DANCE STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections with 11 questions in total.  Answer only SEVEN questions as follows:
   SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTH CARE (40 marks)
   * Answer THREE of the four questions in this section.
   * You have a choice between QUESTION 4 and  QUESTION 5. If you answer both questions, only the  FIRST answer will be marked.
   SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY (60 marks)
   * Answer FOUR of the six questions in this section.
   * You have a choice between QUESTION 8, QUESTION 9  and QUESTION 10. If you answer all three questions, only  the FIRST answer will be marked.
2. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
3. Read each question carefully and take note of what is required. 
4. One-word answers will NOT be accepted if you are requested to explain/ elaborate/describe/analyse/evaluate/compare, etc. Write your answers in full  sentences.
5. You may do rough planning in the ANSWER BOOK. Draw a line through any  work that should NOT be marked. 
6. You will be assessed on your ability to:
   • Write in only one language
   • Organise and communicate information clearly
   • Use the specific format required in certain questions
   • Use specialist dance terminology where appropriate
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTH CARE 
QUESTION 1: COMPONENTS OF FITNESS (COMPULSORY) 
1.1 Give a definition for EACH of the FIVE components of fitness below. 

• Core stability  
• Flexibility  
• Strength 
• Endurance/Stamina 
• Neuromuscular skills (5) 

1.2 Analyse how inadequate core stability could affect a dancer's performance. (5) 
1.3 In your opinion, how could you develop high levels of fitness in your dance classes? Give detailed examples to substantiate your answer.   (5)  [15] 

QUESTION 2: CAUSES OF INJURIES (COMPULSORY) 
Explain how poor dance technique can lead to injuries in the dance class. Give examples to substantiate your answer. [7] 

QUESTION 3: NUTRITION AND HYDRATION (COMPULSORY) 
3.1 Explain how good nutrition can enhance a dancer's technical ability and  dance performance. Give examples to substantiate your answer. (4) 
3.2 Explain why dancers have to stay hydrated during classes and performances (4) . [8]
NOTE:

• You have a choice between QUESTION 4 and QUESTION 5. 
• Answer only ONE of these questions. 

QUESTION 4: MUSCLES AND ANATOMICAL ACTIONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
NOTE: Answer this choice question only if you have studied muscles and anatomical  actions in class.  
4.1 Choose an action from COLUMN B that matches a muscle in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (4.1.1 to 4.1.4) in the  ANSWER BOOK.   (4 x 1) (4) 

4.2 Refer to the image below and answer the following questions related to the  anatomical actions occurring in this movement. 

[Source: www.pinterest.com] 
4.2.1 Which muscle is responsible for the anatomical action occurring in  the elbow joints?  (1) 
4.2.2 Which muscle is responsible for the anatomical action occurring in  the head?  (1) 
4.2.3 Name ONE action occurring in the hip joint and ONE muscle  responsible for the action.  (2) 
4.2.4 Name ONE muscle responsible for the anatomical action occurring  in the knee joint.  (1) 
4.2.5  Name ONE muscle responsible for the anatomical action occurring  in the ankle joint.  (1)  [10] 
OR

QUESTION 5: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND MOVEMENT QUALITY (CHOICE QUESTION) 
5.1 Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Write only  'true' or 'false' next to the question numbers (5.1.1 to 5.1.4) in the ANSWER  BOOK. 
5.1.1 A good cool down prevents blood from pooling in the limbs. (1) 
5.1.2 A dynamic warm-up involves continuous movement. (1) 
5.1.3 During a cool down lactic acid is removed from muscles to prevent  cramps.   (1) 
5.1.4 During a cool down the heart rate increases. (1) 
5.2 Knowledge of movement qualities contributes to a high level of performance.  Explain the following movement qualities: 
5.2.1 Musicality  (1) 
5.2.2 Transitions  (1) 
5.2.3 Dynamics  (1) 
5.2.4 Projection  (1) 
5.2.5 Fluency  (1) 
5.2.6 Commitment  (1) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY  
QUESTION 6: TECHNIQUE OF DANCE MAJOR (COMPULSORY) 
6.1 Name your dance major. 
6.2 Name FIVE techniques used in your dance major.  (5) 
6.3 Outline EACH of the techniques named in QUESTION 6.2. (5)  [10] 

QUESTION 7: DANCE ELEMENTS AND CHOREOGRAPHY (COMPULSORY) 
7.1
7.1.1 Analyse how the dance elements SPACE and FORCE are used in  the image below.  (4) 
7.1.2 Evaluate how the dance element TIME is used in the image below. (2) 
[Source: http://www.danceconsortium.com] 
7.2 How did the choreography practical assessment task (PAT 1) develop you as  a person and as a dancer? (4) [10]
NOTE:

• You have a choice between QUESTION 8, QUESTION 9 and QUESTION 10. 
• Answer only ONE of these questions. 

QUESTION 8: ALVIN AILEY AND REVELATIONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
Imagine you are Alvin Ailey and you are being interviewed. Answer the following  questions. Marks will be awarded for the correct format for an interview. 
Correct format for an interview. (2) 
8.1 Describe your childhood.  (2) 
8.2 Explain how your upbringing helped to inspire some of your dance works. (3) 
8.3 Outline your contribution to dance and society. (3) 
8.4 Describe how you used production elements in the themes of 'Pilgrims of  Sorrow' and 'Move Members Move', as shown in the images below. 
[Photographs by Gert Krautbauer] (6)
8.5 Explain how the music enhanced Revelations. (5) 
8.6 Explain how you showed deep emotions in your movement vocabulary in  'Pilgrims of Sorrow' and 'Move Members Move'. (6) 
8.7 In your opinion, what makes Revelations such a timeless piece? (3) [30] 
OR

QUESTION 9: GREGORY MAQOMA AND FOUR SEASONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
Imagine you are Gregory Maqoma and you are being interviewed. Answer the  following questions. Marks will be awarded for the correct format for an interview. 
Correct format for an interview. (2) 
9.1 Describe how your interest in dance started. (2) 
9.2 Describe your professional career as a dancer/choreographer. (3) 
9.3 Outline your contribution to dance and society. (3) 
9.4 Describe how you used production elements to show the different themes in  'Spring' and 'Autumn', as shown in the images below. 
[Photographs by John Hogg] (6) 
9.5  Explain how the music enhanced Four Seasons.  (5) 
9.6 Explain the movement vocabulary you used in this dance work.  (6) 
9.7 In your opinion, what makes Four Seasons such a relevant dance work in  today's society? (3) [30] 
OR

QUESTION 10: CHOREOGRAPHER AND DANCE WORK (CHOICE QUESTION) 
Choose ONE of the choreographers and ONE of his/her dance works from the  prescribed list below. Marks will be awarded for the correct format for an interview. 

Give the name of the choreographer and the title of the dance work that you have  chosen. 
Answer the questions as if you are the choreographer being interviewed. Correct format for an interview. (2) 
10.1 Describe your dance training and your professional career as a dancer/ choreographer. (5) 
10.2 Outline your contribution to dance and society. (3) 
10.3 Describe how the use of production elements enhanced the intent/theme of  this dance work. (6) 
10.4 Explain how the music enhanced the dance work. (5) 
10.5 Explain how symbolism was used in the movement vocabulary of this dance  work.  (6) 
10.6 Why would you recommend that people watch this dance work? (3) [30] 

QUESTION 11: DANCE WORK (COMPULSORY) 
NOTE: Do NOT answer on the same choreographer and dance work that you have  chosen for QUESTION 8, QUESTION 9 or QUESTION 10. 
Choose ONE of the dance works from the prescribed list below. 

Give the name of the choreographer and the title of the dance work that you have  chosen. 
Evaluate how the intent/theme of the chosen dance work is symbolically portrayed in  the use of production elements and movements. Substantiate your response with  examples from the dance work. [10] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 60 
GRAND TOTAL: 100

DANCE STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

NOTE TO MARKERS:

• Adhere strictly to these marking guidelines when marking. 
• The standardisation process during marking guidelines discussions ensures that  the marking guidelines covers most possible responses candidates could provide. 
• Every marker must then apply this consistently. The marking guidelines may not be  altered in any way.
• In some qualitative questions, exercise your professional and informed judgement.
• This question paper must be marked by experienced dance teachers/advisors/ officials as it requires specialist knowledge.
• In some questions, candidates have a choice. If candidates have answered both  questions, mark only the answers to the FIRST question.
• Candidates may give a wide variety of answers depending on what they have  covered in class.
• Candidates could include correct information that is not included in the text book.  Professional judgement must be used. If unsure, this must be verified by  researching the area concerned.
• Low, medium or high cognitive levels expected in each answer are included above  the possible answers.
• Markers should NOT award full marks for an answer that is superficial and minimal  or where all requirements have not been met. 
• Look for what the candidate knows, not what he/she doesn't know. 
• Allocate ONE tick for ONE mark, for the content provided, up to the maximum  marks. 
• No ½ marks may be awarded for insufficient content in answers. 

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTH CARE
QUESTION 1: COMPONENTS OF FITNESS (COMPULSORY) 
LOW LEVEL 1.1  Defining   5 marks 
MEDIUM LEVEL 1.2 Analysing  5 marks 
HIGH LEVEL  1.3 Opinion  5 marks 

POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
NOTE: Provide 5 definitions for 5 marks. 
1.1  Core stability:  

• The strength of the abdominal and spinal muscles to support the body  effectively.
• Having the strength in the centre of the body to maintain balance while  moving through space. 
• The strength in the torso.
• The ability to do strong movement and be stable at the same time. 

Flexibility: The range of movement (ROM) around a joint/group of joints. 
Strength: 

• The ability of a muscle to produce maximum force/resist gravity.
• The ability of your muscles to hold a movement for a long time 

Endurance/stamina: The staying power of the body/muscles to perform for  long periods of time without getting tired. Cardio-respiratory/muscular  endurance could be defined. 
Neuromuscular skills:  

• The ability of the brain to send messages via the nerves to the muscles.
• How to move/instant reaction time of the body in response to messages  sent from the brain/automatic movement.
• To do movements without conscious thought(muscle memory) (5)

1.2 NOTE: answers must relate to performance. 
Analyse inadequate core stability. Do NOT award marks for the benefits  of core stability. 
Possible areas that could be included: 

• Control/correct placement/line
• Fluidity of movement 
• Agility and accuracy 
• Transitions/transference of weight 
• Levels of complexity in movement vocabulary 
• Elevation 
• Holding positions 
• Isolating movements
• Coordination of movements
• Balance
• Support of the spine/placement/alignment (5)
• Any other suitable answers.

1.3 NOTE: ALL answers must relate to how components of fitness could be  developed which will enhance components of fitness/fitness levels in  the dance class. Do not award marks for just listing exercises. Provide  examples and explain clearly how fitness is being developed. 
Possible areas that could be included: 

• Core training exercises, e.g. sit ups, etc.
• Strength training exercises, e.g. balancing/adage, etc.
• Endurance/cardio vascular training exercises, e.g. travelling/jumping, etc. 
• Flexibility training exercises – static stretching/dynamic stretching within  exercises 
• Increasing complexity of exercises 
• Attending classes regularly/additional classes/increasing the length of  classes 
• Overload principle - doing more each lesson 
• Floor work to strengthen specific parts of the body 
• Gym/swimming/sports, etc. – specific exercises and how this will enhance fitness in the dance class (5) 
• Any other suitable answers. [15] 

QUESTION 2: CAUSES OF INJURIES (COMPULSORY) 
MEDIUM LEVEL Explaining 7 marks 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
NOTE: Possible areas that could be included for poor technique. Injuries must  relate to the dance class. Answers must include substantiated examples.
Answers relating to poor environment must not receive a mark. 

• Warming up/cooling down
• Poor posture/stance/alignment
• Incorrect use of turn out
• Incorrect landing from a jump 
• Incorrect use of feet 
• Lack of spotting during turns, etc. 
• Being taught incorrect technique by a teacher – executing unsafe movements
• Dancers not applying the corrections they have been given – continually repeating  mistakes.
• Irregular attendance in class means technique won't be fully understood/have gaps  in training
• Lack of fitness – inability to execute technical requirements correctly ∙ Any other suitable answers. [7] 

QUESTION 3: NUTRITION AND HYDRATION (COMPULSORY)
MEDIUM LEVEL:
3.1 Explaining  4 marks 
3.2 Explaining 4 marks 
NOTE: Answers must relate to enhanced technical ability and dance performance.
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
3.1 Nutrition: 

• The brain will be able to focus and apply technique/corrections, etc. 
• Carbohydrates provide energy so dancers can perform for longer periods. ∙ Protein builds muscle tissue – strong muscles can execute complex  movements.
• Vitamins and minerals boost the immune system so classes are not  missed due to illness – technique/fitness levels do not deteriorate. (4) 
• Any other suitable answers. 

3.2  Hydration: 

•  Dancers lose a lot of water through strenuous physical activities by  sweating so they need to constantly be taking in water while performing so  they do not become fatigued/overheated/dehydrated. 
• Water is a vital requirement which enhances performance so that the body  and brain can function optimally during rigorous exercise/performances.
• Water regulates the body temperature so the dancer does not over heat  which will lower levels of performance and concentration which could lead  to an injury.
• Water helps carry nutrients and oxygen to the working cells so the dancer  can perform for long periods without getting fatigued.
• Water is necessary for the excretion of waste products which prevents  cramping in the muscles which will hinder performance. 
• Lean muscle tissue is made up of water and needs it to work efficiently  during strenuous exercise. 
• Any other suitable answers (4) [8] 

NOTE: Candidates have a choice between QUESTION 4 and QUESTION 5.  Mark only the first question answered if both are answered. 

QUESTION 4: MUSCLES AND ANATOMICAL ACTIONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
LOW LEVEL:  4.1   Matching  4 marks 
MEDIUM LEVEL: 4.2  Analysing  6 marks 
ANSWERS: 
4.1
4.1.1  B  (1) 
4.1.2  C  (1) 
4.1.3  D  (1)  
4.1 4. A   (1) 
4.2
4.2.1 Biceps Brachii (1)
4.2.2 Sternocleidomastoid (1) 
4.2.3 Action: Outward/External rotation (1) 

• Iliopsoas
• Gluteus Maximus (1)
• Sartorius 

OR 
Action: Abduction 

• Tensor fasciae latae
• Gluteus medius (1)
• Gluteus minimus 

4.2.4 NOTE: Mark only muscles relating to extension of the knee  joint: (Candidates can name the group or the individual  muscles listed below). 

• Quadriceps (Vastus Lateralis, Vastus Medialis, Vastus Intermedius,  Rectus femoris) (1) 

4.2.5 NOTE: Mark only muscles relating to plantar flexion of the ankle  joint: 

• Soleus
• Gastrocnemius 
• Flexor Digitorum Longus
• Tibialis Posterior
• Flexor Digitorum Hallucis Longus (1) [10] 

OR 

QUESTION 5: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND MOVEMENT QUALITY (CHOICE QUESTION) 
LOW LEVEL:  5.1  True/false  4 marks 
MEDIUM LEVEL:   5.2   Explaining  6 marks 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
5.1
5.1.1 T(1) 
5.1.2 T(1) 
5.1.3 T(1) 
5.1.4 F(1) 
NOTE: Only a simple definition/explanation is required. 
5.2
5.2.1 Musicality: 

• It enables a dancer to interpret the qualities/dynamics/mood/ emotions within a piece of music through movement. (1)
• Any other suitable answers. 

5.2.2 Transitions: 

• The smooth linking of movements makes the work look effortless. (1) 
• Any other suitable answers. 

5.2.3 Dynamics: 

• Create interest and enhance the performance/movement quality  as movements will have varied energy/force.(1) 
• Any other suitable answers. 

5.2.4 Projection: 
NOTE: must relate to movement quality 

• The use of eyes/focus/presence aids in connecting with an  audience/other performers/the emotions/moods of the dance work,  etc. 
• Any other suitable answers. (1) 

5.2.5 Fluency: 

• The ability to bring together technique, style and fitness to perform  with clarity and effortlessness.
• Any other suitable answers. (1) 

5.2.6 Commitment: 
NOTE: Must relate to movement quality 

• Commitment to movement/others/sharing space sensitively/  emotional connections by being fully engaged/giving full  attention/focus, etc.(1) [10] 
• Any other suitable answers. 

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY  
QUESTION 6: TECHNIQUE OF DANCE MAJOR (COMPULSORY) 
LOW LEVEL:
6.2 Naming  5 marks
6.3  Outlining  5 marks
NOTE: Use professional judgement in allocating marks if candidates do not  name the dance major. Do not accept characteristics for this question, e.g.  costumes, music, etc. 
Outline = overview (not looking for detail) 
POSSIBLE AREAS THAT COULD BE INCLUDED: 
6.1 No mark allocated. 
6.2 NOTE: If candidates have named AND outlined the techniques in 6.2  carry the marks over to 6.3 
Techniques could include: 

• Dance principles
• 7 basic movements of ballet/dance
• Use of the arms/legs/feet/head
• Transference of weight 
• Turn out 
• Landing 
• Spotting 
• Movement vocabulary 
• Use of gravity
• Stance/posture/alignment/epaulemnent 
• Use of aerial movements/turns, etc. 
• Stylistic techniques, e.g. Graham/Horton/Balanchine/ballroom/Latin  American
• Any other suitable answers (5) 

6.3 Outline each of the techniques: (5) 
This must relate to each of the techniques provided in 6.2. [10] 

QUESTION 7: DANCE ELEMENTS AND CHOREOGRAPHY (COMPULSORY) 
MEDIUM LEVEL 7.1.1 Analysing  4 marks 
HIGH LEVEL 
7.1.2 Evaluating  2 marks 
7.2  Reflection  4 marks 
NOTE: The candidate's answers in 7.1 must relate directly to the image/stimulus.  SPACE, TIME and FORCE must be included in the answer for full marks to be  awarded. More information may be provided on one element than another in  7.1.1 but both must be included for full marks to be awarded.
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
7.1
7.1.1 Space + explanation:  

• Levels 
• Shape 
• Direction – vertical/horizontal.
• Any other suitable answers. 

Force + explanation: 

• Defying gravity 
• Powerful movements – arms/legs/torso
• Any other suitable answers. (4) 

7.1.2 Time and explanation: 

• Timing of the lift
• Unison/coordination 
• Duration of movement
• Any other suitable answers. (2) 

7.2 NOTE: The candidate's answer should include personal development  and development as a dancer. More information may be provided on one  section than another. BOTH must be included for full marks. 
Possible areas that could be included. Each one must include HOW they  developed the person/dancer. 
PAT – choreography could include: 
Personal development: 

• Creative/critical thinking skills
• Problem solving/decision making skills 
• Developing production/marketing skills
• Application of skills and knowledge 
• Organisational skills – planning/preparation
• Time management skills 
• People management skills – collaboration/leadership 
• Reflecting on processes
• Any other suitable areas of personal development 

Development as a dancer: 

• Creative thinking – making new movements
• Broadening dance vocabulary 
• Learning choreographic skills 
• Developing ideas from a starting point to a final product
• Safe dance practice when rehearsing
• Any other suitable area for development as a dancer. (4) [10]

NOTE: Candidates have a choice between QUESTION 8, QUESTION 9 and  QUESTION 10. Mark only the first question answered if more are  provided. 
QUESTION 8: ALVIN AILEY AND REVELATIONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
LOW LEVEL:  
8.1 Describing  2 marks 
8.2 Explaining  3 marks 
8.3 Outlining   3 marks 
MEDIUM LEVEL: 
8.4 Describing 6 marks 
8.5 Explaining  5 marks 
8.6 Explaining  6 marks 
HIGH LEVEL:  
8.7  Opinion 3 marks 
       Format  2 marks 
TOTALS:

• 8 LOW 
• 17 MEDIUM
• 5 HIGH 

NOTE: Many possible answers will be provided. Use professional judgement to  evaluate the candidate's response. Bullets used to aid marking. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 

Writing as if in an interview – style of answers/first person. 
NOTE: If candidate uses the correct format but all the information is  incorrect, they will receive the 2 marks. (2) 
8.1

• He grew up with only his mother
• They were very poor 
• They moved around a lot searching for work
• The only stable point in their lives was the Baptist Church
• He grew up in a culture of black segregation (South Texas) (2)
• Any other suitable answers. 

8.2 

• Cry was inspired by his mother's struggles
• The Baptist church influenced his choice of religious themes and gospel  music in some of his pieces
• Many of his works depict 'blood memories' of hardship/segregation (3)
• Any other suitable answers. 

8.3 NOTE: Awards must be explained if a mark is to be awarded. 

• In 1958, he founded Alvin Ailey American Dance Theatre
• He had a vision of a company dedicated to enriching the American  modern dance heritage and preserving the uniqueness of the African American cultural experience.
• He established the Alvin Ailey American Dance Centre (now The Ailey  School) in 1969.
• He formed the Alvin Ailey Repertory Ensemble (now Ailey II) in 1974.
• Ailey was a pioneer of Arts in Education programmes, particularly those  benefiting underserved communities. 
• In 1988, he received the Kennedy Centre Honour in recognition of his  extraordinary contribution to American culture.
• Ailey wanted to make dance accessible to ordinary people, like his aunts  and uncles who did not have many opportunities due to the segregation in  America.
• His style/technique continues to be taught to this day. (3)
• Any other suitable answers. 

8.4 Production elements: 
NOTE: Music must not be included in this section. 
Pilgrims of Sorrow: 
NOTE: More information may be included on one theme that the other.  BOTH must be included for full marks. 

• Darkly lit – the cyclorama is only lit up after this section has started and  then the general lights become brighter.
• There is a pool of light shining only on the group of dancers.
• The costumes are simple shift dresses/pants and shirts which could  represent the clothes worn by slaves in brown/rust colours 
• Any other suitable answers. 

Move members move: 

• Main colour used is yellow – joy/new day/warmth, etc. 
• Dancers wear Sunday best – showing respect for their religion 
• Fans and stools – representing where the service took place 
• Cyclorama has large red sun – new beginnings/hope for the future 
• Any other suitable answers. (6) 

8.5 NOTE: If music information has been included 8.4 it could be carried  over to this section. 
If instruments are included without an explanation no marks are to be  awarded. 
Music as enhancement to the work: 

• According to Alvin Ailey, Revelations began with the music. It is infused  with what he terms 'blood memories' of his youth, growing up with the  sounds of spirituals and gospel music.
• The music is a medley of spirituals reflecting and expressing protest. 
• The songs reflect a belief in God to save oppressed people from despair  and grief which give them hope to triumph over all odds. 
•  Some of the spirituals are slow and speak of grief and suffering.
• Some are joyous and a celebration of life/the future, e.g. the final scene of  the church goers is upbeat and celebratory as is the dance which shows  the full cast dancing in unison and harmony – symbolic of a people rising  up against all odds and triumphing.
• The music explores motivations and emotions of African-American  religious music – songs of trouble, love and deliverance which are  reflection in the different sections of Revelations.  (5)
• Any other suitable answers. 

8.6 Movement vocabulary: 

• Many of the movements involve the upper body (torso and arms) reaching  up desperately towards the heavens. Symbolic of asking for help from  God. 
• The lower body (legs) remain grounded. Symbolic of being trapped in  slavery. 
• Ailey uses hand gestures, arm movements and port de bras to great  effect, e.g. dancers join their hands in prayer, stretch their arms out with  hands wide, tap gently on the ground and curve their arms, bird-like.  Symbolic of everyday pain and anguish/the need to be free.
• The unison movements of the nine dancers are simple but powerful and  show gestures of spiritual need in the famous wedge-shaped formation at  the start of this section. Symbolising that they are drawn together by  shared strength, devotion and reverence.
• The trio in this section shows angry expression and revolt. Symbolic of  the oppression of the black people in the 1930s.
• The pas de deux shows the male dancer continually supporting the  female dancer as she reaches up towards heaven, often balancing on his  leg to add emphasis to this reaching movement. The male dancer could  symbolise the female dancer's spiritual guide.
• The movements also show the burden of suffering through the bowed  backs and downward turned arms as if carrying a huge weight on their  backs.
• It shows the suffering of the people, their struggle and resistance, through  the use of deep pliés (bending of the knees) in second position.
• 'Didn't My Lord Deliver Daniel' is a dance based on percussive  movements and expresses a kind of internalised anger – a resistance  against the isolation of the individual. 
• 'Fix Me Jesus' is a duet which begins with the idea of weight and falling  and slowly begins a dance about rising. It is a dance of instruction, a  dance of follow-the-leader in which the dancer symbolising the pastor  gives the word to his flock as symbolized by the initiate.
• Any other suitable answers. (6) 

8.7 Opinion on what makes Revelations timeless could include: 

• Discrimination/injustices of segregation.
• It is timeless as it celebrates the power of faith.
• It unites people in the power of the message - a community can overcome  adversity/people and overcoming the struggle with faith.
• The composition of the work and the content of the work is universal. 
• It crosses the colour lines/all people can relate to this work.  (3)
• Any other suitable answers. [30] 

OR 
QUESTION 9: GREGORY MAQOMA AND FOUR SEASONS (CHOICE QUESTION) 
LOW LEVEL: 
9.1 Describing 2 marks 
9.2 Describing 3 marks 
9.3 Outlining 3 marks 
MEDIUM LEVEL: 
9.4 Describing 6 marks 
9.5 Explaining 5 marks 
9.6 Explaining 6 marks 
HIGH LEVEL:    
9.7 
Opinion  3 marks 
Format  2 marks 
TOTALS:

• 8 LOW
• 17 MEDIUM
• 5 HIGH 

NOTE: Many possible answers will be provided. Use professional judgement to  evaluate the candidate's response. Bullets used to aid marking.
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: Writing as if in an interview – style of answers/first person. 
NOTE: If candidate uses the correct format but all the information is  incorrect, they will receive the 2 marks. (2) 
9.1 Interest in dance: 

• His interest in dance started during the political uprising in the late 1980's  in Soweto, as a way to escape the growing political tension.
• In 1990, he saw an advert in the Sowetan newspaper for auditions at  Moving into Dance Mophatong (MIDM) 
• He was inspired to dance by pop stars like Michael Jackson and traditional  hostel dwellers. (2) 
• Any other suitable answers. 

9.2 Professional career: 

• He danced under the direction of Sylvia Glasser, the founder of Moving  into Dance Mophatong, where he started his first formal training.
• Received a scholarship at the Performing Arts Research and Training  School (PARTS) in Belgium. 
• He founded Vuyani Dance Theatre (VDT) in 1999 while in Belgium.
• He was head choreographer for the FIFA world cup kick off concert.
• He created the dance and theatre musical, Tshihumbudzo, for the ANC.
• He was the artistic director of the Afro-Vibes festival in the Netherlands  and the UK
• He has appeared as a guest teacher for various universities in Africa, USA  and Europe. 
• He has created new works/repertoire for various companies in South  Africa such as Jazzart Dance Theatre, South African Ballet Theatre and  Cape Performing Arts Company.
• He has established himself as an internationally renowned dancer,  choreographer and director. 
• Any other suitable answers. (3) 

9.3 Contributions: 
NOTE: Awards must be explained if a mark is to be awarded. 

• He has developed a dance style of African contemporary and urban styles. 
• He produces works that question and challenge social values. He deals  with contentious political and gender issues in order to educate the public.
• His dance company - Vuyani Dance theatre runs classes and outreach  programmes to develop and nurture young talent.
• He uses dance as a platform to establish artistic directions, to  communicate qualities and values addressing our fundamental humanity. 
• He has established himself as an important element in the history of  contemporary African dance in South Africa and beyond. (3)
• Any other suitable answers. 

9.4 NOTE: Music must not be included in this section. More may be written on one season than the other. Both must be  included for full marks to be awarded. 
Autumn: 

• The costumes reflect brown leaves depicting a dry season.
• The dancers are dressed in flimsy gold shift dresses over red leotards as if  they are leaves.
• The lighting uses gobos, creating floor patterns to reflect the dry land.
• The video projection reflects brown leaves, depicting the dry season. 
• This is enhanced by the lighting that creates pools of floor patterns  symbolic of a dry land.
• Any other suitable answers. 

Spring: 

• The dancers' costumes are in spring colours, e.g. pastel shades of yellow,  pink, orange and cream.
• The costumes consist of ribbons which move as the dancers perform  giving the effect of flowers. 
• The video projection of flowing flowers sets the scene for spring. 
• Slow abstract fluttering of leaves and flowers are projected onto the stage  and move as if they have a mind of their own as do the costumes.  (6)
• Any other suitable answers. 

9.5 NOTE: If music information has been included 9.4 it could be carried  over to this section.  
If instruments are included without an explanation no marks are to be  awarded. 

• The music is played live by four musicians; violinist, lead and bass guitarists, drummer/percussionist, which enhances the atmosphere on the  stage. 
• These musicians are placed at the back of the stage behind a scrim and  are visible during some sections and disappear during others which build  the atmosphere on stage.
• The music reflected the mood in all the seasons:
  • Winter: The musicians were not visible but provided the rhythmic  drive to the dancers marching movements. The music creates an  eerie feeling of a waste land/abandonment at the start. It became  loud/harsh and powerful.
  • Spring: The musicians are revealed for the first time adding a  feeling of depth to the stage. The music becomes more rooted in  African rhythms as does the dance. 
  • Autumn: The music sets the scene with the sound of wind blowing,  building to a rock and roll feel, depicting chaos and loss. The  mournful sounds of the violin accompany the two dancers left on  stage echoing their sense of pain and loss. The sound of the violin  and the rhythmical clapping from the dancers take the audience  from gloom to joy. 
  • Summer: The music is vibrant with a Brazilian samba feel which  influences the dance movements. Louis Armstrong's song – 'What  a wonderful world' is played which establishes the message of hope  for the future. (5)

9.6 General areas that could be included: 

• Contemporary African movements. There is a fusion of many different  African dance styles.
• There is a South American influence in the final scene where the  movements are done to samba rhythms.
• Movements show imitations of animals and the natural world.
• There is a lot of contact work shown in lifts in all seasons. 
• Any other suitable answers. 

Winter: 

•  The movements are staccato, sharp and angular reflecting anger and  violence. 
• These contrast with movements of head and shoulders drooping forwards,  as if the dancer has given up. 
• The dancers' bodies often rebound as if caught in gunfire. 
• They seem anxious and are continually pacing across the stage.
• They continually cock their hands, as if simulating guns they are about to  fire. 
• Any other suitable answers. 

Spring:  

•  The dancers become creatures in the wild; depicting spring as the  beginning of life, the greenery, flowers blooming, antelopes galloping,  different birds priding themselves in their feathers.
• There are bursts of energy from different dancers, taking the space; it is a  joyful dance.
• Any other suitable answers. 

Autumn: 

• The dancers become victims of strong winds, bodies thrown to the floor,  wind-milling and showing a sense of danger.
• The group collect and clap rhythmically as they observe one dancer who  shows his struggles with the wind/survival/loss and pain. 
•  Any other suitable answers. 

Summer: 

•  Movements show hope and bursts of joy showing unity among the  dancers and support for each other.
• The movements are influenced by the samba rhythms which include the  sensual use of hips as performed in a samba.
• The dancers end the dance work by leaving the stage into a threatened  landscape. (6)
• Any other suitable answers.  

9.7 NOTE: Candidates will provide their own opinions on the relevance of  this work. Use professional judgement when awarding marks. 

•  Throughout societies man is responsible for the destruction of the planet – this work highlights the importance of preserving the planet.
• Water is a scarce resource and the autumn scene highlights how  important it is to conserve water.
• The importance of climate change is clearly shown highlighting the  important role humans have to protect the planet.
• The work is not only about destruction but gives the message of hope if  humans work together in unity.
• Any other suitable answers. (3) [30] 

OR
QUESTION 10: CHOREOGRAPHER AND DANCE WORK (CHOICE QUESTION) 
NOTE: Many possible answers will be provided. Use professional judgement to evaluate the candidate's response. Bullets used to aid marking. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
The name of the choreographer and dance work.  
Writing as if in an interview – style of answers/first person. 
NOTE: If candidate uses the correct format but all the information is  incorrect, they will receive the 2 marks. (2) 
10.1 Training: 

• Training/dance schools
• People/mentors/teachers 
• Dance companies they trained with 
• Any other suitable answers. 

Professional career: 

•  Companies he/she performed with/started 
• Dance works choreographed 
• Roles in other dance companies 
• Relationships/collaborations 
•  Any other suitable answers. (5) 

10. 2 Contribution to dance and society: 
NOTE: Awards must be explained if a mark is to be awarded.

• Companies founded 
• Job creation 
•  Political/social statements 
•  Education of dance learner's/student dancers 
• Creating new generations of choreographers 
•  Any other suitable answers. (3) 

10.3 Production elements: 

•  Lighting: colours used – atmosphere/effect
• Props/Sets: explain how they added to the intent 
• Special effects: projections/images/sound/voice, etc. and how they added  to the intent/meaning 
• Costumes: style/colour/design and how they expressed ideas
• Symbolism of the production elements (6)
• Any other suitable answers. 

10.4 NOTE: If music information has been included 10.3 it may not be  repeated in 10.4. 
If instruments are included without an explanation no marks are to be  awarded. 
The music: 

• Genre/style of music – how it enhanced the intent
• Instrumentation – how this affected movement 
• Tempo/dynamics, etc. – how it affected the mood/atmosphere
• Use of vocals/other – meaning of the words 
• How it contributed to the overall success of the work with examples (5)
• Any other suitable answers. 

10.5 Symbolism used in movement vocabulary with substantiated examples:

• Use of dance genres – style/mix/fusion of styles.
• Use of dance elements: space/time/force.
• Choreographic elements: groupings/patterns/use of the stage/dancers.
• Motifs/gestures/anything else that helps to express emotion. 
• Symbolism – making meaning through movements, message.
• Use of dancers. 
• Any other suitable answers. (6) 

10.6 Recommending could include: 

• Level of performers/performance
• Entertainment factor – production elements/special effects, etc.
• The message of the work 
• Any other suitable answers. (3) [30]

QUESTION 11: DANCE WORK (COMPULSORY) 
HIGH LEVEL: Evaluating 10 marks
NOTE: If candidates repeat the same choreographer/dance work as answered in  Question 8, 9 OR 10, they will receive a zero mark.  
Do not award marks for a description of synopsis/intent/theme. 
Do not award marks for naming/describing production elements without  evaluating HOW they added to the symbolic portrayal of the work. Same for  movements. 
More may be provided in one section than the other but production elements  and movements must be included to receive full marks. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
Production elements PLUS examples from dance work: 

• Lighting: colours used – atmosphere/effect 
• Props/sets: explain why they were used. 
• Special effects: projections/images/sound/voice, etc. and how they added to the  theme/intent/meaning 
• Costumes: style/colour/design and how they expressed ideas 
• Symbolism of the production elements 
• Any other suitable answers 

Movement vocabulary PLUS examples from dance work:  

• Descriptions of movements and what they mean 
• Gestures conveying a meaning 
• Partner/group work conveying a meaning
• Formations/patterns conveying a meaning 
• Particular focus on arms/legs/feet/face and the meaning conveyed
• Use of choreographic elements and dance elements to express the intent
• Any other suitable answers. [10] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 60 
GRAND TOTAL: 100 

BUSINESS STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions. 
1. This question paper consists of THREE sections and covers all FOUR main  topics.

SECTION A: COMPULSORY 
SECTION B: Consists of FIVE questions 
SECTION C: Answer any THREE of the five questions in this section. Consists of FOUR questions 
Answer any TWO of the four questions in this section. 

2. Read the instructions for each question carefully and take particular note of  what is required. 
3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. NO marks will be awarded for answers that are numbered  incorrectly. 
4. Except where other instructions are given, answers must be in full sentences. 
5. Use the mark allocation and nature of each question to determine the length  and depth of an answer. 
6. Use the table below as a guide for mark and time allocation when answering  each question. 

7. Begin the answer to EACH question on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 1 – new page, QUESTION 2 – new page, etc. 
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator. 
9. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.10) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.11 D. 
1.1.1 This Act protects employers from a financial burden should  employees be involved in an accident at the workplace:  

1. Consumer Protection Act, 2008 (Act 68 of 2008)
2. Skills Development Act (SDA), 1998 (Act 97 of 1998)
3. Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act (COIDA), 1997 (Act 61 of 1997) 
4. Labour Relations Act (LRA), 1995 (Act 66 of 1995) 

1.1.2 It was easy for Dada Fish & Chips to acquire a trading licence. This  refers to the … as an element of Porter's Five Forces. 

1. power of suppliers
2. threat of substitution/substitutes 
3.  power of buyers 
4. threats/barriers for new entrants to the market 

1.1.3 John, a vegetable farmer, implemented the ... integration strategy  when he bought the fruit and vegetable stall that sells his products. 

1.  backward
2. forward
3. intensive 
4. horizontal 

1.1.4 This form of ownership is established by a group of people who  agree to work together for their mutual economic benefit: 

1. Cooperative
2. Close corporation 
3. Personal-liability company 
4. Private company 

1.1.5 The amount that the insured must pay when a claim is lodged: 

1.  Excess 
2. Premium 
3. Book value 
4. Interest

1.1.6 A/An ... leader ensures that employees follow strict rules and  procedures when performing their tasks. 

1. bureaucratic
2. democratic
3. autocratic 
4. laissez-faire/free-reign 

1.1.7 Team dynamic theories help businesses to … 

1.  allocate tasks to team members with similar personalities.
2. allocate tasks according to the role of each team member. 
3. establish good relationships with teams. 
4. promote individual satisfaction. 

1.1.8 A King Code principle that requires companies to have their financial  statements audited regularly: 

1.  Profitability 
2. Responsibility 
3. Sustainability 
4. Transparency 

1.1.9 A small group of voluntary workers that meets regularly to discuss  quality-related matters in the workplace: 

1.  Quality circles 
2. Shop stewards 
3. Quality managers 
4. Employee representatives 

1.1.10 Gerald lost his job at Green Industries, therefore he is entitled to  claim from the … Fund. 

1.  Road Accident 
2.  Compensation 
3.  Medical Aid 
4.  Unemployment Insurance (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Complete the following statements by using the words provided in the list  below. Write only the word(s) next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.5) in  the ANSWER BOOK. 

 1.2.1 A … is the plan of action used by businesses to solve challenges.  
1.2.2 An investor can only withdraw money from … when he/she reaches  a certain age. 
1.2.3 A business that appoints an interpreter for meetings is addressing … as a diversity issue. 
1.2.4 Econ Traders offer housing allowances as a … benefit to attract new  employees. 
1.2.5 Tim's employment contract was not renewed because he  was … due to gross misconduct. (5 x 2) (10)
1.3 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches a term in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–J) next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.5) in the  ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.3.6 K. 

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B 
Answer ANY THREE questions in this section. 
NOTE: Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of each question that you choose.  The answer to EACH question must start on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 2  on a NEW page, QUESTION 3 on a NEW page, etc. 

QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS 
2.1 List FOUR pillars of the Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment Act  (BBBEE), 2003 (Act 53 of 2003). (4) 
2.2 Outline the role of SETAs in supporting the Skills Development Act, 1998  (Act 97 of 1998). (8) 
2.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

2.3.1 Name the business sector in which DM operates. Motivate your  answer by quoting from the scenario above. (3) 
Use the table below as a guide to answer the questions that follow. 

2.3.2 Quote THREE challenges from the scenario above that Duka Mines  have to deal with. (3) 
2.3.3 Classify EACH challenge quoted in QUESTION 2.3.2 according to  the business environment. (3) 
2.3.4 State the extent of control that DM has over EACH business  environment. (3) 
2.4 Describe THREE types of diversification strategies. (9) 
2.5 Explain the purpose of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act (BCEA),  1997 (Act 75 of 1997). (6)
2.6 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

2.6.1 Identify the Act that was applied by Speedy Drycleaners. Motivate  your answer by quoting from the scenario above. (3) 
2.6.2 Evaluate the impact of the Act, identified in QUESTION 2.6.1, on  businesses. (8) 
2.7 Advise businesses on steps that they should follow when evaluating a  strategy. (10) [60] 

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS VENTURES 
3.1 Give THREE examples of insurable risks. (3)
3.2 Outline TWO rights of ordinary shareholders. (4)
3.3 Tammy allocates tasks to employees according to their level of maturity. 
3.3.1 Name the leadership theory that Tammy is applying. (2)
3.3.2 Discuss the leadership theory identified in QUESTION 3.3.1. (8)
3.4 Distinguish between a private company and a public company. (8)
3.5 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.5.1 Calculate the interest amount Ronnete will receive after two years if  she invests with Saints Bank. (3) 
3.5.2 Calculate the interest amount Ronnete will receive after two years if  she invests with Caprica Bank. (4) 
3.5.3 Recommend the best investment option for Ronnete. Motivate your  answer. (3) 
3.6 Discuss any TWO principles of insurance. (6)
3.7 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.7.1 Identify the type of visual aid that Sipho used. Motivate your answer  by quoting from the scenario above. (3) 
3.7.2 Evaluate the impact of the visual aid identified in QUESTION 3.7.1. (8) 
3.7.3 Advise Sipho on the factors that he should consider when  responding to questions in a professional manner. (8) [60] 

QUESTION 4: BUSINESS ROLES 
4.1 State FIVE causes of conflict in the workplace. (5)
4.2 Outline the benefits of diversity in the workplace. (8)
4.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

4.3.1 Identify the TWO stages of team development that were  experienced by SS. Motivate your answer by quoting from the  scenario above. (6) Use the table below as a guide to answer QUESTION 4.3.1. 

4.3.2 Explain THREE other stages of team development. (9) 4.4 Discuss the advantages of creative thinking in the workplace. (8) 
4.5 Explain how businesses could apply the force-field analysis technique to  solve business problems. (6)
4.6 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

4.6.1 Identify the types of difficult personalities displayed by Albert and  Njabulo. Motivate your answer by quoting from the scenario above. (6) 
Use the table below as a guide to answer QUESTION 4.6.1. 

4.6.2 Recommend ONE strategy that LSS can use to deal with EACH type  of difficult personality identified in QUESTION 4.6.1. (4) 
4.7 Suggest ways in which businesses could promote social rights in the  workplace. (8) [60] 

QUESTION 5: BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
5.1 Name FOUR sources of internal recruitment. (4) 5.2 Outline the purpose of induction as a human resources activity. (8)
5.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

5.3.1 Quote from the scenario above the role of the interviewer and interviewee/candidate during the interview. 
Use the table below as a guide to answer QUESTION 5.3.1.  (4) 

5.3.2 Explain the role of the interviewer when preparing for an interview. (8)
5.4 Differentiate between job description and job specification. (8)
5.5 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

5.5.1 Identify the total quality management (TQM) elements applied by  SLL. Motivate your answer by quoting from the scenario above.  (6) 
Use the table below as a guide to answer QUESTION 5.5.1. 

5.5.2 Evaluate the impact of ONE TQM element, identified in  QUESTION 5.5.1, on Strydom Leathers Limited as a large business. (8)
5.6 Explain the impact of TQM if it is poorly implemented by businesses. (6) 
5.7 Advise businesses on the benefits of a good quality management system. (8) [60] 

QUESTION 6: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS 
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS 
6.1 Identify the PESTLE element that poses a challenge to Tsego Manufacturers in EACH statement below. 
6.1.1 Customers cannot afford to buy Tsego Manufacturers' products due  to low income levels. (2) 
6.1.2 Tsego Manufacturers cannot afford to implement correct measures  when disposing of waste material. (2) 
6.1.3 Tsego Manufacturers have lost many customers due to a lack of  on-line buying facilities. (2) 
6.1.4 Tsego Manufacturers have increased their prices due to the high  inflation rate. (2) 
6.2 Explain the advantages of intensive strategies for businesses. (6)

BUSINESS VENTURES 
6.3 Discuss the importance of state-owned companies (SOC). (6)
6.4 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

6.4.1 Identify the insurance clause applied by the insurance company in the scenario above. (2) 
6.4.2 Elaborate on the meaning of the insurance clause identified in  QUESTION 6.4.1. (4) 
6.4.3 Outline TWO advantages of insurance for businesses. (4)

BUSINESS ROLES 
6.5 Give FOUR examples of unfair advertising. (4) 
6.6 Identify the problem-solving technique applied by Garry Cycling Store in  EACH statement below. 
6.6.1 Garry engages in a role-play conversation with an imaginary person  to clarify a proposed solution to a problem. 
6.6.2 Employees were requested to first generate ideas and then share  their ideas with other group members. 
6.6.3 Experts were requested to complete a questionnaire on how to solve  their business problems. (6) 
6.7 Recommend strategies that businesses could use to deal with the pricing of  goods in rural areas. (6) 

BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
6.8 Define placement as a human resources activity. (2) 
6.9 Explain TWO salary determination methods that businesses could apply to  remunerate their employees. (6) 
6.10 Advise the human resources manager on aspects that should be included in  an employment contract. (6) [60] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 180

SECTION C 
Answer ANY TWO questions in this section. 
NOTE: Clearly indicate the QUESTION NUMBER of each question chosen.  The answer to EACH question must start on a NEW page, e.g. QUESTION 7  on a NEW page, QUESTION 8 on a NEW page, etc. 

QUESTION 7: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION) 

As an expert on recent legislation, write an essay on the following aspects: 

• Outline the purpose of the CPA. 
• Discuss the impact of the CPA on businesses. 
• Recommend ways in which businesses could promote the following consumer  rights, as stipulated in the CPA:
  • Right to privacy and confidentiality
  • Right to information about products and agreements
  • Right to fair value/good quality and safety 

• Advise businesses on penalties/consequences that may be imposed for non-compliance with the NCA. [40] 

QUESTION 8: BUSINESS VENTURES (INVESTMENTS AND FORMS OF  OWNERSHIP) 

Keep the scenario above in mind and write detailed notes on the following aspects: 

• Outline the functions of the JSE. 
• Describe FOUR types of preference shares. 
• Evaluate the impact of the RSA Retail Savings Bonds/government retail bonds on  investors. 
• Advise Peter and Teko on how the following factors could contribute to the success  and/or failure of their partnership: 
  • Management 
  •  Legislation [40]

QUESTION 9: BUSINESS ROLES (SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY, CSR AND CSI) 

Write an essay in which you address the following aspects: 

• Differentiate between CSR and CSI. 
• Explain the impact of CSR on communities. 
• Recommend strategies on how businesses could deal with HIV/Aids and  unemployment as socio-economic issues. 
• Suggest FIVE ways in which businesses could contribute time and effort to improve the well-being of the community, excluding HIV/Aids and unemployment  strategies. [40] 

QUESTION 10: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (QUALITY OF PERFORMANCE) 

Give an in-depth analysis of quality of performance by referring to the following  aspects: 

• Elaborate on the meaning of quality assurance. 
• Distinguish between quality management and quality performance. 
• Suggest quality indicators of the general management function and the production  function. 
• Advise businesses on how TQM could impact on the reduction of the cost of  quality. [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 80 
GRAND TOTAL: 300

BUSINESS STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

NOTES TO MARKERS 
PREAMBLE 
The notes to markers are provided for quality assurance purposes to ensure the following: 

1. Fairness, consistency and reliability in the standard of marking 
2. Facilitate the moderation of candidates' scripts at the different levels
3. Streamline the marking process considering the broad spectrum of markers across the country
4. Implement appropriate measures in the teaching, learning and assessment of the  subject at schools/institutions of learning 

GUIDELINES

1. For marking and moderation purposes, the following colours are recommended:
   Marker                                          Red 
   Senior Marker:                             Green 
   Deputy Chief Marker:                   Brown/Black/Blue
   Chief Marker:                                Pink
   Internal Moderator:                       Orange 
   DBE Moderator:                            Turquoise
2. Comprehensive marking guidelines have been provided but this is by no means  exhaustive. Due consideration should be given to an answer that is correct but:
   • Uses a different expression from that which appears in the marking  guidelines
   • Comes from another source
   • Original
   • A different approach is used
     NOTE: There is only ONE correct answer in SECTION A. 
3. Candidates' responses must be in full sentences for SECTIONS B and C.  However, this would depend on the nature of the question.
4. Take note of other relevant answers provided by candidates and allocate marks  accordingly. (In cases where the answer is unclear or indicates some  understanding, part-marks should be awarded, for example, one mark instead  of the maximum of two marks.) 
5. The word 'Sub-max' is used to facilitate the allocation of marks within a  question or sub-question. 
6. The purpose of circling marks (guided by 'max' in the breakdown of marks) on  the right-hand side is to ensure consistency and accuracy in the marking of  scripts as well as for calculation and moderation purposes.
7. Subtotals to questions must be written in the right-hand margin. Circle the  subtotals as indicated by the allocation of marks. This must be guided by 'max' in the marking guidelines. Only the total for each question should appear in the  left-hand margin next to the appropriate question number.
8. In an indirect question, the theory as well as the response must be relevant and  related to the question.
9. Incorrect numbering of answers to questions or sub questions in SECTIONS A  and B will be severely penalised. Therefore, correct numbering is strongly  recommended in all sections. 
10. No additional credit must be given for repetition of facts. Indicate with an 'R'.
11. Note that no marks will be awarded for indicating Yes/No in evaluation type  questions requiring substantiation or motivation. (Applicable to SECTIONS B  and C)
12.  The differentiation between 'evaluate' and 'critically evaluate' can be explained  as follows:
    12.1 When 'evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond in either  a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and negative)  stance, e.g. Positive: 'COIDA eliminates time and costs spent√ on  lengthy civil court proceedings.'√
    12.2 When 'critically evaluate' is used, candidates are expected to respond  in either a positive/negative manner or take a neutral (positive and  negative) stance. In this instance candidates are also expected to  support their responses with more depth, e.g. 'COIDA eliminates time  and costs spent√ on lengthy civil court proceedings√, because the  employer will not be liable for compensation to the employee for  injuries sustained during working hours as long as it can be proved  that the business was not negligent.'√
    NOTE:
    1. The above could apply to 'analyse' as well.
    2. Note the placing of the tick (√) in the allocation of marks.
13. The allocation of marks must be informed by the nature of the question,  cognitive verb used, mark allocation in the marking guidelines and the context of  each question.
    Cognitive verbs, such as:
    13.1 Advise, name, state, mention, outline, motivate, recommend, suggest,  (list not exhaustive) do not usually require much depth in candidates' responses. Therefore, the mark allocation for each statement/answer  appears at the end.
    13.2 Define, describe, explain, discuss, elaborate, distinguish, differentiate, justify, devise, analyse, evaluate, critically evaluate (list not exhaustive) require a greater depth of understanding, application and reasoning.  Therefore, the marks must be allocated more objectively to ensure that  assessing is conducted according to established norms so that  uniformity, consistency and fairness are achieved.
14. Mark only the FIRST answer where candidates offer more than one answer for  SECTION B and C questions that require one answer.
15. SECTION B
    15.1 If for example, FIVE facts are required, mark the candidate's FIRST FIVE  responses and ignore the rest of the responses. Indicate by drawing a line  across the unmarked portion or use the word 'Cancel'.
    NOTE: This applies only to questions where the number of facts is specified.
    15.2 If two facts are written in one sentence, award the candidate FULL credit.  Point 15.1 above still applies.
    15.3 If candidates are required to provide their own examples/views, brainstorm this  at the marking centre to finalise alternative answers.
    15.4 Use of the cognitive verbs and allocation of marks:
    15.4.1 If the number of facts are specified, questions that require candidates  to 'describe/discuss/explain' may be marked as follows:
    • Fact 2 marks (or as indicated in the marking guidelines) 
    • Explanation 1 mark
      The 'fact' and 'explanation' are given separately in the marking  guidelines to facilitate mark allocation.
      15.4.2 If the number of facts required is not specified, the allocation of marks  must be informed by the nature of the question and the maximum mark  allocated in the marking guidelines.
      15.5 ONE mark may be awarded for answers that are easy to recall, requires  one word answers or is quoted directly from a scenario/case study. This  applies to SECTIONS B and C in particular (where applicable).
16. SECTION C
    16.1 The breakdown of the mark allocation for the essays is as follows:

16.2 Insight consists of the following components: 

NOTE:

1. No marks will be awarded for contents repeated from the  introduction and conclusion. 
2. The candidate forfeits marks for layout if the words  INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not stated. 
3. No marks will be awarded for layout, if the headings  INTRODUCTION and CONCLUSION are not supported by an  explanation. 

16.3 Indicate insight in the left-hand margin with a symbol e.g. ('L, A,-S and/or O') 
16.4 The breakdown of marks is indicated at the end of the suggested answer/ marking guidelines to each question.
16.5 Mark all relevant facts until the SUB MAX/MAX mark in a subsection has  been attained. Write SUB MAX/MAX after maximum marks have been  obtained. 
16.6 At the end of each essay indicate the allocation of marks for facts and marks  for insight as follows: 
(L – Layout, A – Analysis, S – Synthesis, O – Originality) as in the table  below. 

16.7 When awarding marks for facts, take note of the sub-maxima indicated,  especially if candidates do not make use of the same subheadings.  Remember, headings and subheadings are encouraged and contribute to  insight (structuring/logical flow/sequencing) and indicate clarity of thought.  (See MARK BREAKDOWN at the end of each question). 
16.8 If the candidate identifies/interprets the question INCORRECTLY, then  he/she may still obtain marks for layout. 
16.9 If a different approach is used by candidates, ensure that the answers are  assessed according to the mark allocation/subheadings as indicated in the  marking guidelines. 
16.10 16.10.1 Award TWO marks for complete sentences. Award ONE mark for  phrases, incomplete sentences and vague answers. 
16.10.2 With effect from November 2015, the TWO marks will not  necessarily appear at the end of each completed sentence. The  ticks(√) will be separated and indicated next to each fact, e.g.  'Product development is a growth strategy,√ where businesses aim  to introduce new products into existing markets.'√ This will be informed by the nature and context of the question, as  well as the cognitive verb used.  
16.11 With effect from November 2017, the maximum of TWO (2) marks for facts  shown as headings in the marking guidelines, will not necessarily apply to  each question. This would also depend on the nature of the question.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 C√√ 
1.1.2 D√√ 
1.1.3 B√√ 
1.1.4 A√√ 
1.1.5 A√√ 
1.1.6 A√√ 
1.1.7 B√√ 
1.1.8 D√√ 
1.1.9 A√√ 
1.1.10 D√√ (10 x 2) (20) 

1.2
1.2.1 strategy√√ 
1.2.2 retirement annuities√√ 
1.2.3 language√√ 
1.2.4 fringe√√ 
1.2.5 dismissed√√ (5 x 2) (10) 

1.3
1.3.1 F√√ 
1.3.2 G√√ 
1.3.3 I√√ 
1.3.4 H√√ 
1.3.5 A√√ (5 x 2) (10)

TOTAL SECTION A: 40 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

SECTION B 
Mark the FIRST THREE answers only. 
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS 
2.1 Pillars of BBBEE 
Option 1 

• Ownership√ 
• Management√ 
• Employment Equity√ 
• Skills development√ 
• Enterprise development √ 
• Supplier development/Preferential procurement√ 
• Socio economic development/Corporate social investment√ 

OR 
Option 2  

• Ownership√ 
• Management control√ 
• Skills development√ 
• Enterprise and supplier development√ 
• Socio economic development√
  NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4) 

2.2 Role of SETAs 

•  Develop sector skills plans in line with the National Skills Development  Strategy.√√ 
• Draw up skills development plans for their specific economic sectors.√√
• Approve workplace skills plans and annual training reports.√√ 
• Allocate grants to employers, education and training providers.√√
• Pay out grants to companies that are complying with the requirements of the  Skills Development Act.√√ 
• Monitor/Evaluate the actual training by service providers.√√ 
• Promote and establish learnerships.√√ 
• Register learnership agreements/learning programmes.√√
• Provide training material/programmes for skills development facilitators.√√
• Provide accreditation for skills development facilitators.√√ 
• Oversee training in different sectors of the South African economy.√√
• Promote learnerships and learning programmes by identifying suitable  workplaces for practical work experience.√√
• Collect levies and pay out grants as required.√√ 
• Report to the Director General.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the role of SETAs in supporting the SDA.  Max (8)

2.3 Business sectors/Business environments 
2.3.1 Primary sector√√ (2) 
Motivation 

• Duka Mines specialise in the extraction of platinum.√ (1)
  NOTE: Do not allocate marks for the motivation if the business sector was  incorrectly identified. Max (3) 

2.3.2 Classification of challenges and the extent of control 

NOTE: .

1. Do not award marks for challenges that are not fully quoted from the  scenario. 
2. Do not award marks for business environments if it is not linked to  the challenges.
3. Award marks for the business environments even if the quote is incomplete. 
4. The extent of control must be linked to the business environment. 
5. Do not award marks for the extent of control if the business environment is not mentioned. 
6. The order may be different.
   Max (9) 

2.4 Types of diversification strategies 

•  Concentric diversification√√ 
  • The business adds a new product or service that is related to existing  products and which will appeal to new customers.√
  • Occurs when a business wants to increase its product range and markets.√ o Any other relevant answer related to concentric diversification as a  diversification strategy. 

Strategy (2) 
Description (1) 
Sub max (3)

• Horizontal diversification√√
  • The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to existing  products, but which may appeal to existing customers.√
  • Occurs when a business acquires or merges with a business that is at the  same production stage, but it may offer a different product.√ 
  • Any other relevant answer related to horizontal diversification as a  diversification strategy. 

Strategy (2) 
Description (1) 
Sub max (3) 

• Conglomerate diversification√√ 
  • The business adds new products or services that are unrelated to existing  products which may appeal to new groups of customers.√
  • Conglomerate diversification means that a business grows into new  products, services and markets.√ 
  • Any other relevant answer related to conglomerate diversification as a  diversification strategy. 

Strategy (2) 
Description (1) 
Sub max (3) 
 Max (9) 

NOTE: Mark the first THREE only 
2.5 Purpose of BCEA 

• Enforces/Establishes basic conditions of employment√ for employers and  employees.√
• Set minimum requirements/standards√ for the employment contract.√
• Regulates the right to fair labour practices√ as set out in the Constitution.√
• Adheres to the rules and regulations√ set out by the International Labour  Organisation.√ 
• Regulates the variations√ of basic conditions of employment.√
• Advances economic development√ and social justice.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the BCEA.
  Max (6) 

2.6 Legislation  
2.6.1 Employment Equity Act, 1998 (Act 55 of 1998)/Employment Equity Act/EEA.√√  (2) 
Motivation 

• People with disabilities are encouraged to apply for this vacant position.√ (1)
  NOTE: Do not allocate marks for the motivation if the Act was incorrectly  identified. Max (3)

2.6.2 Impact of EEA on businesses 
Positives 

• Promotes equal opportunities√ and fair treatment in employment.√
• Encourages consultation√ between employer and employees.√ 
• Motivates employees√ because the workforce is more diverse/representative/ inclusive.√
• Appointment process is clearly defined√, so all parties are well informed.√
• Prevents unfair discrimination√ as it ensures that the workforce represents the demographics of the country/promotes diversity in the workplace.√
• Creates a framework√ of acceptable employment practices/affirmative action measures.√ 
• Promotes the implementation of affirmative action√ to address the imbalances  of the past.√ 
• Diversity/Inclusivity in the workplace√ can be achieved.√ 
• Businesses are in a better position to negotiate contracts√ with the  government√/Impact positively√ on BEE ratings of businesses.√
• Certified psychometric tests may be used√ to assess applicants/employees to  ensure that suitable candidates are appointed.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of EEA on businesses.

AND/OR 
Negatives 

•  Increased administration burden√, as businesses must compile/submit  employment equity reports every two years.√
• Expensive to train/employ someone√ who knows little about the Act.√
• Other groups may not respect the knowledge/skills/experience of an EE  appointment√ and may lead to conflict.√ 
• Fines/Penalties for non-compliant businesses√ may be expensive for the  business.√
• Employers have to appoint one or more senior managers to ensure the  implementation of the plan√, which increases salary expenditure.√
• Businesses must submit a compliance certificate√ before they can conduct  business with state businesses.√ 
• Businesses are sometimes pressurised to appoint an unsuitable EE person√ to  meet EE requirements.√ 
• Often positions go unfilled√ because there are no suitable EE candidates.√ - Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of the EEA on  businesses.
  NOTE: Accept relevant facts if the Act/EEA was incorrectly identified as  an answer in QUESTION 2.6.1.
  Max (8)

2.7 Steps in evaluating a strategy 

• Examine the underlying basis of a business strategy.√√
• Look forward and backwards into the implementation process.√√
• Compare the expected performance with the actual performance.√√
• Measure business performance in order to determine the reasons for deviations  and analyse these reasons.√√
• Take corrective action so that deviations may be corrected.√√
• Set specific dates for control and follow up.√√
• Draw up a table of the advantages and disadvantages of a strategy.√√ 
• Decide on the desired outcome.√√
• Consider the impact of the strategic implementation in the internal and external  environments of the business.√√
• Any other relevant answer related to the steps in evaluating a strategy.
  NOTE: Accept steps in any order.
  Max (10) 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS 

QUESTION 3: BUSINESS VENTURES 
3.1 Examples of insurable risks 

• Theft√ 
• Fidelity insurance√ 
•  Burglary√ 
• Money in transit√ 
•  Fire√ 
• Natural disaster/Storms/Wind/Rain/Hail√ 
• Damage to/Loss of assets/vehicles/ equipment/buildings/premises√
• Injuries on premises√ 
• Any other relevant example related to insurable risks.
  NOTE: Mark the first THREE (3) only. (3x1) (3)

3.2 Rights of ordinary shareholders 

•  Shareholders have a right to:
  • vote at the Annual General Meeting.√√ 
  • attend the Annual General Meeting to learn about the company's  performance.√√ 
  • receive interim and annual reports.√√ 
  • claim on company assets in the event of bankruptcy after all other creditors and preferential shareholders have been paid.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the rights of ordinary shareholders.
  NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2x2) (4) 

3.3 Leadership theories 
3.3.1 Situational leadership theory√√ (2) 
3.3.2 Situational leadership theory 

• Different leadership characteristics√ are needed for different situations.√ 
• The task/situation dictates the leadership style that should be applied√, so  leaders are adaptable/flexible/self-assured.√
• Effective application of this theory may enable leaders√ to accomplish their  goals.√
• Relationships between leaders and employees√ are based on mutual trust/  respect/loyalty/integrity/honesty.√
• Leaders have the ability to analyse the situation/get the most suitable people in  the right positions√ to complete tasks successfully.√
• Leaders analyse group members/objectives/time constraints√, to adopt a  suitable/relevant leadership style.√ 
• May lead to conflict√ when leaders use different leadership styles/when  managing employees in different situations.√
• The success of this theory depends on the kind of relationship that exists√  between the leader and followers/subordinates/employees.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the situational leadership theory.
  NOTE: Accept relevant facts if the situational leadership theory was incorrectly identified in QUESTION 3.3.1.
  Max (8)

3.4 Distinction between a private company and public company 

NOTE:

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The distinction does not have to link but must be clear. 
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the distinction is not  clear/Mark either a private company or public company.
   Max (8) 

3.5 Investments  
3.5.1 Simple interest  

• FORMULA: Interest = PxRxT √
  R30 000√ x 12% x 2 years√ = R7200√ 

NOTE:

1. Allocate full marks (3) if the answer is correct and no workings  are shown. 
2.  If workings were shown correctly, but the final answer is wrong,  award a maximum of TWO marks. 
3.  If the answer is incorrect, award a maximum of ONE mark for the  understanding of concept and method. 
4.  If there are no workings shown and the answer is incorrect,  allocate a ZERO mark. 
   Max (3)

3.5.2 Compound interest 
Option 1 

• Year 1: R30 000√ x 12% = R3600 √
  Year 2: R33 600√ x 12% = R4032√
  Total interest = R7632 √ 

OR 
Option 2  

• FORMULA: P x (1 + r)ⁿ√
  R30 000√ x (1+12/100)² √
  R30 000 x (1.12)² =R37 632√
  Total interest = R37 632- R30 000
  = R7632√ 

NOTE:

1. Allocate full marks (4) if the answer is correct and no working are shown. 
2. If workings were shown correctly, but the final answer is wrong, award a maximum of THREE marks. 
3.  If the answer is incorrect, award a maximum of ONE mark for the understanding of concept and method. 
4.  If there are no workings shown and the answer is incorrect, allocate a ZERO mark. 
   Max (4) 

3.5.3 Best investment option 

• Compound interest√√ (2)
  Motivation
  Compound interest yields a higher interest of R7 632 than the simple interest/ Ronnete earns interest on interest accrued.√ (1)
  NOTE: Do not award marks for the motivation if the best investment option  was not identified.
  Max (3) 

3.6 Principles of Insurance 
Indemnification/Indemnity√√ 

• Usually applies to short term insurance, as the insured is compensated for  specified/proven harm/loss.√
• Insurer agrees to compensate the insured for damages/losses specified in the  insurance contract, in return for premiums paid by the insured to the insurer.√ 
• Protects the insured against the specified event that may occur.√
• Pay-outs from insurance companies/insurer will only be made; if there is proof that  the specified event took place/if the insured can prove the amount of the loss/  damage.√ 
• The amount of indemnification/compensation is limited to the amount of provable  loss/damage, even if the amount in the policy/insurance contract is higher.√
• The insured must be placed in the same position as before the occurrence of the  loss/damage/The insured may not profit from insurance.√
• Any other relevant answer related to indemnification/indemnity as a principle of  insurance. 

Principle (2) 
Discussion (1) 
Sub max (3)

Security/Certainty√√ 

• Applies to long-term insurance where the insurer undertakes to pay out an agreed  upon amount in the event of loss of life.√ 
• A predetermined amount will be paid out when the insured reaches a pre determined age/or gets injured due to a predetermined event.√ 
• Aims to provide financial security to the insured at retirement/the dependents of  the deceased.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to security/certainty as a principle of insurance. 

Principle (2) 
 Discussion (1) 
 Sub max (3) 

Utmost good faith√√ 

• Insured has to be honest in supplying details when entering in an insurance  contract.√
• Both parties/insurer and insured must disclose all relevant facts.√ 
• Insured must disclose everything that may affect the extent of the risk.√ 
• Details/Information supplied when claiming should be accurate/true.√
• Any other relevant answer related to utmost good faith as a principle of  insurance.  

Principle (2) 
Discussion (1) 
Sub max (3) 

Insurable interest√√  

• Insured must prove that he/she will suffer a financial loss if the insured object is  damaged/lost/ceases to exist.√ 
•  An insurable interest must be expressed in financial terms.√ 
• Insured must have a legal relationship with the insured object in the contract.√
• Any other relevant answer related to insurable interest as a principle of insurance.

Principle (2)  
Discussion (1)  
Sub max (3)  

NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
Max (6) 
3.7 Type of visual aid 
3.7.1 Hand-outs/flyers/brochures √√ (2) 
Motivation 

• Hard copies of his plans were distributed for future reference.√ (1)
  NOTE: Do not award marks for motivation if the visual aid was incorrectly  identified.
  Max (3)

3.7.2 Impact of hand-outs/flyers/brochures 
Positives 

• Meaningful hand-outs may be handed out at the start of the presentation√ to  attract attention/encourage participation.√ 
• Notes/Hard copies of the slide presentation can be distributed at the end of the  presentation√ as a reminder of the key facts of the presentation.√
• Extra information, e.g. contact details/price lists may be handed out√ to promote  the services of the business.√
• Useful information for improving the next presentation may be obtained√, when  the audience completes feedback questionnaires after the presentation.√
• It is easy to update handouts√ with recent information or developments.√
• Notes may be compared with electronic slides√ to validate the accuracy.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of handouts/flyers/ brochures as a visual aid. 

AND/OR 
Negatives 

• Hand-outs cannot be combined with audio material√, so it only focuses on the  visual aspects of support material.√
• Handing out material at the start of the presentation√ may distract/lose audience attention.√ 
• As it only summarises key information√, some details might be lost/omitted.√
• Printed material is expensive√ and it is easy to lose hard copies.√
• Increases the risk of unauthorised duplication/use√ of confidential information.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of handouts/flyers/ brochures as a visual aid.
  NOTE: Accept relevant facts if the visual aid was incorrectly identified as an  answer in QUESTION 3.7.1
  Max (8)

3.7.3 Responding to questions in a professional manner 

• Sipho should stand throughout the feedback session.√√ 
• Be polite/confident/courteous when responding to questions.√√ 
• Ensure that each question/comment is clearly understood before responding/re phrase questions if uncertain.√√
• He should first listen and then respond.√√ 
• Provide feedback as soon as possible after the question was asked or after the  session.√√ 
• Be direct/honest/sincere when responding to questions.√√ 
• Use simple language to support the examples used in the presentation.√√
• Keep answers short and to the point.√√ 
• Apologise/acknowledge his errors/mistakes if pointed out by the audience.√√ 
• Encourage questions from the audience/investors.√√ 
• Always address the questions and not the person.√√ 
• Acknowledge good questions to motivate audience to ask more questions.√√
• Sipho should not involve himself in a debate when responding to questions.√√
• He should not avoid the questions if he does not know the answer, but rather  promise feedback on it.√√ 
• Address the full audience/investors and not only the person who posed the  question.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to factors to be considered when responding  to questions in a professional manner.
  Max (8) [60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS

QUESTION 4: BUSINESS ROLES 
4.1 Causes of conflict in the workplace 

• Differences in backgrounds/cultures/values/beliefs/language√ 
• Limited business resources√ 
• Different goals/objectives for group/individuals√ 
•  Personality differences between group/individuals√ 
•  Different opinions√ 
• Unfair workload√ 
• Ill-managed stress√ 
• Unrealistic expectations√ 
• Poor organisation/leadership/administrative procedures and systems√
• Confusion about scheduling/deadlines√ 
• Ignoring rules/procedures√ 
• Misconduct/Unacceptable behaviour√ 
• High/Intense competition/Competitiveness√ 
• Poor communication√ 
• Unclear responsibilities√ 
• Distracted by personal objectives√ 
• Constant changes in the workplace√ 
• Unfair treatment of workers/Favouritism by management/Discrimination√
• Lack of trust amongst workers√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to causes of conflict in the workplace.

NOTE: 

1. Mark the first FIVE (5) only.
2. Accept examples (5x1) (5) 

4.2 Benefits of diversity in the workplace 

• Workforce diversity improves the ability of a business to solve problems/  innovate/cultivate diverse markets.√√
• Employees value each other's diversity and learn to connect/communicate  across lines of difference.√√ 
• Diversity in the workforce improves morale/motivation.√√ 
• Employees demonstrate greater loyalty to the business because they feel  respected/accepted/understood.√√
• Diversified workforce can give businesses a competitive advantage, as they  can render better services.√√ 
• Being respectful of differences/demonstrating diversity makes good business  sense/improves profitability.√√
• Diverse businesses ensure that its policies/practices empower every employee  to perform at his/her full potential.√√ 
• Stakeholders increasingly evaluate businesses on how they manage diversity  in the workplace.√√
• Employees from different backgrounds can bring different perspectives to the  business.√√ 
• A diversified workforce stimulates debate on new/improved ways of getting  things done.√√ 
• Employees represent various groups and are therefore better able to recognise  customer needs and satisfy consumers.√√ 
• Businesses with a diverse workforce are more likely to have a good public  image and attract more customers.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the benefits of diversity in the workplace.
  Max (8)

4.3.1 Stages of team development from the scenario 

NOTE:

1. Do not award marks for motivation if the stages of team development were incorrectly identified. 
2. Award marks for the stages of team development even if the quote  is incomplete.
   Max (6) 

4.3.2 Other stages of team development 
Forming stage√√ 

• Individuals gather information and impressions about each other and the scope  of the task and how to approach it.√
• This is a comfortable stage to be in.√ 
• People focus on being busy with routines, such as team organisation e.g. who  does what, when to meet each other√, etc. 
• Any other relevant answer related to the forming stage of team development.

Stage (2) 
Explanation (1) 
Sub max (3) 

Performing stage/Working as a team towards a goal√√ 

• Team members are aware of strategies and aims of the team.√
• They have direction without interference from the leader.√ 
• Processes and structures are set.√ 
• Leaders delegate and oversee the processes and procedures.√
• All members are now competent, autonomous and able to handle the decision making process without supervision.√ 
•  Differences among members are appreciated and used to enhance the team's  performance.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the performing stage/working as a team  towards a goal of team development. 

Stage (2) 
Explanation (1) 
Sub max (3) 

Adjourning/Mourning stage√√ 

• The focus is on the completion of the task/ending the project.√ 
• Breaking up the team may be traumatic as team members may find it difficult to  perform as individuals once again.√ 
• All tasks need to be completed before the team finally dissolves.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the adjourning/mourning stage of team  development 

Stage (2) 
Explanation (1) 
Sub max (3)

NOTE:

1. Mark the first THREE (3) only. 
2. Do not allocate marks for Storming/ Norming as identified in  Question 4.3.1
   Max (9) 

4.4 Advantages of creative thinking in the workplace 

• Better/Unique/Unconventional ideas/solutions√ are generated.√
• May give the business a competitive advantage√ if unusual/unique solutions/  ideas/strategies are implemented.√
• Complex business problems√ may be solved.√
• Productivity increases√ as management/employees may quickly generate  multiple ideas which utilises time and money more effectively.√ 
• Managers/Employees have more confidence√ as they can live up to their full  potential.√
• Managers will be better leaders√ as they will be able to handle/manage  change(s) positively and creatively.√ 
• Managers/Employees can develop a completely new outlook√, which may be  applied to any task(s) they may do.√ 
• Leads to more positive attitudes√ as managers/employees feel that they have  contributed towards problem solving.√
• Improves motivation√ amongst staff members.√
• Managers/Employees have a feeling of great accomplishment√ and they will not  resist/obstruct the process once they solved a problem/contributed towards the  success of the business.√
• Management/employees may keep up√ with fast changing technology.√
• Stimulates initiative from employees/managers√, as they are continuously  pushed out of their comfort zone.√ 
• Creativity may lead to new inventions√ which improves the general standard of  living.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of creative thinking in the  workplace.
  Max (8) 

4.5 Application of the force-field analysis technique 

• Describe the current situation/problem√ and the desired situation.√
• List all driving/pros and restraining/cons forces√ that will support and resist  change.√ 
• Allocate a score to each force√ using a numerical scale, where 1 is weak and 5  is strong.√ 
• Weigh up the positives and negatives√ then decide if the project is viable.√
• Choose the force√ with the highest score as the solution.√ 
• If the project is viable√, find ways to increase the forces for change.√
• Identify priorities√ and develop an action plan.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the application of the force field analysis technique when solving complex business problems.
  Max (6)

4.6 Difficult personalities 
4.6.1 Types of personalities from the scenario 

NOTE: Do not award marks for the motivation if the type of difficult  personality was incorrectly identified.
Max (6) 
4.6.2 Dealing with difficult personalities identified from the scenario 

NOTE: 

1. Mark ONLY the FIRST strategy for each type of difficult personality.
2. Strategies must be linked to the correct identified type of  personality in QUESTION 4.6.1. 
3. Award marks for strategies that are based on the motivation from  the scenario. 
4. The type of personality may be in any order.
   Max (4) 

4.7 Ways to promote social rights in the workplace 

• Businesses should ensure that employees have access to clean water/social  security.√√
• Encourage employees/Provide opportunities for skills training/basic education.√√ 
• Register workers with UIF to provide adequate protection in the event of  unemployment/illness.√√
• Encourage employees to participate in special events, e.g. World Aids day.√√
• Provide health care services by establishing site clinics to give employees  access to basic medical examinations.√√
• Any other relevant suggestion related to ways businesses could promote social  rights in the workplace.
  NOTE: Do not accept ways that promote human and/or economic rights.
  Max (8)  [60]

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS 

QUESTION 5: BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
5.1 Sources of internal recruitment 

• Internal e-mails/Intranet/web sites to staff√
• Word of mouth√
• Business newsletter/circulars√ 
• Internal/management referrals√ 
• Notice board of the business√ 
• Internal bulletins√
• Recommendation of current employees√ 
• Head hunting within the business/organisational database.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to sources of internal recruitment.
  NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4x1) (4) 

5.2 Purpose of induction 

•  Introduce new employees to management/colleagues to establish relationships  with fellow colleagues at different levels.√√ 
• Create opportunities for new employees to experience/explore different  departments.√√ 
• Explain safety regulations and rules, so that new employees will understand their  role/responsibilities in this regard.√√ 
• Communicate information about the products/services.√√ 
• Allow new employees the opportunity to ask questions that will put them at  ease/reduce insecurity/anxiety/fear.√√ 
• Make new employees feel welcome by introducing them to their physical work  space.√√ 
• Give new employees a tour/information about the layout of the building/office.√√
• Improve skills through in-service training.√√ 
• Familiarise new employees with the organisational structure/their supervisors.√√
• Ensure that employees understand their roles/responsibilities so that they will be  more efficient/productive.√√ 
• Communicate business policies regarding ethical/professional  conduct/procedures/ employment contract/conditions of employment√√, etc.
• Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of induction as a human  resources activity.
  Max (8)

5.3 Interview 
5.3.1 Role of the interviewer and interviewee/applicant from the scenario 

NOTE: Do not award marks for responses that are not quoted from the  scenario.
Max (4) 
5.3.2 Role of the interviewer/Elzette when preparing for an interview

• The interviewer/Elzette should develop a core set of questions√ based on the  skills/knowledge/ ability required.√
• She should check/read the application/verify the CV of every candidate√ for  anything that may need to be explained.√ 
• Book and prepare the venue√ for the interview.√ 
• Set the interview date√ and ensure that all interviews take place on the same  date, if possible.√
• Inform all shortlisted candidates√ about the date and place of the interview.√ 
• Plan the programme for the interview√ and determine the time that should be  allocated to each candidate. √ 
• Notify all panel members conducting the interview√ about the date and place of  the interview.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the role of the interviewer/Elzette when  preparing for an interview.
  Max (8) 

5.4 Differences between job description and job specification 

NOTE:

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The differences must be clear but not linked. 
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the differences are not  clear/Mark either job description or job specification.
4. Award ONE mark for EACH example of job description and job  specification.
   Max (8)

5.5 Total Quality Management 
5.5.1 TQM elements 

NOTE: Do not award marks for the motivation if the TQM element was incorrectly identified. 
Max (6) 
5.5.2 Impact of continuous improvement to processes and systems on large  businesses 
Positives 

• SLL have more resources√ to check on quality performance in each unit.√
• Enough capital resources are available√ for new equipment required for  processes and systems.√
• SLL have a person dedicated√ to the improvement of processes and systems.√
• Willing to take risk on/try new processes and systems√ because they are able to  absorb the impact of losing money.√
• They can afford to use the services of the quality circles√ to stay ahead of their  competitors.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of continuous  improvement to processes and systems on large businesses/SLL. 

AND/OR 
Negatives 

• Large scale manufacturing√ can complicate quality control.√ 
• Systems and processes take time and effort to implement in SLL√ as  communication/buy-in may delay the process.√
• Risk of changing parts of the business√ that are actually working well.√
• Not all negative feedback from employees and customers is going to be  accurate√, which may result in incorrect/unnecessary changes to systems and  processes.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of continuous improvement to processes and systems on large businesses/SLL. 

OR 
Impact of total client/customer satisfaction on large businesses 
Positives 

• SLL uses market research/customer surveys√ to measure/ monitor customer  satisfaction/analyse customers' needs.√ 
• Continuously promote√ a positive company image.√
• May achieve a state of total customer satisfaction, if businesses follow sound  business practices√ that incorporate all stakeholders.√ 
• Strive to understand and fulfil customer expectations√ by aligning cross functional teams across critical processes.√ 
• Ensures that cross-functional teams understand its core competencies√ and  develop/strengthen it.√
• May lead to higher customer retention/loyalty√ and businesses may be able to  charge higher prices.√
• SLL may be able to gain access√ to the global market.√
• May lead to increased√ competitiveness/profitability.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the positives impact of total client/customer  satisfaction on large businesses/SLL. 

AND/OR 
Negatives 

• SLL employees who seldom come into contact with customers√ often do not  have a clear idea of what will satisfy their needs.√ 
• Monopolistic companies have an increased bargaining power√ so they do not  necessarily have to please customers.√
• Not all employees√ may be involved/committed to total client satisfaction.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of total client/customer  satisfaction on large businesses/SLL. 

NOTE:

1. Mark the FIRST TQM element. 
2. Award marks for similar responses if the TQM element was   incorrectly identified in Question 5.5.1
   Max (8) 

5.6 Impact of TQM if poorly implemented by businesses 

• Setting unrealistic deadlines√ that may not be achieved.√
• Employees may not be adequately trained√ resulting in poor quality products.√
• Decline in productivity√, because of stoppages.√ 
• Businesses may not be able to make necessary changes of products/services√  to satisfy the needs of customers.√
• Business reputation/image may suffer√ because of poor quality/defective goods.√ 
• Customers will have many alternatives to choose from√ and the impact could be  devastating to businesses.√
• Investors might withdraw investment√, if there is a decline in profits.√ 
• Decline in sales√ as more goods are returned by unhappy customers.√
• High staff turnover√, because of poor skills development.√
• Undocumented/Uncontrolled quality control systems/processes√ could result in  errors/ deviations from pre-set quality standards.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM if poorly implemented by  businesses. 
  Max (6) 

5.7 Benefits of a good quality management system 

• Effective customer services are rendered, resulting in increased customer  satisfaction.√√ 
• Time and resources are used efficiently.√√ 
• Productivity increases through proper time management/using high quality  resources.√√
• Products/Services are constantly improved resulting in increased levels of  customer satisfaction.√√ 
• Vision/Mission/Business goals may be achieved.√√ 
• Business has a competitive advantage over its competitors.√√ 
•  Regular training will continuously improve the quality of employees' skills/  knowledge.√√ 
•  Employers and employees will have a healthy working relationship resulting in  happy/productive workers.√√
• Increased market share/more customers improve profitability.√√
• Improves business image as there are less defects/returns.√√
• Any other relevant answer related to benefits of a good quality management  system.
  Max (8)  [60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS 

QUESTION 6: MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS 
BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT 
6.1 PESTLE elements 
6.1.1 Social√√ (2)
6.1.2 Environmental√√ (2)
6.1.3 Technological√√ (2)
6.1.4 Economical√√ (2) 
6.2 Advantages of intensive strategies for businesses 

• Increased market share√ reduces the business's vulnerability to actions of  competitors.√
• Increase in sales/income/profitability√ due to variety of advertising campaigns.√ 
• Improved service delivery√ may improve business image.√ 
• Businesses may have more control√ over the prices of products/services.√
• Gain customer loyalty√ through effective promotion campaigns.√ 
• Decrease in prices√ may influence customers to buy more products.√
• Regular sales to existing customers√ may increase.√ 
• Eliminate competitors√ and dominate market prices.√ 
• Enables the business to focus on markets/well researched quality products√ that  satisfy the needs of customers.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of intensive strategies for  businesses.
  Max (6) 

BUSINESS VENTURES 
6.3 Importance of state owned companies/SOC 

• Profits may be used√ to finance other state departments/reduce taxes.√
• Generates income√ to finance social programmes.√ 
• Jobs are created√ for all skills levels.√ 
• Offer essential services√ which may not be offered by the private sector.√
• Prices are kept reasonable√/create sound competition with the private sector to  make services affordable to more citizens.√ 
• Wasteful duplication of services√ is eliminated.√ 
• Planning can be coordinated√ through central control.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the importance of state owned companies/SOC.
  Max (6) 

6.4 Insurance 
6.4.1 Average clause√√ Max (2) 
6.4.2 Meaning of average clause 

•  A stipulation set by the insurer which is applicable when property/goods√ is  under insured/insured for less than its market value.√
• The insurer will pay for insured loss/damages√ in proportion to the insured  value.√ 
• This means that the insured is responsible for√ a part of the risk that is not  insured.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of the average clause.
  Max (4) 

6.4.3 Advantages of insurance for businesses 

• Transfers the risk from the business/insured to an insurance company/insurer.√√
• Transfer of risk is subject to the terms and conditions of the insurance  contract.√√ 
• Protects the business against theft/loss of stock and/or damages caused by  natural disasters such as floods, storm damage√√, etc.
• Businesses will be compensated for insurable losses, e.g. destruction of  property through fire.√√ 
• Businesses assets, e.g. vehicles/equipment/buildings need to be insured against  damage and/or theft.√√ 
• Businesses are protected against the loss of earnings, e.g. strikes by employees  which result in losses worth millions.√√ 
• Protects businesses against dishonest employees.√√
• Life insurance can be taken on the life of partners in a partnership to prevent  unexpected loss of capital.√√ 
• Should the services of key personnel be lost due to accidents/death, the  proceeds of an insurance policy can be paid out to the business/beneficiaries.√√
• Replacement costs for damaged machinery/equipment are very high, therefore  insurance can reduce/cover such costs.√√
• Protects businesses from claims made by members of the public for damages  that the business is responsible for.√√ 
• Protects businesses against losses due to death of a debtor.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the advantages of insurance for businesses
  NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only. (2 x 2) (4)

BUSINESS ROLES  
6.5 Examples of unfair advertising 

•  Giving goods deceptive names/False labelling.√ 
• Selling second hand goods as new goods.√ 
• Exaggerating the merits of the product.√ 
• Using fine print to conceal important information. √ 
• Criticising competitor's goods.√ 
• Exploitations of children's lack of understanding.√ 
• Misuse of people with disabilities in advertisements.√ 
• Advertising that encourages violence.√ 
• Advertising goods at a very low price to attract customers but when the  customer reaches the store the item is no longer there/Bait and switch.√
• Advertising a product showing additional items, but do not clearly state that  these items are excluded.√ 
• Any other relevant examples of unfair advertising. 

NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. (4 x 1) (4)
6.6 Problem-solving techniques 
6.6.1 Empty chair√√ 
6.6.2 Nominal group√√ 
6.6.3 Delphi√√ 
Max (6) 
6.7 Strategies to deal with pricing of goods in rural areas 

• A business may lobby with other businesses in the area to convince government  to improve infrastructure in the rural area.√√ 
• Charge fair/market related prices for goods and services.√√ 
•  Avoid unethical business practices to attract customer loyalty.√√ 
• Investigate cost-effective ways of transporting products/Hire a large truck to  combine deliveries to shop-owners in the same area.√√ 
• Work together with suppliers to share delivery costs to remote rural areas.√√
• Any other relevant strategy related to dealing with pricing of goods in rural areas.
  Max (6)

BUSINESS OPERATIONS 
6.8 Meaning of placement 

• Selected candidates are placed where they will function optimally√ and add  value to the business. √ 
• A specific job is assigned√ to the selected candidate.√ 
• The qualifications/skills/personality of the selected candidate is matched√ with  the requirements of the job.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to placement as a human resources activity. NOTE: Do not allocate marks for a placement procedure.
  Max (2) 

6.9 Salary determination methods 
Piecemeal√√ 

• Workers are paid according to the number of items/units produced/action  performed.√
• Workers are not remunerated for the number of hours worked, regardless of  how long it takes them to make the items.√ 
• Mostly used in factories particularly in the textile/technology industries.√
• Any other relevant answer related to piecemeal as a salary determination  method. 

Method (2) 
Explanation (1) 
Sub max (3) 

Time-related√√ 

• Workers are paid for the amount of time they spend at work/on a task.√
• Workers with the same experience/qualifications are paid on salary scales  regardless of the amount of work done.√
• Many private and public sector businesses use this method.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to time-related as a salary determination  method. 

Method (2) 
Explanation (1) 
Sub max (3) 
Max (6) 

NOTE: Mark the first TWO (2) only.
6.10 Aspects that should be included in an employment contract

• Personal details of the employee.√√
• Details of the business/employer e.g. name/address√√, etc. 
• Job title/Position√√ 
• Job description e.g. duties/ working conditions.√√
• Job specification e.g. formal qualifications/willingness to travel.√√ 
• Date of employment/commencement of employment.√√ 
• Place where employee will spend most of his/her working time.√√ 
• Hours of work, e.g. normal time/overtime.√√ 
• Remuneration, e.g. weekly or monthly pay.√√ 
• Benefits/Fringe benefits/Perks/Allowances.√√ 
• Leave, e.g. sick/maternity/annual/adoption leave.√√ 
• Employee deductions (compulsory/non-compulsory).√√ 
• Period of contract/Details of termination.√√ 
• Probation period.√√ 
• Signatures of both the employer and employee.√√ 
• List of documents that form part of the contract, e.g. appointment letter/code of  conduct/ethics.√√ 
• Disciplinary policy, e.g. rules and disciplinary procedure for unacceptable  behaviour.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to aspects that should be included in an employment contract.
  Max (6)  [60] 

BREAKDOWN OF MARKS 

TOTAL SECTION B: 180

SECTION C 
Mark the first TWO (2) questions only. 
QUESTION 7: BUSINESS ENVIRONMENTS (LEGISLATION) 
7.1 Introduction 

•  The CPA was introduced to redress the economic inequalities of the past.√
• CPA promotes/advances the social and economic welfare of consumers in  South Africa.√ 
• The CPA applies to the promotion/sales of all goods and services.√
• The National Credit Act deals mainly with regulating consumer credit.√
• The reason for the establishment of the NCA was to curb the high levels of  consumer debts.√ 
• The NCA allows consumers to make informed decisions before buying on  credit.√
• Any relevant introduction related to the CPA and NCA. (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

7.2 Purpose of the Consumer Protection Act 

•  Promotes fair/accessible and sustainable places for people to sell their  products.√√ 
• Establishes national standards to protect consumers.√√ 
• Provides guidelines for better consumer information and to prohibit unfair  business practices.√√ 
• Promotes responsible consumer behaviour.√√ 
• Promotes consistent laws relating to consumer transaction and agreement.√√
• Establishes a National Consumer Commission (NCC).√√ 
• Ensures that consumers have access to information they need to make informed  choices.√√ 
• Promotes the rights and full participation of historically disadvantaged individuals  as consumers.√√ 
• Ensures that consumers are not misled/deceived by suppliers of goods/  services.√√ 
• Promotes consumer safety by protecting them from hazardous products/  services.√√ 
• Strengthens a culture of consumer rights and responsibilities.√√ 
• Empowers consumers to take legal action if their rights are not upheld.√√
• Protects consumers against contracts that include unfair terms which limit the  liability of suppliers.√√ 
• Protects consumers against unscrupulous businesses such as fly-by-night  franchisors.√√ 
• Allows for consumers and businesses to resolve disputes fairly/effectively. √√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the purpose of the Consumer Protection  Act.
  Max (10)

7.3 Impact of CPA on businesses 
7.3.1 Positives 

• Enables businesses to resolve disputes fairly√ through the National Consumer Commission/Consumer Court/Industrial ombudsmen.√
• Businesses may build a good image√ when they ensure that consumer rights  are not violated.√ 
• May gain consumer loyalty√, if they comply with CPA.√ 
• Businesses are less likely to have court cases against them√ for consumer  rights violations.√ 
• Businesses may be protected√ if they are regarded as consumers.√
• They may be safeguarded√ from dishonest competitors.√ 
• Prevents larger businesses√ from undermining smaller ones.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of CPA on businesses.

AND/OR 
Negatives 

•  Businesses have to replace/repair faulty items/refund money√ if the fault occurs  within six months after purchase.√
• Confidential business information√ may become available to competitors.√
• Consumers can take advantage of businesses√ and return goods when it is not  necessary to do so.√
• Processes and procedures required by CPA√ can be expensive and time  consuming.√ 
• Businesses may feel unnecessarily burdened√ by legal processes.√
• Penalties for non-compliance√ may be very high.√ 
• Staff need to be trained/Legal experts need to be consulted√, which can increase  costs.√ 
• Many business documents need to be simplified/revamped at extra cost√, as  consumers have a right to receive contracts in simple/understandable language.√ 
• Administration costs increase√, as legal contracts need to be worded in plain  language/pitched at the level of the consumer.√
• Businesses may need insurance√ against claims from consumers√/Provisions in  the Act increase the risks√ for unforeseen claims and law suits.√
• Supply chain management in stock levels will have to change√, as defective  goods have to be replaced within six months at the request of the customer.√
• Information technology systems need to be improved√ as the retailer must keep  more detailed records of interactions with consumers/be able to report to the  National Consumer Commission.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of CPA on businesses.  NOTE: Allocate marks for positives and/or negatives.
  Max (12)

7.4 Consumer rights 
7.4.1 Right to privacy and confidentiality 

• Businesses should allow consumers to exercise the right to:
  • stop/restrict unwanted direct marketing.√√ 
  • object to unwanted promotional e-mails/telesales.√√
  • lodge complaints about the sharing of their personal details.√√
• Any other relevant answer related to the consumer's right to privacy and  confidentiality.
  Sub max (6) 

7.4.2 Right to information about products and agreements 

• Business should ensure that: 
  • contracts and agreements are in plain language and easy to  understand.√√
  • display prices which are fully inclusive disclosing all costs.√√ 
  • consumers are allowed to request the unit and bulk price of the same  product.√√ 
  • consumers pay the lower price, if two prices for the same product are  displayed.√√ 
  • the labelling of products and trade descriptions/relevant information is  correct.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the consumer's right to information about  product and agreements.
  Sub max (6) 

7.4.3 Right to fair value/good quality and safety 

•  Business should allow consumers a right to:
  • demand quality service or goods.√√
  • return faulty items if the fault occurs within six months after purchasing  the item.√√ 
  • receive an implied warranty or a written warranty.√√
  • reject goods that are not the same as the sample marketed.√√ 
  • cancel/renew fixed-term agreements.√√ 
  • to be informed about hazardous/dangerous products.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the consumer's right to fair value/good  quality and safety.
  Sub max (6) Max (18) 

7.5 Penalties/consequences for non-compliance with the NCA

• The court may declare the granting of credit by the business reckless and may  order consumers not to repay the credit/or part thereof to the business.√√
• The business may not demand payment, sue or attach the clients/consumers  salaries/assets.√√
• The business may not charge any fee/interest/other charges under that specific  credit agreement.√√ 
• The National Credit Regulator may impose a fine/penalty on the business for  non-compliance.√√ 
• The business will bear all costs of removing the negative information of clients/  consumers who were blacklisted as a result of reckless lending.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the penalties/consequencesor non compliance with the NCA.
  Max (6)

7.6 Conclusion  

• The CPA forces both businesses and consumers to act responsibly when doing  business.√√
• The CPA applies to every transaction involving buying and selling of goods and  services.√√ 
• The NCA promotes/allows responsible lending by businesses and eliminates  reckless borrowing by consumers.√√ 
• Businesses who grant credit recklessly may be deregistered as an accredited  service provider.√√ 
• Any other relevant conclusion related to CPA and NCA. (Any 1 x 2) (2)  [40] 

QUESTION 7: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 

• Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
• Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
• Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all.

QUESTION 8: BUSINESS VENTURES (INVESTMENTS & FORMS OF OWNERSHIP) 
8.1 Introduction 

•  The JSE is a formal market comprising of all the public companies that have  been listed.√
• Various services are offered to listed companies by the JSE.√ 
• Preference shares can be considered as a viable investment option as  investors have various options to choose from.√ 
• The National Treasury of South Africa issues RSA Retail Savings Bonds/  Government Retail Bonds to the general public.√ 
• A partnership is formed by a minimum of two partners and the maximum  number is unlimited.√ 
• Any other relevant introduction related to the JSE/RSA Retail Savings  Bonds/Government Retail Bonds/preference shares/partnership. (2x1) (2) 

8.2 Functions of the JSE 

•  Gives opportunities to financial institutions such as insurance companies to  invest their funds in shares.√√
• Serves as a barometer/indicator of economic conditions in South Africa.√√
• Keeps investors informed on share prices by publishing the share prices daily.√√
• Acts as a link between investors and public companies.√√ 
• Shares are valued and assessed by experts.√√ 
• Small investors are invited to take part in the economy of the country through  the buying/selling of shares.√√ 
• Venture capital market is made available on the open market.√√ 
• Orderly market for securities serves as a disciplined market for securities.√√
• Encourages new investments.√√ 
• Mobilises the funds of insurance companies and other institutions.√√
• Raises primary capital.√√ 
• Regulates the market for dealing with shares.√√ 
• Plans, researches and advises on investment possibilities.√√ 
• Ensures that the market operates in a transparent manner.√√ 
• Provides protection for investors.√√ 
• Encourages short-term investment.√√ 
• Facilitates electronic trading of shares/STRATE.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the functions of the Johannesburg  Securities Exchange (JSE).
  Max (10) 

8.3 Types of preference  

• Participating preference shares√√ 

Shareholders:  

• are guaranteed minimum√ fixed dividends.√
• are entitled to share in any√ surplus company profits.√ 
• receive higher dividends√ when the company performs well.√ 
• have preferential rights over ordinary shares√ on repayment when the company  closes down.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to participating preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4)

Non-participating preference shares 
Shareholders: 

• receive an amount equal to the initial investment√ plus accrued and unpaid  dividends upon liquidation.√
• do not have right to participate in profits√ after equity shareholders have been  paid a dividend.√ 
• will not get extra dividend√ in case of surplus profits.√
• entitled to receive only a fixed rate of dividend√ every year.√
• Any other relevant answer related to non-participating preference shares. 

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

Cumulative preference shares√√ 

•  Shareholders are compensated for past dividends that were not paid out√ when  profits were too low to declare dividends√/Receive dividends not√ previously  paid out.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to cumulative preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

Non-cumulative preference shares√√ 

• Shareholders are not compensated for past dividends√ that were not paid out  when profits were low.√
• Any other relevant answer related to non-cumulative preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

Redeemable preference shares√√ 

• Shares can be redeemed/bought back at the option of the issuing company√,  either at a fixed price on a specified date/over a certain period of time.√
• Any other relevant answer related to redeemable preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

Non-redeemable preference shares√√ 

•  Shares are only bought back when the company closes down√ for reasons other  than bankruptcy.√
• Any other relevant answer related to non-redeemable preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4)

Convertible preference shares√√ 

• Shares can be converted into a predetermined number of ordinary shares√ on  the date specified when the preference shares were issued.√
• Any other relevant answer related to convertible preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

Non-convertible preference shares√√ 

• Shares cannot be converted√ into ordinary shares.√
• Any other relevant answer related to non-convertible preference shares.

Identification (2) 
Description (2) 
Sub max (4) 

NOTE: Mark the first FOUR (4) only. 

Types (8) 
Description (8) 
Max (16) 

8.4 Impact of RSA Retail Savings Bonds/Government Retail Bonds on investors
Positives 

• Guaranteed returns√, as interest rate is fixed for the whole investment period.√ 
• Interest rates are market related √ and attract more investors.√ 
• Interest can be received√ twice a year.√ 
• Investment may be easily accessible√, as cash may be withdrawn after the first  twelve months.√ 
• Low risk/Safe investment√, as it is invested with the South African Government  which cannot be liquidated.√ 
• It is an affordable type of investment√ for all levels of income earners including  pensioners.√ 
• Retail bonds are easily/conveniently obtained√ electronically/from any Post  Office/directly from National Treasury.√ 
• No charges/costs/commissions payable√ on this type of investment.√ 
• Interest is usually higher√ than on fixed deposits.√ 
• Retail bonds are listed√ on the capital bond markets/on the JSE.√ 
• Investors younger than 18 years/Minors may invest with the help of a legal  guardian√, which encourages saving from a young age.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of RSA Retail Savings  Bonds/Government Retail Bonds on investors. 

AND/OR 
Negatives 

•  Retail bonds cannot be ceded to banks√ as security for obtaining loans.√
• A minimum of R1 000 must be invested√, which may be difficult for some small  investors to accumulate.√ 
• Retail bonds are not freely transferable√ amongst investors.√ 
• Investors need to have valid SA identification/should be older than 18 years√  which may discourage foreigners/young people to invest.√ 
•  Penalties are charged for early withdrawals√, if the savings is less than  12 months old.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of RSA Retail Savings  Bonds/Government Retail Bonds on investors.
  Max (12)

8.5 Success and/or failure factors of a partnership 

NOTE:

1. The answers do not have to be in tabular format. 
2. The success and/or failure factors must relate to the partnership.
   Max (8)

8.6 Conclusion 

• Listed companies on the JSE will get more exposure to possible investors.√√
• Businesses should invest extra cash to generate more income rather than  leaving it in the businesses' current account.√√
• Dividends paid out on preference shares will attract more people to invest in a  company.√√
• Anyone can invest in RSA Retail Savings Bonds as it only requires a minimum  amount of one thousand rand.√√
• Various factors must be considered before choosing a form of ownership.√√
• Any other relevant conclusion related to the JSE/RSA Retail Savings  Bonds/Government Retail Bonds/preference shares/partnership. (1x2) (2)   [40] 

QUESTION 8: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 

• Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
• Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
• Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all. 

QUESTION 9: BUSINESS ROLES (SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY, CSR & CSI) 
9.1 Introduction  

• Businesses are corporate citizens and therefore have a responsibility towards  society.√
• Corporate Social Responsibility/CSR is the way a business conducts its  operations ethically and morally, regarding the use of human, physical and  financial resources.√
• CSR programmes and CSI projects should be relevant to the needs of  communities.√ 
• They should address socio-economic issues that affect business operations.√ 
• Businesses should not only focus on profits but also on the wellbeing of the  community in which they operate.√
• Any other relevant introduction related to CSR/CSI/Socio-economic  issues/Contribution of time and efforts in improving the wellbeing of the  community.  (2x1)(2) 

9.2 Differences between Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and Corporate  Social Investment (CSI) 

NOTE:

• The answer does not have to be in tabular format. 
• The distinction must be clear but does not have to be linked.
• Award a maximum of SIX (6) marks if the differences are not clear/  Mark either CSR or CSI only.
  Max (12)

9.3 Impact of CSR on communities 
Positives 

• Socio-economic issues are attended to√ which will improve the welfare of the  community.√
• Training opportunities in the community increase the possibility√ of  appointments of members of the community.√ 
• Implementing developmental programmes in the community√ improves  entrepreneurial skills of communities.√
• Provision of bursaries√ encourages communities to improve their skills.√
• The standard of living of the community √ is uplifted√/quality of life of  communities√ is improved.√
• Better educational facilities are established√ in poor communities.√
• Improve the health of communities√ by providing medical infrastructure.√
• Provide rehabilitation centres to community members√ who have addiction  problems.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the positive impact of CSR on  communities. 

AND/OR 
Negatives 

• Businesses are not always equipped√ to address social problems.√
• Communities tend to be dependent on CSR programmes√ and struggle to take  their own initiatives.√
• Distribution of scarce resources to selected beneficiaries in the community √  may cause problems such as discrimination.√ 
• Some businesses only participate in CSR initiatives to raise profit√ and do not  really care for the community in which they operate.√
• Businesses cannot meet √ the longer term needs of the society√/Business  cannot deliver√ sustainable CSR programmes.√
• The benefits of the programmes may not filter √ to the intended persons within  the community.√
• Spending money on CSR programmes means the business has to recover  expenses√ through higher prices which have a negative impact on the  economy.√
• Businesses tend to focus on CSR programmes that does not √ directly benefit  the community.√ 
• Less money is available for community projects √ during unfavourable  economic conditions.√ 
• Consumers are not easily convinced√ that a business is acting in the best  interest of the community and the environment.√
• A business often appears to benefit more from the CSR expenditure√ than the  perceived benefits to the communities.√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the negative impact of CSR on communities.
  Max (12)

9.4 Strategies to deal with HIV/Aids & unemployment 
9.4.1 Strategies to deal with HIV/Aids 

• Counselling programmes/train counsellors to provide infected and affected  persons/employees.√√
• Develop counselling programmes for infected/affected persons/employees.√√
• Conduct workshops on HIV/Aids programmes/campaigns.√√ 
• Roll out anti-retroviral (ARV) treatment programmes (ART) for the infected  employees.√√ 
• Encourage employees to join HIV/Aids support groups.√√ 
• Develop strategies to deal with stigma and discrimination.√√ 
• Participate in the HIV/Aids prevention programmes implemented in the  community.√√ 
• Support non-governmental organisational/community based organisation/NPC  HIV/Aids initiatives.√√ 
• Any other relevant strategies on how businesses could deal with HIV/Aids as a  socio-economic issue.
  Sub Max (6) 

9.4.2 Strategies to deal with unemployment 

•  Provide skills development programmes through learnerships.√√
• Offer bursaries to the community to improve the level of education.√√
• Create jobs for members of the community.√√ 
• Provide entrepreneurial programmes that can promote self-employment.√√
• Support existing small businesses to create more employment opportunities.√√
• Any other relevant strategies on how businesses could deal with unemployment  as a socio-economic issue.
  Sub max (6) Max (12) 

9.5 Contribution of time and effort in improving the wellbeing of the community

• Business should improve the general quality of life of their community, e.g.  invest in education√√, etc. 
• Ensure that the product they supply do not harm consumers/the  environment.√√ 
• Refrain from engaging in illegal/harmful practices such as employing children  under the legal age/selling illegal substances√√, etc. 
• Make ethically correct business decisions, e.g. not engage in unfair/misleading  advertising√√, etc. 
• Donate money to a community project/run a project to uplift the community.√√
• Provide recreational/sport facilities to promote social cohesion/healthy  activities.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to ways in which businesses could contribute  time and effort to improve the wellbeing of the community. 

NOTE: 

1. Mark the first FIVE (5) only. 
2.  Do NOT allocate marks for HIV/Aids and unemployment   strategies. (5 x 2) (10)

9.6 Conclusion  

• Corporate Social Responsibility is an obligation required by law and benefits  both business and society.√√
• CSI projects allow businesses to influence people's lives in many ways.√√
• Businesses use CSI programmes to comply with laws and ethical business  practices.√√ 
• Businesses have the responsibility to deal with socio-economic issues that can  affect profitability and growth.√√ 
• CSI projects must be aimed at increasing the wellbeing of communities.√√
• Any other relevant conclusion related to CSR/CSI/Socio-economic issues/ Contribution of time and efforts in improving the wellbeing of the community. (1x2) (2)  [40] 

QUESTION 9: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 

• Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
• Allocate 1 mark if only some of the requirements are met.
• Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all. 

QUESTION 10: BUSINESS OPERATIONS (QUALITY OF PERFORMANCE)) 
10.1 Introduction 

• Quality is the ability of a product/service to satisfy specific needs of consumers.√
• Manufactured goods must be quality assured throughout the production cycle.√
• Total quality relates to products that totally satisfy consumers' needs and  expectations in every respect on a continuous basis.√ 
• Quality management should not just be an inspection process, but become part  of the culture of the business.√
• The activities of all business functions must be properly managed to ensure that  all departments adhere to the same quality standards.√
• TQM helps to design, produce /provide quality products at a lower cost.√
• Any other relevant introduction related to quality concepts/general management function/production function/impact of TQM on the reduction of the cost of  quality. (2x1) (2) 

10.2 Meaning of quality assurance 

• Checks carried out during√ and after the production process.√
• Ensure that required standards√ have been met at every stage of the process.√
• Processes put in place to ensure that the quality of products/services/ systems  adhere to pre-set standards√ with minimal defects/delays/short- comings.√
• Ensuring that every process is aimed to get the product 'right the first time'√ and  prevent mistakes from happening.√
• Any other relevant answer related to the meaning of quality assurance. Max (6) 

10.3 Distinction between quality management and quality performance 

NOTE: 

1. The answer does not have to be in tabular format, 
2.  The distinction must be clear but does not have to be linked. 
3. Award a maximum of FOUR (4) marks if the distinction is not  clear/ Mark either quality management or quality performance  only.
   Max (8)

10.4 Business functions 
10.4.1 Quality indicators of the general management function 

• Develop/Implement/Monitor effective strategic plans.√√
• Efficient organisation/allocation of business resources to provide for the  successful achievement of long-term and short-term plans.√√
• Structured standards and norms should be in place so that control mechanisms  can be implemented.√√
• Learn about/understand changes in the business environment on an on-going  basis.√√
• Effectively communicate shared vision, mission and values.√√
• Set direction and establish priorities for their business.√√
• Be prepared to set an example of the behaviour that is expected from  employees in terms of ethics as well as productivity.√√
• Be proactive and always seeks to improve competitive advantage over  competitors.√√
• Ensure that all departments/the business meet their deadlines/targets.√√
• Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the general  management function.
  Sub max (10) 

10.4.2 Quality indicators of the production function 

• Provide high quality services/products according to specifications.√√
• The production/operating processes of a business should be done correctly  through proper production planning and control.√√
• Products and services should be produced at the lowest possible cost to allow  for profit maximisation.√√
• Businesses should clearly communicate the roles and responsibilities to the  production workforce.√√
• Products must meet customers' requirements by being safe, reliable and  durable.√√
• Businesses should have good after-sales services and warrantees.√√
• Empower workers so that they can take pride in their workmanship.√√
• Get accreditation from the SABS/ISO 9001 to ensure that quality products are  being produced.√√
• Specify the product or service standards and take note of the factors that  consumers use to judge quality.√√
• Monitor processes and find the root causes of production problems.√√ 
• Implement quality control systems to ensure that quality building products are  consistently being produced.√√ 
• Utilise machines and equipment optimally.√√
• Accurately calculate the production costs.√√
• Select the appropriate production system e.g. mass/batch/jobbing.√√
• Any other relevant answer related to the quality indicators of the production  function.
  Sub max (10)  Max (20)

10.5 Impact of TQM on the reduction of the cost of quality 

• Introduce quality circles to discuss ways of improving the quality of work/ workmanship.√√ 
• Schedule activities to eliminate duplication of tasks.√√
• Share responsibility for quality output amongst management and workers.√√
• Train employees at all levels, so that everyone understands their role in quality  management.√√ 
• Develop work systems that empower employees to find new ways of improving  quality.√√
• Work closely with suppliers to improve the quality of raw materials/inputs.√√
• Improve communication about quality challenges/deviations, so that everyone  can learn from experience.√√
• Reduce investment on expensive, but ineffective inspection procedures in the  production process.√√
• Implement pro-active maintenance programmes for equipment/machinery to  reduce/eliminate breakdowns.√√ 
• Any other relevant answer related to the impact of TQM on the reduction of the  cost of quality.
  Max (12) 

10.6 Conclusion 

• Quality is important for a business to be sustainable.√√
• Every business should have a quality management system that ensures that all  systems and processes are carried out correctly and safely.√√
• All the business functions contribute to the success or failure of a business and  should therefore have quality controls.√√
• It is important that businesses have a proper system for managing quality, e.g.  TQM which will reduce cost and increase profits.√√ 
• Any other relevant conclusion related to quality concepts/general management function/production function/impact of TQM on the reduction of the cost of  quality. (1x2) (2) [40]

QUESTION 10: BREAKDOWN OF MARK ALLOCATION 

LASO – For each component: 

• Allocate 2 marks if all requirements are met.
• Allocate 1 mark if some requirements are met.
• Allocate 0 marks where requirements are not met at all. 

TOTAL SECTION C: 80 
GRAND TOTAL: 300

CONSUMER STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS

1.1 1.1.1 C✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 163; Successful, p. 181) (1)

1.1.2 D✔Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 166; Successful, p. 184) (1)

1.1.3 A✔+1 Understanding, easy (Focus, p. 171; Successful, p. 191) (1)

1.1.4 B✔ Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 94; Successful, p. 114) (1)

1.1.5 C✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 82; Successful, p. 94) (1)

1.1.6 C✔ Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 106; Successful, p. 128) (1)

1.1.7 A✔ Understanding, difficult (Focus, p. 77; Successful, p. 91) (1)

1.1.8 D✔Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 80; Successful, p. 93) (1)

1.1.9 B✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 61; Successful, p. 67) (1)

1.1.10 D✔ Applying, difficult (Grade 11) (1)

1.1.11 C✔ Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 127; Successful, p. 146) (1)

1.1.12 B✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 122; Successful, p. 140) (1)

1.1.13 A✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 121; Successful, p. 138) (1)

1.1.14 C✔ Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 122; Successful, p. 140) (1)

1.1.15 D✔ Applying, moderate (Focus, p. 130; Successful, p. 149) (1)

1.1.16 A✔ Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 37; Successful, p. 39) (1)

1.1.17 C✔ Understanding, easy (Focus, p. 35; Successful, p. 35) (1)

1.1.18 B✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 16; Successful, p. 21) (1)

1.1.19 C✔Understanding, easy (Focus, p. 28; Successful, p. 26) (1)

1.1.20 B✔ Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 39; Successful, p. 41) (1)
1.2

C✔
D✔
F✔ (Any order) (3)

Remembering, easy (Focus, page 15-18; Successful, page 21-23)

1.3
1.3.1 Decline/ stage 4✔ (1)
1.3.2 Introduction/ launch/ beginning/ stage 1✔ (1)
1.3.3 Obsolescence/ end/ stage 5✔ (1)
1.3.4 Peak/ stage 3✔ (1)
Understanding, easy (Focus, page 50; Successful, page 50)
1.4
1.4.1 D✔(1)
1.4.2 G✔ (1)
1.4.3 A✔ (1)
1.4.4 B✔ (1)
1.4.5 F✔ (1)
Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 155 - 156; Successful, page 169 - 172)
1.5

A✔
B✔
C✔ (Any order) (3)

Applying, easy (Focus, page 139-145; Successful, page 157-160)
1.6

A✔
B✔
D✔
F✔
J✔ (Any order) (5)

Understanding, difficult (Focus, page 77; Successful, page 86-87)

[40]

QUESTION 2: THE CONSUMER 
2.1 Define the term stokvel. 

• A (community/group based) savings club.✔ (1) Remembering, easy (Focus, page 161; Successful, page 177) 

2.2
2.2.1 Give the time frame for a cooling-off period as applied to the  signing of a contract. 

• Five working days.✔ (1) Remembering, easy (Focus, page 157; Successful, page 173) 

2.2.2 State under which conditions a cooling-off condition applies when direct marketing was used for a sales transaction. 

• When consumers feel pressurised/ coerced to purchase  goods✔1through direct marketing such as a sales agent/ individual electronic means such as SMS/ emails.✔2 
• When the credit agreement concerns a lease or instalment  contract that was concluded at any place other than the  business premises of the credit provider✔3 – no longer wants to  be bound by the agreement✔4  (Any  2) (2) Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 157; Successful, page 173) 

2.3
2.3.1 Name the type of business deal evident in the scenario. 

• Scam/ dishonest business deal/ illegal business deal/ fraudulent  scheme/ unfair business practice✔ (1) Understanding, easy (Focus, page 159; Successful, page 176) 

2.3.2 Predict what is likely to happen when the money is  transferred. 

•  The caller will take the money and disappear/ will never hear  from him again.✔1 
• There will be no buying of stolen goods/ meeting.✔2 
• The entrepreneur will lose his/her money.✔3 (Any 2) (2) Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 159; Successful, page 176)

2.4 Suggest how water can be used more efficiently by referring to: 
2.4.1 Toilets: 

• Good maintenance of the toilet can reduce the water usage/ make sure the toilet does not leak.✔1
• Place a plastic bottle filled with water/ brick into the cistern✔2to  reduce the amount of water per flush/ install no flush/ flush less  toilet/ double flush toilets✔3
• Lift the handle✔4 of the toilet to stop unnecessary flushing. 
• Install a rainwater tank✔5to capture rainwater that can be used  for flushing the toilet. 
•  Use grey/ shower/ bath water/ for flushing the toilet.✔6 
• Do not flush after urination/ don’t flush unnecessary✔7 
  (Any 2) (2) 

2.4.2 Plants: 

• Plant indigenous plants/ water-wise plants✔1that require less  water.
• Group plants with similar water needs together.✔2
• Use mulches✔3to retain the water in the soil.
• Install a rainwater tank/ Jo-jo tank/ borehole✔4this can be used  to water the garden.
• Use watering cans/ buckets/ drip system/ grey water✔5to water  the garden.
• Do not water plants during the middle of the day/ when it is  windy✔6 as you may lose up to 90 per cent of the water that you  use. (Any 2) (2)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 180 -181; Successful, page 199) 

2.5 According to Statistics South Africa, municipalities spend more than  20% of their income on electricity. Explain what this money is spent on. 

• For funding the provision of the free basic electricity/ 50 kW for poor households.✔1
• Providing and maintaining street lights/ traffic lights.✔2
• Providing electricity for municipal offices/ buildings/ facilities.✔3(3)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 183 – 184; Successful, page 202-203)

2.6 Explain the interrelationship between earning a high salary and paying  taxes.  

• It is based on the principle that people should contribute to the wealth of  the state✔1to the same extent as that they are able to contribute to their  own wealth.✔2
• Income tax/ pay as you earn (PAYE) is payable at the same time that a  salary is paid/ earned. Paying income tax is worked out on a sliding scale.  The higher the salary✔3, the more income tax/pay as you earn (PAYE) is  payable. ✔4
• Consumers who earn a high salary are likely to buy many goods and  services.✔5 They will therefore pay more Value Added Tax (VAT) than  consumers who buy fewer goods and services.✔6
• Consumers earning a high salary usually own one or more cars/ drive/  travel more.✔7 They will therefore pay more fuel levy/ toll levy as they use  more petrol/diesel.✔8
• Home owners pay rates to the municipality. The amount of the rates is  based on the value of the property.✔9 The higher the value of the  property, the higher the rates will be. It is likely that a consumer who earns  a high salary owns property with a high value in an affluent area.✔10 
• Transfer duty is payable when a property is bought.✔11 Transfer duty is  based on the value of the property. A consumer who earns a high salary is  likely to buy expensive property and will therefore pay more transfer  duty.✔12
• Estate duty is charged on the value of all property/ assets owned by South  African citizens at the date of his/her death.✔13 The higher the salary that  a consumer earned during his/her life, the higher the value of the property  that he/she may have owned and therefore more estate duty will be  payable.✔14 
•  People who earn more will probably buy more imported goods✔15 and  therefore pay more excise/ import duty.✔16
• People with a higher income are likely to buy more luxury goods/ alcohol/  perfume✔17 and therefore will pay more “sin”/ excise tax.✔18 (3 x 2) (6)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 128, 163-165, 182; Successful, page 181-183, 146, 201) 

[20]

QUESTION 3: FOOD AND NUTRITION 
3.1 Name TWO reasons why stabilisers are added to food. 

• Stabilisers are added to food to maintain a uniform dispersion✔1 of two or  more immiscible substances/ prevents food from separating.✔2
• It gives food an even texture/ contributes to the consistency/ texture/ body/ smoothness/ appearance✔3 of a food product. 
• Prevents the formation of large ice crystals in frozen desserts.✔4 (Any 2) (2) 
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 74-74; Successful, page 113) 

3.2 Food labels protect consumers, provide information and help in the  choice of food items for a healthy diet. List the information on a food  label that will meet these aims. 

• List of ingredients✔1
• Nutritional information/ claims✔2 
• Sell-by/ use-by/ best-before/ expiry date✔3 
• Storage✔4
• Preparation instructions✔5 
• Allergens/ additives✔6 
• Endorsements e.g. heart foundation✔7  (Any 4) (4)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 97-98, 182; Successful, page 117, 201) 

3.3
3.3.1 Define the health condition obesity. 

• Obesity is a condition of excessive fatness/ body fat/ BMI  over 30✔1to the extent that it has a harmful effect on  health.✔2
• Obesity is when a person weighs more than 20%✔3than the  recommended weight for his/her height/ age.✔4 (Any 2) (2)
  NOTE: Do not accept overweight.
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 83; Successful, page 97) 

3.3.2 Give ONE reason for Nicole's obesity. 

•  She enjoys energy dense food/ high kilojoule/ fat/ sugar rich/  high GI✔1junk food/ unhealthy food e.g. cake, chocolate, fried  meat, fizzy drinks.✔*2
• Nicole is very inactive✔3 and the excess energy is stored in  fat.✔4
• Her energy input is more5than her energy output.✔6 
  (Any 2) (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 83; Successful, page 97) 
  NOTE: *If learners list two foods, two marks may be awarded.

3.3.3

1. Other than obesity, identify the food-related health  condition that Nicole is suffering from due to her high  carbohydrate intake. Type 2 Diabetes/ Diabetes✔ (1) 
2. Explain the causes of the health condition mentioned in  

3.3.3 (a) 

• She eats too much refined sugar/ carbohydrates (cake/ chocolates/ fizzy drinks) which are high GI/ too little  fibre.✔1
• Eats too much fat✔2which causes obesity/ overweight✔3 – cause of diabetes.
• Lack of physical activity contributes to obesity/ diabetes✔4
• Her pancreas does not produce enough insulin/ the body is  unable to use insulin properly/ insulin resistant✔5therefore  when the sugar/starch is broken down to glucose,✔6 all of  the glucose cannot move into the cells✔7to be changed/ converted into energy.✔8
• The blood glucose levels continue to increase/ rise/  become abnormally high✔9 and build up in the bloodstream.✔10 (Any 5) (5)
  Understanding, easy (Focus 72 - 73; Successful 80- 81) 

3.3.4 Nicole was concerned that she may be HIV positive.  Give TWO reasons for her concern. 

• She recently lost excessive weight.✔1
• She remains tired/ lacks energy.✔2 
• She struggles with infections that do not heal quickly.✔3 
• As she is a nurse the risk of being infected is high.✔4 (Any  2) (2)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 73 - 84; Successful, page 80; 99)
  NOTE: Question refers to HIV not diabetes 

3.3.5 Explain why Nicole has high cholesterol levels. 

• Cake contains hidden/ hydrogenated margarine✔1 which are  trans fats✔2 and increase the cholesterol levels.✔3
• Cake/ chocolate/ fried/ fatty meat contains saturated fat✔4 which build up cholesterol/ plaque in the arteries.✔5
• Lack of physical activity✔6 can lead to weight gain,✔7 and lack  of unsaturated fat in the diet ✔8 will raise her low density  lipoprotein (LDL)/ bad cholesterol,✔9lower her high density  lipoprotein (HDL)/ good cholesterol✔10 and increase her total  cholesterol levels. (Any 6) (6)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 74; Successful, page 84-85) 

3.3.6 Describe the advantages of the following for Nicole: 
(a) Physical exercise 

• Exercise increases HDL/high density lipoproteins/ good  cholesterol✔1 and will help Nicole lose weight.✔2 Losing  weight reduces the risk of coronary heart disease.✔3
• Physical exercise lowers the blood glucose level✔4 promotes weight loss✔5 reduces stress.✔6 (Any 2) (2) 

(b) Inclusion of mono-unsaturated fats in her diet 

• Mono–unsaturated fats can decrease the LDL/low density  lipoproteins/ bad/ dangerous cholesterol.✔1 LDL builds up  in the arteries, causing the gradual narrowing of the blood  vessels/ prevents atherosclerosis/ plaque.✔2(2)
  Applying, moderate (Focus 74-75; Successful 84-85)  

3.4
3.4.1 Explain how poor food hygiene of consumers living in rural  areas contributes to the transmission of Listeriosis. 

• The bacteria are found in soil/ water/ vegetation/ cattle✔1 therefore the unpasteurised/ raw milk/ home slaughtered meat available in the rural areas may carry the bacteria.✔2
• Not enough (clean) water available/ contaminated water✔3to  wash utensils/ hands properly✔4 and rinse vegetables.✔5   (2 x 2) (4)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus 86; Successful 103)

3.4.2 Discuss why Listeriosis affects consumers from the low  socio-economic group so readily. 

• Consumers of the low socio-economic group are dependent on  cheaper processed meat (polony/viennas/chicken)/cheese/milk/  raw/unpasteurised milk for their protein requirements✔1- with  the removal of these products from the shelves of food outlets  they will have less protein products to buy.✔2 
• Consumers in low socio-economic group may not have proper  cold storage facilities/refrigerators✔3to store food/on bus or taxi  for a long time before food is eaten/stored.✔4this increases the  multiplication of the bacteria✔5 
• Informal food outlets often have limited clean sanitation6 therefore hands cannot be washed/food is easily contaminated/ lack of health control.✔7
• Because some consumers have a lower level of education/ lower income✔8they usually buy processed meat products  (polony/ viennas/ chicken)/ raw milk from informal food outlets  with questionable hygiene/ cannot read the information/ expiry  dates on the food.✔9 
• Some do not have access to information e.g. newspapers/  internet✔10 which provides information regarding the Listeriosis  outbreak and/ management of the disease.✔11 
• The lack of money and access to doctors/clinics✔12 leads to the death of infected consumers.✔13 
• As a result of their socio-economic status they could possibly  have compromised immune systems✔14 due to lack of good  nutrition.✔15 
•  People from the low socio-economic group often work on  farms✔16 where they come into direct contact with the bacteria  on chickens/ cattle.✔17 (4 x 2) (8)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 86-91; Successful, page 103-109) 
  NOTE: Learners must be specific about the food e.g. polony 

[40]

QUESTION 4: CLOTHING 
4.1 Give FOUR suggestions how consumers can support sustainable  textiles when buying clothing items. 

• Read clothing labels/ posters in shops ✔1 before buying to know what  textile the item is made of/ how to care for the item in order to make good  choices.
• Buy organic clothing/ fabrics/ organic cotton/ textiles made from  sustainable sources/ bamboo/ flax/ hemp/ eco-friendly fabrics.✔2
• Buy locally produced garments/ support local designers/ the 'proudly South  African' logo✔3 as these have a smaller carbon footprint. 
• Buy recycled textiles/ buy upcycled/ unwanted/ second hand clothing items  from a hospice/ charity/ vintage shop.✔4 
• Buy classic/ good quality clothes as these can be worn for a long time.✔5   (Any 4) (4)
  Understanding, easy (Focus, page 62; Successful, page 69-70) 

4.2 Explain what organic cotton is. 

• Organic cotton is grown/ in an eco friendly/ natural way/ not harming the  environment/ without the use of herbicides/ pesticides/ fertilisers/  chemicals/ other toxic materials.✔ (1)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 61; Successful, page 67) 

4.3
4.3.1 (a) Identify the clothing item that is an example of  retrospective fashion. 

• (Light and dark brown check) tie✔ with 1970  appearance. (1) 

(b) Motivate your answer given in 4.3.1 (a). 

• The tie imitates/ resembles the style of a previous era  (1970s).✔(1)
  Understanding, easy (Focus, page 51; Successful, page 53) 

4.3.2 Describe the optical illusion created by the following items  from the outfit when worn by a young adult: 
(a) Shirt 

• The light/sky blue*✔1 shirt will make the upper body of the  wearer appear larger/ broader✔2 as light colours reflect  more light/ create the illusion of space.✔3 (Any 2) (2) 

(b) Suit  

• The navy blue/ dark✔1 suit will make the wearer appear  slender/ thinner✔2 as dark colours absorb light/one colour  does not divide the figure in two.✔3 
• The slim fit✔4trousers and jacket make the wearer appear thinner/ slimmer/ taller✔5 because it is not  bulky✔6. (2)  (Any 2)
  Understanding, moderate (Grade 11)
  NOTE: No mark awarded for light/sky blue if it is not linked to the optical illusion.

4.3.3 Write a paragraph to discuss the versatility of the navy blue  suit. 

• It is a fashion classic/ classic style✔1 which is timeless/ will last for  many seasons/ remain popular for a long time.✔2 The jacket and  trousers can be worn separately/ can be dressed up or down/ mixed and matched.✔3 The suit can be worn with different  coloured shirts/ pullovers.✔4 The suit can be worn with ties/ accessories of a different colour/ style.✔5It can be worn with any  colour shoes.✔6It can be worn in different seasons.✔7 Can be  worn in the day or evening/ different occasions.✔8 
   (Any 4) (4) Applying, moderate (Focus, page 58; Successful, page 61-62)
  NOTE: Deduct ONE mark if not written in paragraph format. 

4.3.4 Analyse why the accessories of the outfit have been chosen  wisely. 

• The dark brown colour of the briefcase/ shoes/ watch strap/ frame of glasses match/ co-ordinate/ complement each other and other outfits.✔1
• The briefcase and shoes are good quality✔2 as they are  genuine leather✔3 and will last for many seasons/ timeless/  classic styles.✔4
• The shoes are a darker colour than the trousers✔5 and it is  good practice to wear shoes that are the same colour or darker  than the hemline.
• The check light and dark brown tie, when worn, creates interest✔6 and is the point of emphasis in the outfit.✔7
• The blue and brown pocket handkerchief brings the colours used in the outfit into harmony/ unity with one another.✔8 
• The modern style of the watch complements the modern style of  the suit.✔9 
• These accessories create a formal/professional/sophisticated  look.✔10 (Any 5) (5)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 55, 59; Successful, page 62) 

[20]

QUESTION 5: HOUSING AND INTERIOR 
5.1 Name THREE types of monthly payments that a home owner must pay  to the local municipality. 

• Water✔1
• Electricity✔2
• Property rates/ property taxes/ rates and taxes✔3 
• Sewerage✔4
• Refuse removal✔5 (Any 3) (3)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 124; Successful, page 139) 

5.2 Explain the function of a body corporate. 

•  Control/ administer/ manage✔1the complex/ block/ sectional title scheme.✔2
• Responsible for the election of trustees✔3 who are responsible for the  day-to-day running of the complex/ block/ scheme,✔4for example, taking  care of the gardens/ waste disposal.✔5 
• The body corporate is responsible for distributing/ using the levies.✔6   (Any 2) (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 122; Successful, page 140) 

5.3 Name TWO costs included in the monthly repayments of a home loan. 

• Reducing capital✔1
• Interest✔2
• Life insurance premium/ mortgage bond protection insurance✔3
• Homeowner's comprehensive insurance✔4 
• Administration fees/ service fee✔5 (Any 2) (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 127, 128; Successful, page 145)
  NOTE: Do not accept “insurance” on its own. 

5.4 Give TWO reasons why reducing human energy consumption should be  considered when buying household appliances. 

• So that time is saved.✔1
• So that energy/ physical labour/ effort/ workload is saved.✔2 (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 136; Successful, page 154) 

5.5 Explain what a government housing subsidy is. 

• It is a government grant/ allowance✔1for qualifying low income (earn less  than R3 500)✔2 consumers/ beneficiaries to help them acquire housing/ to  buy residential property✔3for the first time.✔4 Doesn’t have to be paid  back.✔5 (Any  3) (3)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 130; Successful, page 148)

5.6 Explain the difference between full title ownership and sectional-title  ownership. 

• Full title ownership: The owner owns the entire property/land✔1 and the  structures on it.✔2 
• Sectional title ownership: The owner owns a section/unit✔3 of the  property and shares the ownership of the common areas.✔4 (4)
  Understanding, easy (Focus, page 121-122; Successful, page 139-140) 

5.7 Discuss FOUR financial disadvantages of renting a property.  

• After paying rent for years, the tenant still does not own the  property✔1therefore the tenant loses money over the years✔2that cannot  be regained. 
• The tenant's assets do not increase/ no investment.✔3 He/she assists the  owner to accumulate wealth✔4 as the value of the property normally  increases over the years.✔5 
• If the tenant spends money on the property (any renovations/ improvements) (with permission) he/she may lose the money spent✔6 as  the owner can decide if he/she will refund/reimburse the tenant.✔7 
• Rent usually increases every year✔8 therefore the tenant will have  more accommodation/ housing expenses/ expensive in long run/ less  disposable income every year.✔9 
• The tenant cannot use the property as security/ collateral security for a  loan✔10 and may therefore not be able to afford his/her own home/ property in future✔11 if no money is saved towards buying a property. 
• The tenant cannot sell the property✔12 to make a profit.✔13 
• If the tenant moves out before the end of the contract14, the tenant is  responsible for the payment of the last months.✔15 
• A tenant may have to forfeit a deposit✔16 if the tenant caused damages to  the property.✔17 (Any 4 x  2) (8)
  Applying, difficult (Focus p 118; Successful p 137)

5.8 Compile a check list of EIGHT universal design features applicable to a  combination gas and electric stove. 

• Continuous grid on gas top✔1for easy sliding of pots and pans
• Easy-to-clean top/ grid✔2that can be lifted to allow for easy cleaning 
• Stove plates to accommodate different sized saucepans/ pots/ frying  pans✔3 
• Safety feature that shuts down the flow of gas if the flame is not ignited✔4
• One-hand/ electric ignition✔5 
• Easy to operate/ handle/ use control buttons✔6 
• Easy to read/ understand controls/ clear display text✔7 
• Controls within easy reach/ front of stove✔8 
• Electronic timer/ clock✔9 
• Child-safety lock✔10 
• Side-hinged oven door✔11 
• Self-cleaning oven✔12 
• Interior lights in oven✔13 
• Clear instruction manual✔14 
• An oven light which indicates when the oven has reached the correct  temperature✔15
• ∙ Easy to remove and clean oven racks.✔16 (Any 8) (8)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 137, 139-140 Successful, page 153 and 159) 

5.9 Analyse the disadvantages for José having a house built. 

• Building the house was more expensive✔1 as José spent much more  money than was anticipated.✔2
• Building became complicated✔3for José, as the builder was  unskilled/ inexperienced/ not registered with the NHBRC.✔4 Although his  labour was cheap,✔5it cost José much more as he had to buy more  building materials.✔6 and he had to pay more wages as there were more  building days.✔7
• The building quality was poor/ poor workmanship/ wall was skew✔8 and  had to be demolished and rebuilt.✔9
• The building process was delayed by another month✔10 and this caused  stress✔11 for José as he/she had already given notice for moving out of  the rental house.✔12 José had to pay rent for another month✔13 due to the  delay.
• José had to pay rates and taxes/ water/ sewerage disposal to the local  municipality✔14 although he didn't occupy the newly built house.✔15(Any 8) (8)
  Analysing, moderate (Focus p 121; Successful p 138)  

[40]

QUESTION 6: ENTREPRENEURSHIP 
6.1 Name the TWO options available to an entrepreneur to distribute his/her  products. 

• Selling themselves/ Direct selling/ distribution✔1
• Using a middleman/ indirect selling✔2(2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 33; Successful, page 32) 

6.2 Define the term target market. 

•  A specific group of people1 prepared to purchase a product/ service✔2 and are willing to pay the price for it/ have money to pay for the product/ service.✔3
• A target market has common needs and interests,✔4 differ from other  groups✔5 and will respond similarly to marketing action.✔6 (Any 2) (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 34; Successful, page 33) 

6.3.1 State the main purpose of stock control in Nelisa's business. 

• To prevent production stoppage due to a shortage of raw  materials/ Ensures that she will have enough raw materials for  production.✔1
• Ensures the right quantity raw materials are purchased.✔2
• Ensures that the money invested in stock is limited.✔3
• Minimises the cost of storing final products.✔4 
• Reduces the wastage of materials✔5 – no ordering of items for  products not selling. 
• Limits theft of raw material/ products/ equipment.✔6 
• It enables Nelisa to check how many items have been completed and how many are in progress.✔7  (Any  3) (3)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 19; Successful, page 23) 

6.3.2 Explain why a tidy workplace is important for the efficient  production of Nelisa's products. 

• It ensures a healthy/ hygienic✔1 and safe✔2 environment for the  workers.
• A tidy workspace prevents accidents/ fires.✔3
• It will help the workers to work fast/ more efficiently✔4 and  accurately.✔5
• Easier to keep clean if all the items are in their place/ containers.✔6
• A tidy workplace will ensure that she will be able to keep control of  all the small items (beads etc.)/ there will be no loss of materials/ beads. ✔7 (Any 4) (4)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 17; Successful, page 22)

6.3.3 State FOUR items of information that should appear on the  labels of Nelisa's products. 

• Product name✔1
• Logo/ trademark/ Brand name✔2 
• Type of product✔3 
• Materials used/ origin of materials✔4 
• Cleaning/care instructions✔5 
• Name of manufacturer✔6 
• (Contact) details of manufacturer✔7 
• Address of the manufacturer/ country of origin✔8 
•  Price✔9 
•  Information on product/ hypo-allergenic/ warnings✔10 
• Product size✔11 (Any  4) (4)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 29; Successful, page 29) 

6.3.4 Discuss why it is important for Nelisa to deal with customer  queries. 

• A business's customers are its most important assets✔1 as the  number of people who buy the jewellery will determine the  success of the business.✔2 Quick response to customers'  queries will ensure their support /improve customer relations✔3 so that the business grows.✔4 It is essential for her to make sure  her business meets the needs of its customers.✔5 happy  customers encourage sales by word-of-mouth/ unhappy  customers mean possibly no sale and no profit.✔6 
• Getting feedback from customers can be used to improve her  business/ products/ service.✔7 As a result of customers' queries  Nelisa can adapt her products to make her business grow/ meets needs of her customers/ produces what they want.✔8 ∙ Addressing complaints/ needs/ listening to customers will help  to keep them/ maintain their loyalty.✔9 (Any 5) (5)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 25; Successful, page 25) 

6.3.5 Various factors must be considered in an entrepreneur's choice  of a suitable product for small-scale production. Discuss how  each of the following factors contributes to Nelisa's success. 
(a) Availability of financial resources  

• She chose a business idea with low start-up/ initial  costs.✔1
• She did not have to rent a working space, she worked from  home.✔2
• She used a combination of profits and savings✔3to build a  new workshop in her garden✔4 when she needed a larger  work space.✔5 OR She had sufficient funds to expand.✔6
• She doubled her sales by selling at a market.✔7 Revenuefrom this brought in more profit✔8
• She had the resources/ finances to employ/ pay four full time staff members and casuals✔9  (3)  (Any  3)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 11; Successful, page 18-19) 

(b) Availability of raw materials 

• Her raw materials do not depend on the season/ not  seasonal✔1 and will not go off/ perish.✔2
• The raw materials are available from various  sources/locally available✔3/ always available/ will not run  out and stop production.✔4
• She first bought beads from local bead shops✔5 and now  buys semi-precious stones from international dealers.✔6
• he has funds to buy better quality stones/ greater appeal  that results in more sales✔7 
  (Any 3) (3)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 13; Successful, page 19) 

6.3.6 The selling price of a pair of earrings is R290,00. The raw materials to make 150 pairs of earrings cost R7 970. The  overheads to make 150 pairs of earrings are R8 270. 
(a) Calculate how many earrings must be sold in order to  cover the production cost. Show ALL your calculations. 

• Production cost = R7 970 + R8 270✔ 
  = R16 240✔
  R16 240 ÷ R290 = 56✔pairs of earrings (3)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 36 – 37; Successful, page 39) 

(b) Calculate the profit that Nelisa will make if she sells 150  pairs of earrings. Show ALL your calculations. 

• 150 x R290 = R43 500✔
  R43 500 – (R7 970 + R8 270)/R16 240✔= R27 260✔
  OR
  150 – 56 = 94✔
  94 x R290✔ = R27 260✔
  OR
  Raw materials for 1 product: R7 979 ÷ 150 = R53,13
  Overheads for 1 product: R8 270 ÷ 150 = R55,13
  R53,13 + R55,13 = R108,26
  R290,00 – R108,26 = R181,74✔
  R181,74 x 150✔ = R27 261✔
  OR
  R290 – R108,27✔ (1 pair production cost)
  = R181,73 x 150✔ (3)
  = R 27 259,50✔
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 36-37; Successful, page 39)
  NOTE: The “R” must be indicated as part of the answer.

6.3.7 Nelisa met her sales targets and achieved her monthly sales  objective for each of the past 18 months. Give reasons for  this success AND explain why she is likely to have continued  success.  

• Nelisa knows her trade/ has the skills/ knowledge/ refresher  courses✔1to make good quality jewellery. This will ensure  customer satisfaction.✔2
• She has an appealing logo and labels✔3 and this will  persuade✔4 customers to buy. 
• She markets her products on Facebook✔5to a large target  market.✔6
• The jewellery is sold in various stores/ mall/ markets/ on-line✔7 and this enlarges her customer base/ increases sales.✔8
• People/ husband/ staff help her/ she doesn't do everything  herself,✔9thus she can focus on designing/ boosts  production.✔10
• She tends to customer queries/ addresses complaints/ needs✔11 therefore she keeps customers happy/ builds good  customer relations.✔12
• She uses good quality raw materials✔13 which ensure  durability.✔14
• Her range is versatile/ includes a variety of jewellery pieces✔15 at various prices.✔16 This means that her products will appeal to  a wide target market/ niche market.✔17
• Her products are not seasonal/ people buy jewellery throughout the year✔18 and this enables her to make a profit throughout the  year.✔19
• Her products do not go off/ don't have a shelf life,✔20 therefore  there is no wastage/ loss.✔21 (Any 4 x  2) (8)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 20-25; Successful, page 26 – 33) 

[40] 
 TOTAL: 200

CONSUMER STUDIES
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
1. This question paper consists of SIX questions. 

2. ALL the questions are COMPULSORY and must be answered in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
4. Start EACH question on a NEW page. 
5. You may use a calculator. 
6. Write only in black or blue ink. 
7. Pay attention to spelling and sentence construction. 
8. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.20) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.21 D. 
1.1.1 The South African Revenue Service … 

1. approves products of high quality. 
2. determines the inflation rate. 
3. receives and hands over tax money. 
4. regulates the building industry. (1) 

1.1.2 The repo rate is the interest charged by … 

1. furniture stores. 
2. the National Credit Regulator. 
3. banks for home loans. 
4. the Reserve Bank. (1) 

1.1.3 An advantage of wind energy: 

1. Causes air pollution 
2. Safe for bird life 
3. Has no impact on landscapes 
4. Wind is always blowing (1) 

1.1.4 Using antioxidants as food additives prevents … 

1. allergies and separation. 
2. discolouration and rancidity. 
3. rancidity and allergies. 
4. separation and discolouration. (1) 

1.1.5 Restricted food intake to the point of dangerous weight loss: 

1. Malnutrition 
2. Bulimia 
3. Anorexia 
4. Diet (1) 

1.1.6 Eating fat sparingly will help with the management of … 

1. anaemia. 
2. anorexia.
3. diabetes. 
4. osteoporosis. (1) 

1.1.7 A food combination that assists with the formation of red blood  cells: 

1. Tomato salad and stewed liver 
2. Deep-fried potato chips and fish 
3. Macaroni and minced meat 
4. Carrot salad and oven-roasted chicken (1)

1.1.8 A suitable choice for breakfast for a person suffering from celiac  disease: 

1. All Bran flakes 
2. Jungle oats 
3. Weet-Bix 
4. Mealiepap/Maize porridge (1) 

1.1.9 Eco-friendly fabrics … 

1. are fashion classics. 
2. have a low carbon footprint. 
3. do not contain any dyes. 
4. are made from regenerated fibres. (1) 

1.1.10 A person with an oval body shape should wear clothes with … 

1. curved lines and analogous colours. 
2. dark colours and a contrasting belt. 
3. horizontal lines and light colours. 
4. monochromatic colours and vertical lines. (1) 

1.1.11 An initiation fee is charged by a/an … 

1. bank to assess property. 
2. deeds office for registering a mortgage bond. 
3. bank for processing a home loan application. 
4. attorney who draws up a bond document. (1) 

1.1.12 Levies must be paid by … 

1. builders. 
2. sectional title owners. 
3. full title owners. 
4. tenants. (1) 

1.1.13 The housing acquisition option that allows the most creativity: 

1. Building own house 
2. Renting a house 
3. Buying a full-title house 
4. Buying a sectional-title house (1) 

1.1.14 A responsibility of a sectional-title property owner: 

1. Cleaning the swimming pool 
2. Painting the exterior walls of the unit 
3. Paying for the electricity used in the unit 
4. Working in the communal gardens (1)

1.1.15 A consumer qualifies for a government housing subsidy if  he/she … 

1. has owned property before and is older than 21 years. 
2. earns R3 000,00 per month and wants to buy a second home.
3. has no financial dependants and is a first-time home owner. 
4. has financial dependants and earns R3 300,00 per month. (1) 

1.1.16 Mark-up includes … 

1. overheads and profit. 
2. packaging and raw materials. 
3. profit and packaging. 
4. raw materials and overheads. (1) 

1.1.17 This will help an entrepreneur to decide whether to go ahead with a  business idea: 

1. Cash flow projection 
2. Calculating mark-ups 
3. Financial feasibility study 
4. Quality control (1) 

1.1.18 Adhering to specifications … 

1. assists with the careful control of finances. 
2. ensures that products are always the same. 
3. makes staff training easier. 
4. sets a standard for packaging. (1) 

1.1.19 The meaning of sustainable production and consumption: 

1. Determining the specification of the product 
2. Making a profit in the long term 
3. Reducing pollution and waste 
4. Securing long-term financial resources (1) 

1.1.20 A best-sale scenario would occur if a business … 

1. has long-terms goals. 
2. makes a profit every month. 
3. produces enough products to break even. 
4. employs a marketer to do the advertising. (1) 

1.2 Select THREE factors in the list below that influence the efficient production of quality products. Write only the letters (A–F) next to the question number  (1.2) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1. Consumer appeal 
2. Customer relations 
3. Planning 
4. Quality control 
5. Reducing waste 
6. Stock control (3)

1.3 Identify the stage in the fashion cycle for EACH of the descriptions below.  Write only the stage next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.4) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
1.3.1 Interest in the fashion item is slowly decreasing. (1) 
1.3.2 The fashion item is expensive and available from designers. (1) 
1.3.3 The fashion item is not available in chain stores anymore. (1) 
1.3.4 The fashion item is mass produced and cheaper. (1) 
1.4 Choose a description in COLUMN B that matches the type of contract  in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–G) next to the question numbers  (1.4.1 to 1.4.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.4.6 H. 

1.5 Identify THREE CORRECT statements in the list below regarding the  consumption of non-human energy by household appliances. Write only the  letters (A–F) next to the question number (1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1. A full refrigerator uses less energy. 
2. Induction hobs save electricity. 
3. Microwave ovens are energy efficient. 
4. Spiral stove plates use more energy to heat than solid stove plates. 
5. Tumble driers are energy efficient. 
6. Upright freezers use less electricity than chest freezers. (3) 

1.6 Identify FIVE CORRECT statements in the list below regarding hypertension.  Write only the letters (A–J) next to the question number (1.6) in the ANSWER  BOOK. 

1. Avoid processed food. 
2. Consume enough potassium, magnesium and calcium. 
3. Eat enough chicken and fish. 
4. It is caused by consuming too much sodium. 
5. Include vitamin C in the diet to help with the absorption of sodium. 
6. It increases the workload of the heart. 
7. Normal blood pressure is 140/90. 
8. People that are anaemic are more likely to suffer from hypertension. 
9. Reduce the consumption of eggs. 
10. The walls of the larger arteries lose their natural elasticity. (5) [40]

QUESTION 2: THE CONSUMER 
2.1 Define the term stokvel. (1) 
2.2
2.2.1 Give the time frame for a cooling-off period as applicable to the  signing of a contract. (1)   
2.2.2 State under which conditions a cooling-off condition applies when  direct marketing was used for a sales transaction. (2) 
2.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

2.3.1 Name the type of business deal evident in the scenario. (1)
2.3.2 Predict what is likely to happen when the money is transferred. (2)
2.4 Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

Suggest how water can be used more efficiently by referring to: 
2.4.1 Toilets (2)
2.4.2 Plants (2) 
2.5 According to Statistics South Africa municipalities spend more than 20% of  their income on electricity. Explain what this money is spent on. (3) 
2.6 Explain the interrelationship between earning a high salary and paying taxes.  (3 x 2) (6) [20]

QUESTION 3: FOOD AND NUTRITION 
3.1 Give TWO reasons why stabilisers are added to food. (2) 
3.2 Food labels protect consumers, provide information and help with the choice  of food items for a healthy diet. List the information on a food label that will  meet these aims. (4) 
3.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.3.1 Define the health condition obesity. (2)
3.3.2 Give ONE reason for Nicole's obesity. (2) 
3.3.3

1. Other than obesity, identify the food-related health condition  that Nicole is suffering from due to her high carbohydrate  intake. (1)
2. Explain the causes of the food-related health condition  identified in QUESTION 3.3.3(a). (5) 

3.3.4 Nicole was concerned that she might be HIV positive. Give TWO  reasons for her concern. (2) 
3.3.5 Explain why Nicole has high cholesterol levels. (6)
3.3.6 Describe the advantages of the following for Nicole: 

1.  Physical exercises (2) 
2. The inclusion of monounsaturated fats in her diet (2)

3.4 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.4.1 Explain how poor food hygiene of consumers living in rural areas contributes to the transmission of listeriosis. (2 x 2) (4)  
3.4.2 Discuss why listeriosis affects consumers in the low socio-economic group so readily. (4 x 2) (8) 

[40]

QUESTION 4: CLOTHING 
4.1 Give FOUR suggestions how consumers can support sustainable textiles  when buying clothing items. (4) 
4.2 Explain what organic cotton is. (1) 4.3 Study the picture and information below and answer the questions that follow. 

4.3.1 

1. Identify the clothing item that is an example of retrospective  fashion. (1) 
2. Motivate your answer to QUESTION 4.3.1(a). (1) 

4.3.2 Describe the optical illusion created by the following items from the  outfit above when worn by a young adult: 

1.  Shirt (2)
2. Suit (2)

4.3.3 Write a paragraph to discuss the versatility of the navy blue suit. (4) 
4.3.4 Analyse why the selected accessories have been chosen wisely. (5) [20]

QUESTION 5: HOUSING AND INTERIOR 
5.1 Name THREE types of monthly payments that a homeowner must pay to the  local municipality. (3) 
5.2 Explain the function of a body corporate. (2)
5.3 Name TWO costs included in the monthly repayments of a home loan. (2) 
5.4 Give TWO reasons why reducing human energy consumption should be  considered when buying household appliances. (2) 
5.5 Explain what a government housing subsidy is. (3) 
5.6 Explain the difference between full-title ownership and sectional-title  ownership. (2 x 2) (4) 
5.7 Discuss FOUR financial disadvantages of renting a property. (4 x 2) (8) 
5.8 Compile a checklist of EIGHT universal design features applicable to a  combination gas and electric stove. (8) 
5.9 Read the scenario below and answer the question that follows. 

Analyse the disadvantages for José having a house built. (8) [40]

QUESTION 6: ENTREPRENEURSHIP 
6.1 Name TWO options available to an entrepreneur to distribute his/her products. (2) 
6.2 Define the term target market. (2)
6.3 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow. 

6.3.1 State the main purpose of stock control in Nelisa's business. (3) 
6.3.2 Explain why a tidy workplace is important for the efficient  production of Nelisa's products. (4) 
6.3.3 State FOUR items of information that should appear on the labels  of Nelisa's products. (4) 
6.3.4 Discuss why it is important for Nelisa to deal with customer  queries. (5)
6.3.5 Various factors must be considered in an entrepreneur's choice of  a suitable product for small-scale production.  Discuss how EACH of the following factors contributes to Nelisa's  success: 

1.  Availability of financial resources (3) 
2. Availability of raw materials (3) 

6.3.6 The selling price of a pair of earrings is R290,00. The raw materials  to make 150 pairs of earrings cost R7 970. The overheads to make  150 pairs of earrings are R8 270. 

1. Calculate how many pairs of earrings must be sold to cover  the production cost. Show ALL your calculations. (3) 
2. Calculate the profit that Nelisa will make if she sells 150 pairs  of earrings. Show ALL your calculations. (3) 

6.3.7 Nelisa met her sales targets and achieved her monthly sales  objective for each of the past 18 months. Give reasons for her success AND explain why she is likely to have continued success.   (4 x 2) (8) 

[40] 
TOTAL: 200

COMPUTER APPLICATIONS TECHNOLOGY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Owing to the nature of this practical examination, it is important to note that,  even if you complete the examination early, you will NOT be permitted to leave  the examination room until all the administrative functions associated with the  examination have been finalised. During the examination, normal rules  regarding leaving the examination room apply. 
2.  If you are working on the network, or if the data files have been preloaded, you  must follow the instructions provided by the invigilator/educator. Alternatively,  the invigilator will give you a CD/DVD/flash drive containing all the files needed  for the examination. If a CD/DVD/flash drive has been issued to you, you must  write your examination number and centre number on the CD/DVD/flash drive. 
3. At the end of the examination, you must hand in ALL your answer files saved  onto the given CD/DVD/flash drive, OR you should make sure that ALL the  answer files are saved on the network/computer as explained to you by the  invigilator/educator. 
4.  Make absolutely sure that ALL files can be read. Do NOT save unnecessary  files/folders and do NOT hand in duplicate answer files/folders. Do NOT  delete any original files that you did not work on.
5. The information sheet that has been provided with the question paper MUST  BE COMPLETED AFTER THE THREE-HOUR EXAMINATION SESSION and handed to the invigilator.
6. A copy of the master files will be available from the invigilator. Should there be  any problems with a file, you may request another copy from the invigilator. 
7. This question paper consists of SEVEN questions. Answer ALL the questions. 
8. Read through each question before answering or solving the problem.  Do NOT do more than is required by the question. 
9. Ensure that you save each document using the file name given in the question  paper. Save your work at regular intervals as a precaution against possible  power failures. 
10. You may NOT use any resource material.
11. Accuracy will be taken into account, e.g. if a question requires the answer to be  in cell F3 in a spreadsheet, and you enter the answer in cell G4, it will NOT be  marked.
12. Ensure that the regional settings are set to South Africa and that date and time  settings, number settings and currency settings are correctly set.
13. In all questions involving word processing, you should set the language to  English (South Africa). The paper size is assumed to be A4 Portrait, unless  otherwise instructed. Use centimetre as the unit of measurement.
14. Use formulae and/or functions for ALL spreadsheet calculations. Use absolute  cell references only where necessary to ensure that formulae are correct when  you copy them to other cells in a spreadsheet.
    NOTE: All formulae and/or functions should be inserted in such a manner  that the correct results will still be obtained even if the existing data changes. 
15. You may NOT use a word processing program such as Word to answer the  HTML question. 
16. The examination folder/CD/DVD/flash drive that you receive with this question  paper contains the files listed below. Ensure that you have ALL the files before  you begin with this examination.
    • 1Impression                                                 Word processing file
    • 2Pic                                                                Image
    • 2Vote                                                            Word processing file
    • 3Flowers                                                     Image 
    • 3Paintings                                                  Spreadsheet 
    • 4Famous                                                  Spreadsheet 
    • 5ArtWorld                                                  Database
    • 5Girl                                                             Image 
    • 6Michelangelo                                                  Image 
    • 6PabloPicasso                                                  Image 
    • 6Quirks                                                      HTML file
    • 6Salvadore                                                  Image 
    • 7ArtForm                                                  Spreadsheet 
    • 7Guests                                                  Database
    • 7Lecture                                                  Word processing file 
    • 7Summary                                                  Spreadsheet 
    • 7Timeline                                                  Spreadsheet 

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: WORD PROCESSING  
Open the 1Impression word processing document, which contains information on  Impressionism, and insert your examination number in the header or footer. 
1.1 Change the font of the heading 'Welcome to Impressionism' to Wide Latin. (1) 
1.2 Find the paragraph below the heading 'What is Impressionism' and do the  following: 
1.2.1 Justify the paragraph. (1) 
1.2.2 Set the paragraph spacing so that no space appears after the  paragraph. (2) 
1.3 Insert a bookmark on the text 'history' found in the paragraph below the  subheading 'Impressionist Art Roots'. Name the bookmark 'Monet'. (2) 
1.4 Find the text that starts with 'Impression …' and ends with '… scene.' and  format the text as shown below.  (2)

1.5 Format the SmartArt as shown below. 

• Add another art form, 'Futurism'. 
• Add 'Analytical' as a sub-art form for 'Cubism'. 
• Arrange the different art forms to display in the order shown below. 
• Apply any colourful variation to the shapes. 

(4) 

1.6 Replace all occurrences of the text 'colours' with a red-coloured symbol,  (Wingdings character code 122). (4)
1.7 Change the 'Artistic' style as follows: 

• Change the font to small caps. 
• Set the width of the border to 3 pt. 
• Update all the occurrences of the style. (3) 

1.8 Two images appear below the subheading 'Themes of Impressionism'. Change  the images so that they appear as shown below. 

• Resize the second image to the same size as the first image. 
• Place the two images side by side, as shown below. 
• Add a caption 'A Meadow in Springtime' to the second image and ensure  that the caption position matches that of the first image. 

 (6) 
1.9 Find the text that starts with 'The Painting of Modern Life' and ends with '… the  blue sky.' and do the following: 

• Change the orientation of the selected text to Landscape. The rest of the  document must remain in Portrait. 
• Place the text in two columns. 
• Use a word processing feature to ensure that the heading 'En Plein Air – The Passing Moment' will always appear at the beginning of the second  column. (4) 

1.10 Find the text that starts with 'Composition and Content' and ends with '… up to  Cubism.' and add page numbers in the footer of ONLY the pages of the  selected text in the format a, b, c, etc. (5) 
1.11 Insert an automatic table of figures below the text 'Table of Figures'. (1)
1.12 Update the index below the text 'Index' on the last page of the document. (1)
Save and close the 1Impression document. [36]

QUESTION 2: WORD PROCESSING 
Open the 2Vote word processing document, where people can vote for their favourite  painting, and insert your examination number in the header or footer. 
2.1 Change the text direction of the callout shape next to the heading 'VOTE FOR  YOUR FAVOURITE PAINTING', as shown below. 
(1) 
2.2 Insert a footnote on the text 'works' containing the text 'Impression.org'.  Use the default footnote number format. (2) 
2.3 Change the bullets in the bulleted list under the heading 'Voting Rules:' to the  2Pic image found in your examination folder. (1) 
2.4 Find the text 'Vote by completing the details below:' and do the following: 

• Set the format of the text form field next to the text 'Name', so that it will  always appear in uppercase. 
• Replace the text 'Current date here' with an appropriate form field to always  display the current date in the format yy/MM/dd. 
• Add the option 'Critic' to the drop-down form field next to the text 'Voting as'. (5)

2.5 Find the text 'Voting as' and the drop-down form field next to this text. Match the appearance of this text with the previous two lines by changing the  tab setting of the text and the drop-down form field. (3) 
2.6 Find the two tables at the bottom of the page and do the following: 

• Merge the two tables into ONE table. 
• Apply a shading of your choice to the heading row (first row) of the table. (2)

Save and close the 2Vote document. [14] 

QUESTION 3: SPREADSHEET 
NOTE: 

• Use formulae and/or functions for ALL calculations in the spreadsheet. 
• Use absolute cell references ONLY where necessary to ensure that formulae are  correct when you copy them to other cells in the same column (copy down). 
• Insert formulae and/or functions in such a manner that the correct results will still be  obtained even if the existing data changes.  
• Should you need to use building blocks, use the allocated space in the  spreadsheet. 

Open the 3Paintings spreadsheet, which contains a list of paintings from the  Impressionist Movement.  
Work in the Impress worksheet.  
3.1 Format the merged cells A1:J1 as follows: 

• Change the border colour to red. 
• Set the fill colour to black. (2) 

3.2 Insert a function in cell G3 to determine the earliest year (column C) in which  a painting was painted. (2) 
3.3 Insert a function in cell G4 to determine the number of paintings for which the  place where the painting was painted (column G) is not given. (2) 
3.4 The function in cell G5 displays the average width of all the paintings in the  worksheet. Add another function to cell G5 so that the given formula displays a value formatted to the nearest highest decimal value, e.g. 271.32 becomes 271.40.  
NOTE: TWO decimal places should still be displayed. (2) 
3.5 Insert a SUMIFS function in cell G6 to determine the total insurance value  (column J) of all the paintings painted before 1900 AND where the city in  which they are exhibited is Chicago. (5) 
3.6 Cells B9:B120 contains the full names of the artists of the paintings.  Use a spreadsheet feature to automatically apply a two-coloured gradient fill to  unique values in these cells. (4) 
3.7 Column C contains the year in which the paintings were created. Insert a formula in cell D9 to determine the age of a painting by using the  current year.  The formula must work for any year. (3) 
Work in the Dupl worksheet. 
3.8 Use any spreadsheet feature to remove all duplicate artists from the list. (1)
Work in the Chart_Grafiek worksheet. 
3.9 Follow the instructions below to change the chart/graph to appear as the  example below. 

• Change the chart/graph to include ONLY the data of all locations with  names starting with the letters 'L' to 'P'. 
• Change the vertical axis display units to billions. 
• Display 'Location' as the horizontal axis title. 
• Add any 'moving average' trend line to the chart/graph.  
• Change the legend text 'Series 1' to read as 'Value'.  
• Fill the plot area background with the 3Flowers image found in your  examination folder. 

(7) 
Save and close the 3Paintings spreadsheet. [28] 

QUESTION 4: SPREADSHEET 
NOTE: 

• Use formulae and/or functions for ALL calculations in the spreadsheet. 
• Use absolute cell references ONLY where necessary to ensure that formulae are  correct when you copy them to other cells in the same column (copy down). 
• Insert formulae and/or functions in such a manner that the correct results will still be  obtained even if the existing data changes.  
• Should you need to use building blocks, use the allocated space in the spreadsheet. 

Open the 4Famous spreadsheet, which contains the details of famous Impressionist artists. 
Work in the Art_Kuns worksheet.  
4.1 Centre the row headings in row 7 vertically. (1)
4.2 The number of artworks created by each artist is stored in column K. Insert a function in cell H3 to determine the total number of artworks that were  painted. (2) 
4.3 The nationality of an artist is stored in column H. Insert a formula in cell H4 to determine what percentage of artists is NOT of  French nationality (column H). Refer to the formula below. 

(6) 
4.4 The art forms practised by each artist are stored as an art form code in  column I. The first letter of the art form code refers to the preferred art form of  the artist. 
Insert a VLOOKUP function in cell J8 to display the preferred art form of an artist using the first letter of the art form code in column I and the lookup table  in the Code_Kode worksheet. (5)
4.5 Column L shows the number of 'for' votes an artist receives for his/her artwork.  Insert a function in cell N8 to determine whether the artist has one of the three  highest 'Votes For' counts (column L).  
Display the message 'Top3' if the artist is in the top three, or otherwise leave the  cell empty. Ensure that the function can be copied down to the other cells in the range. (8)
Save and close the 4Famous spreadsheet. [22] 

QUESTION 5: DATABASE 
Open the 5ArtWorld database, which contains details of artists and paintings. 5.1 Open the tblPaintings table in Design View. 
5.1.1 Change the format of the Painting field so that the text displays in  capital letters. (1) 
5.1.2 Change the field properties of the YearPainted field so that: 

• The field accepts a year from 1494 to 1970 
• Appropriate validation text is inserted (4) 

5.1.3 Create an input mask on the ID field to ensure that the user inserts a  painting ID in the following format: 

• The letters 'IMP' 
• Followed by any compulsory character or space  
• Followed by a compulsory number in the range 0 to 9  
• Followed by TWO optional numbers  

Examples of a valid ID: IMP@4, IMP$34, IMP 78 or IMP#135 (4)
5.1.4 Insert a new field called Area as the last field and do the following: 

• Change the data type of the Area field so that it will store the  calculation of the area of the painting.  
• Insert the calculation for the Area field: 
  [Height] * [Width] (4)

Change the tblPaintings table to Datasheet View. 
5.1.5 Ensure that the Age field displays in Datasheet View. (1)
Save and close the tblPaintings table.
5.2 Open the frm5_2 form, which is based on the tblArtists table, in Design View. 

• Add the 5Girl image found in your examination folder to the form header.  Ensure that the image stretches to the size of the image box. 
• Shade the background of the Detail section with a light green colour.
• Add the option 'Poor' to the list of items in the Rating field combo box. 

Save and close the frm5_2 form. (6)
5.3 Open the qry5_3 query in Design View.  
Modify the query so that it displays the total number of paintings created by male  artists, per birth country (BirthCountry field), as shown below. 

Save and close the qry5_3 query. (3)
5.4 Open the qry5_4 query in Design View. 
Change the criteria so that the query displays the records of paintings where  the ID field is six or more characters long and the Place field has no data. 
Save and close the qry5_4 query. (4)
5.5 Open the qry5_5 query in Design View. 

• Add a calculated field called Diff to determine the difference between the  For field and the Against field. 
• Display only artists whose nationality is NOT French or American. 

Save and close the qry5_5 query. (7)
5.6 Create a report called rpt5_6, which is based on the tblArtists table, to  appear as shown in the extract of the report below. 

• Group the report according to the year the artist was born AND the country of birth.
• Ensure that the Born field is grouped per year.
• Insert a function to determine the total number of artists per country per year.

Save and close the rpt5_6 report. (6)
Save and close the 5ArtWorld database. [40]

QUESTION 6: WEB DESIGN (HTML)  
You are required to complete a web page about the quirks of artists. 
Open the incomplete 6Quirks web page in a web browser and also in a text/HTML  editor. You may NOT use a word processing program such as Word to answer the  HTML question. 
NOTE:  

• Question numbers appear as comments in the coding to guide you where to insert  the answer(s). DO NOT delete these comments. 
• An HTML tag sheet is attached for your reference. 

Your final web page should look like the example below.

NOTE: Use the example on the previous page to guide you in answering the questions below. 
ONE mark will be allocated for closing tags, triangular brackets and nesting correctly  used. (1) 
6.1 Change the font of the level 1 heading to 'Vivaldi'. (1)
6.2 Set the width of the horizontal line to 60% and set the alignment to right. (2)
6.3 Display the text 'Believe it or Not!!!' as a level 2 heading AND in italics. (2) 
6.4 Create a link on the text 'ECCENTRICITY' to link to a target location that has  already been created towards the end of the web page. (3) 
6.5 Add tags to display the items 'Stealing pens', 'Carrying around guns' and  'Making time capsules' in a list with the number format A., B., C. (3) 
6.6 Modify the table as follows: 

• Set the cell spacing to 6. 
• The first cell should span over three rows and contain the text 'Weird  Quirks'. 
• The image 6Michelangelo found in your examination folder, should display  correctly. 
• The text 'Stole pens', 'Never bathed' and 'Carried a gun' must appear in the  third row of the table. (6) 

6.7 Modify the code of the text 'SHOCKING BUT TRUE' to display in bold.  Ensure that the text will appear below the table instead of above the table. (2)
Save and close the 6Quirks web page. [20]

QUESTION 7: GENERAL  
Art institutions contribute to the art world on a regular basis by hosting lectures and  art shows.  
7.1 Open the 7Lecture word processing document.  
7.1.1 Follow the instruction in the comment in the document AND then  remove the comment. (2) 
7.1.2 Reject all the track changes in the document. (1)
7.1.3 Invitations to the lecture must go out to guests.  
Complete a mail merge as follows: 

• Use the 7Guests database as a data source for the 7Lecture mail  merge document. 
• Edit the data source recipient list to include ONLY the data of  those members who have 'Painting' as an art form and who have  painted more than 60 paintings. 
• Replace the text '<<Name>>' with the merge field Name. 
• Replace the text '<<Surname>>' with the merge field Surname. 

Save the document, but do NOT close it. (5) 
7.1.4 Complete the merge and save the merged document as  7LectureMerge. (1) 
Save and close the 7Lecture document and the 7LectureMerge document.
7.2 Open the 7ArtForm spreadsheet. 
Use a spreadsheet feature to split the data stored in column A into different  columns. The comma (',') must be used to split the data into columns. 
HINT: Use the spreadsheet feature 'Text to Columns' on the Data tab in the Data Tools group. (2) 
Save and close the 7ArtForm spreadsheet. 
7.3 Open the 7Summary spreadsheet. 
Use the SUBTOTAL feature to determine the greatest number of artworks  painted by an artist according to the birth country. (3) 
Save and close the 7Summary spreadsheet.
7.4 Open the 7Timeline spreadsheet.  
The art gallery manager wants to know which paintings were created by the  same artist in consecutive years (where one year follows the previous year).  
Use the following steps to assist the art gallery manager:  
Step 1: Sort the data alphabetically according to artist AND then from the earliest to the latest year in which the painting was completed. 
Step 2: Insert a formula in column D to perform the following checks: 

• Check 1: Start from row 2 and check whether the artist in the current row is  the same artist as in the previous row.  
• Check 2: Check whether the artist painted a painting in the previous year by checking if the difference between the year in the current row and the  year in the previous row is 1.  
• If Check 1 and Check 2 are both TRUE, then display 'True', or otherwise  display 'False'. 

Example of output:  (6) 

Save and close the 7Timeline spreadsheet. [20]

TOTAL: 180

HTML TAG SHEET

INPUT MASK CHARACTER SHEET

COMPUTER APPLICATIONS TECHNOLOGY P1 – NOVEMBER 2018 

INFORMATION SHEET (to be completed by the candidate AFTER the 3-hour session)

CENTRE NUMBER __________________________________________________________

EXAMINATION NUMBER _____________________________________________________

WORK STATION NUMBER ____________________________________________________ 

FOLDER NAME______________________________________________________________
Tick if saved and/or attempted. 

Comment (for office/marker use only) 

__________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________ 

COMPUTER APPLICATIONS TECHNOLOGY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of:
   SECTION A (25)
   SECTION B (75)
   SECTION C (50)
2. Answer ALL the questions. 
3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
4. Start EACH question on a NEW page. 
5. Do NOT write in the right-hand margin of the ANSWER BOOK. 
6. Leave a line after EACH subquestion. 
7. Generally, one mark is allocated per fact. A 2-mark question would therefore  require TWO facts, etc. 
8. All answers MUST be related to Computer Applications Technology. 
9. Answers such as 'cheaper', 'slower'/'faster', 'easier', etc. will ONLY be  accepted if it is used together with a reason or an explanation.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
Various options are given as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the  answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (1.1 to 1.10) in the  ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.11 D. 
1.1 Which ONE of the following is both an input device AND an output device? 

1. Stylus  
2. Touch screen 
3. Laser printer 
4. Fingerprint scanner (1) 

1.2 The digital divide refers to the gap between people who … 

1. have access to ICTs and people without access to ICTs. 
2. live in rural areas and people who live in cities. 
3. receive education and people who do not receive education. 
4. use mobile devices and people who use desktop computers. (1) 

1.3 Which list of wireless technologies below is sorted from the longest range to  the shortest range? 

1. NFC, WiMAX, Bluetooth 
2. WiMAX, NFC, Bluetooth 
3. Bluetooth, NFC, WiMAX 
4. WiMAX, Bluetooth, NFC (1) 

1.4 Plug-and-play technology … 

1. allows only hand-held gaming consoles to connect to a computer. 
2. enables new devices to connect to computers without USB ports. 
3. installs the driver automatically when a new device is connected. 
4. allows only one storage device at a time to be connected to a computer. (1) 

1.5 Which ONE of the following is NOT a benefit of grid computing? 

1. It allows processing of high volumes of data. 
2. It saves on electricity costs and data usage costs. 
3. The number of computers used in a grid can differ. 
4. It combines the processing power of many computers. (1) 

1.6 A … is the most secure way to protect a smartphone against unauthorised  access. 

1. USB connection 
2. screen lock pattern 
3. password 
4. fingerprint (1)

1.7 Which ONE of the following is a wild card character that can be used when  you search for a file? 

1. * 
2. @ 
3. # 
4. & (1) 

1.8 An audio file that can be downloaded from the internet to a device is called  a ...  

1. blog. 
2. podcast.
3. vlog. 
4. vodcast. (1) 

1.9 An e-mail could remain in a sender's Outbox because the … 

1. sender did not specify the recipient's e-mail address. 
2. recipient's e-mail address was spelled incorrectly. 
3. sender was not connected to the internet at the time. 
4. recipient's mailbox is full and cannot receive more e-mail. (1) 

1.10 A database query displays the following records when it runs: 

Which ONE of the following criteria was used in the Amount field to select the  records that are displayed? 

1. >=7 800 And <21 000 
2. >7 800 And <=21 000 
3. >=7 800 And <=21 000 
4. <=7 800 And >=21 000 (1) [10]

QUESTION 2: MATCHING ITEMS 
Choose a term/concept from COLUMN B that matches a description in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–T) next to the question numbers (2.1 to 2.10) in the  ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 2.11 U. 

QUESTION 3: TRUE/FALSE ITEMS 
Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE. Choose the  answer and write 'true' or 'false' next to the question numbers (3.1 to 3.5) in the  ANSWER BOOK. Correct the statement if it is FALSE. Change the underlined word(s)  to make the statement TRUE. (Do NOT simply use the word 'NOT' to change the  statement. NO mark will be awarded if only FALSE is written.) 
EXAMPLES: 

3.1 Application software manages all the activities on a device. (1) 
3.2 A UPS allows the computer to run for a limited time so that documents can be  saved and applications closed when a power outage occurs. (1) 
3.3 Phishing is a type of malware that demands a payment to restore the files it  illegally encrypted. (1) 
3.4 Social engineering is a legal way of obtaining financial support for a project by  raising contributions online from a number of people. (1) 
3.5 A calculation that includes all the records in a database report should be done  in the report footer. (1) [5] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 25

SECTION B 
QUESTION 4: SYSTEMS TECHNOLOGIES 
4.1 What is the purpose of a driver program? (2) 
4.2 An accounting clerk uses a keyboard that does not have a numeric keypad.  Explain why a keyboard with a numeric keypad would be a better option. (2) 
4.3 A list of files stored on a computer is shown below. 

4.3.1 What type of content will be found in a file with a .mp4 extension? (1) 
4.3.2 Give the full name of the spreadsheet in the list of files above that has  a newer file format. (1) 
4.3.3 Books.dotx is a template file. What is a template file? (1)
4.3.4 Give ONE reason for creating a compressed file, such as Books.zip. (1)
4.4 State TWO advantages for notebook computers going into sleep mode. (2)
4.5 Explain the term backward compatibility. (2) 
4.6 Different types of memory/storage are often used on one device. 
4.6.1 Give an example of memory that loses its contents if the computer is  switched off. (1) 
4.6.2 Give TWO reasons why modern mobile devices are more likely to  have built-in solid state drives instead of hard disk drives. (2) 
4.6.3 Why is Blu-Ray storage popular with computer gamers? (1) 
4.6.4 State TWO ways in which data, stored on an SD card in a camera, can be transferred to a personal computer. (2)
4.7 Give THREE examples of accessibility software features that are part of the  operating system. (3) 
4.8 State TWO ways to access a website without typing in the URL or the IP  address in a web browser. (2) 
4.9 One of the functions of the operating system is to provide a user interface. Give TWO additional basic functions of the operating system. (2) [25]

QUESTION 5: INTERNET AND NETWORK TECHNOLOGIES 
5.1 State TWO factors that should be carefully considered when choosing an ISP  (internet service provider), other than cost. (2) 
5.2 Give TWO limitations of using an ADSL connection. (2) 
5.3 Name TWO technologies/protocols that use encryption to secure  communication over a wide-area network. (2) 
5.4 What are the advantages of a wireless LAN over a wired LAN? (2) 
5.5 Explain why large videos stream slowly during office hours, but the same  videos will stream faster late at night, even though you use the same  computer and the same internet connection. E-mail and file downloads, however, are equally fast during the day or night. (3) 
5.6 You use your smartphone only for instant messaging and cellphone calls.  The monthly data cap of 5 GB on your smartphone has been used up before  the end of the month.  Give TWO possible reasons why the data cap did not last the whole month. (2) 
5.7 State TWO netiquette rules for a group chat on social media. (2) [15]

QUESTION 6: INFORMATION MANAGEMENT 
6.1 The example below shows three questions that were part of a questionnaire  for learners taking Mathematics as a subject at primary school. 

Answer the following questions based on the questionnaire above. 
6.1.1 Identify ONE open-ended question from the questions above. (1) 
6.1.2 Which question (Question 1, Question 2 or Question 3) in the  questionnaire is more likely to give usable data if primary school  learners completed the questionnaire? (1) 
6.2 State TWO ways in which a teacher can check if a learner plagiarised from  the internet. (2) 
6.3 Give TWO tips that learners can use to check the quality of information when  researching a topic on the internet. (2) 
6.4 Name TWO broad categories of spreadsheet features/options that can be  used to interpret data from a questionnaire. (2) 
6.5 Why do you need a citation in the body of a research report and  a bibliography at the end of a research report? (2) [10]

QUESTION 7: SOCIAL IMPLICATIONS 
7.1 A user sometimes shares his/her personal details when using social media, e.g. a cellphone number or an e-mail address.  
Why should a user think carefully before sharing this information on social  media websites? (1) 
7.2 State TWO ways in which a system administrator can protect a network from  hackers. (2) 
7.3 Why would a research company benefit from using 'big data'? (2) 
7.4 Explain why you want your friend to use a private browsing mode, such as  incognito mode, when he uses your computer to log onto his web-based  e-mail service. (2) 
7.5 A school wants to promote e-learning by using the BYOD concept on a Wi-Fi  network.  
7.5.1 Explain the BYOD concept. (Do NOT only write out the acronym.) (1) 
7.5.2 State TWO problems that this school could experience when  implementing a BYOD policy. (2) [10]

QUESTION 8: SOLUTION DEVELOPMENT 
8.1 Give ONE reason why words such as 'color' and 'favor' (instead of the  expected 'colour' and 'favour') are NOT identified as spelling errors when you  do a spell check on a word processing document. (1) 
8.2 Give TWO possible reasons why a main mail merge document fails to load the  data source when you are trying to open it. (2) 
8.3 The database table below was created to capture learners' test marks. Copy the table below into your ANSWER BOOK and complete it by adding  a suitable data type for EACH of the THREE remaining fields (8.3.1 to 8.3.3).  (3) 

8.4 How would you ensure that another user can NOT enter data into certain cells  in a spreadsheet? (1)
8.5 The following error message is displayed in a spreadsheet cell: #VALUE! Explain how you would correct the error that causes the message above  to appear. (2) 
8.6 The two underlined arguments in the function below prevent the function from  working correctly when copied down: 

=VLOOKUP("A1", L1:M5, 2, FALSE) 

Suggest ONE correction for EACH of the TWO underlined arguments. (Do NOT refer to the spaces in the function in your answer.) (2) 
8.7 Suggest ONE function that can be used to replace the whole formula in EACH  of the following cases: 
8.7.1 =A1&A2&A3 (1) 8.7.2 =(A1+A2+A3+A4+A5)/5 (1) 8.8 Explain the purpose of EACH of the following HTML tags: 
8.8.1 <a name="NAME"> (1) 
8.8.2 <a href="#NAME"> (1) [15] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 75

SECTION C: INTEGRATED SCENARIO 
QUESTION 9 
Learners use digital technologies that could have a positive and a negative impact on  their lives. You are required to answer some questions about digital technologies. 
9.1 Most learners use mobile devices to browse the Web. 
9.1.1 Some learners confuse the terms internet and World Wide Web.  Explain the terms internet and World Wide Web. (2) 
9.1.2 What term is used to describe the concept where a learner is able to  use more than one app on the same device at the same time? (1) 
9.1.3 Give ONE reason why a web page does not open in the browser on  a mobile device. (1) 
9.1.4 State ONE argument against accessing the internet using a public  Wi-Fi hotspot. (1) 
9.2 Internet connectivity at the school makes it possible for learners to access  social media websites using the school's computers. 
9.2.1 Recommend TWO rules that should be included in a school's social  media policy. (2) 
9.2.2 Learners may be click-jacked when browsing a social media  website.  Explain the term click-jacking. (2)
9.2.3 Learners regularly share photos on social media. Name TWO features of a smartphone that determine how many  photos can be saved on it. (2) 
9.2.4 When you click on a Facebook page, the browser shows a message  offering to install a plug-in. Explain what a plug-in is. (2)
9.3 Learners often use the school's mobile devices for long periods of time each  day to enrich their learning experience in the classroom.  
9.3.1 State TWO ways in which learners can prevent eyestrain when  spending a lot of time on these mobile devices. (2) 
9.3.2 State TWO possible mental health issues that the continuous use of  technology can cause. (2) 
9.3.3 State TWO positive effects that technology has on education. (2) 
9.3.4 Suggest TWO ways in which teachers can prevent learners from  being distracted when using the school's mobile devices in the  classroom. (2) 
9.4 A word processing app was used to create the image below to compare the  popularity of social networks, that is Twitter 28%, Facebook 67% and  Instagram 9%. 
Suggest a combination of TWO word processing techniques to correct the  display of the image below so that all the text in the objects is clearly visible. 
NOTE: Do NOT refer to 'cut and paste', 'retyping' or 'recreating' in your answer. 
(2) 
9.5 A Grade 12 CAT learner included the image below as part of his/her PAT  report to show his/her research results.  
Discuss TWO reasons why the information in the image is difficult to interpret.
(2)

[25]

QUESTION 10: INTEGRATED SCENARIO 
AcademyOne is a large academic library that sends books to smaller libraries across  the country. You are required to assist the staff with ICT-related issues. Employee data  and financial data must be protected. 
10.1 Most of the existing computers in the libraries are entry-level computers. 
10.1.1 You need to check the minimum system requirements of the  computers to determine if they can run specific software.  Define minimum system requirements. (2) 
10.1.2 Name TWO hardware components, other than a motherboard, that  would probably need to be upgraded to make it possible to process  large amounts of data and run the data analysis software. (2) 10.1.3 Give TWO reasons why computers may slow down over time. (2) 
10.2 The computers in the AcademyOne library must be connected to a network  so that resources can be shared. 
10.2.1 Which component, if not already part of the motherboard, must be  installed in each computer to enable the computers to connect to  the network? (1)
10.2.2 The library uses a large number of computers.  Why would a peer-to-peer network NOT be suitable for this library? (2) 
10.2.3 Suggest wired media that would be suitable to connect the library  computers in a network. (1) 
10.2.4 What device would be needed to connect the library's LAN to the  internet? (1) 
10.3 Data should be backed up regularly. The internet provides various online  storage facilities. 
10.3.1 Give TWO reasons why the library would use cloud storage to store  files and to make backups. (2) 
10.3.2 Give TWO reasons for restoring data from a backup. (2)
10.4 You need to complete a website using HTML. 
10.4.1 Which tag would be used to create a bulleted list in HTML? (1) 
10.4.2 Which tag would be used to create an open line in a paragraph  in HTML? (1) 
10.4.3 When the HTML code below is run in a browser, it should create a table with three rows and two columns. The code does not display  the table correctly.  
Study the code and answer the question that follows. 

Suggest TWO changes to the code so that the table displays  correctly. 
NOTE: Do NOT rewrite the code. (2) 
10.5 The screenshot below shows a few records from a larger data set used to  display the salaries of part-time employees at smaller libraries across the  country. The amounts earned (column E) are based on the number of days  worked. 

10.5.1 Which spreadsheet feature can be used to fully display the contents  of cell E1 without adjusting the column width? (1) 
10.5.2 What formatting has been applied to the cell values in the  range A2:A6? (1)
10.5.3 The options below can be used to determine the total amount  earned by the part-time employees from Cape Town. 

Which ONE of the two options above would be most appropriate for  the task? Motivate your answer. (2) 
10.5.4 If an employee is older than 30 and earned more than R10 000 in  the year, the text 'Yes' must be displayed in column F, otherwise 'No' must be displayed. 
The IF statement in cell F2 (shown below) was copied down to the  rest of the cells in the column:  

=IF(D2>30,IF(E2>10000,"No","Yes")) 

Give TWO reasons why the IF statement does NOT work correctly. (2) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

COMPUTER APPLICATIONS TECHNOLOGY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
NSC EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
NOVEMBER 2018

SUGGESTIONS AND RECOMMENDATIONS TO MARKERS  

• Revisit the questions and the marking guidelines frequently during the marking  session.  
• It is advisable to read the question frequently (and re-read) together with the  candidate's response to check that it correlates, so that you are not misled by the  candidate's statements/answers. 
• Be careful not to focus on keywords or general statements, but rather read the entire  answer. If in doubt, read the entire answer and then the question paper and marking  guidelines. Ask yourself or your senior marker if the response could ΄fit΄ into the  marking guidelines before allocating the correct marks to the candidate. For example,  the marking guidelines state 'cheap' and the learner responds with 'less expensive'. 
• Beware of overlapping answers to a specific question. In general, one mark is  awarded per fact. 

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE 

QUESTION 2: MATCHING ITEMS

QUESTION 3: TRUE OR FALSE ITEMS 

TOTAL SECTION A: [25]

SECTION B 
QUESTION 4: SYSTEMS TECHNOLOGIES

QUESTION 5: INTERNET AND NETWORK TECHNOLOGIES

QUESTION 6: INFORMATION MANAGEMENT

QUESTION 7: SOCIAL IMPLICATIONS

QUESTION 8: SOLUTION DEVELOPMENT 

TOTAL SECTION B: 75

SECTION C 
QUESTION 9: INTEGRATED SCENARIO

QUESTION 10: INTEGRATED SCENARIO

TOTAL SECTION C: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 150