise (2)
• Risen warm air rests on top of the cold air (2)
• This results in an increase in temperature with height (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

1.4.4

• The atmosphere in the lower section of the valley cools down below dew  point temperature (2)
• Condensation occurs in the lower section of the valley (2)
• Small, visible droplets form radiation fog in the lower part of the valley (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.4.5

• The settlement will be above the radiation fog (2)
• There won't be dampness (2)
• Un-obscured view of the valley (2)
• Situated in the warm thermal belt (2)
• Receives maximum insolation (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.5
1.5.1 A wide open area found next to the banks of a river/Large area of flat land  found next to the banks of a river (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.2

• Formation of terraces alongside the river (1)
• Formation of valleys within valleys (1)
• A new floodplain has formed (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

1.5.3 Lower Course (1) 
(Accept stage of old age/plain stage) (1 x 1) (1) 

1.5.4

1.                                                                
   • Composed of fertile silt deposits which promotes cultivation of crops (2) 
   • Next to the river channel with easy access to water (2) 
   • Floodplains are generally flat surfaces which promotes easy cultivation/  use of machinery (2) 
     [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
2.                                                      
   • With rejuvenation, the river cuts down within the existing floodplain,  forming a new floodplain (2) 
   • Each time the floodplain becomes narrower (2) 
   • Leaving less space for cultivation of crops (2) 
   • The older terraces now are too high above water to be used (2) 
   • Old terraces are less fertile as flooding no longer occurs over them (2) 
   • No/less deposition of fertile sediment (2) 
   • Difficult to use machinery (2) 
   • Results in a decrease in yield (2) 
   • Decreased accessibility to the farm (2) 
   • Leads to a decline in income (2) 
     [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

1.6
1.6.1 It is the lowest level to which a river can erode (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
1.6.2 The land cannot erode down below sea level (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.3

• The profile has a smooth and concave shape (2)
• No temporary base levels of erosion evident (2)
• No obstructions along the river course (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.6.4

• Due to a change in sea level, the gradient of the river becomes steeper (2)
• The river profile is no longer smooth (2)
• A knickpoint forms where the old sea level and now exposed sea-floor meet   (2)
• Renewed energy starts to erode the new knickpoint upstream (2)
• River profile becomes multi-concave/irregular (2)
• A temporary base level of erosion will develop along the river course (2)
• River becomes undergraded (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6.5  (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.6

• Erosion dominates in the upper course, removing all the obstacles (like  waterfalls and rapids) in the upper course (2)
• Eroded material is deposited in the lower course (2) 
• The balance that exists between erosion and deposition creates a concave  profile (2) (2 x 2) (4) [75]

QUESTION 2 
2.1
2.1.1 Air pressure decreases towards the centre/Lowest value in centre (1)
2.1.2 Along the west coast of South Africa (1) 
2.1.3 Southwards/South-southeastwards (1) 
2.1.4 Fog (1) 
2.1.5 20°C (1) 
2.1.6 Clockwise (1) 
2.1.7 Berg winds (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.2
2.2.1 B/sheet flow (1) 
2.2.2 C/leveé (1) 
2.2.3 C/base flow (1) 
2.2.4 B/permanent (1) 
2.2.5 A/trellis (1) 
2.2.6 A/drainage pattern (1) 
2.2.7 C/waterfall (1) 
2.2.8 C/braided (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.3
2.3.1 Cold front (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2

1. Cumulonimbus clouds (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2. Rapid uplift of warm air to great heights and large scale condensation (2)  (1 x 2) (2) 

2.3.3 Too far south of country (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.4 

[Must show the difference to get TWO marks] (2 x 2) (4)
2.3.5

• The coldest air is ahead of the warm front (2)
• This will cause the cool air behind the cold front to be uplifted (2)
• The cold front is displaced of the surface (2)
• Cool air behind rises over cold air in front (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.4
2.4.1

• An increase in temperature with an increase in height/altitude (1)
• Negative lapse rate (1)
  [CONCEPT]
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

2.4.2 Winter (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.4.3 

• 1 mark for drawing of the escarpment
• 1 mark for position of inversion layer above the escarpment (2 x 1) (2) 

2.4.4 In Summer 

• Upper atmosphere warmer (2)
• Warmer air is lighter and less dense/surface low pressure (2)
• Warm air rising from the heated earth surface can force the inversion layer  further upwards (2)
• Kalahari High is weak/poorly developed/weak subsidence of cold air (2)

In Winter 

• The Kalahari High is dominant over the interior of South Africa (2)
• Upper atmosphere is colder thus strong subsidence (2)
• Colder air heavier and denser and forces the inversion layer down to below  the escarpment (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.4.5 CLIMATE 

• No moist air will be able to reach the interior (2)
• Limited condensation result in no cloud formation/clear skies (2)
• There will be a lack of rainfall/dry conditions (2)
• Lack of clouds increase terrestrial radiation and frost may occur (2)
• Atmosphere is stable (2)
• Apparent drought conditions will prevail (2) 

ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES 

• Limits crop cultivation due to the lack of rainfall (2)
• Only frost resistant crops can be grown (2)
• Seasonal labourers will have reduced income as there will not be sufficient  work (2)
• Rivers dry up and will influence recreational activities reducing tourism (2)
• Less water will impact on industrial activity (2)
• Limited power supply as generation of hydro-electricity is less and cannot be  fed into the national grid.
  [ANY FOUR. MUST REFER TO CLIMATE AND ECONOMIC] (4 x 2) (8) 

2.5
2.5.1 Drainage density is the total length of streams in a drainage basin divided by  the total area of the drainage basin/The relationship between the length of  streams in a drainage basin and the size of the drainage basin (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.2

• A has more tributaries (1)
• The total length of the streams at A is longer than that for B (1)
• There are many first order streams in A (1) 
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

2.5.3 2nd order (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
2.5.4 There are more fingertip streams which join, increasing the drainage density  further downstream (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
2.5.5

• A large amount of vegetation will decrease the drainage density as the  water is trapped by the vegetation and cannot flow as surface run-off (2)
• There will be fewer streams as the vegetation retards the flow of water (2)
• As vegetation traps water it promotes infiltration and less surface run-off will  be experienced (2) 
  OR
• A small amount of vegetation will increase the drainage density as the  water is not trapped in the vegetation and will flow as surface run-off (2)
• There will be more streams as the vegetation does not retard the flow of  water (2)
• As vegetation does not trap water, infiltration is reduced and it increases  direct run-off (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.5.6

• A decrease in the infiltration of water in urban areas due to the artificial  surfaces (2)
• An increase in surface run-off because of artificial surfaces (2)
• The surface water reaching the new urban area is removed by the storm  water drainage system to areas surrounding the urban area (2)
• Therefore more water is available to create streams in this area which  increases the drainage density (2)
• Natural vegetation has been cleared in urban areas creating more surface  run-off (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.6
2.6.1 The main river and its tributaries (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.2 Separates two tributaries/individual streams in the same drainage basin (1)  (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.3

• Tributaries join the main river to resemble branches of a tree (2)
• Tributaries join at acute/small angles (2) 
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.6.4

• Rocks are uniformly resistant to erosion (2)
  Associated with either massive igneous rocks or horizontal sedimentary  rocks (2) (2 x 2) (4) 

2.6.5 LOWER COURSE 

• River flows over gentle gradient/flat landscape (2)
• The river attains a condition of dynamic equilibrium (2)
• The river starts weaving from side to side over the floodplain (2)
• Vertical erosion is limited and lateral erosion sets in (2)
• The stream velocity is decreased and the river loses its energy (2)
• The carrying capacity of the river decreases and material is deposited (2)
• Deposited material forms irregularities in the stream channel (2)
• These irregularities/deposited material deflects the stream from side to side  (2)
• Once meandering starts it continues as stream follows path of less  resistance (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)  [75]

SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN  ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 
QUESTION 3 
3.1
3.1.1 Central Business District (CBD) (1) 
3.1.2

• Transition zone (1)
• Zone of decay (1)
  [ANY ONE] 

3.1.3 Residential (1) 
3.1.4 Light industry (1) 
3.1.5 D (1) 
3.1.6

• Rural-Urban Fringe (1)
  Greenbelt (1)
  [ANY ONE] 

3.1.7 A/Central Business District (CBD) (1) (7 x 1) (7)
3.2
3.2.1 primary (1) 
3.2.2 tertiary (1) 
3.2.3 secondary (1) 
3.2.4 quaternary (1) 
3.2.5 Trade tariffs (1) 
3.2.6 Large scale (1) 
3.2.7 maize (1) 
3.2.8 gold (1) (8 x 1) (8) 
3.3
3.3.1 Site refers to the precise position selected for a settlement (1)  Situation refers to how the site is selected in relation to the surrounding  landscape (1) [CONCEPT] (2 x 1) (2) 
3.3.2

• Where water is scarce, farmsteads are located close to the water source/wet  point settlement (2)
• Where water constitutes a threat , the farmstead is located away from the  water source e.g. flood threat/dry point settlement (2)  (2 x 2) (4) 

3.3.3 Topography/Relief/Type of slope (2)

• The gradient of the slopes will determine the type of farming being practiced  on the site (2)
• Flat areas/floodplains are easy to cultivate/use machinery (2)
• There is less soil erosion on flat land (2) 

Soils (2) 

• The type of soil will determine the type of crops to be grown on the site of  the farm (2)
• Fertile soil needed to ensure high production (2)

Micro-climate/Aspect (2) 

• Slopes in the shadow zone are avoided due to lack of sunshine (2)
• North facing slopes are preferred in the southern hemisphere because they  receive more sunshine which is good for crop cultivation (2) 

Fuel (2) 

• Proximity to trees to burn as fuel (2) 

Pasturage (2) 

• Close to natural grazing for animals (2)
  [ANY ONE – DO NOT ACCEPT WATER] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.3.4

• Access to markets to sell products (2)
• Access to shops to purchase resources (2)
• Access to banks and services (2)
• To save travel time and cost of fuel (2)
• Perishable goods produced on farms need to be closer to the market (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.4
3.4.1 The trend shows a decrease/decline in the number of rural people (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2 35,20 % (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.3 34% - 35% (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
3.4.4

• Rural depopulation (2)
• Family units are broken (2)
• Rural areas will not be sustainable for growth and development (2)
• A lack of investment in rural development projects (2)
• Quality of life will decrease/Standard of living declines (2)
• Basic services such as shops and schools close (2)
• Production decreases as there are fewer people (2)
• Ghost towns emerge/abandoned houses (2)
• Young people are likely to move to urban areas (2)
• Ageing population (2)
• Economy declines (2)
• Cycle of poverty continues (2)
• Less safe to live in (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.4.5

• Encourage investment in rural development farming projects (2)
• Establishment of agricultural schools and colleges (2) 
• Improve skills and provide training for farmers/empower farmers (2)
• More research to improve food production (2)
• Access to water wise irrigation schemes (2)
• Water transfer schemes in order to ensure farming even in arid areas (2)
• Improved farming equipment (2)
• Give people land to practice farming (2)
• Provide grants/low interest loans to farmers (2)
• Access to insurance against crop losses (2)
• Access to hybrid/genetically modified seeds (2)
• Plant drought resistant crops (2)
• Moving away from monoculture to planting a variety of crops (2)
• Storing surpluses for times of shortages (2)
• Protect farmers to reduce farm killings (2)
• Implement all rural development policies (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

3.5
3.5.1

• Primary: citrus (1) apples and pears (1) grapes (1) tobacco (1)
• Secondary: refined petroleum (1) wine (1) iron and steel (1)  engine parts (1) fruit juice (1) dried fruit and nuts (1)
  [ANY ONE OF PRIMARY AND SECONDARY] (2 x 1) (2)

3.5.2 Grapes (2) (1 x 2) (2)
3.5.3 R20,6 Billion (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.4

• Fruit is the main raw material used in the food processing industry (2)
• Climate suitable for grape growing (for the making of wine) (2)
• Variety of fruit is suitable to be grown in this area (2)
• Large labour force available as fruit farming requires manual labour (2)
• There is a lack of minerals thus the Western Cape relies on fruit as a raw  material (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.5.5

• Harbour facilities and harbour infrastructure to export to global markets (2)
• A highly efficient container shipping facility is accessible to the harbour (2)
• Refrigerated containers for transporting fruit overseas (2)
• Cape Town International Airport which provides links to major economies in  the west (2)
• Top quality products produced for export (2)
• Increase demand for these products in Northern Hemisphere countries  during the South African growing season (2)
• Most industries are established and mechanised (2)
• Road and rail links improve transportation links to the rest of South Africa (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.6
3.6.1 Farming on a small piece of land (commercial or subsistence) (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2

• Small patch of land (1)
• Manual labour (1)
• Traditional farming methods (1)
• No mechanisation evident (2)
• Variety of crops/mixed farming (1)
• Lack of infrastructure (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

3.6.3 Small piece of land farmed intensively (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
3.6.4

• The land being farmed is very small (2)
• There are many farmers working on a small piece of land (2)
• Profit/low yields must be shared by all (2)
• Products only sold to local market (2)
• Some produce will be used to sustain themselves and their families (2)
• Use of traditional farming methods therefore farmers produce less (2)
• The products are usually of low quality due to lack of fertilisers and the  impact of pests (2)
• The farmers have no access to formal markets to sell their products (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.6.5 PROBLEMS EXPERIENCED BY SMALL SCALE FARMERS

• Limited to manual labour (2)
• Limited to use of simple farm equipment (2)
• Limited knowledge of scientific farming methods (2)
• Water crops by hand/watering can (2)
• Overuse of land decreases soil fertility (2)
• Exposure to weather elements (2)
• Physical health of the workers suffer (2)
• Possible theft of produce (2)
• Birds insects are attracted to this plot (2)
• Yield decreases over time (2)
• Limited/No access to funds to buy seeds/fertiliser and supplies (2)
• No insurance against crop losses (2)
• Natural disasters like flooding and drought ruin farmer (2)
• The soil is infertile (2)
• Less land for farming causing less productivity (2) 
• Don’t get enough profit/Small profit margin (2)
• Competition with commercial farmers for market (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75]

QUESTION 4 
4.1
4.1.1 E/unifunctional (1) 
4.1.2 G/isolated farmstead (1) 
4.1.3 F/dispersed (1) 
4.1.4 C/linear (1) 
4.1.5 A/central place (1) 
4.1.6 H/gap town (1) 
4.1.7 D/cross roads settlement (1) (7 x 1) (7)
4.2
4.2.1 agglomeration (1) 
4.2.2 Food Security (1) 
4.2.3 Gross Domestic Product (1) 
4.2.4 IDZs (1) 
4.2.5 Sugar cane (1) 
4.2.6 Socio-economic injustice (1) 
4.2.7 trade (1) 
4.2.8 Industrial decentralisation (1) (8 x 1) (8) 
4.3
4.3.1 A process of redressing the injustices of displacement and forced removal  that took place during Apartheid (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2

• The beneficiaries have seen little or no improvements to their livelihoods (1)
• Redistributed land is not used productively (1)
• South Africa’s land reform efforts lack a focus on struggling farmers (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

4.3.3

• To promote economic growth of those who were disadvantaged (2)
• To create self-sufficient farmers (2)
• To redress injustices/imbalances from the past (2)
• The legacy of Apartheid predominated over the unfair distribution of land and land reform sets out to correct this injustice (2)
• National reconciliation (2)
• To improve food production in the previously marginalised sectors of the  population (2).
• Land reform will help people to have access to land (2)
• To alleviate poverty as most communities during Apartheid lived on  communal land (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.3.4 POST-SETTLEMENT SUPPORT FOR LAND REFORM PROCESSES

• Revising land reform policies (2)
• Measures to ensure redistributed land is used productively (2)
• Inclusion of local communities to establish needs through consultation (2)
• Establishing educational centres in these settlements for up skilling the  communities (2)
• Training and development in modern farming methods/mentorship to new  farmers (2)
• Monitoring and evaluation of processes must be reliable (2)
• Monitoring and evaluation of allocation of resources must be reliable (2)
• Relook at the policies of buying land (2)
• Subsidise small scale farming communities to encourage the buying and  selling of their produce (2)
• Create market areas for trading (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

4.4
4.4.1 Injustice means something which is unfair, which violates a person's human  rights (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.4.2 Social OR Environmental Injustice (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.3

• Poor are located near to the factory (2)
• Influenced by pollutants (2)
• Close to the effluent being released (2)
• Close to the waste dump (2)
• The poor get the by-products of the rich' (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

4.4.4 The waste products (effluent/waste dump) of the rich are generally dumped  in areas where the poor are found (2) (1 x 2) (2)
4.4.5 Health 

• The air pollution would cause health problems such as asthma/ respiratory/lung diseases (2)
• Exposure to toxic substances (2)
• Higher medical bills for the poor (2)
• Bad smells and diseases from the waste dump (2)
• Rat infestations (2)
• Waterborne diseases (2) 

Environment 

• Exposed to air pollution (2)
• Acid rain (2)
• Noise pollution from the factories (2)
• Unsightly surroundings (2)
• Polluted water from effluent being pumped into the rivers (2)
• [ANY TWO – ONE for health and ONE for the environment] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.4.6

• Strict legislation ensuring those committing environmental injustices are  penalised (2)
• Establish well managed dump sites and landfills in all communities to  channel the flow of refuse and reduce the amount of pollution (2)
• Recycling of by-products (2)
• Rehabilitate rivers (2)
• More policing and careful monitoring on environmental management  practices and quality of the environment (2)
• Impose fines on polluters and illegal dumping (2)
• Proper zoning (relocation of the poor) to avoid waste disposal in or near  settlements/buffering (2)
• Bylaws need to be policed and enforced (2)
• Educate people about environmental injustices (2)
• Implement awareness programmes (2)
• Build tall chimneys/stacks (2)
• Increase green areas (2)
  [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)

4.5
4.5.1 Extracting raw materials out of the ground(1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.5.2 Gold (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.3

• Rich mineral deposits in South Africa (2)
• Variety of minerals in South Africa (2)
• Favourable geothermal gradients (2)
• Most minerals are mined through opencast process reducing risks (2)
• Most minerals are located close to the surface (2)
• The quality of the minerals is of a high standard (2)
• Natural harbours well-located for exports (2)
• Abundant water resources (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.5.4

• Ensure a better economic climate for promoting labour peace (2)
• Improve conditions for labour broking (2)
• Create more collective bargaining councils to improve incentives and  working conditions of miners (2)
• Improve salary adjustments to come in line with CPI (2)
• Improve medical aid assistance to labour (2)
• Improve housing allowance (2)
• Workers to have shares in the company/provide incentives (2)
• Commit to improve safety measures (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.5.5 ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE OF MINING TO: 
Infrastructure 

• Mining encourages the growth and development of transportation networks  e.g. road and rail (2)
• Improvement of water infrastructure (2)
• Mining requires higher and efficient energy usage and therefore improves  electricity grid supply (2)
• Power utilities for mining are created in more remote rural areas and  ensures growth of marginalised communities (2)
• Information and communication networks e.g. cell phone networks/ internet/connectivity are improved (2)
• Telecommunication networks are improved (2) 

Industrial Development 

• Related industries and industrial development from mining grow as mining  communities develop around the mine (2)
• Opportunities to add value exist in most minerals found in SA e.g. the mining  of iron ore has developed smelting industries (2)
• More employment opportunities for growth and development exist in  factories that supply mining equipment to mines (2)
  [ANY FOUR. MUST INCLUDE BOTH INFRASTRUCTURE AND  INDUSTRIAL DEVELOPMENT] (4 x 2) (8) 

4.6
4.6.1 Finance/Real estate/Business (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.2 Tertiary (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.3

• Unprocessed goods have a lower value (2)
• Secondary (2)and tertiary sectors (2)are growing at a faster rate
• A greater demand for processed goods as for raw materials (2)
• Safety concerns reduce production on farms (2)
• Natural disasters reduce production (2)
• High production cost (2)
• Land reform uncertainties reduce yields (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.6.4

• Provides opportunities for employment of skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled  labour force (2)
• Processed goods have a higher profit margin/increased revenue (2)
• We don't need to import so many goods/Encourage import substitution (2)
• Higher contribution to the GDP (2)
• Stimulates infrastructure development (2)
• More stable source of income, compared to the primary sector (2)
• To earn more foreign exchange (2)
• To attract more foreign investment (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.6.5

• Poor maintenance of infrastructure which results in the wastage of water (2)
• Inefficient management and corruption within these services (2)
• Illegal electricity connections (2)
• High levels of subsidising the poor (for water and electricity) yields low  profits in these sectors (2)
• Persistent and high levels of non-payment for services (2)
• Load shedding (2)
• Scarcity of water in a drought-riddled country (2)
• Water restrictions (2)
• Inefficient revenue collection for services provided (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) [75] 

GRAND TOTAL: 225

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 
Marking the comprehension: 

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in  longer responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the  meaning/understanding. (Errors must still be indicated.)
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined,  disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise.  However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an  answer, this will be acceptable.
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or  I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what  should be considered.
• No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be considered.
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence,  mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first  two/three.
• Accept dialectal variations.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING 
1.1 Younger children now own smartphones. (2) 
1.2 The teenagers have a false sense of bravado and they do not feel responsible  for what they say/post./They feel invincible because of the anonymity of social  media./Teenagers will say anything on social media because they believe that  in their anonymity, there will be no repercussions. [Award 2 marks for any single point.] (2) 
1.3 The writer brings the topic into focus as it highlights the damaging effect of  self-obsession which has been brought about by social media. The single line indicates a dramatic change from one aspect of the topic to  another. [Award no more than 1 mark.] (2) 
1.4 Those who should avoid exposure actually put themselves in the spotlight, which jeopardises their already fragile self-esteem. The ones most fragile are the ones most affected. [Award no more than 1  mark.] (2) 
1.5 The writer's use of deprecating terms such as 'selfie-holics', 'democratiser' and 'curating' underscore her aversion to the narcissism and dishonesty  presented by the range of applications. She is critical of the teenagers' obsession with social media. She is contemptuous of the illusion of perfection  that is afforded by the applications on social media.  [Award 3 marks for TWO points well-discussed OR for THREE distinct ideas.] (3)   
1.6 The writer's tone is critical/satirical/concerned. Teenagers have an unhealthy  obsession ('Teens can spend hours fixating') with image. The writer is of the  opinion that teenagers are willing participants who are brainwashed by social  media.  [Award 1 mark for the identification of a tone and 2 marks for a well developed discussion.] (3) 
1.7 Paragraph 9 fully supports the idea that social media can be seen as 'a toxic  mirror'./The poison (‘toxic’) spread by social media is responsible for the  damage caused to people’s health. The writer has established that the  wellness industry, which pervades the internet, paradoxically makes people  unwell. The claim that wellness is a 'stealthy cover' for unhealthy habits is  justified and validated by the factual information provided, e.g. the analysis of  50 websites. (3)
1.8 YES 

• The conclusion is cautionary and advisory. After the negative concerns  raised, the writer gives constructive advice to parents on how to engage their  children in dialogue on their self-image. The rhetorical questions allow the  reader to reflect and the conclusion presents the role parents have to take,  which is more comprehensive than their 'digital parenting', referred to in  paragraph 1. 
  OR 

NO 

• A good conclusion often gives an answer to the problem posed in the preceding  paragraphs. The conclusion is not a good conclusion because instead of solving  the problem of children’s self-esteem by giving concrete advice, it starts off with  four questions. After the questions there is only flimsy advice on how to deal  with the situation. 
  [Credit valid alternative/mixed responses.] (3) 

1.9 The woman has no discerning features; this makes her representative of  women in general and attracts the attention of a wider female audience. (2) 
1.10 The statistics reveal the negative impact of social media on body image.  The revelation that 80% of women are disheartened by their image in the  mirror is alarming and a matter of concern./Statistics often get used to give  credibility to claims. It makes an argument more believable as it is not based  on opinions, but facts. The statistics emphasise that the majority of women  suffer from a low body image and the percentage is on the rise. (2) 
1.11 The combined effect of the elated figure and the positive connotations of the  written text reinforce the importance of well-being and self-worth. (2) 
1.12 YES 

• Text B supports and clarifies the views expressed in paragraphs 6 and 7. The  quotation, 'If I could, my body would look different' reveals that the woman  feels inadequate and therefore has to 'really work' at improving herself. In  addition, an illusion is created to influence the perceptions of others. The  quest for improvement has been brought about by negative perceptions of  their body image, as depicted in Text B. Statistics such as '64% of women …  about their body' mirror the dissatisfaction with body image expressed by the  young woman in paragraph 6 of Text A. The 'thumbs-down' icon in Text B  gives the converse of the 'like' mentioned in paragraph 7.
  [A NO response is unlikely, but consider each response on its merit.]
  [Award full marks only if both texts are discussed.] (4)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS  
Use the following main points that the candidate should include in the summary as a  guideline. 
Any 7 valid points are to be credited in paragraph-form. 
(Sentences and/or sentence fragments must be coherent.)

PARAGRAPH-FORM 
NOTE: What follows is merely an example. It is not prescriptive and must be used very  carefully. 

Marking the summary: 
The summary should be marked as follows: 

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
  • 3 marks for language
  • Total marks: 10 
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim:
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim:
  • 6–7 quotations: award no language mark
  • 1–5 quotations: award 1 language mark

NOTE:

• Word Count:
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used.
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of  words used or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly. If the word  limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the stipulated upper  limit and ignore the rest of the summary. 

 TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS 
Marking SECTION C: 

• Spelling: 
  • One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect,  unless the error changes the meaning of the word. 
  • In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is  in the language structure being tested. 
  • Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly.
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as  per instruction. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct.  

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
3.1 The rhetorical question engages the reader from the outset to identify with a  common childhood experience./The rhetorical question encourages the  reader not only to identify with the speaker but also to do  introspection/reflect over personal experiences. (2) 
3.2 YES 

• The advertiser's description of the persona's father as 'our kind of guy' shows  the qualities and values to which the company subscribes, such as  commitment and perseverance. 
  OR 

NO 

• The advertiser's reference to the persona's father as 'our kind of guy' is  disingenuous. Their alleged approval of an unknown person does not  conform to the criteria that apply in the world of finance. (2) 

3.3 The image of the two children in the foreground is striking and bold. Their  pose and facial expression reveal strength and resolve. Their stances are  synchronised, suggesting that they are being guided. The reader is struck by  the determination and enthusiasm of the young 'go-getters'. Allan Gray  purports to promote these qualities./The two children, differing in sizes, colour  and possibly gender broaden the target market/audience spectrum and allow  (future/possible investors) to engage with the text. 
[Credit responses that refer to the setting.] (3)
3.4

• The advertiser cleverly involves the reader through the anecdotal style and frequent use of the second-person pronoun. 
• A narrative style is achieved, by including a realistic scenario, making the  text accessible to a wider audience. 
• The writer uses a variety of long and short sentences that adds credibility to the passage; the passage flows because of conjunctions  such as 'and' and 'so'. The repetition of conjunctions adds a rhythmic  effect to the text.
• The tone is conversational, e.g. 'Did you ever …', and the diction is  informal, e.g. 'nagged your folks' and 'And it was awesome.' 
• The use of alliteration, e.g. ‘whole wide world wanted …’ is catchy and  engages the reader/it is also hyperbolic. This makes the advertisement  more appealing as the expression resonates with parents.
  [Award 3 marks for TWO styles, well-elaborated.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA 
4.1 Initially, the boy and girl are riveted to the screen and are eagerly waiting for  their programme to restart. The reclining position of the children indicates that  they have let their guards down leaving them more susceptible to absorb what  is being said. (2) 
4.2 The woman in Frame 4 is smiling broadly as she promotes the product. The  mother, on the other hand, is horrified at the antics of her children as they  slide down the hill. She realises that they are creating more work for her. [Credit reference to appearance versus reality.]  [Award only 1 mark if a candidate provides descriptions of the facial  expressions such as ‘enthusiastic’ and ‘horrified’.] (2) 
4.3 The visual elements are effective as the cartoonist depicts the impact of the  advertisement on the observers. The small silhouetted figures show that the  children's stature has been diminished in the face of the overwhelming  message of the advertiser. They are dwarfed by the large speech bubble  emanating from the television broadcast. They are willing participants who  have reacted unthinkingly. [Award 3 marks only if a comment is made.] [Award no more than 2 marks if one element is discussed.] (3) 
4.4 The cartoonist ridicules the manner in which children react to advertising.  The folly of blindly following persuasive advertising is illustrated effectively by  highlighting the children's gullibility. The children are bemused by the mother's  realistic reaction to their escapade./The writer is critical of advertisers who  distort reality in order to sell their products. He satirises the misleading nature  of television advertisements. versus real life. The washing powder only works  with a real effort of applying labour. The children are fooled by the  advertisement and believe that they could also experience the happy world of  television characters. However, their mother is angry because she has to deal  with the reality of dirty clothes. Not everything that is presented on television  should be believed. [Credit cogent alternative responses.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY  
5.1 is – are (1) 
5.2 I was rushing around …/I was clutching…/People were rushing  around…/People were clutching … [Credit a contextually valid subject] (1)
5.3 You [Award a mark if the candidate has added an appropriate verb, e.g. You  (must/should).] (1) 
5.4 I have often been advised by well-meaning people. (1) 
5.5 You either get cabin fever or you see something that needs fixing./One either  gets cabin fever or sees something that needs fixing. (1) 
5.6 It indicates plural possession (1)
5.7 The brackets enclose additional information/An aside (1)
5.8 Amount – number (1)
5.9 leave/ignore [Accept suitable contextually valid alternatives.] (1) 
5.10 delete – deplete (1) [10] 

 TOTAL SECTION C:  30 
GRAND TOTAL: 70

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

NOTE TO MARKERS 

• These marking guidelines are intended as a guide for markers.
• The marking guidelines will be discussed with the marking panels before marking  commences at the marking centres.
• Candidates' responses must be considered on their merits. 

GUIDELINES 

1. Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of questions,  mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may not answer the essay  and the contextual question on the same genre.) 
2. If a candidate has answered all four questions in SECTION A (prescribed poems),  mark only the first two. 
3. If a candidate has answered two contextual or two essay questions in SECTIONS B  and C, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has answered all six  questions (novel) and/or all four questions (drama), mark only the first answer in  each SECTION, provided that one contextual and one essay have been answered. 
4. If a candidate gives two answers, the first of which is wrong and the next one  correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next. 
5. If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guidelines. 
6. If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the  meaning, mark correct. 
7. Essay question
   If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not penalise, because the  candidate has already penalised him/herself. If the essay is too long, assess on  merit and discuss with senior markers. 
8. Contextual questions
   If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not  penalise.
9. For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I  AGREE/DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what  should be considered.
10. No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be considered.
11. Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically in the light of the  discussion during the standardisation of the marking guidelines. 

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
'THE ZULU GIRL'– Roy Campbell 

Despite the oppression and hardship experienced by the tribe, there is a sense of  optimism for a better life in the future. 

• The image, 'the hot red acres smoulder' indicates the harsh conditions under  which the workers labour. The sun is so intense that the landscape appears ready  to burst into flames. The reference to the' gang' suggests that its members have  no identity/individuality and work under compulsion. 'Sweating' further communicates their discomfort and the intensity of the heat. 
• 'Flings' describes the frustration/exasperation experienced by the girl as well as  her defiance of the system under which she labours. 
• Her child's being 'tormented by flies' reinforces the impression of unhygienic and  unbearable working conditions.
• In stanza 2, the harshness of the environment is intensified: there is little shade  offered by the thorn-trees; the area is smeared with the blood of ticks –'ring of  shadow … ticks'. The girl searches the child's hair for ticks, emphasising the  unpleasant conditions under which she lives.
• The intimate bond between mother and child allows the latter to imbibe not only  nourishment but also her thoughts and feelings. While he 'grunts' in satisfaction,  the mother's emotions 'ripple' through his 'frail nerves'. Her 'languors …sighing' might imply her partial acceptance of her current state.
• The mother is proud of the heritage which she imparts to her son - 'old  unquenched unsmotherable heat'. Although her tribe has been 'curbed' and  beaten, they retain their 'dignity'. They are a fierce warrior nation that will not be  quelled.
• The comparison of the mother to a hill suggests her shielding and protecting her  child and, by implication, her tribe. 'The first cloud...in its breast' foreshadows the  uprising of the people against their oppressors. The girl and her son represent the  potential of her nation to liberate itself.
• 'The coming harvest' indicates the ultimate victory of the people when they reap  the fruit of their uprising and overthrow their oppressors. 
• Initially, the tone is sympathetic to the plight of the girl. It changes to awe at the  immense strength and endurance of a downtrodden nation. There is a tone of  optimism for a better future. [10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'THE GARDEN OF LOVE' – William Blake 
2.1 The reader will expect the speaker to enter an area/state of being that is  open, free and beautiful. It is a place of peace and tranquillity./The allusion to  the Biblical Garden of Eden creates the expectation of spiritual perfection and  natural beauty. 
[Award 2 marks for one idea well discussed.] (2) 
2.2 The Chapel should have offered a joyful experience. However, the speaker is  indicating how the Chapel and, by implication, organised religion has intruded on his pleasant, carefree childhood memories. The line indicates Blake's  disapproval of the invasive and destructive nature of authoritarian religion. 
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.3 The words, 'gates' and 'shut' have connotations of restriction and loss of free  will. In addition, they suggest a lack of welcome. The admonition, 'Thou shalt  not' alludes to the Old Testament/Ten Commandments which forbade certain  behaviours and reinforces the sense of restriction. This accounts for the  speaker's indignant/angry/disappointed/dismayed tone.  
[Award 3 marks only if tone is discussed.] (3) 
2.4 Instead of life flourishing ('flowers'), the garden is now associated with death  as it is filled with 'graves' and 'tomb-stones'. The priests in black gowns are  like sinister figures on patrol. These lines reflect the speaker's criticism of  authoritarian religion's depriving one of joy. He sees such religion as cruelly  restrictive ('binding with briars my joys and desires') of individual freedom and  fulfilment.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas/interpretations well discussed.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'A HARD FROST'– Cecil Day Lewis 
3.1 The personification/comparison of the frost to a thief is disturbing: it suggests  that the frost works silently and stealthily, taking that which does not belong  to it. 
[Award 2 marks for one idea well discussed.] (2) 
3.2 While the speaker is delighted at the transformation of his world from the  bleak harsh landscape of winter, he is equally pensive in that he knows that  this transformation is temporary/effectively illusory. 
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
3.3 The winter landscape is metaphorically compared to a plain/an unattractive  country maid who is transformed on her wedding day by her bright and  beautiful bridal outfit. Her beauty is short-lived since after her wedding she  will return to her old self, as will the landscape after the frost has melted. The  speaker's tone is of disappointment that this beauty is short-lived, and  perhaps, he is disparaging of the frost's trickery.  
[Award 3 marks only if tone is discussed.] (3) 
3.4 The speaker looks forward to the new cycle of life as the frost nudges the  earth to release the seeds that will sprout in Spring, which will signify an end  to the hardships of winter. The transformation in nature might possibly be  equated to transformation in the life of people who experience hardship but  can still look forward to a future that has the potential for a better life. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas/interpretations well discussed.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'AN AFRICAN THUNDERSTORM' – David Rubadiri 
4.1 The impression is that the wind is unpredictable/out of control and dangerous,  bringing with it chaos and disruption. 
[Award 2 marks for one idea well discussed.] (2) 
4.2 'Sinister' has connotations of something that is evil, frightening and  destructive. The mood is oppressive, ominous and foreboding.  
[Award 2 marks only if mood is discussed.] (2) 
4.3 The women's panicked state and anxiety reflect their fearful attitude toward  the storm. Their rushing about gathering their possessions and their children  creates a sense of urgency. The children's having to cling to their mothers' backs intensifies the agitation of the mothers and their determination to  protect their children. They dread the havoc that the storm might cause. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
4.4 The conclusion is appropriate because the title creates the expectation that  the poem is about a thunderstorm. The poem's focus is on the build-up to the  storm. By focusing on the elements of the wind and the clouds, the speaker  gives them a significance and power of their own. They are the harbingers  alerting people to the approach of the storm. The lightning flash and the  rumbling thunder create tension as the reader anticipates the final eruption of  the storm.  
Candidates might see the thunderstorm as an extended metaphor for the  destructive effects of colonialism. Credit such responses on their merits. 
Candidates might suggest that the conclusion is not appropriate since the  storm does not actually break, despite its build-up having been described  throughout the poem. It ends anti-climactically. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) [10]

UNSEEN POEM (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'THE FACE OF HUNGER' – Mbuyiseni Oswald Mtshali 
5.1 The phrase suggests that the boy is so thin and emaciated that his ribs stick  out and resemble the folds of a concertina. He is poverty-stricken and  hungry. 
[Award 2 marks for one idea well discussed.] (2) 
5.2 Famine is being personified as it draws attention to the suffering of the boy. It  is a powerful presence governing his life. 
Candidates might refer to the idea that the boy becomes the material that is  sculpted into an art piece titled 'Famine', almost like a stereotypical representation of the concept. 
[Award 2 marks for one idea well discussed.] (2) 
5.3 The simile compares the flickering movement of the boy's tongue to a  chameleon's way of eating. The reference to 'confetti' suggests that food, for  the chameleon is abundant as the flies appear to be plentiful in this poverty stricken/unhygienic area. The image reinforces the boy’s longing for the  enticing food that is out of his reach and suggests the dehumanisation of the  boy. It is effective in conveying the devastating impact of hunger. 
[Credit valid alternative responses on their merits.] 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
5.4 The 'sky high shelf' implies that the means of the boy's survival are out of  reach. Food is available in his society, but not for him. This is indicative of the  speaker's sense of injustice at the divisions that exist in his society.  
The impoverished child's growling stomach ('den of lions/roaring') is an  indictment on the lack of concern shown by the privileged who allow such a  situation to persist ('day and night'). The speaker's compassion/sympathy is  evident in his exclamation, 'O! child'.  
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to both stanzas.] (3) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
QUESTION 6: The Picture of Dorian Gray – ESSAY QUESTION  

Candidates might argue that Dorian is changed by his involvement with various  characters or they might argue that he is predisposed to develop into the person he  becomes, regardless of his interaction with other characters. 

• Dorian's meeting Basil and his painting of Dorian's portrait makes Dorian aware of  his beauty. This encourages his narcissism. 
• Lord Henry exposes Dorian to the theories of Aestheticism and Hedonism, which  motivate him to embark on a life of sensory pleasure, and to value art, youth and  beauty above everything else. It is this meeting that changes Dorian from the  somewhat naive and wilful young man he was to the morally corrupt person he  becomes.
• Dorian is motivated to wish that the portrait should age instead of him because of  his interaction with both men.
• When Dorian realises that his wish has been fulfilled, he feels that the portrait  absolves him of responsibility for any of his dubious actions. It gives him the  licence to indulge in immoral behaviour. 
• Dorian's meeting of Sibyl has the potential to inspire him to love and goodness.  However, he rejects her when she no longer displays artistic competence. Dorian's  brief interaction with Sibyl has the opposite effect of keeping him 'straight' when he  is persuaded by Lord Henry to view her as a pleasurable passing fancy and her  death as a mere artistic expression.
• Dorian is aware of the danger posed by Lord Henry's controversial statements, describing them as 'poisonous'. He is however, intrigued and enticed by them. This  suggests a conflict within Dorian that his under-developed sense of morality is  unable to process.
• Dorian's guilt is undermined by his continued interactions with Lord Henry. The  yellow book is an extension of Lord Henry's influence on him.
• James Vane raises Dorian’s awareness that there are consequences to his  actions and makes him realise that he cannot live only via the senses.
• Candidates might refer to the negative influence that Dorian becomes on others,  which in turn strengthens his resolve to avoid responsibility.
• Candidates might argue that Dorian is always going to become a person of  questionable integrity. He is initially seen as 'petulant' and 'wilful'. He chooses to  live a life of excess and self-indulgence, becoming involved in increasingly sinful  behaviour.
  [Consider mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION  
7.1 Sibyl is an actress in a shabby theatre. She is contracted to the owner of the  theatre, making her reliant on him for a meagre salary. She lives in squalid  surroundings with her mother and brother. 
[Award 2 marks for two distinct ideas.] (2) 
7.2 Lord Henry reacts in a spoilt, almost jealous manner. He feels entitled to  Dorian's undivided attention. This is typical of his selfish demeanour and his  desire to control Dorian's life.  
[Award 2 marks for two ideas.] (2) 
7.3 Aristocratic Victorian society enjoys a life of hedonistic self-indulgence. They  pass their time dining out and frequenting the Opera. They fill their days with  frivolous activity. This is indicative of the purposelessness of their lives.  
[Award 2 marks for two ideas.] (2) 
7.4 This statement about Sibyl's soul implies that Dorian has an intimate  knowledge of the person she is. This is, however, not true as he barely knows  her and is less concerned about who Sibyl really is than about her artistic  performances and the characters she becomes. His lack of sensitivity to her  soul ultimately destroys Sibyl. There is irony in Dorian's recognition of the  concept of soul when he, in fact, progressively sullies his own soul. 
Candidates might refer to it being ironic that Dorian is responsible for the  death of the ‘wonderful soul’ as he drives Sibyl to commit suicide. 
[Award full marks only if irony is discussed.] (3) 
7.5 Although Dorian claims to be in love with Sibyl, he shows no concern for her  as a person. He is only interested in her artistry and her ability to transform  reality for him. She appeals to his aesthetic belief that art is superior to life. When Sibyl is no longer interested in acting, he loses interest in her and  cruelly rejects her. Love ought to be selfless and unconditional but Dorian's  love is neither. His love for Sibyl proves to be superficial and insincere. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.6 In this extract, Lord Henry responds cynically to Dorian's remark, implying that  women are never what they present themselves to be. Lord Henry speaks  disparagingly and insultingly about women, including his wife. He holds them  in little regard, seeing them as frivolous and flighty. His attitude is sexist and  patronising. 
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to this extract and the novel as a  whole.] (3)
7.7 When James Vane had confronted Dorian a week earlier about his role in  Sibyl's death, Dorian was able to convince James that he was not the man  that Sibyl had referred to as 'Prince Charming'. However, James has  discovered that Dorian is indeed 'Prince Charming'. Hence his presence at  Dorian's home to take his promised revenge. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.8 Dorian's tone is sardonic/pessimistic/dejected. He has chosen pleasure over  being happy, only to realise that the pursuit of pleasure has not fulfilled his  expectations. He feels quite hopeless and despondent. He appears to lack  enthusiasm for life. He has become cynical and disillusioned. 
[Award 3 marks only if tone and attitude are discussed.] (3) 
7.9 Lord Henry impresses Dorian with his witty aphorisms and his ideas about  Aestheticism. His charm and intelligence convince Dorian to adopt the self indulgent lifestyle he promotes. In doing so, Dorian seeks out increasingly  immoral experiences, becoming more degenerate and corrupt with each  experience. Dorian lives by the yellow book given to him by Lord Henry.  Dorian's commitment to this lifestyle leads to his death. 
Candidates might argue that Dorian must be held ultimately responsible for  his own death. Despite the influence of Lord Henry, Dorian chooses to corrupt  himself. 
[Accept mixed/valid alternative responses.] 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to this extract and the novel as a  whole.] (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI - Yann Martel 
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION 

Candidates might refer to characters in either or both versions of the story. 
Candidates might argue that those whom Pi encounters change him and he will never  be the innocent/naive young boy he was. Without these encounters, Pi might not have  had the strength of character or survival skills to endure the suffering that he faced  and to emerge with his humanity intact.  

• Mr Adirubasamy's teaching Pi to swim saves his life when the Tsimtsum sinks. Pi  also learns the skill of storytelling from him, which enables him to keep his mind  occupied on the lifeboat and prevents him from descending into depression and  madness.
• Pi refers to both Mr Kumars as 'the prophets' of his 'Indian youth'. They represent  two apparently opposing views of religion and science. However, Pi comes to the  realisation that their views are complementary. This encourages him to study both  zoology and theology.
• Mr Kumar, the Biology teacher, teaches Pi to pay close attention to detail and it is  this acute sense of observation that enables Pi to survive at sea.
• All three of Pi's religious mentors instil in him a strong sense of faith which  sustains him on the lifeboat. His exposure to different religions encourages him to  be tolerant and open-minded. All of their teachings define the way he lives his life.
• When Pi is on the lifeboat with the French cook, he encounters the brutality and  savagery that humans are capable of. It is only through the French cook's lessons  on survival that Pi is able to endure his ordeal.
• The adult Pi still bears the scars of the bestial acts of murder he engages in on the  lifeboat. He has to live with the guilt of having taken a life to save his own.
• Pi's relationship with Richard Parker sustains him and gives him hope throughout  his ordeal. Taming him keeps Pi occupied and prevents him from sinking into  depression.
• Pi's assuming of Richard Parker's persona enables him to distance himself from  the horrific things he has to do. However, the adult Pi still suffers from the guilt and  trauma of his actions.
• The disbelief of the Japanese officials to Pi's story forces him to revise the story  thus compelling him to acknowledge the inherent evil of which he is capable. 
• Candidates might refer to the influence Pi’s parents have on the person he  becomes.
  [Consider mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION  
9.1 The narrator, who is travelling through India searching for inspiration for a  novel, encounters an elderly man in a coffee shop in Pondicherry. He is  intrigued when he is told that the narrator is a writer. The elderly man  proceeds to tell the narrator the story that follows. 
[Award 2 marks for two ideas.] (2) 
9.2 Mr Adirubasamy and Pi share a close bond. Pi affectionately refers to him as  Mamaji. He takes Pi under his wing and teaches him to swim. Pi sees Mamaji as his mentor and he looks forward to his praise. Even though he lives on a  different continent, the adult Pi maintains contact with Mamaji. 
[Award 2 marks for two distinct ideas.] (2) 
9.3 The narrator's tone is disbelieving/cynical/suspicious. He is sceptical about  Mr Adirubasamy's assertion. Initially, he is suspicious as he believes that Mr  Adirubasamy is an evangelist seeking to convert him to a particular faith. 
[Award 2 marks only if tone is discussed.] (2) 
9.4 As a child Pi learnt about the value of love and family. This is later  manifested in the close bonds he shares with his own family. He developed a  passion for God and a belief in the universality of all religions. His choice of  theology as a field of study and his home in Canada reflect the continuation  of these beliefs. The love and respect for animals that he developed as a  child later influences his choice of career. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.5 It is a miracle that Pi survives at sea for the length of time that he does  without being attacked by Richard Parker or falling foul to the other dangers  that surround him. Pi's faith sustains him and enables him to transcend the  impossible odds he faces.  
OR 
The version of the story Pi narrates to the Japanese officials is indicative of  his will to survive at any cost and his belief that God will sustain him. It is this  belief that enables him to engage in the barbaric acts he commits in order to  survive. 
[Candidates may refer to either one or both versions of the story for 3 marks.] [Consider valid alternative responses on their merit.] (3)
9.6 Pi and the cook have eaten all the biscuits. He is now feeling ashamed and  guilty because he has shown a lack of concern for the others who are also  hungry. Pi's mother's silence hurts him and he apologises for upsetting her. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.7 The French cook's behaviour sets an example for Pi to follow. He becomes  increasingly capable of savagery in order to survive. Pi learns to be brutal  and unfeeling after witnessing how the cook kills the sailor and, later, Pi's  mother. He commits homicide and engages in cannibalism, which are actions  he would never have contemplated prior to his encounter with the cook. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.8 Pi and his mother separate themselves from the cook for their safety and as  a way of rejecting his immoral behaviour. The issue of establishing  boundaries is also evident in the first story when Pi physically distances  himself from Richard Parker for the purposes of survival. In the second  version, when Pi assumes the alter ego of Richard Parker, he does so to  separate the violent side of his nature from that of the innocent boy he was. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
9.9 In this extract, Pi realises that, despite his hatred of the French cook, he and  his mother are reliant on him for their survival. In the first version of Pi's story,  Richard Parker is dependent on Pi as the provider of food, while Pi relies on  Richard Parker as a source of companionship. Pi's focus on training Richard  Parker gives Pi a sense of purpose and helps him maintain his sanity. When  a ship passes without noticing the lifeboat, Pi is devastated and appreciative  of the tiger's presence, seeing him as motivation to persevere.  
[Credit valid alternative responses.] 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to this extract and the novel as a  whole.] (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
HAMLET – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 

A mixed response would demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of the text. 

• Hamlet struggles to reconcile his conscience with the need to avenge his father's  death. His dilemma is that he is prone to philosophic speculation and a desire to  make judgements based on reason. He vacillates rather than reacts. While some  might construe Hamlet's behaviour as weak and see him as responsible for his own  fate, others might argue that Hamlet's vacillations are a consequence of his  goodness.
• Hamlet has no control over certain events: the murder of his father, Claudius's  ascension to the throne and his marriage to Gertrude.
• Hamlet acknowledges that fate plays a role in the way in which matters unfold: he  says that 'there's a divinity that shapes our end'. This suggests that, although  Hamlet's flaws may contribute to his downfall, there are elements beyond his  control. 
• Fate plays a role when the ship Hamlet travels on is attacked by pirates,  resulting in his being saved and returning to Denmark.
• The machinations of Claudius, his collusion with Rosencrantz and Guildenstern, as  well as with Polonius and Laertes, make it impossible for Hamlet to be held solely  accountable for the tragic unfolding of events.
• When Hamlet does act, he does so impulsively (e.g. the killing of Polonius and his  role in the killing of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern). He avoids acting with  premeditation. He struggles to react to the Ghost's request. 
• Candidates might argue that Hamlet's assumed madness is a fatal error of  judgement that contributes to the tragic consequences.
• Candidates might argue that Hamlet is solely responsible for his fate because of  his self-pitying attitude and his procrastination. The consequent train of events is  a result of his failure to act timeously. He ought to have disclosed the presence  of the Ghost to Gertrude and then perhaps events might have taken a different  turn.
• Candidates who argue that Hamlet has no control over events will focus on  issues of fate and/or restrictive circumstances rather than Hamlet's decisions.
  [Credit valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION  
11.1 Hamlet is unsure of the reason for the Ghost's appearance and considers the  possibility of the Ghost having malignant intentions. Hamlet realises that if  Claudius knows about the Ghost's accusations, Hamlet's life would be in  danger. Claudius will do everything in his power to maintain his throne. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.2 The Ghost of King Hamlet wants Hamlet to know that he did not die of natural  causes but was murdered. He names Claudius as his murderer and accuses  him of seducing Gertrude and marrying her with such haste. The Ghost wants  Hamlet to avenge his death. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.3 The audience might pity Hamlet, who is young and feeling overwhelmed by  the information he has just received. He finds it difficult to accept the Ghost's  indictment without proof. He is already deeply disturbed about his mother's  marriage to Claudius and is perhaps feeling insecure about his ability to  handle the mammoth task imposed on him.  
OR 
Candidates might argue that one cannot pity Hamlet at this stage. He is angry  about the union between Claudius and Gertrude and the Ghost offers him an  opportunity to avenge his death. He ought therefore to grab the opportunity  and react immediately to rectify a situation that he finds untenable.  
[Accept mixed responses.] 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.4 Hamlet's decision to feign madness serves as a useful weapon in his struggle  against Claudius. It will allow him to gather information unobtrusively before  he reacts to the Ghost's intimations. It will enable him to allay any suspicions  that anyone might have while he plots his revenge.  
Moreover, it is one of Hamlet's modes of procrastination in that he does not  face what he regards as a distasteful/confusing/intimidating task. 
Candidates might refer to Hamlet’s feigned madness being a distraction to his  seeking revenge. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.5 Gertrude will later defend Hamlet's killing of Polonius when she informs  Claudius that Hamlet reacted to a noise that he had heard and was unaware  that it was Polonius behind the arras. She downplays Hamlet's agitated and  violent state of mind. She also warns him of the poisoned drink in an attempt  to save him from Claudius's treachery. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
11.6 Gertrude chastises Hamlet for offending Claudius. Ironically, in his response,  Hamlet indicates that it is his mother who has, in fact, offended his father,  King Hamlet.  
Furthermore, Hamlet feels that the offence is not his but hers because she  not only married the man who murdered her husband, but also married him  soon after her husband's death. 
[Award 3 marks if one example of irony is identified and discussed.] (3) 
11.7 Hamlet is very angry and violently confronts Gertrude and prevents her from  leaving. He may push her toward a chair or even perhaps place his hand on  his sword in a threatening manner. His tone might be  threatening/angry/forceful/assertive. He wants Gertrude to acknowledge her  betrayal of him and his father by marrying Claudius. 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] 
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and  includes a justification.] (3) 
11.8 Betrayal has to do with breaking faith/trust for one's own benefit. In this  extract, Hamlet feels that his mother has betrayed both him and his father.  Claudius's killing of his brother betrays family loyalties and also defies the  concept of the divine right of kings. Characters betray others for personal  gain: Claudius's usurping of the throne; to curry favour, Rosencrantz and  Guildenstern's agreeing to betray a friend; to assert control, Polonius's  arranging to have Laertes spied upon.  
[Candidates may make reference to other examples.] 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to this extract and the play as a  whole.] (4) [25]

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Despite Othello's many admirable qualities, he has serious insecurities that  contribute to his tragic fate. His insecurities about his race, his age, his ignorance  about Venetian society, especially Venetian women, surface only when his  confidence in Desdemona's loyalty/faithfulness is undermined by Iago. 
• Othello allows himself to succumb to Iago's lies. He places his complete trust in  Iago, allowing him to become his adviser and confidant, thereby compromising his  integrity. 
• Although Othello asks for 'ocular proof' of Desdemona's betrayal, he does not  question the evidence when it is presented to him.
• Othello enters into an unholy alliance with Iago to kill both Cassio and  Desdemona. This deliberate decision to commit murder compromises his morality  and leads to his decision to execute justice on himself. 
• He also agrees to Iago's suggestion that he eavesdrop on Iago and Cassio's  conversation, not realising that Iago is deceiving him. His gullibility in this situation  contributes to his downfall.
• Othello allows himself to be manipulated. Iago's suggestion of Desdemona's  infidelity provides the excuse Othello needs to justify the destruction of the wife he  believes cannot truly love him.
• Othello's low self-esteem, jealousy and pride make him determined to ensure that  Desdemona pays dearly for her supposed transgression. 
• Although Othello calls himself 'an honourable murderer', his actions in refusing  Desdemona the chance to defend herself belie this claim.
• Candidates might argue that, rather than Othello's being responsible for his own  fate, it is Iago who is the cause of his downfall. 
• Iago plays on Othello's insecurities, poisoning his mind against his wife. ∙ Othello has no reason to disbelieve or mistrust Iago, as Iago is perceived to be  'honest' by numerous characters in the play.
• Iago is an excellent judge of character. He is opportunistic, cunning and evil, and  the naïve and unsophisticated Othello stands no chance against Iago's devious  machinations.
  [Accept mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
13.1 Iago intends to use the handkerchief as 'ocular proof' of Desdemona's  unfaithfulness. He plans to place the handkerchief in Cassio's lodging,  thereby implying that Desdemona gave it to Cassio as a token of her love. This will validate Iago's accusations and will motivate Othello to act against  Desdemona and Cassio.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.2 Iago is generally disrespectful and dismissive of Emilia. He does not take her  into his confidence or allow her to question his actions. He is rude and  bullying. He deliberately uses her as a tool to further his selfish plans.  
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to this extract.] (3) 
13.3 Iago's observation is accurate as Othello shows increasing signs of anguish.  There is a clear sense of Othello's emotional breakdown. Earlier in the play,  Othello refuses to believe that Desdemona could be unfaithful. At this point,  his words indicate that he is coming closer to believing in her guilt. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.4 Roderigo had wanted to marry Desdemona but had been unsuccessful. Iago  promised to help Roderigo win Desdemona in return for Roderigo's help in  bringing about Othello's downfall. He continues to help Iago because he is  convinced that Iago will make good on his promise. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.5 Throughout the play, Iago has been very adept at using words to persuade  and manipulate. However, here he pledges to remain silent because he  realises that nothing he says would be to his advantage and he is happy to  thwart the process of justice. He is being spiteful. 
[Award 3 marks only if irony is discussed.] (3) 
13.6 Yes.  
From the beginning of the play, Iago's intention has been to destroy Othello.  He hates everything that is good, everything that has a 'daily beauty'. He  does not believe in concepts such as love and virtue and seeks to destroy  anything associated with these ideas. On a number of occasions, he also  equates his actions with those of the devil. 
OR 
[A 'No' response is unlikely; however, treat all responses on their merits.] [Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
13.7 Othello is appealing to Lodovico and the assembled company to listen to the  reasons for his actions. There is an element of pride and condescension in  his tone when he mentions his 'service' to the State. He might raise his hand  to stave off being seized by the guards/extend his hand in appeal/point to  himself to emphasise his words. His tone becomes dismissive as he comes to  realise the insignificance of his past deeds. 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] 
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and  includes a justification.] (3) 
13.8 Feelings of jealousy are displayed by various characters. In this extract,  Othello indicates that he is not easily made jealous but once his jealousy is  aroused, he is consumed by it. His insecurities and fears lead him to believe  Iago's lies. Iago's jealousy is spurred on by his feelings of inadequacy as he  feels that he can never be the equal of Cassio and Othello. Roderigo is  jealous of Othello's having Desdemona as his wife. Ultimately, jealousy  manifests in different ways but always results in destruction of self and  others. 
[Candidates may make reference to other examples.] 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to this extract and the play as a   whole.]  (4) [25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION  

• John Proctor's guilt, his morally questionable actions and his desire to protect his  name contribute to his tragic fate.
• Despite being a self-acknowledged sinner, Proctor is 'a good man'. His adultery is  the catalyst for Abigail's jealousy. His rejection of her encourages her wrath and  desire for revenge.
• Proctor sets high moral standards for himself but he considers himself a hypocrite  because he deceives others by not revealing his adultery.
• Proctor conceals the fact that Abigail has admitted that the girls' actions in the  forest 'were just sport'. He does this because he does not want to expose himself.
• His hesitation costs the village dearly as many innocent people – including his wife  – are arrested and found guilty of witchcraft.
• Proctor realises that the only way to save his wife and the wives of his friends is to  confess to adultery, thus discrediting Abigail and urging the court to see the truth  of Abigail's manipulation of its proceedings.
• His individuality and defiance of the official value system contribute to his being  viewed as a trouble-maker and the court's harsh treatment of him.
• Proctor battles with his conscience but ultimately chooses to remain true to  himself. He desires to live but he is determined to maintain his honour and  integrity. He dies refusing to compromise his sense of truth.
• Candidates might argue that Proctor is not entirely responsible for his fate. He was  not to foresee the extent of Abigail's desire for him, or the extent of her vengeance.
• The girls and many of the other villagers realise that the witch trials can be used  for their ulterior motives.
• The villagers also contribute to Proctor's fate by creating a climate of suspicion  and restriction, and sanctioning the witch trials. 
• The lack of justice offered by the courts results in the deaths of innocent people. [Accept mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
15.1 Hale is kind and gentle toward Betty. He shows concern and compassion.  Parris, by contrast, has scant concern for her well-being. He is more worried  about the impact on his reputation. 
[Award 3 marks only if both characters are discussed.] (3) 
15.2 Hale's investigations encourage the girls to name those supposedly engaged  in witchcraft. His leading questioning style gives the girls an idea of what sort  of evidence the courts will find convincing. His enthusiasm when he thinks he  has uncovered witchcraft blinds him and he loses his ability to be rational.  However, when he realises that the girls are frauds, he attempts to stop the  trials, first by appealing to Danforth and later by encouraging the condemned  to lie to save their lives. His denouncing of the courts raises awareness  among the villagers of the injustices that have been committed. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.3 The girls approach Tituba because they believe that, as a black woman from  Barbados, she has knowledge of witchcraft. As a slave, Tituba has no power  to refuse them. Tituba might see this as a way of integrating herself into the  society and gaining some status for herself. This is a way of her asserting a  level of authority that she would otherwise not have.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.4 Abigail's statement is ironic because she is neither good nor proper as she  has had an affair with John Proctor. She can no longer be regarded as an  innocent 'girl'. Also, she has behaved in other inappropriate ways such as  laughing in church and dancing in the forest. Although Abigail says she has  not 'sold' herself, she selfishly commits evil acts and so has, in effect, 'sold' herself to the devil. 
[Award 3 marks only if irony is discussed.] (3) 
15.5 Hathorne is uncompromising in his determination to see his form of justice  meted out. He is not prepared to deviate from decisions taken by the court.  He is afraid of losing credibility and having his reputation, and the reputation  of the court, tarnished. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
15.6 The actor might bang his fist on the table or cross his arms. He might be  authoritative and firm in his pronouncement. Danforth is determined to  continue with the executions as he does not want the authority of the court to  be challenged.  
[Accept valid alternative responses.] 
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and  includes a justification.] (3) 
15.7 Parris initiates the fears about witchcraft by calling in Reverend Hale to  investigate the reasons for the girls' illness. His failure to disclose the truth  about the girls' activities in the forest contributes to a climate that is conducive  to the girls' accusing people of witchcraft. This, together with his selfish  concern for his reputation, leads to the outbreak of hysteria. Despite his  doubts, he continues to support the trials. It is only when Abigail runs away  and his life is threatened that he tries to persuade Danforth to re-examine his  decisions.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.8 In this extract, Parris points out that because of the good reputation of people  like Rebecca Nurse and John Proctor, the villagers might turn against the  court if they are executed.  
People's reputations are an indication of their characters and integrity, as well  as how they are perceived in the village. In order to protect their reputations,  individuals react differently. People like Parris and Abigail lie to protect their  reputations. The court officials refuse to acknowledge the girls' deception  because it would tarnish their reputations. Initially, Proctor does not disclose  his adultery because he does not want his reputation ruined, but later, he  stands for what is true. Like Proctor, Rebecca and Giles are prepared to lose  their lives to protect the integrity of their names.  
[Candidates may make reference to other examples.] 
[Award 4 marks for three ideas well discussed OR four distinct ideas.] (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25 
GRAND TOTAL: 80

SECTION A: Assessment rubric for literary essay: Poetry (10marks )

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both content and structure and language

SECTION B AND C: Assessment rubric for literary essay – Novel and Drama: (25 marks)

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both content and structure and language
There must not be more than two categories' variation between the Structure and Language mark and the Content mark.

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER 
In assessing a candidate's work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the  assessment rubric, must be borne in mind: 

• The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on  the final text produced. 
• Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as  register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B.
• Grammar, spelling and punctuation. 
• Language structures, including an awareness of critical language.
• Choice of words and idiomatic language.
• Sentence construction.
• Paragraphing.
• Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the  introduction, the development of ideas and the conclusion.

MEMORANDUM 

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING 
SECTION A: ESSAY 
Refer to SECTION A: Rubric for Assessing an Essay found on pages 6 and 7 of these marking guidelines. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND  PLANNING. 
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING. 
3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE. 

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
Refer to SECTION B: Rubric for Assessing Transactional Texts found on page 8 of  these marking guidelines. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING  AND FORMAT.
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE,  STYLE AND EDITING. 

NOTE: 

• Various formats of transactional/referential/informational texts have been taught/ are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the format.
• Give credit for appropriateness of format.
• Look for a logical approach in all writing. 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE  of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive,  reflective, discursive, argumentative, or any combination of these. 
1.1 'Remember that not getting what you want is sometimes a wonderful  stroke of luck.' (The Dalai Lama) 

• Responses should focus on the benefits of adversity.
• Credit opposing views. [50] 1.2 Peaceful protests – the only option
• Candidates may argue for or against the assertion.
• Peaceful protests should be juxtaposed, even if quite briefly, with violent  protest action. [50] 

1.3 The final hours … 

• Credit literal/figurative/mixed responses. [50] 

1.4 'I have spread my dreams under your feet; 
Tread softly because you tread on my dreams.' (William Butler Yeats) 

• Responses could focus on the vulnerability of dreams and respect for the  feelings of others.
• Credit literal/figurative/mixed responses. [50]

1.5 They learned about the brutality and the beauty of life. 

• Responses should deal with contrasting experiences of life. [50]

1.6 NOTE: There must be a clear link between the essay and the picture chosen.
1.6.1 Stepping-stones 

• Credit literal, figurative and mixed responses. [50]

1.6.2 Divided house 

• Credit literal, figurative and mixed responses. [50]

1.6.3 Girl with the kite 

• Credit literal, figurative and mixed responses. [50]

TOTAL SECTION A: 50 

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 
Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of each response should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register,  style and tone must be appropriate to the context. 
2.1 FORMAL LETTER 

• The letter should request financial and/or material support.
• A convincing motivation should be included.
• Format: own address, date, addressee, subject line, salutation, signing off [25]

2.2 DIALOGUE 

• The conversation should take place between the person whose reputation  has been compromised and a counsellor/parent/authority figure etc.
• Use valid dialogue format. [25]

2.3 INFORMAL LETTER 

• The letter should elaborate on the writer's response to the text message.
• Format: own address, date, salutation, signing-off [25] 

2.4 MAGAZINE ARTICLE 

• The article should focus on the writer's view(s) on a particular music  genre.
• The candidate should defend his/her preferred genre.
• Format: headline; by-line (optional) [25]

2.5 COVERING LETTER AND CURRICULUM VITAE 

• The covering letter should be a brief outline and motivation.
• The curriculum vitae should include essential and relevant information, as  stipulated in the advertisement.
• All formats of the CV should be accepted.
• The covering letter and CV should be marked as a holistic component. [25]

2.6 MINUTES OF A MEETING 

• Minutes should reflect the items on the Agenda. 
• Resolutions taken should reflect the matter under discussion viz. the  vandalism of the library. 
• Format: suitable headings and sub-headings [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100

NOTE: 

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A).
• Marks from 0–50 have been divided into FIVE major level descriptors.
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper-level and a lower-level  subcategory with the applicable mark range and descriptors.
• Structure is not affected by the upper-level and lower-level division. 

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE[50 MARKS]

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – HOME LANGUAGE [25 MARKS]

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections: 
   SECTION A: Essay (50) 
   SECTION B: Transactional Texts (2 x 25) (50)
2. Answer ONE question from SECTION A and TWO questions from SECTION B. 
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. You must plan (e.g. using a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words), edit and  proofread your work. The plan must appear BEFORE the answer. 
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line  through all planning. 
7. You are strongly advised to spend your time as follows:
   SECTION A: approximately 80 minutes
   SECTION B: approximately 70 (2 x 35) minutes 
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
9. The title/heading must NOT be included when doing a word count.
10. Write neatly and legibly. 

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics.  Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay.  
1.1 'Remember that not getting what you want is sometimes a wonderful stroke  of luck.' (The Dalai Lama) [50] 
1.2 Peaceful protests – the only option [50]
1.3 The final hours … [50] 
1.4 'I have spread my dreams under your feet; Tread softly because you tread on my dreams.' (William Butler Yeats) [50] 
1.5 They learned about the brutality and the beauty of life. [50] 
1.6 The pictures reproduced below may evoke a reaction or feeling in you or stir  your imagination.  Select ONE picture and write an essay in response. Write the question  number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3) of your choice and give your essay a title. 
NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you  have chosen. 
1.6.1
 
[Source: www.steppingstonetalent.com] [50]
1.6.2
 
[Source: www.shutterstock.com] [50]
1.6.3
 
 [Source: www.4.bp.blogspot.com] [50] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to TWO of the following topics.
• The body of each of your answers should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in  length.
• Pay careful attention to the following:
  • Audience, register, tone and style
  • Choice of words and language structure
  • Format
• Write down the NUMBER and the TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen,  e.g. 2.1 Formal Letter.  

2.1 FORMAL LETTER 
You would like to raise funds for a charity that is close to your heart.  
Write a letter to the owner of a prominent local business to request support for  your venture. [25] 
2.2 DIALOGUE 
Your reputation has been compromised after your involvement in a  controversial issue. You have been summoned by a senior person to account  for your actions and/or words.  
Write the dialogue that transpires. [25]
2.3 INFORMAL LETTER 

[Source: www.wisegeek.com] 
You have received a text message that has provoked/pleased you. You feel  that responding to the message via your cellphone would be inadequate. 
Write a letter expressing your feelings to the person from whom you have  received the message. [25]
2.4 MAGAZINE ARTICLE 
You are a follower of a particular genre of music which is frequently criticised.  Write an article for a youth magazine in defence of this genre.  [25] 
2.5 COVERING LETTER AND CURRICULUM VITAE 
Local business owners have launched a competition for aspirant  entrepreneurs. Young adults, between the ages of 17 and 21, are invited to  apply by submitting a covering letter and curriculum vitae.  
Write the covering letter and curriculum vitae which you will submit in  
response to this invitation. [25]
2.6 MINUTES OF A MEETING 
The local library has been vandalised. As the secretary of Friends of the  Library, you have to record the minutes of a special meeting convened in the  City Hall. 
Write the minutes of this meeting, using the agenda below. 
AGENDA 

1. Opening and welcome 
2. Attendance 
3. Vandalism of the library 
4. Recommendations
5. Closure [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Read these instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. 
2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of contents  on page 4 and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts you have  studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the ones you  wish to answer. 
3. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Poetry (30)
   SECTION B: Novel (25)
   SECTION C: Drama (25) 
4. Answer FIVE questions in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B  and ONE in SECTION C as follows:
   SECTION A: POETRY
   PRESCRIBED POETRY – Answer TWO questions.
   UNSEEN POEM – COMPULSORY question
   SECTION B: NOVEL
   Answer ONE question.
   SECTION C: DRAMA 
   Answer ONE question.
5. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA):
   • Answer questions ONLY on the novel and the drama you have studied.
   • Answer ONE essay question and ONE contextual question. If you answer  the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the contextual  question in SECTION C. 
     If you answer the contextual question in SECTION B, you must answer  the essay question in SECTION C. 
     Use the checklist to assist you. 
6. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
   • The essay question on Poetry should be answered in about 250–300  words.
   • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered  in 400–450 words.
   • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by  the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and  relevance. 
7. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully.
8. Number your answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
9. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
10. Suggested time management:
    SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
    SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
    SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS  

• NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, answer ONE ESSAY and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.

CHECKLIST 
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.  

• NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, ensure that you have answered ONE ESSAY and  ONE CONTEXTUAL question.
  You may NOT answer TWO essay or TWO contextual questions.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
Answer any TWO of the following questions.  
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the question that follows. 

With close reference to the diction, imagery and tone used in this poem, discuss how  the speaker explores issues of endurance and hope for the future. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words  (about ONE page). [10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

2.1 Refer to line 1: 'I went to the Garden of Love'. How does the word, 'Garden' create an expectation in the mind of the reader? (2)
2.2 Refer to lines 3–4: 'A Chapel was …'/'on the green.' Explain the significance of these lines in the context of the poem. (2)
2.3 Refer to lines 5–6: 'And the gates …'/'over the door'. Discuss how the diction in these lines contributes to the speaker's tone. (3)
2.4 Refer to the final stanza: 'And I saw ...'/'joys and desires.' Comment on how these lines convey the central idea of the poem. (3) [10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

3.1 Refer to line 1: 'A frost came in the night and stole my world'. What impression of the frost is created in this line? (2)
3.2 Refer to line 3: 'Image of spring, too brilliant to be true'. How do these words contribute to your understanding of the speaker's  feelings? (2) 
3.3 Refer to lines 11–14: 'Mockery spring …'/'aconite and snowdrop!' Discuss how the imagery in these lines conveys the speaker's tone. (3)
3.4 Refer to lines 17–19: 'But deep below …'/'our future breathe.' Comment on how these lines capture the central idea of the poem. (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

4.1 Refer to line 9: 'Like a madman chasing nothing.' What impression of the wind is conveyed by this description? (2)
4.2 Suggest how the word, 'sinister' (line 13) contributes to the mood of the poem. (2)
4.3 Refer to lines 20–24: 'Women – /Babies clinging … In and out/Madly'. Discuss how these lines convey the attitude of the women towards the storm. (3)
4.4 Refer to lines 30–33: 'As jaggered blinding …'/'of the storm.' Comment on whether these lines are an appropriate conclusion to the poem. (3) [10] 

AND 

UNSEEN POEM (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

5.1 What impression of the boy is suggested by 'concertina chest' (line 1)? (2) 
5.2 Explain the significance in the context of the poem of the capital letter in  'Famine' (line 3). (2) 
5.3 Refer to lines 8–10: 'His tongue darted …'/'confetti of flies.' Comment on the effectiveness of the image in context. (3) 
5.4 Refer to stanza 2: 'He looked with …'/'sky high shelf' and stanza 5:  'O! child …'/'day and night.' Critically discuss how the speaker conveys his attitude towards the plight of  the hungry. (3) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied. 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION 
'It is true that those we meet can change us, sometimes so profoundly that we are not  the same afterwards.' 
Critically discuss the validity of this statement in relation to Dorian Gray. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT A

7.1 Refer to line 1: 'What is it to me where she came from?' Describe Sibyl's background. (2) 
7.2 Refer to line 4: 'That is the reason, I suppose, that you never dine with  me now.' How is Lord Henry's reaction to Dorian's announcement typical of him? (2)
7.3 Refer to lines 6–7: 'My dear Harry, …'/'you several times'. Explain what Dorian's statement implies about the lifestyle of the aristocratic  Victorian society of the time. (2) 
7.4 Refer to line 10: 'when I think of the wonderful soul'. Explain the irony of Dorian's use of the word, 'soul' in the context of the novel. (3)
7.5 Critically comment on Dorian's 'love' for Sibyl. (3) 7.6 Refer to line 17: 'I congratulate you.' Comment on Lord Henry's attitude towards women by drawing on both this  extract and the novel as a whole. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT B 

7.7 Refer to line 24: 'he had seen the face of James Vane watching him.' Account for the presence of James Vane at Dorian's window. (3)
7.8 Refer to lines 13–16: ' I have never …'/'Often. Too often.' Critically discuss how Dorian's tone reflects his attitude towards life at this  point in the novel. (3) 
7.9 Using this extract as a starting point and your knowledge of the novel as a  whole, discuss the extent to which Lord Henry is responsible for Dorian's fate. (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION 
It is true that the characters we encounter can change us, sometimes so profoundly  that we are not the same afterwards. 
Critically discuss the validity of this statement in relation to Pi. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT C

9.1 Place the extract in context. (2)
9.2 Describe the relationship between Mr Adirubasamy and Pi. (2)
9.3 Refer to line 4: 'And it will make me believe in God?' Account for the narrator's tone in this line. (2)
9.4 Refer to line 2: 'It starts right here in Pondicherry just a few years back'. Explain how the lessons Pi learnt in Pondicherry manifest in his later life in  Canada. (3) 
9.5 Refer to lines 21–22: 'It was as …'/'believe in God.' Drawing on your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss how Pi's story  might make the author 'believe in God'. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT D

9.6 Refer to line 3: 'I'm sorry, Mother, I'm sorry.' Account for Pi's feelings at this stage of the novel. (3)
9.7 Discuss how the French cook influences Pi's responses to his circumstances. (3)
9.8 Refer to line 13: 'We each had our end of the lifeboat.' Discuss the significance of maintaining boundaries in the context of the novel. (3) 
9.9 Using this extract as a starting point and your knowledge of the novel as a  whole, critically discuss how the novel demonstrates that Pi's survival relies  on his dependence on others. (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
Answer ONLY on the play you have studied. 
HAMLET – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 
Hamlet is responsible for his own tragic fate. 
Assess the validity of this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.  
EXTRACT E

11.1 Refer to line 5: 'But you'll be secret?' Account for Hamlet's concern with secrecy at this point in the play. (3)
11.2 Explain the Ghost's motive in approaching Hamlet. (3)
11.3 Refer to lines 17–18: '– and for mine own poor part,'/'Look you, I'll go pray.' Discuss the extent to which it would be justifiable for the audience to pity  Hamlet at this point in the play. (3) 
11.4 Refer to line 26: 'To put an antic disposition on –'. Critically comment on Hamlet's decision to pretend to be mad. (3)

AND
EXTRACT F

11.5 Refer to lines 4–5: 'And that your grace …'/'Much heat and him.' Suggest how Gertrude's later actions will validate this statement. (3)
11.6 Refer to line 12: 'Hamlet, thou hast thy father much offended.' Comment on the irony of Gertrude's words. (3)
11.7 Refer to lines 23–26: 'Come, come, and ...'/'part of you.' If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the  actor to deliver these lines? Justify your instructions with reference to both  body language and tone. (3) 
11.8 Using this extract as a starting point and drawing on your knowledge of the  play as a whole, critically comment on the nature of betrayal as presented in  the play. (4) [25]

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 
Othello is responsible for his own tragic fate. 
Assess the validity of this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT G

13.1 Refer to lines 9–10: 'What will you …'/'me filch it?' Explain how Iago intends to use Desdemona's handkerchief. (3) 1
3.2 Explain what this extract suggests about Iago's relationship with Emilia. (3)
13.3 Refer to line 22: 'The Moor already changes with my poison.' Comment on the accuracy of Iago's observation in the context of this extract. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT H

13.4 Refer to lines 9–10: 'Here is a letter …'/'Found in … the slain Roderigo'. Account for Roderigo's involvement in Iago's plan. (3)
13.5 Refer to lines 3–4: 'Demand me nothing …'/'will speak word.' Comment on the irony of Iago's words. (3)
13.6 Othello refers to Iago as a 'demi-devil' (line 1). In your opinion, is Othello's assessment of Iago's character justified?  Motivate your response. (3) 
13.7 Refer to line 21–23: 'Soft you – a word …'/'No more of that.' If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the  actor to deliver these lines? Justify your instructions with reference to both  body language and tone. (3) 
13.8 Using this extract as a starting point and drawing on your knowledge of the  play as a whole, critically comment on the nature of jealousy as presented in  the play. (4) [25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION  
John Proctor is responsible for his own tragic fate. 
Assess the validity of this statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT I 

15.1 Explain how Hale's treatment of Betty differs from Parris's treatment of her. (3)
15.2 Discuss Hale's contribution to the events that occur later in the play. (3)
15.3 Refer to line 22: 'Did Tituba ask you to drink it?' Discuss why Tituba becomes involved with the girls. (3)
15.4 Refer to line 25: 'I never sold myself! I'm a good girl! I'm a proper girl!' Comment on the irony of Abigail's statement. (3) AND 

EXTRACT J 

15.5 Refer to line 14: 'Excellency, she is condemned a witch. The court have – '. Suggest reasons for Hathorne's reaction to Parris's statement. (3)
15.6 Refer to line 18: 'There will be no postponement.' If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you  instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Justify your instructions with  reference to both body language and tone. (3) 
15.7 Critically discuss the extent to which Parris's actions have contributed to the  tragedy in Salem. (3) 
15.8 Using this extract as a starting point, critically comment on the importance  placed on a person's reputation in Salem. (4) 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL:  80

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30)
   SECTION B: Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language structures and conventions (30)
2. Read ALL the instructions carefully. 
3. Answer ALL the questions.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. Rule off after each section.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
7. Leave a line after each answer.
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction. 
9. Suggested time allocation:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 30 minutes
   SECTION C: 40 minutes
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING 
Read TEXTS A and B below and answer the questions set. 
TEXT A

GLOSSARY 

• filch – to 'steal' something, especially something small and not very valuable *glutes – muscles 

AND
TEXT B 

[Source: Adapted from Glamour Magazine, 2015] 

QUESTIONS: TEXT A 
1.1 What do you understand by the expression 'ageing down of smartphone  ownership' (line 3)? (2) 
1.2 Explain what the writer means by 'teens sling insults with the recklessness  that comes only with anonymity' (lines 7–8). (2) 
1.3 Refer to paragraph 2. What is the effect of the single line paragraph? (2) 
1.4 Refer to paragraph 4 (lines 16 and 17): 'The most vulnerable users,  researchers say, are the ones who spend most of their time posting,  commenting on and comparing themselves to photos.' Comment on the implication of this sentence in context. (2) 
1.5 Discuss how the diction in paragraph 5 reveals the writer's attitude towards the way social media are used. (3) 
1.6 Refer to paragraph 8. Comment on the writer's tone in this paragraph. (3)
1.7 Critically discuss whether paragraph 9 supports the title of the article. (3)
1.8 In your opinion, is the final paragraph a suitable conclusion to the article? Justify your response with reference to the text as a whole. (3)

QUESTIONS: TEXT B
1.9 Discuss the appropriateness of the image of the woman. (2)
1.10 Comment on the use of statistics. (2)
1.11 Refer to the following: 

Discuss the significance of the visual image and written text, 'Self' and  'Life. Health. Happiness. Love.' in the context of TEXT B. (2) 

QUESTION: TEXTS A AND B 
1.12 In your view, does TEXT B support the views expressed in paragraphs 6 and  7 of TEXT A? Justify your response. (4) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30 

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS 
TEXT C provides a discussion on assertive communication. Summarise, in your own  words, the aspects of constructive criticism that facilitate effective communication. 
NOTE: 

1. Your summary should include SEVEN points and NOT exceed 90 words. 
2. You must write a fluent paragraph.
3. You are NOT required to include a title for the summary.
4. Indicate your word count at the end of your summary. 

TEXT C 

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS  
QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
Study the advertisement (TEXT D) below and answer the set questions.
TEXT D 

[Source: www.adsoftheworld.com] 
The text in small font reads as follows:

QUESTIONS: TEXT D 
3.1 What is the purpose of the rhetorical question, 'Did you ever want to learn  karate so badly it hurt'? (2)  
3.2 '… your dad was our kind of guy.' Is this clause effective in promoting the advertised product? Substantiate your answer. (2)  
3.3 Comment on the impact of the visual image in the context of the  advertisement. (3)  
3.4 The advertiser uses a variety of language styles in the written text. Critically discuss any TWO styles that are intended to convince the reader. (3)  [10]
QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA
Study TEXT E below and answer the set questions. 
TEXT E: CARTOON 

[Source: www.gocomics.com]

QUESTIONS: TEXT E 
4.1 Examine Frames 1, 2 and 3. Give a reason for the varying positions of the boy and girl. (2)  
4.2 Account for the difference in the facial expressions of the woman in Frame 4  and the mother in Frame 6. (2) 
4.3 Comment on any TWO visual elements in Frame 5. (3) 
4.4 Critically evaluate the cartoonist's use of satire. (3) [10] 

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY 
Read TEXT F, which contains some deliberate errors, and answer the set questions. TEXT F 

QUESTIONS: TEXT F
5.1 Correct the error of concord in paragraph 2. (1) 
5.2 'Rushing around airports, clutching heavily packed tourist schedules.' (Line 5)  Rewrite the sentence above as a full sentence. (1) 
5.3 What is the subject of 'Stay home!' (line 7)? (1)
5.4 Rewrite the following in the passive voice: 'Well-meaning people have often advised me.' (Line 6) (1) 
5.5 'You either get cabin fever or one sees something that needs fixing.' (Lines 8–9) Rewrite the sentence above so that it is grammatically correct. (1)
5.6 Why is an apostrophe used in 'Builders' Warehouse' (line 9)? (1)
5.7 Account for the use of brackets in line 10. (1)
5.8 'Relaxing is the absence of a large amount of activities.' (Line 12) A word has been used incorrectly in the above sentence. Write down the word  that should have been used instead. (1) 
5.9 The expression 'vacate stuff' (line 15) is idiomatically incorrect. Provide a suitable synonym for 'vacate'. (1) 
5.10 Correct the malapropism in line 16. (1) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 30
GRAND TOTAL:  70

ENGLISH FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30) 
   SECTION B: Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language (40) 
2. Answer ALL the questions. 
3. Read ALL the instructions carefully. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. Leave a line after each answer.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
7. For multiple-choice questions, write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  number in the ANSWER BOOK.
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction. 9. Use the following time frame as a guideline:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 20 minutes
   SECTION C: 50 minutes
9. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION  
QUESTION 1 
Read BOTH TEXT A and TEXT B and answer the set questions. 
TEXT A

1.1 Refer to paragraph 1. 
1.1.1 Name TWO factors that influence a learner's career choice. (2)
1.1.2 What advantage do matric learners have regarding career choices? (1)
1.2 Why was the Marine Sciences curriculum developed? Give TWO reasons. (2)
1.3 Refer to paragraph 3. 
1.3.1 Quote ONE word to prove that Marine Sciences has not been  introduced at all schools. (1) 
1.3.2 How is the curriculum for Marine Sciences similar to that of  Life Sciences? (1) 
1.3.3 Using your own words, explain what is meant by 'the ocean is an  unexplored area'. (1)
1.4 Refer to paragraph 5. 
1.4.1 Explain why 'Young Biologists' is written in inverted commas. (2)
1.4.2 Why is the following statement FALSE? The 'Young Biologists' were paid during their training. (1)
1.4.3 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence: 
The words 'flagship course' in line 27 mean that the course is  about …  

1. studying flags.
2. being impressive. 
3. studying ships.
4. being supportive. (1) 

1.4.4 Why is it important for the course to be 'as hands-on as possible'? (2)
1.5 Refer to paragraph 6. 
What do the words, 'continued volunteering' suggest about Shanet Rutgers? (1)
1.6 Explain why the writer has included the following statement: 
'Four have been awarded Marine Sciences and Oceanography bursaries so  far' (paragraph 7). (2) 
1.7 Do marine scientists spend most of their time in the ocean? Give a reason for  your answer. (2) 
1.8 Give a reason why Marine Sciences should be offered at coastal schools if  the curriculum is approved. (1) 
1.9 In your view, will this article succeed in motivating learners to study  Marine Sciences? Substantiate your answer. (2) 
1.10 Discuss the suitability of the title, YOUNGSTERS DIVING INTO OCEAN  STUDIES. (2)
TEXT B  

 [Source: www.google.com]
Refer to the graph above (TEXT B). 
1.11 Complete the following sentence by filling in the missing word. 'Teens' is the abbreviated form of the word ... (1) 
1.12 According to the graph, does the cost of making calls influence most teens to  text? Give a reason for your answer. (1) 
1.13 What does the tallest bar in the graph suggest about teens? (2) 
1.14 In your view, is the inclusion of an image of a cellphone suitable in this visual?  Substantiate your answer. (2) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2 
Listening is an important skill. 
Read TEXT C below and list SEVEN points on how to be a good listener.
INSTRUCTIONS 

1. Your summary must be written in point form. 
2. List your SEVEN points in full sentences, using no more than 70 words. 
3. Number your sentences from 1 to 7. 
4. Write only ONE point per sentence. 
5. Use your OWN words as far as possible. 
6. Indicate the total number of words you have used in brackets at the end of your  summary. 

TEXT C 

 TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE 
QUESTION 3: ANALYSING AN ADVERTISEMENT 
Study the advertisement (TEXT D) below and answer the set questions. 
TEXT D  

 [Source: Essential, August 2015] 
3.1 Name the product being advertised. (1)
3.2 Refer to the headline.  
Why is the word, 'Spray', written in a larger font? (1)
3.3 Refer to the visual of a throat. 
Why does the advertiser include an image of a thorny stem? (2)
3.4 Refer to the words, 'Antiviral and antibacterial action'.  
Complete the sentence with a suitable word:  
The underlined part is called a … (1) 
3.5 Quote TWO consecutive words to prove that the advertised product is safe  to use. (1) 
3.6 Why would it be important to know that A.Vogel has been a 'Pioneer in  Natural Health – since 1923'? (1) 
3.7 How can the reader obtain more information about the advertised product? (1) 
3.8 Discuss whether the advertisement would convince you to buy this product. (2) [10]

QUESTION 4: ANALYSING A CARTOON 
Read the cartoon (TEXT E) below and answer the set questions.  
TEXT E  
 MADAM AND EVE 

 [Source: Pretoria News, 2 July 2016] 
Glossary: *emojis − small images or icons used to express ideas, emotions etc. in  electronic communication. 
NOTE: In this cartoon, the girl is Thandi and the woman is Mother Anderson. 
4.1 State ONE visual clue which indicates that Mother Anderson cannot see  Thandi. (1) 
4.2 What does Thandi do in Frame 2? (1)
4.3 What does Thandi expect from Mother Anderson in Frame 3? (1)
4.4 Refer to Frame 4. 
4.4.1 State TWO techniques that the cartoonist uses to show how  Mother Anderson closes the door. (2) 
4.4.2 Explain how the emoji reflects Thandi's feelings. (2)
4.4.3 Write the word 'entrepreneurial' as a noun. (1) 
4.5 Consider the cartoon as a whole and discuss whether Mother Anderson is  justified in her actions towards Thandi. (2) [10]

QUESTION 5: LANGUAGE AND EDITING SKILLS 
5.1 Read the passage (TEXT F) below, which has some deliberate errors, and  answer the set questions. 
TEXT F  

5.1.1 Correct the SINGLE error in each of the following sentences. Write  down ONLY the question numbers and the words you have  corrected. 

1. He does not look a day older then one hundred. (1)
2. But Admiral, the tortoise living at Mitchel Park Zoo, celebrated  his 105th birthday resently. (1)
3. Admiral arrived at Mitchell Park about 105 years ago, courtesy  of a unknown naval officer. (1)
4. He has found them in the Seychelles in 1915, according to  Mitchell Park archives. (1) 

5.1.2 Give the correct form of the word in brackets: Admiral has become a (celebrate) at Mitchell Park. (1)
5.1.3 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence: A period of one hundred years is known as a … 

1. decade. 
2. century. 
3. millennium. 
4. bicentenary. (1) 

5.1.4 Study the following sentence and give a synonym for the  word 'giant': 
He brought three giant tortoises to the park during World War I. (1)
5.1.5 Rewrite the following sentence as a question: 
The officer returned to claim his pets. (1)
5.1.6 Rewrite the following sentence in the passive voice: 
Admiral entertains children and adults. (1)
5.1.7 Study the following sentence: 
He also enjoys a nap in the pond when the weather is hot. 
Use a homophone for the word weather in a sentence of your own. (1)
5.1.8 Rewrite the following sentence in reported speech: 
She said, 'Admiral is the oldest tortoise in the country now and plays  a significant role in drawing tourists to the zoo.' (4)
5.2 Study the text (TEXT G) below and answer the questions. 
TEXT G  

[Source: The Citizen, 2 November 2016] 
5.2.1 Study the following sentence: 
I could supply the answer if you weren't so demanding.  

1. State the part of speech of both the underlined words.  (2)
2. Identify the punctuation mark used in the word: weren't.  (1) 

5.2.2 Provide the correct degree of comparison in the following sentence: Economics is (interesting) than Accounting. (1)
5.2.3 Rewrite the following sentence in the negative form: The students knew the answer. (1) 
5.2.4 Complete the following tag question. Write down only the missing  words. He teaches Economics, … …? (1) [20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL:  80

ENGLISH FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read this page carefully before you begin to answer the questions. 

1. Do NOT attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the TABLE OF  CONTENTS on the next page and mark the numbers of the questions set on  the texts you have studied this year. Read these questions carefully and  answer as per the instructions. 
2. This question paper consists of FOUR sections:
   SECTION A: Novel (35)
   SECTION B: Drama (35)
   SECTION C: Short stories (35)
   SECTION D: Poetry (35)
3. Answer TWO QUESTIONS in all, ONE question each from ANY TWO  sections.
   SECTION A: NOVEL
   Answer the question on the novel you have studied.
   SECTION B: DRAMA
   Answer the question on the drama you have studied.
   SECTION C: SHORT STORIES
   Answer the questions set on BOTH short stories.
   SECTION D: POETRY
   Answer the questions set on BOTH poems.
   Use the checklist on page 4 to assist you. 
4. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully. 
5. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
6. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
7. Suggested time management: Spend approximately 60 minutes on EACH  section.
8. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS

CHECKLIST 
NOTE:  

• Answer questions from ANY TWO sections.
• Tick (✔) the sections you have answered. 

NOTE: Ensure that you have answered questions on TWO sections only.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: NOVEL 
In this section, there are questions set on the following novels: 

• CRY, THE BELOVED COUNTRY by Alan Paton
• STRANGE CASE OF DR JEKYLL AND MR HYDE by Robert Louis Stevenson Answer

ALL the questions on the novel that you have studied. 
QUESTION 1: CRY, THE BELOVED COUNTRY 
Read the extracts from the novel below and answer the questions set on each.  The number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the expected  length of your answer. 
NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH extracts, i.e. QUESTION 1.1 AND  QUESTION 1.2. 
1.1 EXTRACT A 
[Stephen Kumalo arrives in Sophiatown, Johannesburg.] 

1.1.1 Stephen Kumalo finds that Mrs Lithebe's house is very different to  his house in Ndotsheni. Describe what Stephen Kumalo finds  different about Mrs Lithebe's house. (4)
1.1.2 Explain why the following statement is FALSE: Stephen Kumalo has visited Johannesburg many times. (1)
1.1.3 Why does Stephen Kumalo travel to Johannesburg? (2) 
1.1.4 Discuss TWO different aspects of human nature that  Stephen Kumalo encounters on arrival in Johannesburg. (2) 
1.1.5 Some of Stephen Kumalo's close family members have left  Ndotsheni for Johannesburg.  Why do the following members of his family leave Ndotsheni? 

(a) John Kumalo (1)
(b) Gertrude (1) 

1.1.6 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.6) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
While in Johannesburg, Stephen Kumalo spends much time with …  

A Mrs Ndlela. 
B Father Beresford. 
C Reverend Msimangu. 
D James Jarvis. (1) 

1.1.7 Refer to line 12 ('Come in, come … to greet you').  

(a) Identify the tone used by Reverend Msimangu in these lines. (1)
(b) Why is Reverend Msimangu's tone appropriate in these lines? (1) 

1.1.8 Do you think that Stephen Kumalo is able to survive on his own in  Johannesburg? Substantiate your answer. (3) 
AND

1.2 EXTRACT B 
[Stephen Kumalo goes up the mountain.] 

1.2.1 Explain why Stephen Kumalo makes this journey into the mountain. (2)
1.2.2 On which other occasion does Stephen Kumalo go to the mountain? (1)
1.2.3 Explain how 'the girl' becomes part of the Kumalo family. (2)
1.2.4 Discuss what this extract reveals about Stephen Kumalo's character. (2)
1.2.5 Refer to line 17 ('the bright laughing boy'). 

(a) Identify the figure of speech. (1) 
(b) Explain how this figure of speech adds to the description of  the boy. (2) 

1.2.6 Explain how Gertrude and Mrs Lithebe differ in character. (2)
1.2.7 Considering the novel as a whole, discuss the theme of forgiveness. (3) 
1.2.8 Discuss the suitability of Absalom's punishment. (3) [35]

QUESTION 2: STRANGE CASE OF DR JEKYLL AND MR HYDE 
Read the extracts from the novel below and answer the questions set on each. The  number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the expected length  of your answer. 
NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH extracts, i.e. QUESTION 2.1 AND  QUESTION 2.2. 
2.1 EXTRACT C 
[Mr Utterson knocks on Dr Jekyll's door.] 

2.1.1 Refer to the extract. 
Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  
Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (2.1.1) in the ANSWER BOOK. 
Mr Utterson is both a lawyer and a … of Dr Jekyll. 

A patient 
B cousin 
C friend 
D colleague (1)

2.1.2 In which city does Mr Utterson live? (1) 
2.1.3 What evidence is there in this extract that Dr Jekyll is a wealthy  man? State TWO points. (2)
2.1.4 What do the words, '… shall I give you a light' (line 4) suggest about  when Mr Utterson visits Dr Jekyll's house? (1) 
2.1.5 Refer to lines 4–5 ('Will you wait … in the dining-room?').

(a) Identify the tone used by Poole in these lines. (1)
(b) Why is Poole's tone appropriate in these lines? (1)

2.1.6 Refer to lines 9–13 ('But to-night there … on the roof'). 

(a) Identify the figure of speech in line 9 ('there was a shudder in  his blood'). (1) 
(b) Explain why this figure of speech is appropriate in this line. (2)

2.1.7 Refer to lines 15–16 ('I saw Mr Hyde … is from home?'). 

(a) How does the dissecting room (line 15) relate to the title of this  novel, Strange Case of Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde? (2) 
(b) Explain what Mr Utterson's question suggests about his  character. (2) 

2.1.8 How is it possible for Mr Hyde to have 'a key' (line 17) to Dr Jekyll's  house? (1) 
2.1.9 Discuss the relevance of the novel, Strange Case of Dr Jekyll and  Mr Hyde, in modern-day life. (3) 
AND
2.2 EXTRACT D  
[Dr Jekyll reveals the truth about Mr Hyde.] 

2.2.1 Earlier in the novel the maid witnesses Carew being murdered.  Describe what the maid reports to the police about what she has  witnessed. (4) 
2.2.2 In your OWN words, show how Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde differ in  character. (2) 
2.2.3 Give TWO reasons why Dr Jekyll makes a confession. (2) 
2.2.4 What evidence is there in this extract to prove the following  statement TRUE: Mr Hyde is a familiar figure at Dr Jekyll's house. (1)
2.2.5 Explain why Dr Jekyll pretends to be eating breakfast in line 16. (2) 
2.2.6 Considering the novel as a whole, discuss the theme of good  versus evil. (3) 
2.2.7 In your opinion, can Dr Jekyll be admired for confessing? Discuss  your view. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 35

SECTION B: DRAMA 
In this section, there are questions set on the following dramas: 

• MACBETH by William Shakespeare
• MY CHILDREN! MY AFRICA! by Athol Fugard 

Answer the question on the drama that you have studied. 
QUESTION 3: MACBETH 
Read the extracts from the play below and answer the questions set on each.  The number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the expected  length of your answer. 
NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH extracts, i.e. QUESTION 3.1 AND QUESTION 3.2. 
3.1 EXTRACT E 
[Lady Macbeth talks to Macbeth.] 

3.1.1 What prophecies do the witches make to Macbeth and Banquo  when they first meet them? (4) 
3.1.2

(a) Name the King of Scotland at this point in the play. (1) 
(b) Describe the events that lead to this person becoming the King  of Scotland. (2) 
(c) Who becomes the King of Scotland at the end of the play? (1) 

3.1.3 What does Lady Macbeth mean by, 'Nought's had, all's spent' (line 6)? (1) 
3.1.4 Explain why the following statement is FALSE: Malcolm attends Macbeth's coronation banquet. (1) 
3.1.5 Explain how Lady Macbeth and Macbeth differ in character in this  extract. (2) 
3.1.6 Refer to line 16 ('We have scorched the snake, not killed it'). 

(a) Identify the figure of speech in these lines. (1)
(b) Explain how this figure of speech reveals Macbeth's fear. (2) 

3.1.7 Discuss the relevance of the play, Macbeth, in modern-day life. (3)
AND
3.2 EXTRACT F 
[The Gentlewoman talks to the Doctor.] 

3.2.1 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (3.2.1) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
The Gentlewoman is Lady Macbeth's …  

A daughter. 
B sister. 
C attendant. 
D friend. (1)

3.2.2 Refer to lines 6–7 ('Lo you, here … her; stand close').
 If you were the director of this play, what tone of voice would you tell  the Gentlewoman to use while saying these lines? Give a reason for  your answer. (2)
3.2.3 Refer to lines 9–10 ('she has light by her continually'). Why does Lady Macbeth not want to be in darkness? (1) 
3.2.4 What does the Gentlewoman mean by, 'Ay, but their sense is shut' (line 12)? (1) 
3.2.5 What does this extract suggest about the Gentlewoman? (2)
3.2.6 Refer to line 17 ('Yet here's a spot'). Explain what the 'spot' is that Lady Macbeth refers to. (2)
3.2.7 Refer to lines 20–22 ('Out, damned spot! … soldier and afeard?'). What do these lines suggest about Lady Macbeth's state of mind at  this point in the play? (2) 
3.2.8 Explain how the theme of justice is illustrated in the play. (3) 
3.2.9 Consider the play as a whole. In your opinion, is Lady Macbeth  responsible for Macbeth's downfall? Discuss your view. (3) [35]

QUESTION 4: MY CHILDREN! MY AFRICA! 
Read the extracts from the play below and answer the set questions. The number of  marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the expected length of your  answer. 
NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH extracts, i.e. QUESTION 4.1 AND  QUESTION 4.2. 
4.1 EXTRACT G 
[A conversation between Isabel and Thami after the debating competition.] 

4.1.1 During the school debate Mr M interrupts Thami and Isabel to  remind them about how a debate should be conducted. What does  he tell them? (4)
4.1.2 Refer to line 1 ('I'm not sure about anything yet'). What is it that Thami is not sure of? (1)
4.1.3 Refer to line 3 ('It's got nothing to do with him'). If you were the director of this play, what tone of voice would you tell  Thami to use when saying these words? Explain your answer. (2)
4.1.4 Refer to line 4 ('But you're his favourite, aren't you?'). Give TWO reasons why Thami is Mr M's favourite. (2) 
4.1.5 After the debate, when Isabel is alone, she says that she has  'discovered a new world'. What does she mean by this? (2) 
4.1.6 Refer to line 19 ('You got a … How about that!') What does this line suggest about how Thami feels about Isabel's  school having a newspaper? (1) 
4.1.7 What does this extract reveal about Isabel's character? Explain your  answer. (2) 
4.1.8 Consider the play as a whole. Do you think Thami makes a wise  decision to participate in the student protest? Discuss your view. (3) 
AND 
4.2 EXTRACT H 
[Mr M is alone in Number One Classroom.] 

4.2.1 Explain why Mr M's reading of the attendance register is unusual. (2)
4.2.2 Refer to line 7 ('Is that why this silence is so ... heavy?').

(a) Identify the figure of speech in this line. (1)
(b) Explain the figure of speech in this line. (2) 

4.2.3 Quote FOUR consecutive words from the extract to show that the  following statement is TRUE: Mr M wants to teach his learners how to cope in this world. (1)
4.2.4 Refer to lines 12–13 ('Mr M and all ... useless, useless, useless!'). Discuss the theme, the power of words versus violence, that is  evident in this play. (3) 
4.2.5 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (4.2.5) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
Thami's mood in this extract reflects his ... 

1. relief.
2. happiness. 
3. anger. 
4. anxiety. (1) 

4.2.6 Refer to lines 19–22 ('Stop ringing that ... don't you remember?').

(a) Explain why Thami wants Mr M to stop ringing the bell. (2) 
(b) When did Thami consider the ringing of the school bell to be as  good as music? (1) 
(c) How does Thami plan to help Mr M? (1) 4.2.7 What eventually happens to Thami? (1) 

4.2.8 Discuss the relevance of the play, My Children! My Africa!, in  modern-day life. (3)  [35] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 35

SECTION C: SHORT STORIES 
In this section there are questions set on the following short stories: 

• 'TRANSFORMING MOMENTS' by Gcina Mhlophe 
• 'NEXT DOOR' by Kurt Vonnegut 

QUESTION 5 
Read the following extracts from the TWO short stories and answer the questions set  on each. The number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the  expected length of your answer. 
NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH extracts, i.e. QUESTION 5.1 AND  QUESTION 5.2. 
5.1 'TRANSFORMING MOMENTS' 
EXTRACT I 
[The narrator has returned from the village with Father Fikeni.] 

5.1.1 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (5.1.1) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
The main reason Father Fikeni takes the narrator to the village is to  visit the … 

1. tribal chief. 
2. community elders. 
3. church minister. 
4. praise poet. (1)

5.1.2 Using your OWN words, explain why the following statement is  FALSE: The girls at school approve of the rugby boy's interest in the  speaker. (1) 
5.1.3 Earlier in the story, the narrator was popular among some of her  classmates. Give a reason for her popularity. (1) 
5.1.4 State the benefits that the narrator's love for reading has in her life. (2)
5.1.5 Refer to lines 2–4 ('I've never had … their first baby'). 

(a) Identify the narrator's tone in these lines. (1)
(b) Why does the narrator use this tone? (1)

5.1.6 Refer to lines 8–9 ('My voice sounded … a special voice'). Explain whether the narrator's voice was always considered  'a special voice'. (2) 
5.1.7 Consider the story as a whole. How does the narrator's relationship  with Bulelwa differ from her relationship with her other classmates? (2) 
5.1.8 Discuss the theme of confidence that is evident in this short story. (3) 5.1.9 Discuss the appropriateness of the title of this short story. (3)
AND 
5.2 'NEXT DOOR' 
EXTRACT J 
[Mrs Harger returns home.]

5.2.1 Outline the events that lead to Rose returning home. (4)
5.2.2 Why does the policeman question Paul? (1)
5.2.3 Refer to lines 1–3 ('Before Paul could … "Lem! Lem, baby." ').  Quote SEVEN consecutive words which indicate that the woman is  shouting. (1) 
5.2.4 Refer to lines 4–6 (She barged into … arms around him'). What do the words 'barged', 'bumping' and 'tearing' suggest about  the manner in which Rose runs to Lem? Explain your answer. (2) 
5.2.5 Refer to lines 9–10 ('Rose, Rose, Rose … leave me again'). What does Lem's response to Rose reveal about his character? Give a reason for your answer. (2) 
5.2.6 Explain the irony of Rose's words in lines 12–13 ('Men are just lost  without women!'). (2) 
5.2.7 Refer to lines 16–17 ('The ball of money … of a watermelon').

(a) Identify the figure of speech used in these lines. (1) 
(b) How does the figure of speech add to the description of Paul's  feelings at this point? (2) 

5.2.8 Refer to the story as a whole. In your opinion, are Paul's parents irresponsible in leaving him home alone? Discuss your view. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION C: 35

SECTION D: POETRY  
In this section there are questions set on the following poems: 

• 'Mid-term break' by Seamus Heaney
• 'Alexandra' by Mongane Wally Serote 

NOTE: Answer the questions set on BOTH poems, i.e. QUESTION 6.1 AND  QUESTION 6.2. 
QUESTION 6 
6.1 Read the poem carefully and then answer the questions which follow. The  number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the  expected length of your answer.

6.1.1 Refer to stanza 1.  

(a) Why was the speaker waiting in the sick bay? State TWO  points. (2) 
(b) Quote FOUR consecutive words which indicate the speaker  waited in the sick bay for a long time. (1) 

6.1.2 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (6.1.2) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
When the speaker went home, he met his father in/on the … 

1. lounge. 
2. bedroom. 
3. verandah. 
4. kitchen. (1) 

6.1.3 Give the TWO meanings of 'a hard blow' in line 6. (2) 
6.1.4 Identify the tone the strangers would have used in line 11 ('Whispers  informed strangers I was the eldest'). (1) 
6.1.5 Why does the speaker see his brother for 'the first time in six weeks' (line 18)? (1) 
6.1.6 Refer to line 20 ('He lay in … in his cot'). 

(a) Identify the figure of speech used in this line. (1)
(b) Explain why this figure of speech is appropriate. (2)

6.1.7 How old was the young boy who had passed away? (1)
6.1.8 Discuss how the theme of fragility of life is evident in this poem. (3)
6.1.9 Discuss the relevance of the title of the poem, 'Mid-term break'. (3)
AND
6.2 Read the poem carefully and then answer the questions which follow.  The number of marks allocated to each question serves as a guide to the  expected length of your answer.

6.2.1 Wally Serote is a protest poet.  

(a) In which country is this poem set? (1)
(b) What is Wally Serote protesting about in this poem? (2) 

6.2.2 Explain the point that the speaker is making in lines 7–8 ('Just as we  … can't choose mothers'). (2) 
6.2.3 Refer to lines 10–11 ('And Alexandra, My … knotted to you').

(a) Identify the figure of speech used in these lines. (1)
(b) Explain why this figure of speech is appropriate. (2) 

6.2.4 State THREE challenges that the speaker experiences in stanza 3. (3)
6.2.5 Refer to lines 38–39 ('When all these … back to you').  Explain what the speaker means in these lines. (2)
6.2.6 Provide the literal interpretation of 'rubble' (line 40). (1) 
6.2.7 Consider the poem as a whole. In your opinion, does the speaker  succeed in conveying his love for Alexandra? Discuss your view. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION D:  35
GRAND TOTAL:  70

ENGLISH FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
FEBRUARY/MARCH 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE SECTIONS:
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Longer Transactional Text (30)
   SECTION C:  Shorter Transactional Text (20) 
2. Answer ONE question from EACH section. 
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. You must plan (e.g. using a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words), edit and  proofread your work. The plan must appear BEFORE each text. 
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line  through all planning. 
7. You are strongly advised to spend approximately:
   • 80 minutes on SECTION A
   • 40 minutes on SECTION B 
   • 30 minutes on SECTION C 
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
9. Give each response a suitable title/heading. 
10. Do NOT consider the title/heading when doing a word count. 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 

• Write an essay of between 250 and 300 words in length on ONE of the following  topics. 
• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE of the essay you have chosen correctly, for  example 1.1 An escape.
• Give your own title if your choice is QUESTION 1.7.1 OR 1.7.2.
• Spend approximately 80 minutes on this section. 

1.1 An escape [50]
1.2 We have been friends since Grade 1. [50] 
1.3 The home in which I grew up [50]   
1.4 'Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.' – Confucius Discuss this statement. [50]
1.5 We are responsible for what future generations will inherit from us. [50]
1.6 Freedom of speech is both a right and a responsibility.  Do you agree? [50] 
1.7 Choose ONE of the pictures below and write an essay on a topic that comes  to mind. Write the question number (1.7.1 OR 1.7.2) and give your essay a  suitable title.  
NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you  have chosen. 
1.7.1 

 [Source: www.google.com] [50]
1.7.2 

 [Source: www.dreamstime.com] [50]

  TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to ONE of the following transactional writing texts.
• The body of your response should be between 120 and 150 words in length.  Write down the NUMBER and the HEADING of the text you have chosen, for  example 2.1 FRIENDLY LETTER.
• Pay particular attention to format, language and register.
• Spend approximately 40 minutes on this section. 

2.1 FRIENDLY LETTER 
Your friend has won a gold medal at a provincial sports tournament. Write a  letter to congratulate him/her on the achievement. [30] 
2.2 LETTER OF APPLICATION 
A production company is filming a new television series in your area. The  company has placed an advertisement for the position of a general assistant  in the local newspaper.  
Write a letter of application to the production manager applying for this  position. [30] 
2.3 INFORMAL REPORT 
As a volunteer at an orphanage, you organised a project to collect food items  for the children. The director of the orphanage has asked you to submit an  informal report at the end of this project. 
Write out the report. [30]
2.4 INTERVIEW 
Your grandmother is very ill and requires home-based care. She has asked  you to conduct an interview with a private nurse for the position of a caregiver.  
Write out the interview that takes place between you and the private nurse. NOTE: Use the dialogue format. [30]

TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C: SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 3 

• Choose ONE of the following topics and write a short text. 
• The body of your response should be between 80 and 100 words in length.
• Write down the NUMBER and the HEADING of the text you have chosen, for  example 3.1 INVITATION CARD.
• Spend approximately 30 minutes on this section. 

3.1 INVITATION CARD 
Your friend will soon be moving to another province to study. You wish to  organise a farewell party for him/her.  
Write out the content of the invitation card that you will send to his/her friends.  NOTE: Do NOT include illustrations or drawings. [20]
3.2 DIARY ENTRIES 
You have just started a new casual job.  
Write TWO diary entries. The first entry must indicate how you felt before you  went to work and the second entry must express how you felt after your first  day at work. [20] 
3.3 DIRECTIONS 
You are in a shopping centre and a passer-by asks you for directions to the  local post office. Give him/her directions from the shopping centre to the post  office. 
You must include landmarks, distances and specific directions in your  response. 
NOTE: Do NOT include sketches or maps. [20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20
GRAND TOTAL: 100