GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

ANNEXURE 

FIGURE 1.1: ANTICYCLONES 

 [Source: http://www.aelsnet.net/eportal/pluginfile.php/412/mod_imscp/content/2/influence   of_pressure_systems.htm] 
FIGURE 1.2: RIVER CAPTURE 

 [Adapted from https://www.bing.com/images/search=landforms+of+stream+capture]
FIGURE 1.3: MID-LATITUDE CYCLONES 

 [Source: South African weather services] 
FIGURE 1.4: VALLEY CLIMATES 

 [Adapted from http://apollo.lsc.vsc.edu/classes/met130/notes/chapter3/drainage3.html]
FIGURE 1.5: DRAINAGE DENSITY 

 [Adapted from Google Images] 
FIGURE 1.6: CHANGING CROSS-PROFILE OF THE VALLEY ALONG A RIVER'S  COURSE 

 [Adapted from http://www.geography.learnontheinternet.co.uk/topics/longprofile.html]
FIGURE 2.1: TROPICAL CYCLONE CROSS-SECTION 

 [Source: https://i.stack.imgur.com/86n58.png] 
FIGURE 2.3: LINE THUNDERSTORMS OVER SOUTH AFRICA  clouds

 [Adapted from https://www.bing.com/images/search?=  line+thunderstorms+in+south+africa&simid] 
FIGURE 2.4: POLLUTION DOME 

 [Source: http://www.metlink.org/secondary/key-stage-] 
FIGURE 2.5: RIVER REJUVENATION 

 [Source: https://alevelrivers.weebly.com/rejuvination.html] 

FIGURE 2.6: DEFORESTATION AND ITS IMPACT ON RIVER MANAGEMENT 

FIGURE 3.2: SECTOR COMPOSITION OF SOUTH AFRICA'S ECONOMY, 2017 

 [Examiner's bar graph, Statistics from STATS SA, 2017]
FIGURE 3.3: LEVEL AND RATE OF URBANISATION IN SOUTH AFRICA

[Source: https://www.statista/com/statistics/455931/urbanization-in-south-africa/ and  https://tradingeconomics.com/south-africa/urban-population-growth-annual-percent-wb-data.html]
FIGURE 3.4: RURAL-URBAN FRINGE 

[Adapted from https://newellta.weebly.com/urban-models.html] 
FIGURE 3.5: BEEF FARMING

FIGURE 3.6: EAST LONDON IDZ (ELIDZ) 

FIGURE 4.1: STREET PATTERNS 

[Adapted from Google Earth]
FIGURE 4.2: GOLD MINING STATISTICS FOR 2017 

[Adapted from http://www.kitco.com/ind/Media/images/South_Africa.jpeg and  http://www.statssa.gov.za/wp-content/uploads/2018/02/Infographic_v04-1] 
FIGURE 4.3: POOR PUBLIC TRANSPORT AS AN EXAMPLE OF AN URBAN  ECONOMIC INJUSTICE

FIGURE 4.4: WATER AS SOCIAL JUSTICE ISSUE IN RURAL AREAS

[Source: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DnIZOsH7ezU] 
FIGURE 4.5: PWV/GAUTENG INDUSTRIAL REGION

FIGURE 4.6: ROLE OF INTERNATIONAL TRADE IN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

[Source: www.google/Business Day; 26 January 2017]

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR questions. 
2. Answer ANY THREE questions of 75 marks each. 
3. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE. 
4. Leave a line between subsections of questions answered. 
5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page. 
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.  
7. Number the answers in the centre of the line. 
8. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK. 
9. Draw fully labelled diagrams when instructed to do so.
10. Answer in FULL SENTENCES, except where you have to state, name, identify  or list. 
11. Units of measurement MUST be indicated in your final answers,  e.g. 1 020 hPa, 14 °C or 45 m.
12. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Refer to FIGURE 1.1 which shows anticyclones over South Africa. Choose the  correct word(s) from those given in brackets. Write only the word(s) next to the  question numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK. 
1.1.1 Pressure cell A is situated further (north/south) in winter. 
1.1.2 Pressure cell B is named the (South Atlantic/South Indian) High Pressure Cell. 
1.1.3 When isobars are elongated away from pressure cell B they form a  (ridge/trough). 
1.1.4 The pressure reading at C is approximately (1 012 hPa/1 016 hPa).
1.1.5 The wind speed at weather station D is (20 knots/10 knots). 
1.1.6 The wind direction at weather station D is (north-east/north-west). 
1.1.7 Pressure cells A, B and C represent the (equatorial low/subtropical high)  pressure belt. (7 x 1) (7) 
1.2 FIGURE 1.2 shows sketches (1 to 4) based on river capture. 
1.2.1 Refer to sketch 1. Which one, river A or river B, is likely to be the captor  stream? 
1.2.2 Name the climatic factor causing river B in sketch 2 to erode at a faster  rate. 
1.2.3 What type of erosion caused the watershed to move towards  river A in sketch 2?  
1.2.4 Refer to sketch 3. Which one, river A or river B, is the captured stream?
1.2.5 Refer to sketch 4. Name the feature of river capture at C.  
1.2.6 Refer to sketch 4. Name the feature of river capture at D. 
1.2.7 What is the term used to describe river A which has been reduced in  volume in sketch 4? 
1.2.8 Does river A or river B flow at a lower altitude in sketch 2? (8 x 1) (8) 
1.3 Study FIGURE 1.3 showing mid-latitude cyclones on a synoptic weather map of  southern Africa. 
1.3.1 Give the term used to describe the linked mid-latitude cyclones. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.2 What evidence suggests that mid-latitude cyclone A is the oldest? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.3 Why is front D NOT associated with heavy rain? (1 x 2) (2)
1.3.4 What causes the dissipation of mid-latitude cyclones? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining the weather  conditions that will be experienced by a tourist visiting Cape Town with  the approach of a cold front. (4 x 2) (8) 
1.4 Study FIGURE 1.4 showing a diagram on valley climates. 
1.4.1 Is the slope wind at X an anabatic or a katabatic wind? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2 Other than the label, what evidence indicates that B is the thermal belt? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.3 What is the term used to describe an increase in the temperature as the height increases in the valley? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.4 Explain why slope wind X will be more intense in winter. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.4.5 Account for the low temperature that is likely to be experienced on the  valley floor during winter. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.4.6 How will farmers have to adapt their farming techniques (methods) due  to the temperature change on the valley floor? (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5 FIGURE 1.5 shows a river system with a low drainage density. 
1.5.1 Give evidence to suggest that the river system has a low drainage  density. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.2 Describe TWO factors that may have resulted in a low drainage density. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5.3 How will an increased drainage density impact on the existing stream  order at A? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.5.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines discussing how human  activities along the river's course could increase the drainage density of  the drainage basin. (4 x 2) (8)
1.6 FIGURE 1.6 shows the changing cross-profile of the valley along the river's  course. 
1.6.1 In which course is the source of the river? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.2 Name TWO elements of the cross-profile that changed from the upper to  the lower course in FIGURE 1.6. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.6.3 Differentiate between the fluvial processes that shaped the cross profiles of the upper course and lower course of the river. (2 x 2) (4)
1.6.4 Describe the reasons for the change in the shape of the cross-profile of the middle course. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.6.5 Explain why the shape of the cross-profile in the upper course of the river will make it the most suitable place to build a dam. (2 x 2) (4) [75] 

QUESTION 2 
2.1 Study FIGURE 2.1, a cross-sectional view of a tropical cyclone. 
Choose the correct word(s) from those given in brackets which will make each  statement geographically CORRECT. Write only the word(s) next to the question  numbers (2.1.1 to 2.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK. 
2.1.1 The (eye/vortex) at A is characterised by descending air. 
2.1.2 The area at B is an area of (high/low) air pressure. 
2.1.3 (Light/Heavy) rainfall occurs at C. 
2.1.4 The vertical movements of air at D are known as (updraughts/  down draughts). 
2.1.5 The upper air at E is (converging/diverging). 
2.1.6 F is associated with (low/high) air pressure. 
2.1.7 The graph (G) shows air (pressure/temperature) with the passage of the  tropical cyclone. 
2.1.8 Surface (air temperature/wind speed) is depicted by graph H. (8 x 1) (8)
2.2 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the fluvial landform description  in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question numbers  (2.2.1 to 2.2.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 2.2.8 I. 

2.3 FIGURE 2.3 shows line thunderstorms over South Africa. 
2.3.1 Name the front over the interior of the country where line thunderstorms  originate. (1 x 1) (1)   
2.3.2 What evidence suggests that line thunderstorms are illustrated (shown)?  (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.3 Why are line thunderstorms generally associated with summer?   (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.4 What is the source of moisture for the formation of line thunderstorms?   (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.5 Why is there usually a thicker band of clouds to the east of the front?   (2 x 2) (4) 
2.3.6 Explain why the weather conditions associated with line thunderstorms  are more severe than isolated (normal) thunderstorms. (2 x 2) (4)
2.4 Refer to FIGURE 2.4 showing a pollution dome over a South African city.
2.4.1 What is a pollution dome? (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Why is a pollution dome associated with an urban area? (1 x 2) (2)
2.4.3 Explain why the pollution dome is more concentrated at night. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining how  pollution domes increase the maintenance costs of the built environment  for people living in the city. (4 x 2) (8) 
2.5 Study FIGURE 2.5 which illustrates river rejuvenation.  
2.5.1 Define the term river rejuvenation. (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 Identify the condition that resulted in river rejuvenation. (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.3 Name ONE likely fluvial feature that can form at the knickpoint along the  river profile. (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.4 Explain the impact of river rejuvenation on the grading of a river.   (2 x 2) (4) 
2.5.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines elaborating on the  changes that will occur in the fluvial features found in the illustrated  course of the river as a result of river rejuvenation. (4 x 2) (8) 
2.6 Refer to FIGURE 2.6, an extract based on the impact of deforestation on river management. 
2.6.1 What is deforestation? (1 x 1) (1)
2.6.2 

1. By which year is it expected that almost all tropical forests will be  lost? (1 x 1) (1)
2. The size of which province can be compared to the total area of  forests being lost annually? (1 x 1) (1) 

2.6.3 Name TWO negative consequences of deforestation on river systems.   (2 x 2) (4) 
2.6.4 Suggest TWO measures that can be put in place by the government and  non-governmental organisations (NGOs) to manage river systems at risk  due to deforestation. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.6.5 Discuss the negative impact of poor river management practices on South Africaꞌs future water supply. (2 x 2) (4) [75]

SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN  ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 
QUESTION 3 
3.1 Choose ONE word/term from the list below that matches a description of  settlement patterns or shapes. Write only the word/term next to the question  numbers (3.1.1 to 3.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

3.1.1 Shape of settlements located along a narrow canal  
3.1.2 Settlement shape that develops along many main roads which radiate in  different directions from a central point 
3.1.3 Shape of settlement located along a harbour  
3.1.4 Settlement shape that resulted from houses that are grouped around a  market square 
3.1.5 Settlement pattern that resulted from houses being close together
3.1.6 Settlement shape where two major roads intersect 
3.1.7 Settlement pattern that resulted when houses are far apart from each  other 
3.1.8 Settlement shape where a secondary road meets with a main road   (8 x 1) (8) 
3.2 Refer to FIGURE 3.2 depicting the sector composition of the South African  economy in 2017.  
Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (3.2.1 to 3.2.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 3.2.8 A. 
3.2.1 The total value of goods and services produced in a country in one year:  

1. GNP
2. GDP
3. GPP
4. RDP

3.2.2 Which tertiary activity contributed the most to the South African economy? 

1. General government services 
2. Manufacturing 
3. Trade, catering and accommodation 
4. Finance, real estate and business services 

3.2.3 … form(s) part of the tertiary sector of the economy. 

1. Agriculture, forestry and fishing 
2. Electricity, gas and water 
3. Mining and quarrying 
4. Manufacturing 

3.2.4 Name the category that contributed the least to the primary sector  in 2017: 

1. Mining and quarrying 
2. Construction 
3. Transport, storage and communication 
4. Agriculture, forestry, fishing 

3.2.5 This category dominated the secondary sector in 2017: 

1. General government services 
2. Manufacturing 
3. Trade, catering and accommodation
4. Finance, real estate and business services 

3.2.6 Which tertiary activity contributed the least to the South African economy  in 2017? 

1. Personal services 
2. General government services 
3. Electricity, gas and water 
4. Transport, storage and communication 

3.2.7 What percentage did the tertiary sector contribute to the South African  economy in 2017? 

1. 10% 
2. 25% 
3. 77% 
4. 91% (7 x 1) (7)

3.3 FIGURE 3.3 shows bar graphs indicating the level and rate of urbanisation in  South Africa between 2006 and 2016. 
3.3.1 Define the term urbanisation. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.2 State the relationship between the level and the rate of urbanisation  between 2006 and 2016. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.3 Discuss TWO physical factors in the rural area that could have  contributed to the rate of urbanisation shown in FIGURE 3.3. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.3.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines discussing the reasons  why the rate and level of urbanisation has led to increased protests  against service delivery in urban areas. (4 x 2) (8) 
3.4 FIGURE 3.4 shows the rural-urban fringe marked as A. 
3.4.1 What is the rural-urban fringe? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2 State TWO urban land uses that are evident in the rural-urban fringe (A).   (2 x 1) (2) 
3.4.3 Give TWO reasons why the rural-urban fringe is becoming more urban  in nature. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4.4 Why is the rural-urban fringe an attractive location for the gated  community (secure neighbourhood with security guards and controlled  access)? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4.5 The demand for housing is growing rapidly and developers are looking  at the rural-urban fringe as a solution for the shortage of building space.  Suggest TWO possible objections to planned housing developments in  the rural-urban fringe. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.5 Refer to FIGURE 3.5, an extract on South Africa’s beef industry. 
3.5.1 Which country had the highest exportation of beef in 2016? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.2 Quote evidence from the extract that suggests that the beef industry is  growing in South Africa. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.3 Refer to the statement below. By exporting higher quality beef, our industry can protect itself from  shocks that result in reduced profits. 

1. Why does the exportation of low quality beef reduce profits?   (1 x 1) (1)
2. Suggest how farmers can produce higher quality beef. (2 x 2) (4) 

3.5.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining the factors preventing South Africa from being competitive with other top beef  exporters. (4 x 2) (8)
3.6 Read the extract in FIGURE 3.6 referring to the East London IDZ. 
3.6.1 In which province is the East London IDZ located? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2 Give TWO positive impacts of the East London IDZ identified in  FIGURE 3.6. (2 x 1) (2) 
3.6.3 How did the development of the East London IDZ improve the  infrastructure of the province? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.4 Give TWO incentives that the provincial government could have offered  to attract investment to the East London IDZ. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.5 Explain why it is more beneficial for the economy of the province in  which ELIDZ is situated if companies focus on export orientated manufacturing. (2 x 2) (4) [75] 

QUESTION 4 
4.1 Refer to FIGURE 4.1 on different street patterns. Match the descriptions below  with street patterns A, B or C. Choose the answer and write only the letter  A, B or C next to the question numbers (4.1.1 to 4.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK,  e.g. 4.1.8 A. You may choose the same letter more than once. 
4.1.1 Commonly found in the oldest parts of South African cities 
4.1.2 Transport routes radiate from a central point 
4.1.3 Streets intersect at right angles and planning is made easy 
4.1.4 Associated with ancient cities with ring roads as a feature 
4.1.5 Associated with new urban developments 
4.1.6 Can result in traffic congestion 
4.1.7 Suburbs with this street pattern will have irregular roads for the smooth  flow of traffic (7 x 1) (7) 
4.2 Refer to FIGURE 4.2 showing statistics on gold mining in January 2017.
4.2.1 Name the province where the most gold is mined in South Africa. 
4.2.2 Which gold mine in Gauteng produces the most gold per ounce (oz) in  South Africa? 
4.2.3 Name the mining company that produced the most gold. 
4.2.4 Name the country with the highest production of gold in the world.
4.2.5 What is the ranking of South Africa in terms of gold production in the  world? 
4.2.6 Calculate the contribution that Africa made to the world's gold production  in January 2017. 
4.2.7 At the end of which year did South Africa’s gold production drop to its  lowest point? 
4.2.8 Is the most recent production of gold in South Africa showing an  increasing or decreasing trend? (8 x 1) (8) 
4.3 Read the extract in FIGURE 4.3 referring to poor public transport as an  economic injustice in South Africa. 
4.3.1 Name the type of public transport system highlighted in the extract.   (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2 Give ONE reason why the poor public transport system named in  QUESTION 4.3.1 is considered to be an economic injustice. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.3 What drastic measure has government taken to solve the taxi crisis?   (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.4 Why does the taxi industry transport 15 million commuters daily? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.5 Why are taxi drivers against new taxi businesses such as Uber and  Taxify? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.6 Discuss TWO possible solutions that government could implement to  reduce taxi violence. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4 FIGURE 4.4 shows water as a social justice issue in rural areas. 
4.4.1 How was water transported in rural areas prior to the invention of the  water wheel shown in FIGURE 4.4? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.2 How has the water wheel by Wello changed access to water in rural  areas? (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.3 What role can access to water in rural areas play in reducing poverty?   (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.4 Give a reason for the poor water infrastructure in rural areas of South Africa. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines suggesting sustainable  solutions to improve access to water in rural areas. (4 x 2) (8)
4.5 Read the extract in FIGURE 4.5 based on the PWV/Gauteng Industrial Region. 
4.5.1 Quote evidence from the article to support the statement that the  PWV/Gauteng Industrial Region is a core industrial region. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.2 Discuss ONE factor that has contributed to the PWV/Gauteng Industrial  Region being a preferred destination for international investors. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.5.3 Gauteng's manufacturing sector is a major market for copper. 

1. Why is the Phalaborwa SDI the main supplier of copper to  Gauteng? (1 x 2)  (2)
2. How will the Phalaborwa SDI benefit from strengthening its trading  links with Gauteng? (1 x 2) (2) 

4.5.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining how energy  provision and labour will become major challenges that the  PWV/Gauteng Industrial Region will experience in the processing of  copper in the next three years. (4 x 2) (8) 
4.6 Refer to the cartoon in FIGURE 4.6 showing the role of international trade in the  South African economy. 
4.6.1 What is international trade? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.2 Name the product that is being imported into South Africa in  large quantities. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.3 Which government department is represented as the referee in the  cartoon? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.4 Explain why the cartoon suggests that the fight cannot be nice, clean  and fair. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.6.5 Name ONE way in which cheap imports negatively impact on the GDP of South Africa. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.6.6 Why are cheap imports allowed into South Africa despite its negative  impact on the economy of South Africa? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.6.7 Suggest TWO possible measures to reduce South Africaꞌs reliance (dependence) on cheap imports. (2 x 2) (4) [75] 

  TOTAL: 225

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

RESOURCE MATERIAL

1. An extract from topographic map 2930CB PIETERMARITZBURG. 
2. Orthophoto map 2930 CB 8 PIETERMARITZBURG. 
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces on  the cover page. 
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper. 
3. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2930CB PIETERMARITZBURG) and an orthophoto map (2930 CB 8 PIETERMARITZ BURG) of a part of the mapped area.
4. You must hand the topographic map and the orthophoto map to the invigilator at  the end of this examination session.
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough work  and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper. 
6. Show ALL calculations and use the formulae provided, where applicable. Marks  will be allocated for these.
7. Indicate the unit of measurement in the final answer of calculations, e.g.  10 km; 2,1 cm. 
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
9. You may use a magnifying glass.
10. The area demarcated in RED on the topographic map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
11. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographic map:
    ENGLISH 
    • Aerodrome 
    • Diggings 
    • Canal
    • Firebreak 
    • Golf Course 
    • Hiking Trail 
    • Hospital 
    • River 
    • Sewerage Works 
    • Waterworks 

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2930CB  PIETERMARITZBURG) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.  Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose  the answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question. 
1.1 Pietermaritzburg is the capital city of … 

1. Mpumalanga.
2. KwaZulu-Natal.
3. Free State.
4. Limpopo.  

1.2 The harbour closest to Pietermaritzburg is … 

1. Richards Bay.
2. Port Elizabeth.
3. Durban.
4. Cape Town. 

1.3 If you travel along the N3 in a north-westerly direction you will reach the  town/city of …  

1. New Hanover.
2. Donnybrook.
3. Merrivale.
4. Harrismith. 

1.4 The true bearing of spot height 1031 (K) in block B6 from trigonometrical station  263 (J) in block D7 on the topographic map is … 

1. 341°
2. 161°
3. 140°
4. 19° 

1.5 The economic activity at U in block A12 is a ... activity. 

1. primary
2. secondary
3. tertiary
4. quaternary 

1.6 The land-use zone at 1 on the orthophoto map is the …  

1. CBD.
2. transition zone.
3. green belt.
4. rural-urban fringe.

1.7 The human-made feature at 2 on the orthophoto map is a … 

1. veterinary clinic.
2. townhouse complex.
3. shopping centre.
4. office park. 

1.8 The slope at line 3 on the orthophoto map is … 

1. concave.
2. convex.
3. stepped.
4. uniform. 

1.9 The main human-made factor that influenced the site of the farmstead at L in  block B9 on the topographic map is … 

1. the other road.
2. a market.
3. a reservoir.
4. flat land. 

1.10 The stream/drainage pattern that dominates area M in block B10 and block B11 on the topographic map is a … pattern. 

1. centripetal.
2. radial.
3. rectangular.
4. trellis. 

1.11 The dominant street pattern in block G2 on the topographic map is … 

1. radial.
2. unplanned irregular.
3. grid iron.
4. planned irregular. 

1.12 The feature controlling the amount of water flowing through the canal in  block H8 on the topographic map: 

1. Bridge
2. Buildings
3. Weir
4. Slope

1.13 Swartkop in block F1 on the topographic map is a … 

1. butte.
2. mesa.
3. pointed butte.
4. conical hill. 

1.14 The general direction of flow of the river in the valley represented by the curved  line 4 on the orthophoto map: 

1. North
2. West
3. East
4. South 

1.15 The distance between T in block A12 and New Hanover on the topographic map  is … kilometres. 

1. 0,2
2. 22
3. 20,2
4. 2 (15 x 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 A tourist visiting Town Hill in Pietermaritzburg requires specific information  regarding its location. 
2.1.1 State the topographic map index/code of Pietermaritzburg.  (1 x 1) (1) 
2.1.2 Determine the grid reference/co-ordinates of Town Hill at point N  in block F7 on the topographic map.   (2 x 1) (2) 
2.1.3 The tourist wants to hike the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail in block F6  using a compass. Calculate the magnetic declination for 2018. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. Clearly indicate the  unit of measurement in your final answer.  
Difference in years: __________________________________________

Mean annual change: ________________________________________

Total change: _______________________________________________ 

Magnetic declination for 2018: __________________________________    (5 x 1) (5) 
2.2 Refer to the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail in block F6 on the topographic map. 
2.2.1 State the orthophoto map index/code that a tourist will use when hiking the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail.   (1 x 1) (1)
2.2.2 Calculate the average gradient between contour line O (height 820 m) and  the trigonometrical station at P on the topographic map. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.   (5 x 1) (5) 

• Formula: Average gradient  =   vertical interval (VI)      
                                               horizontal equivalent (HE) 

2.2.3 Describe the curved route of the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail from its  start at O to the trigonometrical station at World's View.   (2 x 1) (2)
2.3 Refer to benchmark 1060.9 at Q in block D4 and spot height 1106 at R in  block C6 on the topographic map. The cross-sections below represent the line  between Q and R. 

2.3.1 Match cross-sections X and Y with the vertical exaggerations below.

• 25 times: __________________________________________________
• 6,25 times: _________________________________________________  (2 x 1) (2) 

2.3.2 Explain how the vertical exaggeration of cross-sections would make  interpretation of the landscape easier.   (2 x 1) (2) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 The bottom of the valley at area M on the topographic map experiences frost in  the early hours of the morning during winter.  
3.1.1 Name the local/tertiary wind that is responsible for the formation of frost. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.2 Explain how the wind named in QUESTION 3.1.1 causes frost.  (2 x 2) (4) 
3.2 Refer to slope 5 (low-income residential area) and slope 6 (high-income  residential area) on the orthophoto map. 
3.2.1 Explain how aspect of slope influenced the site of the high-income  residential area at 6. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.2.2 Give ONE reason, evident on the orthophoto map, that influenced the  location of the low-income residential area at slope 5.  (1 x 2) (2) 
3.2.3 Suggest how natural vegetation could have influenced the land values of  residential areas 5 or 6.  (1 x 2) (2)
3.3 Refer to Mabane River and the Gordon Falls in block H2 on the topographic  map. Directly upstream of the Gordon Falls the river meanders and directly  downstream of Gordon Falls, the river follows a straight path. Explain the  reasons for the difference in the stream channel patterns of the Mabane River,  as stated above.   (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4 Is the shopping mall at 7 on the orthophoto map a neighbourhood shopping  centre or a regional shopping centre? Give a reason for your answer. 
Answer: _________________________________________________________ Reason: _________________________________________________________  (1 + 2) (3) 
3.5 Are the industries at Willowton at 8 on the orthophoto map market-orientated or  raw material-orientated? Give a reason for your answer. 
Answer: _________________________________________________________ Reason: _________________________________________________________  (1 + 2) (3)
3.6 The quarry at S in block D4 on the topographic map is situated next to the  residential area of Leonard. Suggest ONE social justice and ONE social injustice  that the people of Leonard could experience due to the quarry.  
Social justice: _____________________________________________________

Social injustice: ___________________________________________________ (2 x 2) (4) [25] 

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to block D8 on the topographic map. 
4.1.1 Name the type of vector data used in block D8 to indicate the secondary  road. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.1.2 Explain the relevance of using vector data on the topographic map. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.2 Refer to the topographic map and orthophoto map.  
4.2.1 Is scale an example of attribute or spatial data? (1 x 1) (1)
4.2.2 Explain the relevance of scale when facing a geographical query/problem,  e.g. a possible veld fire in block D8 on the topographic map.  (1 x 2) (2) 
4.2.3 How can the scale of the topographic map and orthophoto map be  manipulated in order to make data integration of these two maps easier?  (1 x 2) (2) 
4.3 Refer to the topographic map and orthophoto map. The statistics below refer to selected suburbs in Pietermaritzburg and the percentage (%) increase in crime  levels from 2015 to 2016. 

[Adapted from SAPS crime statistics 2015–16 by Theuns Kruger, Graphic 24] 
4.3.1 Name ONE way in which the data above could have been collected.  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2 Is the information in the table above primary data or secondary data?  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.3 Which type of crime has shown the highest percentage increase in these  suburbs? (1 x 1) (1)
4.3.4 Explain why it is important for the well-being of the community of  Pietermaritzburg to analyse these statistics. (2 x 2) (4)  [15] 

TOTAL: 75

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

RESOURCE MATERIAL 

1. An extract from topographic map 2930CB PIETERMARITZBURG.
2. Orthophoto map 2930 CB 8 PIETERMARITZBURG.
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces on  the cover page. 
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper. 
3. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2930CB  PIETERMARITZBURG) and an orthophoto map (2930 CB 8 PIETERMARITZ BURG) of a part of the mapped area. 
4. You must hand the topographic map and the orthophoto map to the invigilator at  the end of this examination session.
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough work  and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper. 
6. Show ALL calculations and use the formulae provided, where applicable. Marks  will be allocated for these. 
7. Indicate the unit of measurement in the final answer of calculations, e.g.  10 km; 2,1 cm. 
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator. 
9. You may use a magnifying glass.
10. The area demarcated in RED on the topographic map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
11. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographic map:
    ENGLISH 
    • Aerodrome 
    • Diggings 
    • Canal 
    • Firebreak 
    • Golf Course 
    • Hiking Trail 
    • Hospital 
    • River   
    • Sewerage Works 
    • Waterworks 

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
1.1 B ✓
1.2 C ✓
1.3 D ✓
1.4 A  ✓
1.5 B  ✓
1.6 C ✓
1.7 C ✓
1.8 D ✓  
1.9 A/C ✓
1.10 D ✓
1.11 B/D ✓
1.12 C ✓
1.13 A ✓
1.14 B ✓
1.15 C ✓ (15 x 1) [15] 

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 A tourist visiting Town Hill in Pietermaritzburg requires specific information  regarding its location. 
2.1.1 State the topographic map index/code of Pietermaritzburg. 

• 2930CB ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

2.1.2 Determine the grid reference/co-ordinates of Town Hill at point N  in block F7 on the topographic map.  

• 29°35'06''S ✓ 30°21'17''E ✓ /29°35,10'S ✓ 30°21,30'E ✓
  (Latitude: 05'' - 07'') (Latitude: 0,08' - 0,14')
  (Longitude: 16'' - 18'') (Longitude: 0,28' - 0,33') (2 x 1) (2) 

2.1.3 The tourist wants to hike the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail in block F6  using a compass. Calculate the magnetic declination for 2018. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. Clearly indicate the  unit of measurement in your final answer. 

• Difference in years: 2018 – 2016 = 2 ✓ years
  Mean annual change: 9' ✓ W
  Total change: 2 x 9' = 18' ✓W
  Magnetic declination for 2018: 24o45' W + ✓ 18' = 25 o03' W ✓ (5 x 1)  (5) 

[GIVE MARKS FOR CORRECT INFORMATION NEEDED TO  DETERMINE FINAL ANSWER, EVEN IF NOT ACCORDING TO THE  STIPULATED GUIDELINE] 
2.2 Refer to the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking trail in block F6 on the topographic map. 
2.2.1 State the orthophoto map index/code that a tourist will use when hiking the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail. 

• 2930 CB 7 ✓ (1 x 1) (1)

2.2.2Calculate the average gradient between contour line O (height 820 m) and  the trigonometrical station at P on the topographic map. Show ALL  calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. 

• VI = 1057,9 m – 820 m                          VI = 1057.9 m – 820 m 
  = 237,9 m ✓                                            = 237,9 m ✓
  HE = 3,9 ✓ cm x 500                            HE = 3,9 ✓ cm x 50 000
                                                                                    100 
  Range for measurement [3,8 cm – 4 cm]   
   = 1 950 ✓ m                      OR                        = 1 950✓ m
  Range for HE [1 900 m – 2000 m]   
• =237,9  (One mark for ✓  correct   substitution)  =237,9 
    1 950  ✓                                                             1 950
  G =237,9                                                       G =237,9 
      1 950                                                               1 950 
  =  1  / 1 : 8,2 / 1 in 8,2 ✓                       =  1  / 1 : 8,2 / 1 in 8,2 ✓
     8,2                                                        8,2
  Range for final answer [1 : 7.9 – 1 : 8.41]   (5 x 1) (5) 

2.2.3 Describe the curved route followed by the Voortrekker Wagon Hiking Trail  from its start at O to the trigonometrical station at World's View. 

• The trail follows the winding path of the spur ✓
• The trail follows the more gentle route/The trail avoids the very steep  slopes ✓
• It is an easier route to hike along ✓
• It avoids the difficult route of hiking through valleys and over spurs ✓
• The trail follows the low lying area ✓
• The trail goes uphill and it is easier to follow a winding route ✓
• The slope is uneven resulting in a winding route ✓
• It goes generally NW/N ✓
• It passes through a woodland area ✓
• It passes by perennial water/dam ✓
• It passes by the river ✓
• It passes the reservoir ✓
• There are monuments that it passes by ✓
• There is a lookout tower towards the end of the trail ✓
• [Any TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

2.3 Refer to benchmark 1060.9 at Q in block D4 and spotheight 1106 at R in block  C6 found on the topographic map. The cross-sections below represent the area  between Q and R.
2.3.1 Match cross-sections X and Y with the vertical exaggerations below.

• 25 times: Y ✓
• 6,25 times: X ✓ (2 x 1) (2) 

2.3.2 Explain how the vertical exaggeration of cross-sections would make  interpretation of the landscape easier. 

• The shape of the features on the landscape is more clear when the  vertical exaggeration is increased ✓
• To represent the topography of the landscape ✓
• To emphasize vertical features which are too small to identify relative to  the horizontal scale ✓
• By increasing the vertical exaggeration the topography and gradient can  be seen more clearly ✓
• Specific features are more recognizable/clearer ✓
• Without vertical exaggeration the cross-section would be flat ✓
• A larger exaggeration creates a clearer impression of the landscape ✓
• Height differences between features can be clearly identified ✓
• Y is clearer than X ✓

[Any TWO] (2 x 1) (2) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 The bottom of the valley at area M on the topographic map experiences frost  during the early hours of the morning in winter.  
3.1.1 Name the local/tertiary wind that is responsible for the formation of frost. 

• Katabatic/Downslope/Gravitational wind ✓
• Mountain wind ✓

 [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.2 Explain how the wind mentioned in QUESTION 3.1.1 causes frost. 

•  The slopes cool down resulting in the air in contact with the slopes cooling  down ✓✓
• The cooler air becomes heavy and dense ✓✓
• Cooler air subsides down the valley slopes ✓✓
• Cooler air accumulates on the valley floor/trapped by inversion layer ✓✓
• The cold subsiding air cools the temperature to below freezing point ✓✓  [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.2 Refer to slope 5 (low-income residential area) and slope 6 (high-income  residential area) on the orthophoto map. 
3.2.1 Explain how aspect of slope influenced the site of the high-income  residential area at 6. 

• Slope 6 is a north/northeast facing slope and experiences the direct rays  of the sun (making it warmer) ✓✓(1 x 2) (2) 

3.2.2 Give ONE reason, evident on the orthophoto map, which influenced the  location of the low-income residential area at slope 5. 

• Next to the road for transport ✓✓
• Access to place of work ✓✓
• outh facing slope has cheaper land✓✓
• In comparison to slope 6 slope 5 is more gentle therefore it is cheaper/ easier to build on ✓✓
• Close to railway line ✓✓  

[Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
3.2.3 Suggest how natural vegetation could have influenced the land values of  residential areas 5 or 6. 

• The vegetation creates aesthetic appeal/beauty/scenery at 6 which  increases the land value✓✓
  OR
• Lack of vegetation at 5 reduces the aesthetic appeal and decreases land  values ✓✓
• Vegetation creates cleaner (absorbing carbon) air this area attracts more  residents and increases land values ✓✓
• Vegetation lowers temperature on this north facing slope which is hot  during summer ✓✓

[Any ONE. THE REASONS MUST REFER TO THE RELEVANT  ESIDENTIAL AREA SELECTED] (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3 Refer to Mabane River and the Gordon Falls in block H2 on the topographic  map. Directly upstream of the Gordon Falls the river meanders and directly  downstream of Gordon Falls, the river follows a straight path. Explain the  reasons for the difference in the stream channel patterns of the Mabane River,  as mentioned above.  

• Upstream of the Gordon Falls the wider space between the contour lines shows  the river flows on level ground/slower velocity (speed) making it meander ✓✓
  OR
• Upstream of the Gordon Falls the landscape is flatter/slower velocity (speed) which allows the river to meander ✓✓
• As the water flows over the waterfall it becomes more energetic, due to a  steeper gradient/higher velocity (speed) resulting in a straight course  downstream of the Gordon Falls ✓✓
  OR
• Rejuvenation downstream of the Gordon Falls result in vertical erosion therefore  a narrower river valley results in a straightened pattern ✓✓ (2 x 2) (4)

[ANSWER MUST BE QUALIFIED. FULL EXPLANATION] 
3.4 Is the shopping mall at 7 on the orthophoto map a neighbourhood shopping  centre or a regional shopping centre? Give a reason for your answer. 

• Answer: Regional shopping centre ✓✓
• Reason: Next to national freeway (N3) for accessibility/Near main road (R56) intersection with the N3 ✓✓
• It is on the outskirts of the city resulting in less congestion and   more accessibility ✓✓
• The size of the building is large ✓✓
• Space available for expansion ✓✓
• Close to middle and high income customers ✓✓
• There are many roads linking the shopping mall for accessibility/  larger sphere of influence/range ✓✓
• Potentially many clients/large threshold population ✓✓
• Large parking space ✓✓

 [Any ONE] (1 + 2) (3)
3.5 Are the industries at Willowton at 8 on the orthophoto map market-orientated or  raw material-orientated? Give a reason for your answer. 

• Answer: Market orientated ✓✓
• Reason: It is situated close to market/customers/consumers/suburbs ✓✓
• No evidence of raw material in the vicinity of Willowton ✓✓
• The good transport networks around Willowton creates accessibility to  the markets ✓✓
• The proximity close to the service line ✓✓  [Any ONE] 

 [Any ONE] (1 + 2) (3) 
3.6 The quarry at S in block D4 on the topographic map is situated next to the  residential area of Leonard. Suggest ONE social justice and ONE social  injustice that the people of Leonard could experience due to the quarry. 

• Social justice: The quarry could create employment for people of Leonard,  improving their quality of life ✓✓
• It could create the multiplier effect which will create more  employment✓✓
• Create more services (examples) in the area ✓✓
• People can afford basic needs due to employment ✓✓
• Better infrastructure as new roads will be built✓✓
• Social injustice: Various forms of pollution is generated from quarrying ✓✓
• The health of the people (respiratory illnesses) affected by the  dust (air pollution) from the quarry ✓✓
• The people's hearing could be affected due to the noise   pollution caused by dynamite explosions in the quarry ✓✓
• Water table is polluted (water pollution) reducing quality of  water for people ✓✓  
•  Land values will decrease due to a decrease in the aesthetic  appeal✓✓
• Safety risk for children playing around quarry✓✓
• Vibrations from explosives may damage houses ✓✓
• Expensive to repair infrastructure ✓✓  [Any ONE] (2 x 2)  (4) [25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to block D8 on the topographic map. 
4.1.1 Name the type of vector data used in block D8 to indicate the secondary  road. 

• Line ✓  (1 x 1) (1)

4.1.2 Explain the relevance of using vector data on the topographic map.

• Standardising data is easier because you can use a reference/key to refer  to features on a map ✓✓
• The use of vector data on a topographic map makes map interpretation  more user friendly ✓✓
• To obtain data/information in one glance (quicker) ✓✓
• Topographic maps are electronic versions of reality and symbols, like  lines, point and polygons are used to represent real spatial features ✓✓
• The use of vector data on a topographical map makes it easy to do data  layering ✓✓
• Vector data provides true shapes and distances of spatial features ✓✓[Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.2 Refer to the topographic map and orthophoto map.  
4.2.1 Is scale an example of attribute or spatial data? 

• Attribute data ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

4.2.2 Explain the relevance of scale when facing a geographical query/problem,  e.g. a possible veld fire in block D8 on the topographic map. 

• Scale allows you to determine the actual extent of the veld fire ✓✓
• Scale allows you to determine the actual area effected by the veld fire  ✓✓
• Scale will allow rescue workers to determine the actual distance they  have to travel in order to assist ✓✓
• Determine the number of water tanks to be used ✓✓
• Larger scale allows to see more detail✓✓
• To determine the positioning of the fire breaks/buffering ✓✓
• Determine the number of fire fighters to be deployed ✓✓
• Can determine the distance to the nearest water source/dam✓✓
• Can determine the gradient which the rescue workers will face so they  can prepare themselves✓✓
• Can determine the distance between the fire and building structures✓✓
• Planning of possible evacuation routes ✓✓ (2)[Any ONE] (1 x 2) 

4.2.3 How can the scale of the topographic map and orthophoto map be  manipulated in order to make data integration of these two maps easier? 

• Adjust the scale of the topographic map to make it the same (enlarge the  scale) as the orthophoto map ✓✓
• Adjust the scale of the orthophoto map to make it the same (reduce the  scale) as the topographic map ✓✓
• Adjust the scale of the orthophoto map and the topographic map to a  common scale ✓✓ (2) [Any ONE] (1 x 2) 

4.3 Refer to the topographic map and orthophoto map. The statistics below refer to  selected suburbs in Pietermaritzburg and the percentage (%) increase in crime  levels from 2015 to 2016. 

[Adapted from SAPS crime statistics 2015–16 by Theuns Kruger, Graphic 24] 
4.3.1 Name ONE way in which the data above could have been collected. 

• Information from police station ✓
• Surveys/Questionnaires/interviews/fieldwork ✓
• National crime stats ✓
• Statistics SA/Census ✓
• Internet ✓  (1) [Any ONE] (1 x 1)

4.3.2 Is the information in the table above primary data or secondary data? 

• Secondary data ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

4.3.3 Which type of crime has shown the highest percentage increase in these  suburbs? 

• Car hijacking ✓ (1 x 1) (1)

4.3.4 Explain why it is important for the well-being of the community of  Pietermaritzburg to analyse these statistics. 

• It can assist with identifying the frequency of crime ✓✓
• It can help police with regard to the deployment of officers ✓✓
• Identify crime hotspots ✓✓
• Implement strategies/possible solutions such as a neighbourhood  watch/crime protection forums ✓✓
• Deployment of police✓✓
• Develop precautionary measures/security to improve safety (accept  examples) ✓✓  
• It can help insurance companies to correctly validate their crime related  insurance policies ✓✓
• To help prospective property buyers to identify crime hotspots ✓✓
•   Important to analyse statistics to put contingency plans in place ✓✓
• Identification of patterns and trends to catch perpetrators ✓✓
• Crime preventions can focus on the more prevalent (common) type of  crimes ✓✓
• To determine which time of day crime is the highest and lowest ✓✓ [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4) [15] 

TOTAL: 75

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 north (1) 
1.1.2 South Indian (1) 
1.1.3 ridge (1) 
1.1.4 1016 hPa (1) 
1.1.5 10 knots (1) 
1.1.6 north west (1)  
1.1.7 Subtropical High (1) (7 x 1) (7)
1.2
1.2.1 B (1) 
1.2.2 Rainfall/Precipitation (1) 
1.2.3 Headward erosion/Backward erosion (1) 
1.2.4 A (1) 
1.2.5 Elbow of capture (1) 
1.2.6 Wind gap (Dry gap) (1) 
1.2.7 Misfit Stream (1) 
1.2.8 B (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.3
1.3.1 Family of cyclones/depressions (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.2

• It is further east/south/south-east (2) 
• Movement is eastwards, therefore A is ahead of B and C (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.3

• Less moisture causes less/no rainfall (2)
• Warm air from the warm sector is uplifted slowly and more gently (gentle  gradient) (creating stratus/altostratus/cirrus and cirrostratus clouds, and  causes no rain) (2)
• Softer rainfall from nimbostratus clouds (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.4

• The cold front catches up to the warm front/two fronts merge (2)
• Warm air is displaced off the earth's surface (occluded)/Occlusion has taken  place (2)
• Warm and cold air masses move horizontally past one another again (2)

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.5 Once passed over 

• Lower temperatures as a result of cold air behind the cold front (2) 
• Strong winds due to strong pressure gradient (2)
• West to south westerly winds/backing as a result of clockwise spiralling air  (2)
• Dense cloud cover due to strong uplift of warm air (2)
• Cumulonimbus clouds will result in heavy rainfall/thunderstorms/hail (2)
• Atmospheric pressure will be higher due to the cold, dense air following the  cold front (2)
• Decreasing humidity due to cold air being more dense (2)
• Snowfalls may occur as dewpoint temperature is reached below freezing  point (2)
  OR 

While approaching 

• Fairly high temperatures will remain as one is still in the warm sector (2)
• Gentle to moderate winds as the pressure gradient is weak (2)
• Northwest to westerly winds as a result of the clockwise spiralling of air (2)
• Low stratus clouds with clear patches as a result of the slow rising air (2)
• Stratus clouds could result in scattered rain (2)
• Atmospheric pressure will be low as a result of the warm, less dense air (2)
• Humidity will be relatively low as warm air is less dense (2)  

[ANY FOUR. CREDIT CANDIDATE FOR ANY VALID FACTOR GIVEN] (4 x 2) (8) 
1.4
1.4.1 Katabatic wind (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2

• Air temperature increases with height/temperature inversion (1)
• The highest temperature is found mid-slope (1)
• Air temperature is warmer (1) 
• Temperature is above freezing (1)  

[ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.3

• (Temperature) inversion/Valley inversion/Negative lapse rate (1) (1 x 1) (1)

1.4.4

• Air temperatures are much lower (2)
• Air is heavier and denser (2)
• Increased intensity of downward movement of air/Cold air moves down the  slope quickly (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
1.4.5

• Collection of cold, dense air at the bottom of the valley (2)
• Warm air is displaced from the valley floor (2)
• Frost forms on the valley floor (2)
• Gravity causes cold air to drain towards the valley floor (2)
• Dew point temperature below freezing point (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
1.4.6

• Only frost resistant crops can be planted here/Grow fruit with thick resistant  skin, e.g. citrus (2)
• Genetically modified seeds adapted for frost conditions (2)
• Torches and fire drums (heating systems) to keep air circulating so that  temperatures do not drop below 0 °C/anti-frost heating to protect crops (2)
• Fans to keep air circulating (2)
• Mechanisms to divert subsiding wind (diversion walls) away from crops (2)
• Straw in between crops to reduce terrestrial radiation (mulching) (2)
• Glass houses (greenhouses) can be built to create an artificial micro-climate  for sensitive crops (2)
• Cover plants with frost covers (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5
1.5.1

• There are very few tributaries (1)
• Few streams cover a large area (1) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
1.5.2

• Low/soft rainfall will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• Gentle gradient will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• More vegetation cover will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• Permeable soil will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• Porous rock will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• Drier soil will increase infiltration and decrease run-off (2)
• High evaporation rate reduces water available for surface run-off (2)
• Little development therefore few artificial surfaces to prevent infiltration (2)
• Low rainfall will result in fewer streams (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
1.5.3

• There will be more first order streams/fingertip streams (2)
• The order of subsequent streams will increase (2)
• Stream order at A will increase (2)
• 3rd order to higher order (2)  

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
1.5.4

• Clearing of natural vegetation/deforestation will increase run-off (2)
• Overgrazing by animals removes natural vegetation which increases  run-off (2)
• Incorrect ploughing methods can result in more water flowing down the  furrows (2)
• Over-cultivation of farmland destroys vegetation and top soil (2)
• The loss of topsoil due to human activities can result in the formation of  gullies (dongas) (2)
• Building of settlements increases artificial surfaces therefore more run-off (2)
• Building of canals to divert run-off create more river channels (2)
• Building of roads reduces natural vegetation which increases run-off (2)
• Open cast mining causes removal of natural vegetation increasing run-off (2)
• Trampling of soil by livestock decreases infiltration (2) 

[ANY FOUR. CANDIDATE MUST INDICATE HOW THE FACTOR RESULTED IN A HIGHER DRAINAGE DENSITY] (4 x 2) (8) 
1.6
1.6.1 Upper course (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.2

• Width/Breadth (1)
• Depth (1) 
• Shape (1)
• Heights of interfluves change (1) 

[ANY TWO. ACCEPT DESCRIPTION OR MEASUREMENTS] (2 x 1) (2) 
1.6.3

• In the upper course vertical/downward erosion takes place (2)
• In the lower course deposition/lateral erosion takes place (2) (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6.4

• (Increased) lateral erosion/(decreased) downward erosion results in a river  valley widening (2)
• Sheet flow down the valley slopes will result in the lowering of the slopes (2)
• River slows down in the middle course causing deposition which decreases  the depth of the valley (2)
• More gentle gradient in the middle course causing deposition which  decreases the depth of the valley (2) 
• Meandering river will widen the valley floor (2)
• Where the river exits the confines of the mountain, the river valley will be  wider (2)
• Greater volume of water and lower velocity will increase lateral erosion in the  middle course (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
1.6.5

• In the upper course of the river the valley is narrow (2)
• Cost of construction of the dam wall will be cheaper (2)
• The rocky banks will make the structure stronger (2)
• The dam will be deeper because of the deep valley (2)
• Cooler temperatures at higher altitude, therefore less evaporation (2)
• Smaller water surface area reduces evaporation rates (2)
• A deeper dam will have an increased capacity (2)
• Less silt in the dam as there are fewer tributaries that enter the dam (2)
• Steepness of slope allows easy flow of water into a dam (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)  [75]

QUESTION 2 
2.1
2.1.1 Eye (1) 
2.1.2 Low (1) 
2.1.3 Heavy (1) 
2.1.4 Updraughts (1) 
2.1.5 Diverging (1) 
2.1.6 High (1) 
2.1.7 Pressure (1) 
2.1.8 Wind Speed (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.2
2.2.1 E (Floodplain) (1) 
2.2.2 G (Levee) (1) 
2.2.3 C (Meander) (1) 
2.2.4 F (Oxbow Lake) (1) 
2.2.5 D (Braided stream) (1) 
2.2.6 H (Waterfall) (1) 
2.2.7 B (Delta) (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.3
2.3.1 Moisture front (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.3.2

• A band of cloud stretching from the NW to the SE of the country (2)
• (Cumulonimbus) clouds arranged in a line from the NW to the SE (2)
• Converging air masses over the interior of the country (2)
• Presence of the moisture front (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.3

• Low pressures over the land during summer, draw in moisture off the oceans  onto the land (2)
• Inversion layer above escarpment in summer allows inflow of moist air (2)
• Increased convergence of air masses from well-developed high-pressure cells along the coast (2)
• Weakened Kalahari High Pressure Cell facilitates greater vertical rising of air  above the interior (2)
• Presence of trough over the interior during summer (2)  

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
2.3.4

• Warm moist air from above the Indian Ocean/Warm Mozambique/Warm  Agulhas Current (2)
• Warm moist tropical air diverging from the South Indian High Pressure Cell (2)
• Warm moist air from the North-easterly winds (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.5

• Warm moist air from the east (more moisture) reaches the interior (2)
• Cold dry dense air from the west forces warm moist less dense air to rise (2)
• Air on the eastern side is more unstable (2)
• Large scale condensation results in dense cloud formation (2)  

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.3.6

• Has a longer duration (2)
• They cover a greater/widespread area (2)
• Damage is more widespread (2)
• Continuous feeding of moisture from the ocean (2)
• Constant formation of cumulonimbus clouds along the moisture front (2)
•   Stronger upliftment/rapid rising and condensation along the moisture front (2)
• Torrential or heavy rainfall and/or hail (2)
• Occurs any time of day (2)
  OR
• Has a much shorter duration (2)
• Isolated thunderstorms are over a small area (2)
• Isolated thunderstorms will result in damage that is not widespread (2)
• Isolated thunderstorms do not have a continuous source of moisture (2)
• Only occurs during late afternoon (2) 

[ANY TWO. CANNOT REFER TO THE SAME FACTOR ON BOTH SIDES] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4
2.4.1 An accumulation of dust, soot and smoke (pollution) particles over the city (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.4.2 Urban areas produce more pollution/combustion released by cars, industries and other activities/More human activities (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
2.4.3

• During the night subsidence is stronger/trapped closer to the ground/  inversion layer is closer to the surface at night (2)
• Less activity resulting in heat generation to lift pollution dome (2)
• Pollution covers a smaller area (2)
• Less convection/thermal currents to distribute pollution at night (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.4

• Soot accumulation on buildings results in more cleaning services needed (2)
• Results in acid rain which results in peeling of paint of buildings (2)
• Buildings must be painted more often (2)
• Concrete surfaces become pitted (holes) and must be maintained/renovated more frequently (2)
• Metal structures such as metal window frames/air conditioners become  corroded because of the acid rain/renovated more often (2)
• Replacing damaged material with good quality/durable material is costly (2)
• Regular replacement/purchase of air conditioner filters (2)
• More regular painting of road markings as acid rain makes it peel easier (2)
• High pollution results in higher rainfall and can cause flood damage (2)
• Damaged plants in gardens to be replaced (2)
• Water reservoirs/dams become polluted and money spent to purify water (2)

[ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)
2.5
2.5.1

• When a river is eroding the landscape downwards in response to a  lowering/change of its base level (1)
• River rejuvenation is a process where rivers (are re-energised to) actively erode downward again (1) 

[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 A drop in the sea level (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.3 Waterfall/rapids (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.4

• Rejuvenated rivers will be ungraded/obstructions along the course as a result  of renewed downward erosion (2) 
• River will now show a multi-concave profile (2)
• Temporary base levels of erosion will develop (examples: knickpoint, rapids,  waterfall) (2)
• Overgraded river as renewed downward erosion now takes place (2)
• Vertical erosion downstream of the knickpoint dominates (2)
• The balance between erosion and deposition is disturbed (2)  

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.5.5

• Knickpoints can form because of the old erosion level meeting the new erosion levels (2)
• The knickpoint retreats upstream (2)
• Waterfall can form at the knickpoint due to the break/lowering along the  course of the river (2)
• Waterfalls can turn into rapids (2)
• Meanders will become more incised and entrenched (erode vertically) (2)
• River cuts into the flood plain and a new flood plain develops (2)
• A valley within a valley forms because of vertical erosion (2)
• Valleys with multi-terraced slopes will form (2) 
• River channel becomes narrower (2)
• New floodplain is narrower than the original flood plain (2)
• More meanders develop (2) 

[ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 
2.6
2.6.1 Deforestation is the removal of trees/natural vegetation/Cutting down of trees  quicker than it can be replaced (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 2.6.2 

1. 2050 (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2. KwaZulu-Natal/KZN (1) (1 x 1) (1)

2.6.3

• Decreased carrying capacity (2)
• River blockage (2)
• Reduce water quality (2)
• Rivers/dams become shallower (2)
• Increases the stream load (2)
• Disrupt ecosystem of the river (2)
• Disrupt biodiversity in a river (2)
• Increased flooding of river system (2)
• Less infiltration (2)
• Decrease in groundwater levels (2)
•  Reduction in base flow (2)
• More evaporation dries soil out (2)
• Greater erosion along river banks (2)
• Lowering of levees (2)
• More polluting of the rivers and eutrophication (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.6.4

• Legislation to protect areas that are prone to deforestation (2)
• Fines to those who illegally remove trees (2)
• Implement more afforestation within the river system (2)
• Create awareness of the negative impacts of deforestation (2)
• Educate people on the importance of good river management systems (2)
• Promote conservation and establish more protected areas to prevent  deforestation (2)
• Create a buffer zone for protection of natural forests (2)
• Protect river banks from deforestation (2)
• Rehabilitation of forests/afforestation (2)
• Encourage recycling to reduce deforestation (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
2.6.5

• Poor river management will result in less water being available (2)
• Poor quality of the water will result in higher purification costs (2)
• Water is unsafe for human consumption (2)
• Increased siltation of dams will compromise water quality (2)
• Shortage of good quality water would make it more expensive (2)
• More run-off reduces groundwater supply (2)
• Expensive to implement inter-basin water transfer schemes (2)
• Less water for domestic, industrial and agricultural use (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)  [75]
SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY  OF SOUTH AFRICA 
QUESTION 3 
3.1
3.1.1 Linear (1) 
3.1.2 Stellar (1) 
3.1.3 Semi-circular/Linear (1) 
3.1.4 Circular (1) 
3.1.5 Nucleated (1) 
3.1.6 Cross-shaped (1) 
3.1.7 Dispersed (1) 
3.1.8 T-shaped (1) (8 x 1) (8)
3.2
3.2.1 B (GDP) (1) 
3.2.2 D (Finance, real estate and business services) (1) 
3.2.3 B (Electricity, gas and water) (1) 
3.2.4 D (Agriculture, forestry and fishing) (1) 
3.2.5 B (Manufacturing) (1) 
3.2.6 C (Electricity, gas and water) (1) 
3.2.7 C (77%) (1) (7 x 1) (7) 
3.3
3.3.1 A process whereby an increasing percentage of people live in urban areas (1)  [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.2

• As the rate of urbanisation increases the level of urbanisation increases (2)
• It is a directly proportional relationship (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
3.3.3

• Drought frequency in rural areas increases rural-urban migration (2)
• Flood frequency destroy crops causing people to leave rural areas (2)
• Stronger El Niño increases droughts and/or floods (2)
• Soil erosion decreases production on farm lands forcing people to leave (decrease in soil fertility/desertification) (2)
• Stock/crop diseases/pests and stock losses/decreases in crop yields forces  farmers to abandon farm lands and move to urban areas (2)
• Adverse weather conditions e.g. hail storms destroy crops and this negatively  affects production and leads to decreased profits (2) 

[ANY TWO. LISTING ALONE CANNOT BE ACCEPTED – MUST BE  QUALIFIED] (2 x 2) (4) 
3.3.4

• Urbanisation (percentage increase of people) has increased the demand for  housing in urban areas (2)
• The inability of the local government to meet this demand has led to protest  actions (2) 
• Lack of planning from the local government to meet demands for services (2)
• Lack of services (electricity, water, sanitation) in informal settlements and  people are not happy about this (2)
• Unreliable service delivery impacts on daily activities (2)
• Services are not properly maintained, therefore quality deteriorates (2)
• Urbanisation increased unemployment rates which has frustrated people (2)
• There is an increased demand on services such as clinics and hospitals  reducing accessibility for people (2)
• Traffic congestion as there are not enough roads/unmaintained roads (2)
• Lack of space in schools due to high population numbers (2)
• Protest due to forced removals and demolition of informal settlements which  leaves people without shelter (2)
• Protests due to lack of land ownership and access to land (2)
• Protests due to competition with foreigners for houses and employment (2)
• People are unhappy about nepotism and corruption which is preventing them  from accessing government services e.g. housing (2) 

[ANY FOUR. REASONS FOR PROTEST ACTIONS MUST BE GIVEN] (4 x 2) (8) 
3.4
3.4.1 The rural-urban fringe is the boundary/transition between the urban edge and  the rural periphery where rural and urban functions are mixed (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2

• Landing strip (1)
• Large shopping centre (1)
• Gated communities (1)
• Out of town theme park (1)
• High-tech industrial (1)
• Industrial park (1)
• Industrial zone (1)
• Planned housing developments (1) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)
3.4.3

• Urban sprawl reduces the extent of the rural-urban fringe (2)
• Cheaper land in the rural-urban fringe makes it lucrative for development (2)
• Increase in world urban population (2)
• Improved technologies allow people to live further from urban areas (2)
• People prefer/afford to commute to urban areas (2)
• Peaceful environments/larger properties/less pollution/aesthetically pleasing (2)
• Counter- urbanisation is encouraged (2)
• Development of infrastructure/roads increase accessibility/less congested (2)
• Decentralisation of businesses (2) 
• Sought after location is a pull factor (2)
• Higher standard of living allows people to commute over longer distances (2)

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4.4

• Cheaper land is ideal as large areas are required (2)
• Land values lower in the periphery for development (2)
• More space required for multifunctional purposes (2)
• Rural atmosphere creates a more tranquil/peaceful lifestyle (2)
• Away from polluted urban areas (2)
• Aesthetic beauty (2)
• Usually built around golf courses/recreational areas/parks (2)
• Can still commute to urban areas without travelling a great distance (2)
• Greater sense of security/less crime (2)
• Provision of amenities/services within the gated community (2)
• More flexible bylaws/development freedom (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4.5

• Encroachment on farming land (2)
• Job losses amongst farm workers (2)
• Food insecurity may increase (2)
• Increased deforestation (2)
• Destroys ecosystems (2) 
• Reduces biodiversity (2)
• Change in the local climate (2)
• Loss of aesthetic appeal/tranquillity (2)
• Urban sprawl/uncontrolled urban expansion/rural and urban functions mix (2)
• Re-zoning of land use (2)
• Conflict between municipality and traditional leaders/land earmarked for land  reform (2)
• Increase in land values (2)
• Exclude the poor from access to land/forced removals (2)
• Inadequate compensation for land required for development (2)
• Existing services will be put under pressure (2) 
• Increased waste disposal/land pollution/air pollution (2)
• Increased traffic congestion (2) 
• Potential increase in crime (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
3.5
3.5.1 Brazil (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.5.2 ꞌSouth Africa became a net red meat exporter for the first timeꞌ (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.3 

1. Make less money as poor quality beef does not fetch high prices (1) 
   Countries buy less as a result of poor quality (1) 
   [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
2. Improved breeding programmes/research will increase the quality of the   beef (2) 
   Prevent overstocking/Do not exceed carrying capacity (2) 
   Industrial beef cattle farming (2) 
   Regular vaccination to prevent diseases (2) 
   Regular health checks of cattle (2) 
   Free range farming improves quality of beef (2) 
   Genetically modified species/scientific methods to improve stock yields (2) 
   Increase education and skills of farmers/research and development (2) 
   More agricultural officers to educate small scale and new farmers (2)
     Access to funding to improve mechanisation and technology (2) 
   Government subsidies and grants will improve processing techniques (2) 
   Accelerate the process of land reform (2) 
   Improved pasturage and feeding will result in healthier cattle (2) 
   [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.5.4

• Water shortages reduces stock numbers (2)
• Regular droughts reduce the amount and quality of stock for export  markets (2)
• Small-scale (subsistence or commercial) farming can result in less production for markets (2)
• Commercial farmers abandon their farms and beef production decreases (2)
• A huge demand for beef within South Africa decreases exports (2)
• Low government subsidies push up prices (2) 
• Large distances to overseas markets increases the costs of exportation (2)
• Expensive to refrigerate beef products during transportation (2)
• Cattle diseases e.g. foot and mouth/mad cow disease reduces meat  availability for export markets (2)
• Low quality of natural grazing reduces the amount of stock (2)
• Unclear land reform policies slows down beef production while outcomes are  awaiting (2)
• Stock theft reduces the amount of stock (2)
• Increased cost of fodder during drought/winter results in beef farmers reducing  stock numbers (2) 
• Veld fires reduce natural grazing and therefore stock (2) 
• Medication against diseases expensive and increase farming costs (2)
• Poor exchange rate reduces profits for beef farmers (2)
• Price fluctuations reduce profit (2)
• Increase in production costs (machinery/labour) reduces stock numbers and  profits (2)
• Trade barriers discourage cattle farming (2)
• Youth do not pursue farming/Loss of skilled farmers therefore beef production  is low (2) 
• Lack of scientific breeding methods keeps beef production low (2)
• Limited beef processing plants limits the export of beef products (2)
• Traditionally cattle is regarded as a symbol of wealth and subsistence farmers  are reluctant to sell their cattle (2)
• Small-scale farmers cannot access loans from banks and cannot afford the  increasing production costs (2) 

[ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)
3.6
3.6.1 Eastern Cape (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2

• Investments worth R1.3 billion (1)
• Job creation (1)
• Increased exports (1)
• Foreign income earned (1)
• Export-orientated manufacturing (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

3.6.3

• Harbour was upgraded (2)
• Upgrading of rail network (2)
• New roads were built (2)
• Existing roads were upgraded (2)
• Airport facilities were upgraded (2)
• Improved communication networks (2)
• Improved electricity distribution grids (2)
• More emphasis on renewable/green energy (2)
• Improve supply and accessibility to water (2)
• Upgrading of the built environment (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.4

• Fully developed stands at cheaper rate (2)
• Provide fully developed infrastructure (2)
• Tax rebates (2)
• Duty-free imports (2)
• Zero rate on VAT for all suppliers procured in South Africa (2)
• Zone specific local incentive packages (2)
• Discounted utility services e.g. electricity (2)
• Relocation rebates (2)
• Provincial subsidised training of workforce (2)
• Housing for employees (2)
• Transport rebates (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
3.6.5

• Higher revenue for exported manufactured products (2)
• Sell larger volumes in the international market, therefore more profit (2)
• Multiplier Effect – will lead to new industrial development, thus promotes the  growth of the industrial sector (2)
• Higher profits due to a more favourable foreign exchange rates (2)
• Exportation will bring more foreign currency into the country (2)
• Greater contribution to the GDP (2)
• More job creation improves local trading markets (2) 
• Higher income per capita for ELIDZ improves the provincial fiscal treasury (2)
• Standard of living in the Eastern Cape improves because more people are  gainfully employed in skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled activities (2)
• Improved infrastructure and transport networks benefits trade (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)  [75]
QUESTION 4 
4.1
4.1.1 A/gridiron (1) 
4.1.2 B/radial concentric/cobweb (1) 
4.1.3 A/gridiron (1) 
4.1.4 B/radial concentric/cobweb (1) 
4.1.5 C/irregular (1) 
4.1.6 A/gridiron (1) 
4.1.7 C/irregular (1) (7 x 1) (7)
4.2
4.2.1 Gauteng (1) 
4.2.2 West Wits Operations (1) 
4.2.3 Anglo Gold Ashanti (1) 
4.2.4 China (1) 
4.2.5 7th (1) 
4.2.6 140 + 90 = 230mt (1) 
4.2.7 2014 (1) 
4.2.8 Decreasing (1) (8 x 1) (8)
4.3
4.3.1 Taxis/Minibus taxis (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2

• High cost for poor service delivery/no value for money (1)
• Higher costs when other transport not available (1)
• No operational licences issued/unregulated (1)
• During strikes commuters cannot get to work/loss of salary/productivity (1)
• Reckless driving puts strain on Road Accident Fund (1)
• Do not pay taxes (1) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.3

• Taxi associations were closed down (by the Minister of Transport) (1)  (1 x 1) (1)

4.3.4

• People can't afford to own their own private vehicles/Too poor to afford own  transport (2)
• Taxis are cheaper than some other public transport systems (2)
• People live far from their place of work and taxis are quicker (2)
• Accessibility and convenience of taxis from home to place of work (2)
• Other public transport systems are unreliable (2)
• Taxis are more flexible in their routes and stops (2)
• Historical reliance on taxis (2)
• Increase in toll roads (2)
• Increase in petrol prices (2)  

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.5

• They are going to lose money as a result of less commuters (2)
• Competition is not good for the taxi business (2) 
• They will reduce their daily share of business/afraid of losing the market (2)
• Taxi drivers can lose their jobs (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.6

• Regulate the taxi industry/taxi ranks through legislation (2)
• Regulate the private service providers like Uber and Taxify (2)
• Bring together the various transport providers, to foster healthy competition,  and to work together in peace and harmony (2)
• More vigilance from government in policing/monitoring taxi associations (2)
• The Minister of Transport/Police can close specific problematic routes (2)
• Possible allocation of different routes to associations (2)
• Effective prosecution of those who incite violence within the taxi industry (2)
• Educating operators (imbizos) on responsibilities (2)
• More monitoring by traffic officers (2)
• Issue more operational licences where there is a demand (2)
• Shut down taxi routes for a period of time during the day (2)
• Implementing card systems to regulate operational routes within the taxi  industry (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4
4.4.1 Wheelbarrows/donkey carts/on their heads/buckets/drums/bottles/ (1) [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.2

• Transportation of water is easier/more accessible (2)
• It saves time to fetch the water (2)
• More water can be collected therefore fewer trips (2)
• Enclosed container therefore less water losses (2)
• Enclosed container therefore fresher water (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
4.4.3

• Increase agricultural production/assists subsistence farmers (2)
• Sustainable farming (2)
• Higher profits (2)
• Spent less time on collecting water, therefore more time for schooling (2)
• Increased employment/generates income (2)
• Reduces burden of time and volume required to improving the standard of  living and economic viability (2)
• Development of home industries (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.4

• Apartheid legacy of access to water in rural areas (2)
• Lack of funding for improved infrastructure (2)
• Not economically viable in sparsely populated areas (2)
• Lack of planning and development in rural areas (2)
• Population increase faster than infrastructure development (2)
• Poor maintenance of existing infrastructure network (2)
• Mismanagement of funds (corruption) by the government (2)
• Boreholes not accessible/privately owned (2)
• Theft of water infrastructure (2)
• Not enough qualified people to maintain water infrastructure (2) 
• Focus placed on urban areas and industrial development (2)
• Diversion of water resources (2) 
• Poor/cheap quality materials used to maintain water infrastructure (2)

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.4.5

• The infrastructure needs to be developed for piped water to homes (2)
• Build/upgrade more dams to store water (2)
• Install more Jo-Jo tanks to harvest and store water (2)
• Digging of more boreholes to tap into groundwater sources (2)
• Encouraging the recycling of grey water prevents wastage (2)
• Filtration of polluted water (2) 
• Reversed osmosis to produce clean water (2) 
• Government allocating more funds to secure clean water (2) 
• Utilise inter-basin water transfer schemes where there is a lack of water (2)
• Upgrading and maintenance of existing water network systems (2)
• Education in the wise usage of water (2)
• Improved farming practices to promote infiltration (2)
• Use organic fertilisers to prevent pollution of water (2)
• Improve catchment management systems (2)
• Recharge aquifers to maintain groundwater volumes (2)
• Remove alien/exotic vegetation to reduce the usage of water (2)
• Improved irrigation techniques to save water (2)
• Subsidising of the Wello water wheel (2) 

[ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)
4.5
4.5.1

• ꞌ… contributing nearly 35% to the national gross domestic product, until at  least 2017ꞌ (1)
• ' … produced more than 50% of South Africa's manufactured exports' (1) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.2

• Good energy security secures uninterrupted energy supply (2)
• Many skilled/unskilled labourers ensure a high level of productivity (2)
• Capital and technology to maintain high levels of production (2)
• Wide variety of raw materials to support industrial development (2)
• Well-developed transport system to transport raw materials/goods (2)
  OR
• Tambo provides access to international investors (2) 
• A well-developed infrastructure providing essential services (2)
• Wide variety of established secondary and tertiary industries (2)
• Johannesburg Security Exchange (JSE) is located in the PWV/Gauteng (2)
• Commercial and economic hub of South Africa (2)
• Dense/large population creates readily available market/higher purchasing power (2)
• Flat land facilitates the development of new industries (2)
• Access to water resources is more favourable (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.5.3 

1. Abundance of copper mined there (2) 
   Close proximity to PWV/Gauteng Industrial Region (2) 
   Accessibility via roads/railways (2) 
   Saving on transport costs (2) 
   [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
2. Attracts more investors to the region (2) 
   Creates more employment opportunities (2) 
   Entrepreneurial skills are improved (2) 
   Skills transfer from Gauteng (2) 
   Creates a stable labour force (2) 
   Strengthens buying power (2) 
   Ready market for the copper industries (2) 
   Linked industries will be improved/developed (2) 
   Multiplier effect leads to the expansion of other industries (2) 
   Improved transport links could assist Phalaborwa to export through   Gauteng (2) 
   Infrastructural improvement and development to ensure rail/road transport   of copper (2) 
   Social responsibility programs of copper mines will uplift local  communities (2) 
   Supports a higher standard of living for local communities (2) 
   Funds generated will stimulate further development (2) 
   [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.5.4 Energy provision

• Over reliance on coal as a source of energy (2)
• Coal is a non-renewable resource (2)
• Coal is an unsustainable resource (2)
• Negative environmental impact of coal (2)
• Rising costs of energy (2)
• Overload on ESKOM grid that cannot cope with demand (2)
• Power cuts/load shedding affect productivity (2)
• Unreliable power network (2)
• Theft of power cables disrupt power provision (2)
• Corruption in the coal mining sector hampers productivity (2) 

Labour 

• Importing skills will be expensive and increase the costs of production (2)
• Expensive to train labourers (2)
• Disputes and industrial action/strikes will reduce productivity (2)
• Brain drain, where valuable skilled people leaving South Africa (2)
• Impact of illnesses/diseases lower productivity (2)
• Challenges associated with the provision of minimum wages (2)
• Mechanisation could lead to unemployment in the future (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

4.6
4.6.1 The trade between various countries/The exchange of capital, goods and  services between countries (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.2 Poultry/chicken/chicken products (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.3 DTI (Department of Trade and Industry) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.4

• The chicken representing cheap imports is larger (and stronger) than the  chicken representing the local producers which is smaller (weaker) (2)
• Cheaper imports will outweigh the local producers (2)
• Local producers will be forced to shut down (2)
• Job losses and retrenchments may occur (2)
• Profits decline for local producers (2)
• Money flows out of the country (2)
• DTI biased toward cheap imports (2)
• Imports are subsidised therefore cheaper (2)  

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
4.6.5

• Negative balance of trade (2)
• Cheaper imports means less profit for local producers (2)
• Less products produced in South Africa (2)
• Less profits generated in South Africa (2) 
• Local companies close down (2)
• Higher unemployment (2)
• Local producers cannot compete with imports (2)
• Smaller markets for local producers (2) 

[ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
4.6.6

• South Africa belongs to trading blocs/agreements/free trade zones (e.g.  BRICS, SADC, AGOA) (2)
• Access to a larger international market creates more competition for local  markets and pricing (2)
• Fosters better international relations between countries (2)
• Access to a larger variety of goods (2)
• More competitive prices for goods purchased (2)
• Access to cheaper goods means more spending power for the poor to buy  other goods (2)
• Access to cheaper food contributes to food security (2)
• Political corruption and manipulation (2) 

[ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 
4.6.7

• Advertising campaigns/trade fairs such as promote 'local is lekker', 'made in  South Africa' (2)
• Incentives for local industrialists (2)
• Provide funding to get subsidies to business (2)
• Provide funding to get grants to farmers (2)
• Provide funding to get rebates to farmers (2)
• Provide training programs to up skill locals (2)
• Use modern technology in farming to increase outputs (2)
• Encourage import substitution (2) 
• Produce high quality products locally (2)
• Protectionism/increase import tariffs/decrease quotas(2)
• Attract foreign investments for local production (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) [75] 

GRAND TOTAL: 225

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1.  This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30)
   SECTION B: Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language structures and conventions (30)
2. Read ALL the instructions carefully. 
3. Answer ALL the questions. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. Rule off after each section. 
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
7. Leave a line after each answer. 
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction. 
9. Suggested time allocation:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 30 minutes
   SECTION C: 40 minutes
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS  

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING 
Read TEXTS A and B below and answer the questions set. 
TEXT A

GLOSSARY: 

• ¹opulence – wealth/abundance
• ²acquiescence – agreement/consent

AND
TEXT B 

[Source: http://www.basfeijen.nl] 

QUESTIONS: TEXT A 
1.1 Account for the writer's feelings in paragraph 1. (2) 
1.2 Explain what the writer means by, 'The young men and women seem lost in  their designer clothes, dwarfed and dehumanised by their possessions, as if  ownership has gone into reverse' (lines 10–12). (2) 
1.3 Discuss the point the writer is making in lines 14–15: 'a photograph whose  purpose is to illustrate plenty seems instead to depict a void.' (2) 
1.4 Refer to paragraphs 3, 4 and 5. Explain the writer's purpose in referring to various research findings. (2) 
1.5 Why, in your view, does the writer distinguish between 'consumers' and  'citizens' (line 38)? (3) 
1.6 Discuss the paradox in paragraph 7. (3)
1.7 Refer to paragraph 8. 
Critically comment on TWO elements of style used by the writer in this  paragraph. (3) 
1.8 Is paragraph 10 a suitable conclusion to the article as a whole? Justify your  response. (3)

QUESTIONS: TEXT B
1.9 Explain how the thought bubbles of the two characters convey their attitudes  toward the film. (3) 
1.10 Critically discuss the cartoonist's message in TEXT B. (3)

QUESTION: TEXTS A AND B 
1.11 To what extent does TEXT B support the title and paragraph 1 of TEXT A?  Motivate your response. (4) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30 

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS 
TEXT C provides insight into why young people are interested in comics and  superheroes. Summarise in your own words the impact superheroes have on the  youth. 
NOTE: 

1. Your summary should include SEVEN points and NOT exceed 90 words. 
2. You must write a fluent paragraph. 
3. You are NOT required to include a title for the summary.
4. Indicate your word count at the end of your summary. 

TEXT C 

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS  
QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
Study the advertisement (TEXT D) below and answer the questions set.
TEXT D 

[Adapted from http://www.bandt.com.au] 
The text in small font reads as follows: 

QUESTIONS: TEXT D 
3.1 What is the implication of the headline, 'Let's keep the lights on when she's  your age'? (2) 
3.2 Comment on the repetition of the plural personal pronouns ('our', 'we're', 'we')  as an advertising technique. (2) 
TEXT E 

 [Source: www.savethearctic.org] 
The text in small font reads as follows: 

QUESTION: TEXT E 
3.3 Comment on the appropriateness of the image in the context of the  advertisement as a whole. (3) 
QUESTION: TEXT D AND TEXT E 
3.4 In your opinion, which advertisement would have a greater impact on the  reader? Justify your choice by making reference to both advertisements. (3) [10] 

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA 
Study TEXT F below and answer the questions set. 
TEXT F: CARTOON 

QUESTIONS: TEXT F 
4.1 Account for the lack of speech bubbles in FRAME 2. (2) 
4.2 Compare the boy's verbal responses to his sister in FRAME 4 and FRAME 7. (2) 
4.3 Refer to FRAMES 7, 8 and 9. Discuss TWO techniques that the cartoonist uses to depict the attitude of the  girl. (3) 
4.4 In respect of the sequence of events, the cartoonist has placed FRAME 1  first, instead of last. 
Critically comment on the effectiveness of this placement in the context of the  cartoon as a whole. (3) [10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY 
Read TEXT G, which contains some deliberate errors, and answer the questions set. TEXT G 

QUESTIONS: TEXT G 
5.1 Which punctuation mark could be used to replace the dash (line 1), without  changing the meaning of the sentence? (1) 
5.2 '…I was blown away' (line 3). Write formal English for the above clause. (1) 
5.3 'He was taken hostage for almost five years. He spent most of it in isolation,  chained, with no stimulation – not even natural light (lines 3–5).'  Rewrite the above sentences as a complex sentence. (1)
5.4 'He laughed as he was freed without shoes' (line 6). Explain the ambiguity in the above. (2)
5.5 'No regrets, no self-pity, no sentimentality' (line 8). Rewrite the above in reported speech. Begin your answer with: Waite said … (1)
5.6 The word 'victimhood' (line 9) is an example of a/an …

1. pronoun. 
2. adjective. 
3. abstract noun. 
4. gerund. (1) 

5.7 'Sometimes it feels like a race to the bottom, in which oversensitivity and  intolerance causes people to celebrate adversity' (lines 11–12).  Correct the concord error in the above sentence. (1) 
5.8 'No wonder victim status is coveted by so many, when it infers benefits' (line 13). A word has been used incorrectly in the above sentence. Replace it with the  correct word. (1) 
5.9 Remove the tautology in the final sentence of the extract. (1) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 30 
GRAND TOTAL: 70 

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1.  Read these instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions. 
2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of contents  on page 4 and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts you have  studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the ones you  wish to answer. 
3. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Poetry (30)
   SECTION B: Novel (25)
   SECTION C: Drama (25) 
4. Answer FIVE questions in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B  and ONE in SECTION C as follows:
   SECTION A: POETRY
   PRESCRIBED POETRY – Answer TWO questions.
   UNSEEN POEM – COMPULSORY question
   SECTION B: NOVEL
   Answer ONE question.
   SECTION C: DRAMA 
   Answer ONE question.
5. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA):
   • Answer questions ONLY on the novel and the drama you have studied
   • Answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL QUESTION.  If you answer the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the  contextual question in SECTION C. 
     If you answer the contextual question in SECTION B, you must answer  the essay question in SECTION C. 
     Use the checklist to assist you. 
6. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
   • The essay question on Poetry should be answered in about 250–300  words.
   • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered  in 400–450 words.
   • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by  the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and  relevance. 
7. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully.
8. Number your answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
9. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
10. Suggested time management:
    SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
    SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
    SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS 

NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, answer ONE ESSAY and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.
CHECKLIST 
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.  

NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, ensure that you have answered ONE ESSAY and ONE  CONTEXTUAL question. 
You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
Answer any TWO of the following questions.  
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the question that follows. 

In 'First Day after the War', the speaker focuses on the celebration of new beginnings. 
With close reference to diction, imagery and tone, critically discuss the validity of this  statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words  (about ONE page). [10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

2.1 Account for the repetition of the word, 'remember' throughout the poem. (2)
2.2 Refer to lines 5–8: 'Remember me when … then or pray.' Explain what these lines suggest about the speaker's relationship with her  loved one. (2) 
2.3 Comment on the significance of the reference to 'the darkness and corruption' (line 11) in the context of the poem. (3) 
2.4 Refer to lines 13–14: 'Better by far … and be sad.' Critically comment on how the speaker's tone in these lines reinforces the  central idea of the poem. (3) [10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

3.1 Refer to lines 1–2: 'somewhere i have never travelled,gladly beyond/any  experience'. What impression of the speaker is created by the use of 'gladly' (line 1)? (2)
3.2 'Spring' (line 7) is the only word that is capitalised in the poem. Explain the effect of this capitalisation in context. (2)
3.3 Refer to line 4: 'or which i cannot touch because they are too near'. Discuss the significance of the paradox in this line. (3)
3.4 Refer to lines 17–19: '(i do not … than all roses)'. Critically comment on how the speaker's tone in these lines reinforces the  central idea of the poem. (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

4.1 Refer to line 8: 'Do you see the mystery of our pain?' Suggest a reason for the inclusion of the rhetorical question. (2)
4.2 Refer to line 9: 'That we bear poverty'. Explain what the word, 'bear' implies about the local people. (2)
4.3 Refer to lines 16–17: 'That is why … the air remember.' Comment on the significance of the music's being 'so sweet' that it 'makes the  air remember'. (3) 
4.4 Refer to the final stanza. Critically comment on how the speaker's tone conveys the central idea of the  poem. (3) [10] 
AND

UNSEEN POETRY (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: UNSEEN POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

5.1 How does the description of the landscape in the first stanza support the title  of the poem? (2) 
5.2 Refer to lines 3–4: 'The khaki veld hums, a long singing/Late-noon dream.' Explain how these lines convey the mood of the first stanza. (2)
5.3 Refer to line 13: 'And feel the fine air stabbing out at me'. Comment on the effectiveness of the image in this line. (3) 
5.4 By referring to the poem as a whole, discuss the change in the speaker's  attitude toward his father. (3) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied. 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION 
In The Picture of Dorian Gray, the inability to distinguish between art and reality has  tragic consequences. 
Critically assess the validity of the above statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT A  

7.1 Place this extract in context. (3)
7.2 Refer to line 5: 'The prayer of your pride has been answered.' Explain the meaning of Basil's statement in context. (3)
7.3 Refer to lines 2–4: 'Pray, Dorian, pray … not into temptation.' Using these lines as a starting point, discuss how they reflect the differences between Basil Hallward's and Lord Henry's attitude toward life. (3) 
7.4 Refer to lines 7–8: 'It is too late, Basil'. Comment on Dorian's assertion that it is 'too late' for him to repent. (3) 
7.5 Refer to lines 15–16: 'suddenly an uncontrollable feeling of hatred for Basil  Hallward came over him'. In your view, is Dorian's 'hatred for Basil' justified? Motivate your response. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT B  

7.6 Refer to line 11: 'She knew nothing, but she had everything that he had lost.' Explain how this line reflects Dorian's mood at this point in the novel. (3)
7.7 Refer to lines 8–9: 'He had told … and very ugly.' Comment on whether Hetty's assertion in these lines reflects the general  attitude of people in Victorian society. (3) 
7.8 Refer to lines 13–19: 'Was it really … hope for him?' Dorian's eventual ruin offers a warning about the dangers of following  a hedonistic lifestyle.  Using your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss the extent to which  you agree with the above statement. (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel  
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION 
The novel, Life of Pi, suggests that, despite offering contradictory approaches to life,  reason and faith can co-exist. 
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT C 

9.1 Refer to lines 1–2: 'Richard Parker kept out of sight.' Explain Richard Parker's presence on the lifeboat. (3)
9.2 Refer to lines 4–7: 'I watched the ship … flotsam of tragedy.' What do these lines suggest about Pi's state of mind as the ship sinks? (3)
9.3 Refer to lines 20–21: 'It was the … a spotted hyena.' Comment on the significance of the hyena in the context of the novel as a  whole. (3) 
9.4 In the light of the novel as a whole, critically discuss how Pi's knowledge of  animals ensures his survival on the lifeboat. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT D 

9.5 Place the extract in context. (3)
9.6 Refer to lines 9–10: 'Giving me a … of the island.' Based on your knowledge of the novel as a whole, discuss the implication of  Richard Parker's behaviour in these lines. (3) 
9.7 Refer to lines 16–17: 'To go for … have so many'. Comment on the extent to which these lines foreshadow the effect that Pi's  ordeal will have on his life. (3) 
9.8 Refer to lines 11–12: 'I passed the … bathing in bliss.' Do you agree that the island represents the contrast between reality and  illusion? Justify your response, using this extract as a starting point. (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
Answer ONLY on the play you have studied. 
HAMLET – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 
Gertrude and Ophelia's passivity makes them vulnerable to exploitation and  manipulation.  
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.  
EXTRACT E

11.1 Refer to lines 1–4: 'But we both …To be commanded.' Explain what has prompted Claudius and Gertrude to send for Rosencrantz  and Guildenstern. (3) 
11.2 Refer to line 8: 'My too much changéd son.' Account for the change that has come upon Hamlet. (3)
11.3 Refer to lines 18–20: 'Assure you, … my gracious king'. Discuss how this statement is typical of Polonius's character. (3)
11.4 Refer to line 36: 'At such a time I'll loose my daughter to him.' Based on your knowledge of the play as a whole, comment on the role  Ophelia plays in influencing Hamlet's attitude toward women. (3) 
11.5 Refer to lines 10–11: 'Heavens make our … helpful to him!' Comment on the irony of Guildenstern's words in the above lines. (3)
AND
EXTRACT F 

11.6 Refer to line 3: 'Pray can I not'. Account for Claudius's inability to pray for forgiveness. (3)
11.7 Refer to Hamlet's words and the stage directions in lines 7–9: '(Approaches  the entry … draws his sword)'. If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the  actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language and tone.  Motivate your instructions. (3) 
11.8 Hamlet's hesitation in taking revenge is a sign of cowardice. Critically comment on the extent to which you agree with this statement. (4) [25]

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 
Desdemona and Emilia contradict the idea that Venetian women are submissive and  immoral. 
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT G

13.1 Account for Brabantio's approaching the Duke and the Senate on the issue of  Desdemona's marriage. (3) 
13.2 Refer to lines 1–3: 'I think this … at the best.' Explain what has prompted the Duke's response in these lines. (3)
13.3 Refer to lines 7–11: 'If she confess … you owe obedience?' Discuss the accuracy of Brabantio's perception of Desdemona. (3)
13.4 Refer to lines 32–37: 'The Turk with … and boisterous expedition.' In the light of later events, comment on how Othello compromises his  reputation. (3) 
AND 
EXTRACT H 

13.5 Refer to lines 10–15: 'Have you not … his beard with.' Account for Iago's deliberate mention of the handkerchief at this point in the  play. (3) 
13.6 Refer to line 1: 'O monstrous, monstrous!' If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the  actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3) 
13.7 Refer to line 30: 'Patience, I say. Your mind perhaps may change.' Explain the irony of Iago's advice in the above line. (3)
13.8 Iago's treachery is a sign of cowardice.  Critically comment on the extent to which you agree with this statement. (4) [25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION  
The manner in which Salem views its women contributes to the tragedy that unfolds. Critically assess the validity of this statement.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 
QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT I 

15.1 Refer to the stage direction in line 1: '(already taking a step backward)'. Explain what prompts Tituba's behaviour here. (3)
15.2 Refer to line 18: 'There be no unnatural cause here.' Account for Parris's contradiction of this statement when he later supports the  witchcraft allegations. (3) 
15.3 Refer to lines 11–12: 'with an endless capacity for dissembling.' Discuss the accuracy of this description of Abigail. (3) 
15.4 Based on your understanding of the nature of Salem society, discuss the  reasons for 'the rumour of witchcraft' (line 26) spreading so quickly. (3) 

AND 
EXTRACT J 

15.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
15.6 Refer to line 10: 'What's that?' If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you  instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body  language and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3)
15.7 Refer to line 3: 'His wife's Rebecca that were condemned this morning.' Using this line as a starting point, discuss how Rebecca Nurse's execution  influences the villagers' changing perception of the court. (3) 
15.8 Danforth's refusal to listen to the truth is a sign of cowardice.  Critically comment on the extent to which you agree with this statement. (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL:  80

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections: 
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Transactional Texts (2 x 25) (50)  
2. Answer ONE question from SECTION A and TWO questions from  SECTION B. 
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. You must plan (e.g. using a mind map/a diagram/a flow chart/key words), edit  and proofread your work. The plan must appear BEFORE the answer. 
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line  through all planning. 
7. You are strongly advised to spend your time as follows:
   SECTION A: approximately 80 minutes
   SECTION B: approximately 70 (2 x 35) minutes
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
9. The title/heading must NOT be included when doing a word count.
10. Write neatly and legibly. 

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics.  Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay.  
1.1 Marketplace secrets [50] 
1.2 'What is life? 

It is the flash of a firefly in the night; 
It is the breath of a buffalo in the wintertime. 
It is the little shadow which runs across the grass 
And loses itself in the sunset.' 
(Crowfoot, warrior and orator) [50] 

1.3 Mankind is on the edge. [50] 
1.4 'It is only impossible until it is done.' (Nelson Mandela) [50] 
1.5 Necessary trouble [50] 
1.6 The pictures reproduced below and on page 4 may evoke a reaction or  feeling in you or stir your imagination.  
Select ONE picture and write an essay in response. Write the question  number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3) of your choice and give your essay a title. 
NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you have chosen. 
1.6.1

 [Source: www.travelhonestly.com] [50]
1.6.2

 [Source: www.weheartit.com] [50] 
1.6.3

 [Source: www.statusfacebook.com] [50] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to TWO of the following topics. 
• The body of each of your answers should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines)  in length. 
• Pay careful attention to the following:
  • Audience, register, tone and style
  • Choice of words and language structure 
  • Format 

• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen,  e.g. 2.1 SPEECH. 

2.1 SPEECH 
You are representing a group that is interested in expanding the number of  languages offered at your school.  Write the speech that you will deliver to the school's governing body, titled  'Language should build bridges – not create borders'. [25] 

2.2 FORMAL LETTER 
You are the chairperson of an organisation that promotes the interests of  young innovators. Write a letter of congratulations to the winner of the 'Young Innovator  Award 2018'. [25]

2.3 OBITUARY 
An extreme-sport enthusiast died tragically while attempting a new record. Write her/his obituary. [25]

2.4 INTERVIEW 
A young adult recently experienced a dramatic change in fortune.  As a talk show host of a popular television/radio programme, write the  interview that takes place between you and this young adult. [25] 

2.5 MAGAZINE ARTICLE 
The image below, which recently won the 'Photograph of the Year' award,  featured in Life for Ever.  Write the magazine article that accompanied the photograph. 

[Source: www.googleimages.com] [25]

2.6 LETTER TO THE PRESS 
There has been an increase in dishonest practices in various sporting codes. Write a letter to the Editor of a national newspaper in which you express your  views. [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 3
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER 
In assessing a candidate's work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the  assessment rubric, must be borne in mind: 

• The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on the  final text produced
• Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as  register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B
• Grammar, spelling and punctuation
• Language structures, including an awareness of critical language
• Choice of words and idiomatic language
• Sentence construction
• Paragraphing
• Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the  introduction, the development of ideas and the conclusion

MEMORANDUM 

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING 
SECTION A: ESSAY 
Refer to SECTION A: Rubric for Assessing an Essay found on pages 7 and 8 of these marking guidelines. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND  PLANNING. 
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE,  STYLE AND EDITING. 
3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE. 

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
Refer to SECTION B: Rubric for Assessing Transactional Texts found on page 9 of these marking guidelines. 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING  AND FORMAT.
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE,  STYLE AND EDITING. 

NOTE: 

• Various formats of transactional/referential/informational texts have been  taught/are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the  format. 
• Give credit for appropriateness of format. 
• Look for a logical approach in all writing. 

NOTE: 

• The points given below each topic in these marking guidelines serve only as a guide to markers.  
• Allowance must be made for a candidate's own interpretation of the topic,  even if it differs from the given points or a marker's own views or  interpretations. 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE  of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive,  reflective, discursive, argumentative, or any combination of these. 
1.1 Marketplace secrets 

• “Marketplace” could refer to any place of trading. 
• Responses could focus on observations in the marketplace/anecdotal accounts of behind-the-scenes activities. 
• Accept fantastical interpretations.   [50] 

1.2 'What is life? 
It is the flash of a firefly in the night; 
It is the breath of a buffalo in the wintertime. 
It is the little shadow which runs across the grass 
And loses itself in the sunset.' 

[Crowfoot, warrior and orator] 

• Fleeting moments in life could be described. 
• Brevity of life could be discussed. 
• Beauty of nature could be explored. [50] 1.3 Mankind is on the edge. 
• Candidates could focus on a variety of scenarios, such as innovation and  despair. 
• Allow for apocalyptic narratives. [50] 

1.4 'It is only impossible until it is done.' 
 [Nelson Mandela] 

• Focus on achievements despite challenges/obstacles. 
• Candidates could disagree with the topic. 
• Credit literal/figurative responses. [50] 

1.5 Necessary trouble 

• Focus on: 'The end justifies the means.' 
• Candidates could relate how mischief/wrongdoing might be  inevitable/justifiable. 
• Candidates could relate how experiencing trouble in life is important for  positive change. [50] 

1.6 NOTE: There must be a clear link between the essay and the picture chosen. 1.6.1 Man resting on statue 

• Credit literal, figurative and/or mixed responses. [50]

1.6.2 Cityscape through the lenses of a pair of spectacles 

• Credit literal, figurative and/or mixed responses. [50]

1.6.3 Face and Tree 

• Credit literal, figurative and/or mixed responses. [50]

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 
Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of each response should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register,  style and tone must be appropriate to the context. 
2.1 SPEECH 

• Speech should focus on inclusion of a number of languages in context. • Respect for language diversity could be highlighted. [25] 

2.2 FORMAL LETTER  

• The candidate should congratulate the winner of the prestigious award  and specify what the innovation is. 
• Format: own address, date, addressee, subject line, salutation and signing-off [25] 

2.3 OBITUARY 

• The candidate must show an understanding of an obituary as opposed to  a eulogy. 
• The focus should be on the life and legacy of the deceased. [25] 2.4 INTERVIEW 
• The reference to 'change of fortune' could be interpreted positively or  negatively, and literally or figuratively. 
• Valid dialogue format should be used. [25] 2.5 MAGAZINE ARTICLE 
• The candidate could focus on environmental/emotional/psychological/ social issues. 
• Credit candidates who focus on the photograph as an artistic piece. 
• Format: headline is essential; by-line is optional. [25] 2.6 LETTER TO THE PRESS 
• The letter should address the writer's views on dishonest practices in  sport. 
• Candidates may refer to dishonest practices by stakeholders at any level. • Format: own address, date, addressee, subject line, salutation and signing-off [25]

TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

NOTE: 

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A). 
• Marks from 0–50 have been divided into FIVE major level descriptors. 
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper-level and a lower level sub category with the applicable mark range and descriptors. 
• Structure is not affected by the upper-level and lower-level division. 

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS]

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS] (continued)

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – HOME LANGUAGE [25 MARKS]

ENGLISH HOME LANGUAGE
PAPER 2
GRADE 12  
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

NOTE TO MARKERS 

• These marking guidelines are intended as a guide for markers.
• The marking guidelines will be discussed with the marking panels before marking commences at the marking centres.
• Candidates' responses must be considered on their merits.

MARKING GUIDELINES 

1. Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of questions,  mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may not answer the essay  and the contextual question on the same genre.) 
2. If a candidate has answered all four questions in SECTION A (prescribed poems),  mark only the first two. 
3. If a candidate has answered two contextual or two essay questions in SECTIONS B  and C, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has answered all  four questions (novel) and/or all six questions (drama), mark only the first answer in  each SECTION, provided that one contextual and one essay have been answered.
4. If a candidate gives two answers, the first of which is wrong and the next one  correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next. 
5. If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guidelines. 
6. If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the  meaning, mark correct. 
7. Essay question
   If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not penalise, because the  candidate has already penalised himself/herself. If the essay is too long, assess on  merit and discuss with senior markers.
8. Contextual questions
   If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not  penalise.
9. For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I  AGREE/DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what  should be considered.
10. No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/justification is what should be considered.
11. Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically in the light of the  discussion during the standardisation of the marking guidelines. 

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
'FIRST DAY AFTER THE WAR' – Mazisi Kunene 

The poem is a celebration of the end of apartheid and of new beginnings.

• The poem deals with excitement and the desire to tell people about the dawn of a  new era, which suggests a fresh start and is a symbol of hope and change. 
• The wedding metaphor symbolises celebration. It is the beginning of a new life and  a time of peace and harmony. The reference to the 'songs' at the 'wedding party' conveys joyous celebration. 
• The allusion to freedom illustrates the lifting of the restrictions and oppression of the apartheid era. This is cause for jubilation.
• 'Then without waiting we ran to the open space' conveys the people's excitement. Their joy is spontaneous, unrestrained and boundless. They erupt in celebration.
• The word, 'suddenly' suggests that the ending of oppression and subsequent unification are unexpected pleasures to be celebrated.  
• The end of the war, together with the eradication of suffering, is met with great festivity and jubilation.
• Words like 'calling', 'shook', 'demanding' and 'shouted' are forceful. They convey the people's enthusiasm and determination to enjoy the occasion. They are unable to contain their joy, which is expressed in wild actions.  
• The use of the onomatopoeic word, 'ululating' conveys the sound of the people's spontaneity and expression of ecstasy and elation. The word is associated with traditional forms of African celebration. 
• The repetition of 'we' emphasises the coming together of people who were previously divided. This is reinforced by their holding hands – a gesture of intimacy and comfort. There is a sense of harmony, ubuntu and accord. A common humanity is celebrated. 
• Because of the celebratory mood, people demand the 'first fruits of the season'. The occasion is so great that only the best will do. It is also an expression of gratitude for blessings bestowed. 
• The announcement of the advent of democracy is shared with all. The spirit is so infectious that people 'came from all the lands' to join the unification.
• Even the ancestors join the celebration. They are proud and 'travelling tall'.
• The tone initially is one of disbelief that oppression has come to an end, then restrained joy, followed by ecstatic celebration, jubilance and pride. The tone might  also be celebratory/enthusiastic/excited. 

[A cogent ‘Invalid’ response is unlikely. However, treat all responses on their merits.]
[Credit valid alternative responses.] [10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'REMEMBER' – Christina Rossetti 
2.1 The repetition highlights the speaker's desire to be remembered after her  death as she fears being forgotten. Initially, she wants to be in her loved  one’s memory constantly. Later, she wants to be remembered only if it does  not cause her loved one pain.  
Candidates might refer to the repetition as reflecting the imperative tone to  create a forceful and urgent appeal. They might also comment on how the  repetition emphasises the depth of love the speaker feels for her loved one. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.2 The lines suggest a close, intimate relationship where plans are made for a  shared future. The lines also allude to the active role the loved one plays in  the plans; this possibly suggests his significant role in the relationship. The  speaker's reminder to her loved one that a time will come when he will not be  able to 'counsel' or 'pray' for her suggests that he offers her guidance,  support, advice and comfort.  
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.3 Darkness suggests death and the unknown. It conveys her fear of death and  a sense of foreboding of the desolation/despair that her passing might bring.  The word, 'corruption' refers to the dreadful physical effects of illness which  may alter the body; it also refers to the decay of the body after death. The  speaker is concerned that witnessing the harsh physical manifestations of the  illness will leave a sad memory of what she used to be. This might lead to a  distorted image of her that would bring pain to her loved one. It is for this  reason that she would rather he forget her. 
[Award 3 marks only if ‘darkness’ and ‘corruption’ are discussed.] (3) 
2.4 A reconciliatory, consoling and comforting tone is used. The speaker is at  peace with her impending death and separation from the physical world. The  two contrasting ideas, 'forget and smile' and 'remember and be sad', help to  reinforce the tone of acceptance. The speaker wants her lover to be happy  and continue to live a fulfilled life and not be melancholic when he  remembers her.  
[Award 3 marks only if the tone and central idea are fully discussed.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'somewhere i have never travelled, gladly beyond' – ee cummings 
3.1 The speaker is enthusiastic about, and open to, the new possibilities in his  life. Although it is the unknown, the anticipation fills him with excitement. He  welcomes the thought of the adventure and looks forward to the experience. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
3.2 By capitalising the word, the importance and power of Spring is recognised.  Spring is the giver of life and transforms the winter landscape into something  of beauty. Like Spring, his beloved has transformed him by bringing love into  his life. [Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
3.3 The speaker's inability to touch something despite its nearness is  contradictory. His feelings for his beloved are 'too near' to his heart/an  intimate part of him and he is reluctant to expose himself as he is afraid that  his love makes him vulnerable/defenceless to potential heartbreak and pain. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
3.4 The speaker's tone is of admiration/awe/wonder/reverence. He finds it  amazing that her mere presence can overwhelm his senses, thoughts and  emotions. The expression in her eyes conveys the intensity of her love for  him. The unusual connection the speaker makes between the senses  suggests that even without words, there is communication and understanding  between the lovers. The description conveys the idea of love's being  inexplicable, mysterious and spiritual. There is no logic to explain why his  beloved is able to exert absolute power over him yet instinctively he is willing  to accede to her. [Award 3 marks only if the tone and central idea are discussed.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'AN AFRICAN ELEGY' – Ben Okri 
4.1 The rhetorical question emphasises the inexplicable nature of the people's  reaction to their suffering. The mystery lies in their ability to 'sing and dream  sweet things' despite their hardship. The speaker is puzzled by their  magnanimous reaction. 
Candidates might refer to the reaction of the people's being paradoxical as  they are able to express joy despite their pain. 
[Award 2 marks for any one point well discussed.] (2) 
4.2 The local people's problems are a burden which they put up with without  anger. They endure and tolerate their hardship without distress or  annoyance. They are accepting of their suffering and are prepared to live  with it. The word conveys the extent and relentlessness of their suffering. 
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
4.3 The music is gratifying/rewarding/pleasurable/harmonious. It is significant  because it is an expression of the people's optimistic attitude to life. The air  'remembers' because people are aware of the music even after it has ended.  Its impact on the surroundings resonates and the feeling of upliftment  endures. 
Candidates might refer to the sounds carried by the air as being a reminder  of the close spiritual connection between nature and the ancestors. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
4.4 The tone is optimistic/contemplative/meditative/thoughtful. The speaker is in  awe of the magical quality of nature and life. He focuses on the promise of a  better life and the need to be in harmony with our world. The speaker's tone  reflects his amazement at the people's faith and endurance. The message of  the poem is that Africans are eternally hopeful in spite of hardship. They are  able to find positives even in difficult situations. 
[Award 3 marks only if the tone and central idea are fully discussed.] (3) [10]

UNSEEN POETRY (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
'AUTUMN' – Douglas Ridley Beeton 
5.1 The leaves of the trees reflect the warm, golden colours of autumn. The  'khaki veld' appears drab, dull and dry. The aloes, which bloom in autumn,  stand in bright contrast to the plainness of the landscape.  
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
5.2 'Hums' is a soft-sounding word which suggests the mellow and relaxed mood  of the time of day when the busyness has calmed down. There is a feeling of  calmness and laziness. The drawn-out sounds of 'long' and 'noon' convey a  mood of tranquillity and peacefulness. 'Dream' suggests that it is a time of  reflection and nostalgia.  
[Award 2 marks for any two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
5.3 The image of the night air 'stabbing' is effective because it suggests that the  speaker is suddenly aware of the coldness of the night which is sharp and  acute. The change in temperature is so intense and severe that it is piercing  and painful.  
Candidates might refer to the effectiveness of the cold air as having pricked  the speaker’s conscience and having alerted him to his judgemental attitude  toward his father. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
5.4 Initially, the speaker is dismissive of his father's outlook and feels his father is  old-fashioned and that his opinions are out-dated and irrelevant. The  speaker's attitude is that his father is narrow-minded and not prepared to  think about the future or consider his son's views. He believes his father is  stubborn and uncompromising; the father's repetition of 'wrong' suggests his  stubbornness. 
However, the speaker is reminded of the changes that nature undergoes and  his new-found awareness of the majesty and vigour of nature modifies his  attitude toward his father. He is prepared to be more accepting and  accommodating of his father's opinions. 
[Award 3 marks only if the change in the speaker's attitude is discussed.] (3) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Dorian Gray's introduction via his portrait establishes the importance of art in Dorian's world. His referral to the portrait as being 'part of [himself]' suggests he is unable to separate himself from the image in the portrait. 
• According to Basil, Dorian inspires him to find wonder in reality and the art he produces while Dorian is his muse is better as a result.
• By creating Dorian's image in the portrait, Basil feels that he has captured Dorian's spirit. He also worries that his feelings for Dorian have been exposed. Later, when Dorian leaves with Lord Henry, Basil says he prefers to stay with the 'real Dorian'.  This indicates Basil's failure to discriminate between illusion and reality. 
• When Basil wants to destroy the portrait, Dorian says it would be tantamount to 'murder'. This personification is an indication of how real the portrait is to Dorian.
• There is an element of unreality in Dorian's constant search for new experiences  to escape the ordinariness of his life. He avoids dealing with the reality of his sinful  behaviour because the portrait bears the consequences on his behalf. He is not  held accountable for any of the dubious acts he commits.  
• Lord Henry believes that art is superior to life and he encourages Dorian to live his life as if it is art. He states that 'being natural is simply a pose', implying that reality is a sham. He also suggests that being detached from reality and being a  'spectator of one's own life' protects one from experiencing hardship and misery.  
• Dorian's commitment to these ideas is reflected in his use of the yellow book as a template for his own life. His imitation of the life led by its protagonist is an indication of how his concept of reality is blurred.  
• Sibyl Vane's artistry allows Dorian to escape reality. His love for her is an illusion based on the characters she plays rather than who she really is. Her poor performance deprives him of this illusion. Lord Henry encourages Dorian to see  Sibyl's death in artistic terms which allows Dorian to detach himself from reality. 
• In contrast, Sibyl's love for Dorian makes her aware that art is only a reflection of life. She rejects her art in order to experience the reality of love. Sibyl's limited experience of life outside the theatre and her referring to Dorian as Prince  Charming indicates her inability to distinguish between romantic notions of love  and reality. This leads to her suicide after she is discarded by Dorian. 
• When Dorian can no longer deny the reality of the ugliness of his soul, he destroys the portrait and finally reveals the truth of his debauchery.
• Candidates might refer to Basil, Alan Campbell, James Vane and Mrs Vane as well as those whose lives have been ruined as a consequence of their association with Dorian.  
• Credit references to the general attitude displayed by the wealthy members of society that exposing the poor to art can alleviate their suffering. The consequence of this callous attitude is the resentment the poor have for the wealthy. 

[Accept valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
7.1 Basil has come to say goodbye to Dorian before leaving for Paris. Although he finds it difficult to believe the rumours, he has confronted Dorian about his  debauched lifestyle. In response, Dorian takes Basil up to the room in which  he has been hiding the portrait to show Basil his 'soul'. On viewing the altered  portrait, Basil is horrified at the realisation that Dorian is as wicked as people  have said he is. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.2 Basil is referring to Dorian's vain desire to remain forever young and good looking while his portrait reflects the signs of his aging. Basil is suggesting that it is Dorian's pride that has caused his despair. At the same time, Basil  reminds Dorian that the circumstances he finds himself in are of his own  making.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.3 Basil suggests that having self-restraint is a more appropriate response to life,  as yielding to temptation will have dire consequences. Lord Henry, on the  other hand, believes that one should yield to temptation and not deny oneself  anything one might desire, regardless of the moral implications. Basil has a  strong sense of morality while Lord Henry has very little regard for it. Basil's  urging Dorian to pray shows his caring nature and concern for the state of  Dorian's soul. This contrasts with Lord Henry's lack of concern for the moral  well-being of others.  [Award 3 marks only if the differences between both characters are  discussed.] (3) 
7.4 Dorian feels that his actions have become so depraved and his soul so  tarnished that there is no possibility of absolution or redemption. As a result of  it being 'too late for him' to change, Dorian rationalises that he might as well  continue on this path of evil. Even when he does consider reforming, Dorian  sees no change in his portrait and therefore feels that any attempt to change his lifestyle is futile. Dorian's assertion might be seen as correct as he is not  prepared to give up his decadent lifestyle since the thrill of leading a double  life intrigues him.  However, the fact that Dorian experiences moments of remorse and regret for  the evil he has committed does indicate his potential for redemption and for  him to change his life for the better.  [Accept valid alternative responses.] [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
7.5 YES 
Dorian is angered by Basil's pious reaction to the reality of his (Dorian's) sins  as he holds Basil responsible for igniting his vanity. Had his wish to remain  forever young and attractive not been granted, he might have been less  debauched in his behaviour. Dorian might also hate Basil for introducing him  to Lord Henry, whose controversial philosophies have set Dorian on his path  of moral corruption.  
OR  
NO 
Dorian's hatred for Basil is not justified because he should take responsibility  for his own actions rather than blame those around him for the lifestyle he has  chosen. Although Basil has idolised Dorian, he has always expressed a  concern for Dorian's well-being. Dorian's decision to live a life of debauchery  is not directly a result of his association with Basil. 
[Accept valid alternative/mixed responses.] 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.6 Dorian is feeling sad and nostalgic. He yearns for Hetty's simple outlook and  wishes he could regain his lost innocence. There is a sense of  despair/despondency in his envy of her unworldliness. Dorian might also  experience regret for the immoral choices he has made.  [Award 3 marks only if mood is discussed.] (3) 
7.7 Hetty's view is that a person's appearance is an indicator of character.  Because Dorian is young and attractive, Hetty does not believe that he can be  evil. Sibyl is attracted to Dorian because of his gentlemanly appearance, despite her not knowing anything about him. This is an attitude also held by  the Victorian upper class who believes that physical attractiveness and  'manners' are more important than morals. Basil's seeing Dorian as the ideal  of beauty and purity while ignoring his 'wilful, petulant nature' and Lord  Henry's assertions about being beautiful validate Hetty's statement. Dorian's  infatuation with Sibyl is based on her appearance and her acting skills rather  than who she really is.  
[Accept valid alternative responses.] [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
7.8 AGREE 
Hedonism encourages one to selfishly pursue pleasure without regard for the  consequences or the impact on others. Dorian is introduced to the idea of  hedonism by Lord Henry who encourages him to give in to temptation and not  deny himself anything. Dorian becomes decadent, and his desire for new  experiences contributes to his degeneration. He is aware that his corruption  and destructive influence has warped his soul. He can no longer bear the evil  that is reflected in the portrait. Too late, he realises that what he has lost of  himself is irretrievable and the weight of this knowledge is too great to bear.  This results in his destroying the portrait and ultimately himself.  
[A cogent 'Disagree' response is unlikely. However, treat all responses on  their merits.] 
[Award 4 marks for any three ideas well discussed OR four ideas.] (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel 
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION 

Candidates might agree to a greater or lesser degree with the statement but are unlikely  to disagree wholeheartedly. 

• Reason is the power to think about, understand, and form judgements logically. It  helps one to consider the effects before taking any action. Faith, on the other hand, is  a belief in a higher power. Although these might appear to be contradictory concepts, the novel suggests that reason and faith can co-exist. 
• In the Author's Note, the element of faith is introduced when the narrator is told that  Pi's story 'will make you believe in God'. 
• Pi's love for the logic of science is nurtured by his Biology teacher, Mr Kumar, as well  as through his observation of animal behaviour at his father's zoo. 
• Pi embraces all three religions to which he is exposed because he recognises that  they all reflect the common element of love for God. 
• His passion for science and religion is encouraged by his role models, the two Mr  Kumars. Despite their different perspectives, one scientific and the other religious,  they are able to reach consensus on their appreciation of the zebra. This suggests that these two ideas, reason and religion, can co-exist. 
• Atheists are also capable of having faith although their faith lies in science rather than  in a belief in God. 
• Some agnostics believe that reason and faith cannot co-exist and that everything  should have a logical explanation. 
• On the lifeboat, both reason and faith help Pi to survive. His faith allows him to  maintain focus and hope while his scientific knowledge and his ability to think logically  sustain him physically.  
• Pi's reason makes him realise that he has to abandon his vegetarianism and resort to  killing in order to survive. He is able to reconcile himself to his savagery by showing  reverence for and praying over his kill. He also rationalises the need to distance  himself from the savagery to which he descends. The creation of Richard Parker, his  alter ego, enables him to cope with the horror of his actions. 
• Later, at university in Canada, Pi's choice of subjects reflects his ability to find  commonality in seemingly disparate world views. 
• His choice of science as a career and his religious nature reflect his ability to reconcile  reason and faith.  
• Furthermore, the Japanese officials do not believe Pi's version of the story with the  animals and the algae island because it defies logic. Nevertheless, Pi uses the  example of the floating bananas in an attempt to prove the truth of his experiences.  He maintains that, at times, one has to have faith and belief, such as the belief in the  existence of God, without any empirical evidence.  

[Credit valid alternative/mixed responses.] [25]

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
9.1 After finding himself on the lifeboat, Pi spots Richard Parker in the water.  Being pleased to see a familiar figure and out of concern for the tiger's safety,  Pi helps the tiger onto the boat. Richard Parker prefers to hide himself away  because he finds himself in unfamiliar territory and is feeling sea-sick.  
Candidates might focus on the second story and suggest that Richard Parker  is present as Pi’s alter ego, which enables him to cope with his ordeal. Richard Parker’s being out of sight is because, at this point, Pi is still able to  control his savagery. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.2 Pi feels despair and hopelessness as the ship sinks. A sense of Pi's distress  and vulnerability is reinforced by the description of the waves as 'marauding'.  The phrase, 'flotsam of tragedy' suggests that Pi feels broken, desolate/alone  and at the mercy of the elements. The finality of the lights being extinguished  emphasises Pi's feelings of despondency. The bleakness of the description is  a reflection of Pi's state of mind. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.3 In both stories, the hyena/French cook is portrayed as unpredictable, greedy,  cunning and vicious. As scavengers, hyenas prey on those who are  perceived as weaker, but are cowardly and afraid of confronting a more  powerful adversary. In the same way, the French cook is cowardly and  viciously attacks the injured sailor. The hyena is a reminder of the savagery of which humans are capable when survival is at stake.  
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.4 Pi's early years are spent at his father's zoo where he is able to observe  animals at close quarters. His interests in science and zoomorphism give him  detailed knowledge of animal behaviour. Without this knowledge, Pi would  not have known how to tame the tiger and predict how the animals would respond on the lifeboat. His father's lesson in the danger of  anthropomorphising animals is also instrumental in his survival. In addition,  the knowledge gained from the survival manual about which sea creatures  are edible also ensures his survival. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.5 Soon after Pi's encounter with the blind Frenchman, Pi and Richard Parker come across an island of trees. At first Pi thinks that it is an illusion, especially  when he notices that the island has no soil. His scepticism is overcome when  he falls overboard and encounters solid land. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
9.6 Richard Parker follows his predatory instinct by rushing off to hunt. However,  through his training of Richard Parker, Pi has established himself as the  dominant force in order to survive. Richard Parker's giving Pi 'a wide berth' indicates that he accepts Pi as the alpha male and respectfully avoids  intruding on Pi's territory. Richard Parker’s disappearance on the island  foreshadows his leaving Pi when they reach Mexico. 
Candidates might focus on how, in the safe confines of the island, Pi is able  to keep the tiger's savagery at bay and thus Richard Parker is allowed to  disappear. Richard Parker's behaviour foreshadows Pi's separation from his  alter ego when it is no longer required to ensure his survival. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.7 On the island, Richard Parker (Pi's alter ego) kills more meerkats than he can  eat. Pi greedily eats and hoards any food he is given in hospital, and as an  adult, Pi stockpiles food in his home. Pi needs the security of knowing that he  has enough food and that he will never again have to resort to savagery. This  is an indication that Pi is still psychologically scarred by his ordeal. The  memory of the deprivation he has suffered remains with him throughout his  life.  
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
9.8 AGREE 
At first the island is a sanctuary to Pi and Richard Parker as it provides for all  their essential needs. However, Pi realises that, rather than being a paradise  which offers salvation, the island is carnivorous and deadly. The island seems to be like the Garden of Eden/Paradise, but Pi discovers the human  teeth, suggesting beastly characteristics. This leads to the realisation that the  island is evil; this symbolises a shallow faith. It is not the safe haven that Pi  has assumed it to be. It is this knowledge that finally spurs him to leave the  island. Candidates might refer to Pi’s being in a hallucinatory state and being unable  to distinguish between what is real and what is imaginary. 
[A cogent 'Disagree' response is unlikely. However, treat all such responses  on their merits.] (4) 
[Award 4 marks for any three ideas well discussed OR four ideas.] [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
HAMLET – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 

Candidates might agree or disagree with this statement, or they may offer a mixed  response.  

• Gertrude and Ophelia live in a patriarchal society and are considered to be frail  and weak-minded. This enables their being manipulated and exploited. 
• Soon after the death of her husband, Gertrude is seduced into marrying her  brother-in-law, Claudius, an act that earns the anger of her son, Hamlet. 
• Gertrude's hasty marriage is evidence of her dependence on men and inability to  take control of her own life. Her shallowness and desire for status and affection  make her easy prey for Claudius. Claudius's marriage to Gertrude might be seen  as opportunistic and as a means of usurping Prince Hamlet's position as king. 
• Hamlet's perception of women as being dishonest and fickle is influenced by his  mother's allowing Claudius to seduce her.  
• Claudius expects Gertrude to reject Hamlet and to be loyal to him only. Although  Gertrude protects Hamlet from Claudius after Hamlet has killed Polonius, she goes  along with Claudius's plan to send Hamlet into exile.  
• Ophelia is portrayed as gentle, loyal and obedient and looks to her father and  brother for advice and guidance. She is viewed as naïve and innocent and unable  to know her own mind. 
• When Polonius asks Ophelia to reject Hamlet's attentions, she meekly obeys him,  returning Hamlet's gifts. She allows Polonius to use her to spy on Hamlet. 
• Ophelia is on the receiving end of Hamlet's anger and disillusionment with all  women. He uses Ophelia to reinforce the impression that he is mad, which aids  him in implementing his plan of revenge. Ophelia passively accepts his abuse.  After Hamlet kills Polonius, Ophelia becomes mad with grief and drowns.
• Gertrude continues to display her concern for Hamlet and requests that  Rosencrantz and Guildenstern discover the cause of his behaviour. She also  summons Hamlet to her chamber because of his behaviour at the play, which  upset Claudius. She admits that her marriage to Claudius was 'o'er-hasty', but  never actively opposes Claudius. Her final act of warning Hamlet about the  poisoned wine shows that she is able to act independently and that she is  prepared to sacrifice herself for her son. This displays her strength and loyalty, not  passivity. 
• Ophelia occasionally acts independently. When Laertes warns her about Hamlet's  dishonourable intentions, she thanks him, but accuses him of double-standards.  During the play, she challenges Hamlet's sexual innuendos. 
• In her madness, Ophelia becomes outspoken. She gives Claudius flowers  symbolising ingratitude and infidelity, thus indicating her disapproval of his actions. 

[Credit valid alternative/mixed responses.] [25]

QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
11.1 Hamlet has been behaving strangely and this has led to the summoning of  Rosencrantz and Guildenstern, two of Hamlet's school friends, to Elsinore.  The King and Queen seem to be concerned about his wellbeing and hope  that his friends will discover the cause of his behaviour and that their  presence might lift his spirits. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.2 Hamlet is grieving over the death of his father and he has fallen into a state of  depression. His uncle, Claudius, whom he detests, has been crowned the  new king of Denmark, despite the fact that Hamlet is heir to the throne. He is  shocked to discover that Claudius has also married Hamlet's mother very  soon after his father's death. Hamlet suspects foul play and feigns madness  as a means of corroborating the Ghost's allegations.  
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.3 Polonius's self-serving behaviour is evident here. He is intent on ingratiating  himself with Claudius. He is unscrupulous and, by supporting Claudius's  kingship, has secured the position as Claudius's chief councillor. His belief in  his superior intellect leads to his making unfounded assumptions regarding  the reason for Hamlet's behaviour. In order to advance his own prospects, he  does not hesitate to use his daughter as bait in order to spy on Hamlet for the  King. His spying on the conversation between Gertrude and Hamlet later in  the play is also an attempt to help Claudius. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.4 Ophelia is unwittingly used by her father and Claudius to discover Hamlet's  secrets. Hamlet's view of women as liars and deceivers is reinforced by  Ophelia's lying to him about her father's whereabouts; he is aware that  Polonius is eavesdropping on their conversation. Gertrude's betrayal of  Hamlet's father and himself has already caused him to mistrust women, and  Ophelia's actions reinforce his poor opinion of them. 
Candidates might refer to Hamlet's attitude toward women as being more  complex and more sympathetic; his uncertainty about Ophelia might support  this assertion. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.5 Rosencrantz and Guildenstern are Hamlet's friends and should show care,  support and loyalty. They are expected to protect him from harm. In these  lines, Guildenstern pledges that they will do all in their power to help Hamlet.  However, they readily accede to being exploited by Claudius to spy on  Hamlet, with the expectation of a reward. Later in the play they agree to  Claudius's desire to exile Hamlet from Denmark. This betrayal almost leads to  Hamlet's death. 'Practices' is ambiguous – it could connote manipulative,  dishonest behaviour. [Award 3 marks only if irony is fully discussed.] (3)
11.6 Although Claudius acknowledges the depth and severity of his crime and  wrestles with his conscience, his attempts to pray for forgiveness for the  murder of his brother are unsuccessful because he cannot bring himself to be  truly repentant. His greed for power and his reluctance to give up his queen  and throne overcome any desire to be truly remorseful, even though he understands that he might spend eternity in hell.  
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
11.7 Hamlet might creep up stealthily behind Claudius, his hand ready to draw his  sword or he might stand behind the kneeling Claudius and look down at him.  Hamlet's tone might be eager/satisfied/determined. Hamlet's suspicions of  Claudius's guilt have been confirmed and there is no longer any reason for  him to delay avenging his father's murder. He finally has the opportunity to kill  the man whom he detests so intensely. 
[Accept valid alternative responses.] [The candidate's response should be convincing in context.] [Award 3 marks only if the candidate discusses both body language and tone  and includes a justification.] (3) 
11.8 AGREE 
Hamlet's procrastination is simply a way of avoiding taking action. Although  he now has proof of Claudius's guilt and realises that his vengeance is  justified, his reasons for not acting are simply excuses that might be seen as  evidence of his cowardice. The time and opportunity have provided  themselves, yet he is not brave enough to take advantage of these and  confront Claudius. His indecisiveness paralyses him and he postpones his  revenge. Hamlet himself questions his bravery when he compares himself to  Fortinbras and Laertes. 
OR 
DISAGREE 
Rather than being a coward, Hamlet is an intellectual. He is a rational thinker  and does not want to be impulsive. Initially, Hamlet delays taking revenge  because he needs to verify the ghost's accusations. It is Hamlet's sensitivity  that causes him to delay avenging his father's death. His theological beliefs,  moral fortitude and restraint prevent him from killing Claudius while he is at  prayer. Furthermore, in Hamlet's desire for revenge, he wants Claudius to  suffer the same torments of hell to which Claudius has condemned his father  by not allowing King Hamlet to confess his sins or find salvation. Hamlet's  hesitation is justifiable and not a sign of cowardice. [Accept valid alternative/mixed responses.] 
[Award 4 marks for any three ideas well discussed OR four ideas.] (4) [25]  

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation. 
• A range of examples should be used by the candidates to support their arguments. 
• Refer to page 25 for the rubric to assess this question.

Venetian women are subject to a patriarchal society and are expected to be  submissive. At times, Desdemona and Emilia adhere to the stereotype, while at other  times they challenge their society. The perception of women as sexually immoral does  not apply to Emilia and Desdemona.  

• Brabantio expects Desdemona to be dutiful and obedient. However, she defies him by eloping with Othello.
• Roderigo regards Desdemona as a prize; as someone whose affections can be bought. Desdemona contradicts his view of women by rejecting him and the wealthy Venetian suitors, instead marrying for love.  
• Iago objectifies women of Desdemona's class as a means of improving one's status. He is a misogynist with no respect for women. As Iago's unwitting tools in his plan for revenge, Desdemona and Emilia passively accept his requests and  advice. However, they both ultimately prove that he under-estimates women.  
• Initially, it is Desdemona's strength of character that Othello admires; he regards her as an equal. However, Othello's perception of Desdemona and women in general is altered as a result of Iago's manipulation and deception, and his  (Othello's) jealousy. He now sees both Desdemona and Emilia as immoral. 
• At the beginning of the play, Desdemona is strong and determined. She asserts herself with her father and at the Venetian Senate by courageously choosing Othello. She stubbornly disregards Othello's wishes that she not pursue the matter  of Cassio's reinstatement.  
• Desdemona defiantly lies about the whereabouts of the handkerchief, thus reinforcing Othello's belief in her immorality.
• Later, Desdemona appears passive and submissive, even blaming herself for Othello's unjust behaviour toward her. Despite Othello's public display of violence against her, she is dignified and justifies Othello's altered behaviour as his being  stressed by 'matters of state'. She feels that she has accused him unfairly. Her  conversation with Emilia about men's insensitive treatment of women contradicts  the stereotype that all women are immoral. She cannot even bring herself to say  the words, let alone commit adultery. Desdemona remains devoted and loyal to  Othello, even defending him on her deathbed.  
• Emilia reveals her non-traditional views on marriage and gives Desdemona worldly advice. Despite her inadvertently betraying Desdemona by giving Iago the handkerchief, she is courageous when she exposes Iago by speaking against him,  thus proving her loyalty to Desdemona. She clearly displays the characteristics of a  strong-minded woman by exposing her husband and denouncing Othello.  
• Candidates might refer to the men's perception of Venetian women as adulterers. However, both Desdemona and Emilia contradict this view as they are loyal to their husbands.  

[Credit valid alternative/mixed responses.] [25]

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
13.1 Brabantio believes Othello has bewitched and thus coerced Desdemona into  marriage. Despite this being a private matter, Brabantio appeals to the  authorities because he wants Othello to be punished. Brabantio also wants  the marriage to be annulled. His sense of entitlement causes him to believe  the Senate and the Duke will be sympathetic to his appeal.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.2 The Duke is moved by Othello's account of how he and Desdemona fell in  love, leading to their marriage. He refutes Brabantio's allegations of  kidnapping and witchcraft. The Duke advises Brabantio to make the best of  the situation and to come to terms with it. Also, he does not want to lose  Othello's services as the general of the Venetian army. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.3 Brabantio believes Desdemona to be obedient, submissive and timid. He  cannot conceive of her voluntarily marrying Othello. This perception is  inaccurate because Desdemona has been a willing participant in the  relationship, encouraging Othello's advances. She does not refute Othello's  version of her involvement in the courtship and readily shows her allegiance to Othello as her husband. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.4 Othello is respected as the general of the Venetian army and is trusted to  protect and defend Cyprus from the Turks. The Duke expects him to put his  duty before his personal life. However, Othello becomes so enraged and  consumed with jealousy when he believes that Desdemona has betrayed  him, that his duty becomes secondary. Instead of ruling rationally and  honourably, he and Iago plot the deaths of Cassio and Desdemona. Othello is supposed to be in Cyprus to uphold law and order; however, he  compromises his honour and duty as governor by subverting justice.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.5 Iago has implied that Desdemona has been unfaithful with Cassio. Othello  has demanded 'ocular proof' of the adultery. Iago mentions the incriminating  'ocular' proof – the handkerchief – which he says he has seen in Cassio's  possession. This reference to the handkerchief (Othello's love token for Desdemona) will encourage Othello's desire for revenge, which is exactly  what Iago intends to achieve.  
Candidates might refer to Cassio's demeaning use of Othello's love token,  which would enrage Othello even further.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
13.6 Othello might fall to his knees with clenched fists raised above his head or  hit/bang his chest. He might clench his teeth or block his ears; his eyes might  be tightly shut to indicate his anguish at the graphic description of Cassio and  Desdemona's making love. Othello might cry out with a pained/anguished/ tormented/angry/horrified tone because he feels betrayed by Desdemona and  his trusted friend. [Accept valid alternative responses.]  
[The candidate's response should be convincing in context.]  [Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to both body language and tone,  and includes a justification.] (3) 
13.7 Iago apparently wants to pacify Othello by implying that when Othello later  views the situation, he might change his mind and not desire Desdemona's  and Cassio's deaths. However, it is actually part of Iago's plan to drive Othello  to a state of madness. Iago's insinuations and lies have affected Othello so  intensely that he has become obsessed with revenge and is unable to think  objectively. Although Iago is cautioning Othello not to be rash in his desire for  vengeance, it is Iago who has brought Othello to this irrational state.  [Award 3 marks only if irony is fully discussed.] (3) 
13.8 AGREE 
The way Iago deals with his jealousy of and hatred for Othello and Cassio is  cowardly. Instead of confronting them directly, he uses others to carry out his  treacherous plans. His innuendos to Othello about the alleged affair are  underhand and cowardly. He pretends to be loyal and Othello's trusted  adviser; however, his intention is to deceive and destroy. He blackens the  reputations of Cassio and Othello. When Iago does act, it is in a very cowardly manner. Iago stabs a wounded Roderigo in the dark and Emilia  from behind to silence her. Iago uses chaos and confusion to hide his  treachery and to call into question the actions of others. His silence when he  is exposed further establishes his cowardice. 
OR 
DISAGREE 
Candidates might argue that, rather than cowardice, Iago's treachery is a sign  of his cunning and deviousness. Iago's appearance of being honourable,  innocent and trustworthy is part of his treacherous plan to destroy his  enemies. Iago is a clever, opportunistic man who is calculating in the manner  in which he achieves his goals. [Credit valid alternative/mixed responses.] 
[Award 4 marks for any three ideas well discussed OR four ideas.] (4) [25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION 

VALID 

• Salem is a patriarchal society which views its women as subordinate and expects  them to submit to the authority of male figures. Their oppression leads to the tragic  persecution of innocent people. 
• The Puritans believe that women are the source of original sin and are more  susceptible to evil influences. Thus the majority of the accused are women.
• Women are subject to the strict rules of their society. There are very few  opportunities for relaxation and entertainment. These restrictions cause the girls to  rebel by sneaking off to dance in the forest. 
• It is not only the girls, led by Abigail, who rebel against the conformity imposed on  them by their society. Sarah Good and Bridget Bishop defy the stereotypes of  women by falling pregnant out of wedlock and living with men without being  married. This defiance makes them targets of those who desire conformity. 
• The title, 'Good Wife', clearly conveys women's subservient status in society.
• Unmarried women have even less authority and even lower status than their  married counterparts do. When they are afforded some power and respect by the  courts, the girls are determined to maintain these, regardless of the  costs/consequences. 
• When Hale suggests that the village will be indebted to them for identifying  witches, the girls realise that they have power over the villagers and can  manipulate the situation in their favour. 
• The girls use the stereotype of being pure, passive and innocent to their  advantage. The judges do not see them as having any ulterior motives for their  naming of witches.  
• The witch trials give the girls an opportunity to settle grievances they hold against  those who have slighted them in the past. They relish their new-found power.
• The girls' rise to power even sees them wielding their authority over the judges. Abigail threatens Danforth when she feels that her new-found status is in jeopardy.
• The haste with which men threaten to whip the girls and women who live in their  homes shows that men believe that they are entitled to dominate and discipline  women. This leads to resentment and a desire for revenge. 
• Proctor's dismissive attitude toward Abigail, together with her realisation that she  holds sexual power over him, feeds her desire for revenge on Elizabeth. 
• Abigail also realises that she has power over the weaker girls and she is able to  manipulate them into submitting to her will. Their compliance adds weight to the  accusations made against respected members of the community. 
• Elizabeth is a compliant wife who accepts the authority of men, although her  reluctance to forgive Proctor for his affair and his desire to 'please her' do suggest  that women do have some control over their men. 

[A cogent 'Invalid' response is unlikely. However, treat all responses on their merits.] [Credit valid alternative responses.] [25]  

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
15.1 As a slave, Tituba is used to being blamed for any problems that occur in the  Parris home. Her backing away is an indication of her submission and  subservience. She is frightened of getting into trouble and is trying to keep  out of harm's way. [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.2 Parris initially denies the existence of witchcraft as he does not want his  home and ministry to be linked to any such associations. However, when  Reverend Hale is convinced that there is witchcraft in Salem, Parris, like the  girls, realises that he can use the accusations to his advantage by silencing  his critics ('enemies'), strengthening his position as minister and preserving  his reputation. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.3 Throughout the play, Abigail is shown to be skilled at the art of deception.  She pretends to be innocent, thus misleading Parris, Hale and the judges into  believing her accusations of witchcraft. Her play-acting is instrumental in  getting Elizabeth and Proctor arrested, and in intimidating the other girls into  following her lead.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.4 Salem is a small, strictly controlled society where gossip and rumour are  likely to abound; there is very little freedom and independent thinking. There  is a strong belief in the existence of witches in a Puritan community. People  are superstitious of anything they do not understand and cannot explain.  They are suspicious and mistrusting of their neighbours. As a result, they will  refer to the supernatural to explain what they cannot, and accuse their  neighbours of being witches as a means of exacting vengeance for perceived  offences. (3) [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] 
15.5 Rebecca Nurse has been accused of the 'supernatural murder of Goody  Putnam's babies'. Her husband, together with Giles Corey and John Proctor, approach the court, in an attempt to defend their wives. They have  depositions that will testify to their wives' good names and evidence to prove  the girls have been lying to the court. They are hoping to convince the courts  that injustice has taken place and that their wives should be set free. 
[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
15.6 The actor might put his hands on his hips or put his hand to his chin as he  contemplates the accusation that has just been made. His eyes might narrow  and he might lean heavily on the table in front of him as he leans  aggressively toward Francis Nurse. Danforth does not want to accept that the  girls' accusations are false because it would raise doubts about the justice of  the courts. His tone might be of disbelief/incredulity/suspicion as he is  questioning the validity of what he has just been told.  [Accept valid alternative responses.]  [The candidate's response should be convincing in context.]  
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to both body language and tone,  and includes a justification.] (3) 
15.7 Initially the villagers view the courts as necessary to rid their society of evil  and restore order. However, the execution of Rebecca Nurse, who is highly  respected and who goes to the gallows as a 'saint', causes an outcry among the villagers. Rebecca's 'murder' calls the credibility of the courts into  question. People believe in her innocence and praise her righteousness in  refusing to give a false confession, thus saving her soul. It is because of the  honour and integrity of people like Rebecca Nurse, that the wickedness and  injustice are brought to an end.  [Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
15.8 AGREE 
Danforth's refusal to admit that the courts might have been wrong is a sign of  cowardice because he is afraid of admitting that he has been manipulated  and has condemned innocent people. He is unwilling to face and accept the  damage that this will cause to his reputation, which needs to be maintained  and honoured at all costs. Danforth does not have the courage to admit his  short-comings and failings, and demands respect and unquestioning loyalty  to the court. He is relentless and uncompromising in his desire to see the  court's authority upheld and thus his status maintained. Danforth's spinelessness does not allow him to display compassion for or understanding  of the plight of the innocent; he is thus unwilling to acknowledge his  weakness and his error in judgement. 
OR 
DISAGREE 
Candidates might argue that, rather than cowardice, it is Danforth's obstinacy and his concern about his reputation which lies at the heart of his refusal to  listen to the truth. 
[Award 4 marks for any three ideas well discussed OR four ideas.] (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25 
GRAND TOTAL: 80

SECTION A: Assessment rubric for literary essay: Poetry (10 Marks) 

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and  Language
SECTIONS B AND C: Assessment rubric for literary essay: Novel and Drama (25 Marks) 

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and  Language. There must not be more than two categories' variation between the Structure and Language mark and the Content mark.