INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
2. Start EACH question on a NEW page.
3. Read ALL the questions correctly and answer only what is asked.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
5. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
6. Show ALL calculations, including units and formulae, where applicable.
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.11 A.
1.1.1 The stomach of a fowl where hydrochloric acid is secreted.

1. Gizzard
2. Proventriculus
3. Reticulum
4. Ventriculus

1.1.2 The movement of soluble food particles through the walls of intestines into the blood stream is …

1. retention.
2. ingestion.
3. mastication.
4. absorption.

1.1.3 The importance of emulsification during digestion involves:

1. Increasing the surface area for effective activity of lipase
2. Counteracting petrifaction
3. Changing the pH of chime from alkaline to acidic
4. Assisting in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins

Choose the CORRECT combination:

1. (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. (i), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

1.1.4 The metabolic energy of the feed is equal to the gross energy of feed, minus the energy lost in …

1. manure, urine and body heat.
2. gases, urine and body heat.
3. manure, urine and gases.
4. manure, gases and body heat.

1.1.5 The following equipment is important in poultry production except …

1. drinkers.
2. feeders.
3. plywood boards.
4. roosts.

1.1.6 In a commercial farming system, the following occurs:

1. Output is targeted for the household consumption.
2. Improved animal breeds and crop varieties are used.
3. Profit is maximised by large-scale production.
4. Modern technology is used.

Choose the CORRECT combination:

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

1.1.7 An example of metabolic diseases affecting farm animals:

1. Parakeratosis, goitre and anaemia
2. Anaplasmosis and keratomalaise
3. Lumpy wool, hypomagnesaemia and tetanus
4. Osteomalacia, arthritis and coccidosis

1.1.8 The poisonous plant with a bad smell and taste commonly found in the veld:

1. Maize fungus
2. Yellow tulip
3. Poison bulb
4. Thorn apple

1.1.9 Visible signs shown by a cow that is about to give birth:

1. Urinates and defecates frequently
2. Distress and discomfort
3. Isolates itself from the herd and stops eating
4. Dripping of milk from teats due to the sucking of the calf

Choose the CORRECT combination:

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

1.1.10 The membrane surrounding the foetus responsible for the elimination of waste products is the…

1. umbilical cord.
2. allantois.
3. chorion.
4. amnion. (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Indicate whether each of the descriptions in COLUMN B apply to A ONLY, B ONLY, BOTH A AND B or NONE of the items in COLUMN A. Write A only, B only, both A and B or none next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.6 B only.

(5 x 2) (10)
1.3 Give ONE word/term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the word/term next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.3.1 The ration that provides enough nutrients to keep an animal alive and in good condition
1.3.2 The action taken by farmers to give animals immunity against diseases
1.3.3 The structure that develops on the ovary in place of a burst follicle
1.3.4 A powerful contraction of the urethra causing deposition of the semen into the vagina
1.3.5 The hormone in cows responsible for udder and milk production
(5 x 2) (10)

1.4 Change the UNDERLINED WORD(S) in each of the following statements to make them TRUE. Write only the answer next to the question number (1.4.1–1.4.5) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.4.1 Volatile fatty acids are organic compounds forming the building blocks of protein and cannot be synthesized by animals.
1.4.2 Anthrax is a non-contagious bacterial disease that affects farm animals.
1.4.3 Pro-oestrus is the stage in the oestrus cycle when the corpus luteum is fully functional.
1.4.4 Seminal vesicle transports sperm cells from the epididymis to the urethra.
1.4.5 Abortion is the condition where the vagina protrudes beyond the vulva, leading to infection. (5 x 1)    (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B
QUESTION 2: ANIMAL NUTRITION
Start this question on a NEW page.
2.1 The diagrams below shows the alimentary canal, stomach and process occurring in the stomach of a farm animal.

2.1.1 Indicate the ages of the animals with a stomach as in DIAGRAM A and DIAGRAM B. (2)
2.1.2 Give a reason visible in DIAGRAM A and DIAGRAM B to justify the answer to QUESTION 2.1.1. (2)
2.1.3 Identify the processes illustrated by arrow A and arrow B in DIAGRAM B. (2)
2.1.4 Explain the importance of the process illustrated by arrow B in digestion. (2)
2.1.5 State the difference of part F in DIAGRAM C with that of a pig. (1)
2.1.6 Identify the letter representing the stomach of the animal in DIAGRAM C that corresponds with part C in DIAGRAM B in terms of functioning. (1)
2.2 The table below shows the mineral deficiency symptoms, methods of supplementing and the types of animal affected.
Fill in the missing information A, B, C and D in the table.

(4)
2.3 A farmer has two feeds available to use for compiling a balanced diet for lactating cows that need 16% digestible protein. The following information is the nutritional composition of these feeds.

2.3.1 Classify the feeds in the table above. (1)
2.3.2 State TWO reasons why it is important to feed animals with the feed mentioned in QUESTION 2.3.1. (2)
2.3.3 Identify the feed from the table above that can have the following:

1. Wide nutritive ratio (1)
2. Narrow nutritive ratio (1)

2.3.4 Calculate the ratio required for each feed to get the 16% digestible protein needed for the lactating cows. (4)
2.4 The information below indicates the daily metabolic energy requirement for maintenance of cows as per live weight.

2.4.1 Present the above information above in the form of a line graph. (6)
2.4.2 Deduce the trend of metabolic requirement per live weight of a cow. (2)
2.4.3 Calculate the metabolic energy requirement for the maintenance of a cow with a live weight of 400 kg in 5 days. (2)
2.4.4 Name TWO reasons why it is important to calculate the energy value of feed. (2)
[35]

QUESTION 3: ANIMAL PRODUCTION, PROTECTION AND CONTROL
Start this question on a NEW page.
3.1 The pictures below show tools/equipment/apparatus that are used when handling farm animals.

3.1.1 Identify the tool/equipment/apparatus that is suitable in each of the following operations:

1. Restraining the animal during dehorning (1)
2. Cannot be used to castrate lambs (1)
3. Used to hold large animals (1)
4. Bloodless apparatus used when docking/castrating animals (1)

3.1.2 Indicate how the following techniques can be used to hamper animals’ ability to walk during handling:

1. Hobbling (1)
2. Immobilising (1)

3.2 The illustration below shows the factors used to increase production on a farm.

3.2.1 Indicate the animal production system addressed by the factors in the above illustration. (1)
3.2.2 Identify the factors to increase production as illustrated in A, B and C. (3)
3.2.3 Name ONE factor to increase production which is not illustrated above. (1)
3.2.4 Indicate the way in which farmers can address the factor mentioned in QUESTION 3.2.3. (1)
3.3 Below are different ways in which animals behave:

1. Wallow in the mud to cool down.
2. Pawing the ground when aggressive.
3. Pecking on all objects on the ground as possible food.
4. Stay closer together while grazing or being herded.

3.3.1 Name the type of an animal that shows the behaviour in A, B, C and D. (4)
3.3.2 Indicate THREE signs displayed by the animal in QUESTION 3.3 A when it is under stress. (3)
3.4 The picture below shows the life cycle of a parasite that affects farm animals.

3.4.1 Classify the parasite in the above picture and give its name. (2)
3.4.2 Give the type of an animal that is susceptible to this parasite. (1)
3.4.3 Identify THREE stages of the life cycle of the parasite visible in the picture above. (3)
3.4.4 Name ONE precautionary measure that the farmer can put in place to prevent an infestation by the parasite. (1)
3.5 Below is a list of diseases commonly affecting farm animals.

3.5.1 Select a disease from the list above that can be transmitted by each of the following methods:

1. Transmitted by a bont tick
2. Spores can be transmitted by contaminated shearing equipment
3. Infected by ingesting eggs from feed contaminated with manure
4. Transmitted through inhalation (4 x 1) (4)

3.5.2 Indicate the disease from the list above that is non-infectious. (1)
3.6 Indicate whether each of the following practices is the role of the state or the farmer in controlling diseases in farm animals:
3.6.1 Application of prescribed medication (1)
3.6.2 Importation of vaccines (1)
3.6.3 Ensuring proper sanitation in a milking parlour (1)
3.6.4 Export and import bans (1)
[35]

QUESTION 4: ANIMAL REPRODUCTION
Start this question on a NEW page.
4.1 The diagram below shows the reproductive system of a farm animal.

4.1.1 Identify the animal with the reproductive system shown in the diagram above. (1)
4.1.2 Give TWO reasons visible in the above diagram to support your answer to QUESTION 4.1.1. (2)
4.1.3 Identify the letter representing the part responsible for the following functions:

1. Gametes are formed (1)
2. Fusion of male and female gametes (1)
3. Implantation of the embryo (1)

4.1.4 Name TWO hormones produced in the part labelled D. (2)
4.2 In animal reproduction the bull is necessary to produce the sperm cell to fertilise a cow. If the bull is unable to fertilise a cow, it may either be sterile or infertile.
4.2.1 Differentiate between sterility and infertility. (2)
4.2.2 Name TWO congenital defects that may lead to sterility in bulls. (2)
4.2.3 State TWO conditions that may cause the inability of a bull to copulate. (2)
4.3 Semen from the bull can be harvested, examined, diluted and stored for later use.
4.3.1 Name TWO requirements for semen collection. (2)
4.3.2 Indicate the main purpose of diluting the semen. (1)
4.3.3 The storage of semen has an advantage for the farmer. Justify this statement by giving TWO advantages. (2)
4.4 Cows with the proven heritable traits are used to produce embryos which are placed on less productive cows. Below are the steps involved during this process:

• A Foley catheter is used to recover the embryo
• Semen is placed into the reproductive tract of a cow
• Isolation and classification of the embryo
• Transfer of the embryo to the uterus of a cow
• Treatment of the cow with the gonadotropin hormone

4.4.1 Re-arrange the above steps to ensure that the process is carried out with success. (5)
4.4.2 Name TWO types of cows involved in the process. (2)
4.4.3 State TWO disadvantages of the process. (2)
4.5 The graph below shows a normal lactation curve of a dairy cow.

4.5.1 Identify the week when the cow reached her maximum production from the lactation curve above. (1)
4.5.2 Indicate TWO benefits of the milk produced within the first 3 days of parturition for the calf. (2)
4.5.3 Explain the relationship between the percentage of butter fat content, and quantity of milk produced as shown in the curve. (2)
4.5.4 Name the period in lactating cow that follows after 42 weeks. (1)
4.5.5 State the importance of this period for the cow. (1)

[35]
TOTAL SECTION B: 105
GRAND TOTAL: 150

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER
In assessing a candidate’s work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the assessment rubric, must be borne in mind:

• The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on the final text produced.
• Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B.
• Grammar, spelling and punctuation.
• Language structures, including an awareness of critical language.
• Choice of words and idiomatic language.
• Sentence construction.
• Paragraphing.
• Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the introduction, development of ideas and the conclusion.

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING
SECTION A: ESSAY
Refer to SECTION A: Rubric for Assessing an Essay found on page 8–9 of these marking guidelines.

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND PLANNING.
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING.
3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE.

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS
Refer to SECTION B: Rubric for Assessing Transactional Texts found on page 10 of these marking guidelines.

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING AND FORMAT.
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING.

NOTE:

• Various formats of transactional/referential/information texts have been taught/are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the format.
• Give credit for appropriateness of format.
• Look for a logical approach in all writing.

NOTE:

• The points given below each topic in these marking guidelines serve only as a guide to markers.
• Allowance must be made for a candidate’s own interpretation of the topic, even if it differs from the given points or a marker’s own views or interpretations.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1
Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive, reflective, discursive, argumentative, or any combination of these.
1.1 ‘Our house is on fire: According to the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) we are less than 12 years away from not being able to undo our mistakes.’ [Greta Thunberg]

• Reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive
• Argumentative or discursive could focus on validity of global warming and climate change.
• Reflective could focus on our actions and responsibility to climate change and its impact.             [50]

1.2 The Gatekeeper.

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive
• Candidates may reflect on: someone of authority, someone who restricts or denies access somewhere or someone who performs the function to protect or guard.        [50]

1.3 ‘Science may have found a cure for most evils; but it has found no remedy for the worst of them all – the apathy of human beings.’ [Helen Keller]

• Narrative/argumentative/discursive/reflective
• Candidate may disagree with topic
• Candidate must demonstrate understanding of apathy – as lack of interest, enthusiasm or concern. Basically indifference.
• Dangers of being apathetic.          [50]

1.4 ‘I have noticed even people who claim everything is predestined, and that we can do nothing to change it, look before they cross the road.’
[Stephen Hawking]

• Argumentative/discursive/reflective/narrative
• May agree or disagree with statement          [50]

1.5 Take the risk or lose the chance.

• Narrative/reflective/argumentative/discursive
• Grab opportunities when they present themselves.
• Weighing up risk – calculated risk: pros and cons       [50]

1.6
1.6.1 Microphone

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive
• Opportunity to voice one’s opinions
• Anxiety of speaking in public or joy of speaking in public
• Delivering or presenting a speech
• Freedom of speech        [50]

1.6.2 Barriers

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive
• Focus on barriers that are present in life/real-life situations
• Solutions or overcoming obstacles that we are presented with
• Where there’s a will, there’s a way                  [50]

1.6.3 Prayer

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive
• Can focus on belief/spirituality/religion/inner strength
• Seeking guidance or answers from a higher power
• The power of prayer
• Difficult times that require resolution            [50]

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS
QUESTION 2
Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of each response should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register, style and tone must be appropriate to the context.
2.1 LETTER TO THE EDITOR

• Reference must be made to a ritual e.g.: lighting candles, sending our balloons into the air, lanterns, fireworks etc.
• The negative impact it may have on others, (neighbours/community/animals (pets)) etc.
• Formal language, appropriate format
• Candidate must express an opinion            [25]

2.2 FORMAL REPORT

• Report should focus on/identify an aspect of the school: either environment, facilities/amenities, subjects, human resources, sports, finances, security, transport that needs to be improved to fulfil successful learning in the future
• Formal language
• Follow correct criteria of a report: To: Subject heading, Terms of reference, Procedure, Findings, Conclusion, Recommendations, Signed and Dated    [25]

2.3 FORMAL SPEECH

• Candidate should focus on need for blood donation as a treatment for children with leukaemia
• Persuasive techniques could include emotive language and appeal to humanity and kindness
• Register should be formal and sincere              [25]

2.4 CURRICULUM VITAE AND COVERING LETTER

• Letter: Correct, formal letter
• Should state purpose for which candidate is writing – to show interest in applying for gap year work
• CV: must contain details of personal information such as contact details, schooling and qualifications, hobbies and interests, special skills (relevant to do job) and references              [25]

2.5 INTERVIEW

• Interview must be a two-way communication in the form of questions and answers relevant to the topic
• Could elaborate on why there was a need for that particular school in the area/community. Traditions that were established and why etc.  [25]

2.6 REVIEW

• Must state name of play, fulfil criteria for a review, i.e.: actors, actresses, characters, basic plot without giving away too much detail, which theatre, dates of show/times of performances …
• Must express opinion on play – encouraging or discouraging public to watch it
• Should have a star rating            [25]

TOTAL SECTION B: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 100

NOTE TO MARKERS

• This marking memorandum is intended as a guide for markers.
• Candidates’ responses must be considered on their merits.

MARKING GUIDELINES

• Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of questions, mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may not answer the essay and the contextual question on the same genre.)
• In SECTION A, if a candidate has answered all four questions on seen poems, mark only the first two.
• In SECTIONS B and C, if a candidate has answered two contextual or two essay questions, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has answered all four questions, mark only the first answer in each section, provided that one contextual and one essay has been answered.
• If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next one is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next.
• If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guideline.
• If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the meaning, mark correct.
• Essay question: If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not penalise because the candidate has already penalised him-/herself. If the essay is too long, consider and assess a maximum of 50 words beyond the required word count and ignore the rest of the essay.
• Contextual questions: If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not penalise.
  Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically. Part marks should be awarded in proportion to the fullness of the response to each question.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: POETRY
PRESCRIBED POETRY
QUESTION 1: ESSAY QUESTION
‘somewhere I have never travelled’ – ee cummings

• Use the following, among other points, as a guide to marking this question.
• Responses might differ, depending on the candidate’s sensitivity to and understanding of the poem.
• Refer to page 28 for the rubric to assess this question.

Cummings once commented that ‘love is the mystery-of-mysteries’. In a carefully planned essay, critically discuss to what extent this view of love is evident in the poem by referring to the paradoxes, imagery and tone.
Your essay must be 250–300 words (about 1–1½ pages) in length.
The speaker compares his love to an unfamiliar journey and shows that the power of this experience is beyond his own understanding. This adds to the mysterious quality of his experience of love.

PARADOXES

• Closing and opening: she has the power to open his heart – ‘unclose him’
• Fragility and power: The delicate nature of the one he loves is what makes his love more powerful.
• Vastness and smallness: His love is as extensive as countries but there is a paradox that this power is wielded by ‘small’ hands.

IMAGERY

• Personification – ‘your eyes have their silence’ – the speaker cannot ‘hear’ anything by looking at the woman’s eyes; she remains a mystery.
• Simile – ‘you open … as Spring opens’ – refers to the transformative power of Spring in the same way that the other person transforms him emotionally. As an iconic symbol of love, the reference to a rose makes the sentiments even more intense.
• Simile – ‘as when the heart of this flower imagines’ – comparing the way a flower closes up when it snows, to his own closing up at the will of the person he loves.
• Personification – ‘not even the rain, has such small hands’ – highlights the paradox of the magical power this person wields over him despite her fragility.

TONE

• Amazement/awe/wonder/reverence – her mere presence can overwhelm his senses.
• The speaker shows that his attraction to this person is simultaneously mysterious and wonderful. There is no logic to the immense power she has over him. The idea of love is inexplicable, mysterious and spiritual.

[Credit valid alternative responses.] [10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
‘VULTURES’ – Chinua Achebe
2.1 How does the alliteration in line 2 contribute to the atmosphere?
The alliteration of the d-sound is dull and blunt (‘drizzle of one despondent dawn’) and creates an atmosphere which is dark/grim/sullen/bleak. The atmosphere is ominous and uninviting.
[Award 1 mark for identifying the alliteration and 1 mark for atmosphere.]         (2)
2.2 What does the speaker find ‘Strange’ in line 22?
The personification of love shows the contradiction of the extraordinary ability of the human heart to encompass simultaneously both evil and love. It is ‘Strange’ that in the most macabre of environments, ‘a charnel house’, the presence of love can exist.
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2)

2.3 Comment on the contrast between the description of the Commandant and his interaction with his child.
The Commandant is referred to as ‘daddy’ and by mentioning the purchase of a sweet treat for his children, it creates an endearing image of a loving father. This contrasts with the reference to him as an ‘ogre’, the unflattering physical description of ‘hairy nostrils’ and the repugnant image of him smelling like ‘human roast’ yet he still hugs his ‘tender offspring’ in a gesture of affection.
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)

2.4 Refer to lines 48–51: ‘for in the very germ of that kindred love is lodged the perpetuity of evil’. Critically comment on the parallel drawn between the vultures and the Commandant at Belsen.
The vultures are associated with violence and death as they gorge on carrion; yet, they are capable of showing affection towards each other as ‘they incline their heads towards each other’.
The Commandant (‘ogre’) has ‘a tiny glow-worm tenderness’ despite his ‘cruel heart’. The contrast between the Commandant’s love he shows towards his family makes his evil deeds at the concentration camp seem even more horrific.
The difference is perhaps that the vultures act on instinct as opposed to humans, who have the ability to make moral decisions.
[Award 3 marks only if both vultures and Commandant discussed.] (3)
[10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
‘A HARD FROST’ – Cecil Day Lewis
3.1 Why does the speaker refer to the frost as ‘precocious’ in line 2?
Precocious means having developed at an earlier age than is usual or expected. Like a child who behaves in a way too mature for her age, the frost that has appeared early is presenting unusual images of Spring.
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2)

3.2 How is the brilliance of that Winter morning captured in lines 7–10?
The brilliance and beauty of the atmosphere is inviting, alluring and almost mystical (‘amorphous’). It presents an image of life (‘creation’) as opposed to the harshness and lifelessness normally associated with Winter. The rare Winter sun makes everything sparkle and dazzle (‘the fields blaze with diamonds’).
[Award 2 marks for two relevant descriptions.] (2)

3.3 Critically discuss the effect of the image in lines 11–14. Refer to the tone in your response.
The white frost transforms the Winter bleakness into a ‘mockery’ of glamour and opulence. This is compared to an unattractive country maid who looks flattering in her bridal gear. However, her appeal will not last long once she discards her outward embellishments. The scene will also lose its beauty once the frost melts.
The tone is accusatory/disparaging/indignant.
[Award 2 marks for discussion and 1 mark for tone.]    (3)

3.4 ‘Real transformation’ (line 16) is extraordinary. Critically comment on how this is shown in the poem.
Transformation is often unseen and hidden below the surface. As opposed to the deceptive appearance of Spring, the ‘real’ Spring is beginning to make itself felt unnoticeably underground. The frost is vital in bringing new life to the earth. It loosens the thick clods of earth and releases the seeds to breathe new life. Beneath the superficial harshness of Winter there is the hope of Spring and the promise of a new beginning.
[Award 3 marks for 3 relevant points or 2 points well discussed.]        (3)
[10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
‘AN AFRICAN THUNDERSTORM’ – David Rubadiri
4.1 How does the simile in line 6 contribute to your understanding of the poem?
A ‘plague’ suggests that the approaching thunderstorm is uncontrollable and unremitting. It is as destructive and dangerous as the disease is that one usually associates with a ‘plague’.
It may also be an allusion to the Biblical plague sent to punish the Egyptians.
[Award 1 mark for mood and 1 mark for explanation of simile.] (2)

4.2 Explain the use of the capital letter in the following line: ‘The Wind whistles by’ (lines 14 and 25).
The poet emphasises the importance of the wind. The capital letter al suggests that the wind is unique and different from other winds, almo exclusive in its intensity.
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2)

4.3 Critically discuss how the use of the short lines convey the effect of the wind.
The short lines increase the pace and thus they convey the chaos caused by the wind that precedes the thunderstorm. The wind is unpredictable in its direction (‘turning’, ‘whirling’, ‘madly’). Its destructive force is unmistakeable and neither humans nor nature will be exempt from the powerful force of this thunderstorm.
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)

4.4 The approaching thunderstorm with the promise of rain should be considered a blessing in African society. Critically comment on how this idea is subverted in the poem. Refer to the tone in your response.
The reactions of the inhabitants of the village are shown. The children are ‘delighted’ by the sights and sounds but they do not understand the ominous threat. The mothers are in disarray (‘expose dangling breasts’). They are aware of the destructive power of the storm and the negative impact on the village. The tone is enhanced by ‘the pelting march of the storm’ which is sinister and foreboding.
Candidates may refer to thunderstorm being a metaphor for the destruction imminent in colonisation and how little the people of Africa could do to stop it.
[Award 1 mark for tone and 2 marks for two relevant points.] (3)
[10]

QUESTION 5: UNSEEN POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
‘a teaching fantasy’ – Margaret Hatcher
5.1 Explain the comparison used in stanza 1.
The words and ideas that are taught are compared to leaves falling from the trees in autumn.
[Award 2 marks if comparison is shown.] (2)

5.2 Suggest how the structure of the poem is appropriate to the season of autumn.
The indented shape is unconventional. It simulates the free and unstructured way in which the leaves would cascade from the trees during autumn.
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2)

5.3 Refer to stanza 2. Explain critically how the diction reveals the speaker’s attitude.
The verbs (‘float’, ‘drift’, ‘glide’, ‘whisper’, ‘dance’) suggest gentle and pleasant activities – they imply that the speaker wants her learners to enjoy her lessons; she is not harsh and controlling.
The use of the second person (‘you’, ‘your’) is personal and direct. The teacher addresses her learners directly; she wants them to engage and to be aware of her intentions.
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to attitude.] (3)

5.4 Refer to the last line of the poem and comment on its appropriateness in the context of the poem. Consider the tone in your response.
Teaching is compared to the season, autumn. It is appropriate since the speaker hopes that what is taught may at some point transform the lives of learners as a season transforms the landscape. The tone is hopeful/optimistic/expectant.
[Award 2 marks for two ideas and 1 mark for tone.] (3)
[10]
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION
In his novel The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde explores how the relentless pursuit of youth and pleasure becomes a destructive power.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, critically discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement.

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 29 for the rubric to assess this question.
• It is the physical beauty of Dorian that affects all the characters and the developments in the novel.
• Dorian’s beauty inspires Basil’s ‘artistic idolatry’ and Lord Henry describes it as revealing ‘all youth’s passionate purity’.
• Lord Henry’s praise of youth influences Dorian’s wish for eternal youth. He convinces Dorian of the importance and value of youth and beauty.
• Lord Henry claims that the only way to get rid of temptation and pleasure ‘is to yield to it’.
• This idea of Hedonism is the creed by which Dorian lives as he indulges his worst desires.
• Dorian becomes decadent, and his desire for new experiences contributes to his degeneration.
• In his narcissistic self-absorption he feels no need to take responsibility for his actions – the portrait will bear the burden instead.
• Valuing artistic beauty above all else allows Dorian to confuse his love for Sibyl’s acting with a love for Sibyl herself. When Sibyl dies, it is the catalyst for the diminishing of Dorian’s soul.
• The portrait absorbs his immoral values; it becomes ‘bestial, sodden and unclean’. The decaying representation of Dorian’s soul, the visible reminder of his sins, is a clear criticism of his lifestyle.
• The repulsive degeneration of his soul is not only reflected in the portrait but also in his visits to the sordid parts of London in search of sensual pleasure.
• Real life is too ugly for Dorian – ‘how horrible real ugliness made things’.
• The yellow book becomes a template for Dorian’s life and this allegiance leads to his death.
• The beauty of his life was always an illusion and, in the end, the reality of his sordid life is revealed in his death.
• Candidates might refer to Basil, Alan Campbell, James Vane as well as those whose lives have been ruined as a consequence of their association with Dorian Gray.

Candidates may argue that it is the repressive Victorian morality and ‘monstrous laws’ that encourage sin by making the soul grow ‘sick with longing for the things it has forbidden to itself’.
[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.]      [25]

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
7.1 Briefly explain the circumstances of the meeting between Lord Henry and Dorian Gray.
Lord Henry and Basil are in Basil’s studio, discussing Basil’s portrait of Dorian Gray. Lord Henry is intrigued by the beautiful subject of this portrait. When Dorian arrives for a sitting, Basil reluctantly introduces the two because he fears the negative influence Lord Henry may have on Dorian.
[Award 3 marks for 3 relevant points.]    (3)

7.2 Refer to line 4: ‘They spoil every romance by trying to make it last forever’. To what extent does Lord Henry’s attitude to women revealed here influence Dorian’s relationship with Sibyl Vane?
Lord Henry does not have a high opinion of women. He is disparaging and insulting in his views about women, including his wife. His attitude is sexist and patronising. To Lord Henry, Dorian’s ‘sudden mad love for Sibyl Vane was a psychological phenomenon of no small interest’. He promotes the idea that art is superior to life and this is why Dorian is excited by Sibyl’s artistry. Consequently, it is a short-lived, superficial romance. Lord Henry convinces Dorian to see Sibyl’s suicide as a beautiful artistic act and he is able to quell any remorse Dorian may have felt when she dies.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]  (3)

7.3 ‘… he murmured, flushing at his own boldness…’ (lines 8–9) Critically comment on what these lines reveal about Dorian’s attitude towards Lord Henry at this stage.
Dorian responds rather coyly to Lord Henry’s cynical opinion that caprices are more desirable than lifelong relationships. He is interested in Lord Henry’s outrageous opinions and Basil’s fears that Lord Henry will ‘influence’ Dorian are coming true. At this stage, Dorian is not yet that confident in Lord Henry’s company.
[Award 3 marks for 3 relevant points.]   (3)

7.4 Refer to lines 21–22: ‘It was certainly a wonderful work of art, and a wonderful likeness as well’. Comment on the irony of Lord Henry’s observation in the light of later events.
Initially the portrait does capture the beauty and innocence of Dorian. However, later on the portrait becomes a reflection of Dorian’s depravity and moral decline. The portrait shows nothing of its original beauty and innocence.
[Award full marks only if irony is discussed.] (3)

7.5 How do the images in lines 1–5 reflect Dorian’s state of mind at this stage of the novel?
A grim, ominous and macabre mood is created by the reference to ‘yellow skull’, ‘misshapen cloud’, ‘gloomy’ and ‘clogged with a grey-flannel mist’. Dorian is desperately alone and miserable. He cannot find peace after the innumerable acts of wickedness in which he has engaged, and the ugly images underline his discomfort.
[Award full marks only if reference is made to both the images and Dorian’s mood.]   (3)

7.6 ‘His soul, certainly was sick to death’ (line 7). Comment on the appropriateness of this utterance in the context of the novel as a whole.
His soul has become so depraved that it is dubious whether it can ever heal. His actions and choices throughout the novel eventually torment him to such an extent that even he cannot bear to look at the grotesque portrait which manifests his soul. This ultimately leads to his death.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]     (3)

7.7 Refer to lines 12–13: ‘… what right had Basil to have spoken to him as he had done?’ Explain whether Dorian’s indignation here is justified.
No, Basil has only shown concern as a good friend. Basil is sincere. He withholds judgment regarding rumours he had heard. He encourages him to repent and is willing to support Dorian. At this stage Dorian is most in need of a friend but he rejects Basil’s kindness. Dorian is only attempting to justify the brutal murder of Basil. His callous disposal of the body marks his lowest point.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]         (3)

7.8 Critically discuss how Basil’s exclamation in Extract A: ‘It is quite finished’ (line 18) could be considered prophetic of the journey Dorian takes in Extract B.
Yes, it can. The completion of the portrait (Extract A) marks the beginning of the end for Dorian. After seeing his beauty in the portrait it prompts his wish that the portrait would age and he would remain young forever. His wish is granted and for 18 years he lives a life of self-indulgent pleasure, retaining his youthfulness while the portrait ‘bears the burden of his shame’. The vermilion signature on the portrait portends the horrors that Dorian commits which ultimately ends in the cruel deaths of many, including his own.
In Extract B he journeys to the opium den where he meets people he has wronged from his past, including James Vane. This suggests that Dorian’s retribution is imminent.
[Award full marks only if reference is made to both extracts.]        (4)
[25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION
Life of Pi challenges the reader to embrace ‘a better story’ and sacrifice ‘dry yeastless factuality’.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement with close reference to the novel.

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 29 for the rubric to assess this question.

Candidates might agree or disagree with this statement or they may offer a mixed response.

• At the outset the reader is introduced to ‘a story that will make you believe in God’. This vehicle of storytelling is to convince readers that there can be more truth and significance behind a story than strictly adhering to facts.
• By establishing the development of Pi’s pluralistic faith – a hybrid of Christianity, Hinduism and Islam – Pi chooses the better story for himself, the one that allows him to see ‘divinity in the ordinary’.
• When Pi faces unimaginable horrors after the sinking of the Tsimtsum, it is implied that his ‘story with animals’ is a coping mechanism for him and this becomes his ‘better story’.
• Pi’s feline alter-ego, Richard Parker, is created to help him embrace the savage aspects of his personality in order to survive and maintain his sanity. A committed vegetarian, he ‘descended to a level of savagery [he] never thought possible’. The ‘better story’ also helps Pi face his guilt. Regardless of facts, he creates this alternate reality for himself and this gives him the will to survive.
• Pi witnesses his mother’s murder, the Chinese boy’s suffering, and other unmentionable horrors. In order to survive these tormenting visions, he creates a ‘better story’, which, in turn, contributes to his survival.
• The ‘murderous island’ may be a manifestation of his guilt as he creates a ‘free floating organism’ outside of himself and disconnects from a repulsive story.
• The Japanese investigators are intent on obtaining facts and ironically, ‘the truth’. They do not believe Pi’s story and he offers them ‘another story’ that is ‘dry and yeastless’.
• Mr Okamato finally comes to realise that ‘the story with animals is the better story’, and Pi concludes that ‘so it goes with God’, confirming that truth and meaning is not dependent on ‘dry, yeastless factuality’.
• The adult Pi still suffers guilt and trauma after his horrific ordeal but it is the ‘better story’ that allows him to emerge with his humanity intact.
• In the end it is left for the readers to decide whether they will choose the more logical story or choose to have faith in something beyond crude reality and choose the ‘better story’.
  [Consider mixed/valid alternative response.]

[25]

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
9.1 What has sparked ‘a new beginning’ (line 1) for Piscine?
Pi has endured taunts and bullying for his unusual name. His schoolmates tease him and call him ‘pissing’. He makes an ingenious decision to deal with these verbal torments by instructing all to know him as ‘Pi’, illustrated by the mathematical explanation of the Greek letter, pi. It captivates his classmates. This delights Pi and increases his popularity.
[Award 3 marks for three distinct points.]    (3)

9.2 Pi states that ‘Repetition is important in the training not only of animals but also of humans’ (lines 2–3). How does this knowledge ensure his survival while at sea?
Pi realises that his only hope for survival is to tame Richard Parker. He draws on his knowledge of animal behaviour to subdue Richard Parker. Through repetition with his whistle he is able to convince Richard Parker that he is the alpha male.
Pi attributes his survival to having a schedule which includes daily prayers and religious rituals. He makes very specific, quantitative lists, and keeps a journal to make sense of his circumstances. This brings him comfort from the nerve-wracking and lonely monotony of his daily existence at sea.
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to both animal and human.]     (3)

9.3 Consider the exchange between Pi and his brother Ravi (lines 11–16). Comment on Ravi’s change in attitude towards his brother.
Ravi is Pi’s older brother who, unlike Pi, is popular and athletic. Although Ravi loves to tease Pi, even about his religious affiliations, they are close. In this extract Ravi continues his banter but with no malice, only respect for the courage and ingenuity that Pi has shown in triumphing over his tormentors.
[Award 3 marks only if the change in attitude is shown.]   (3)

9.4 Critically comment on Pi’s observation that he found ‘refuge’ in an ‘irrational number’ (lines 17–19). Refer to later events in the novel in your response.
Pi has a symbolic relationship with the mathematical, pi. Mathematical numbers are calculated and explained rationally and logically by the irrational number, pi. Pi is 16 when he is shipwrecked and pi is the sixteenth letter of the Greek alphabet. He uses pi to work out the circumference of the algae island. This island offers temporary salvation to Pi until his illusion of the island is shattered when he realises it is a carnivorous island.
However, when relating his illogical story to the Japanese investigators, they would rather have facts and miss the ‘better story’. It is the irrational ‘better story’ that helps Pi to embrace life beyond his suffering.
[Award 3 marks for three relevant points.] (3)

9.5 Discuss the ‘irony’ (line 1) that Pi refers to here.
Initially the presence of a Bengal tiger on the lifeboat threatens Pi’s survival. With his extensive knowledge of animals, Pi realises that this threat is surmountable. Although Richard Parker is dangerous, Pi tames him. It is the presence of Richard Parker that provides companionship and hope to Pi. Ironically, the creature that will probably kill him very easily, is also his saviour.
[Award 3 marks only if irony is shown.]      (3)

9.6 Explain how Richard Parker had acquired his name and how this could establish a connection between the tiger and Pi.
Pi is named after the Piscine (pool) Molitor in Paris. The tiger, originally named ‘Thirsty’ ends up with a human name due to a clerical error. Both their names are water-related. The tiger’s human name blurs the distinction between animal and human and Pi eventually anthropomorphises Richard Parker. If the reader chooses to believe the second story, then Richard Parker is actually Pi himself. He represents the animal side of Pi that survives by killing and eating even human flesh. He disappears at the end of the story because Pi has returned to civilisation and his alter ego will never need to surface again.
[Award 3 marks for three relevant points.]          (3)

9.7 Comment on the significance of the ‘hyena’ (line 8) in the context of the novel as a whole.
In both stories, the hyena/French cook displays many negative qualities, such as greed, stupidity and viciousness which emanate from its cowardice. Hyenas are scavengers who prey on the weak but are cowardly when facing a more formidable adversary. The hyena is a reminder of the savagery of which humans are capable when survival is at stake. Pi learns to be brutal and engages in cannibalism and murder, actions which he would never have contemplated prior to his encounter with the hyena/French cook.
[Award 3 marks for three relevant points.]      (3)

9.8 In Extract C, Pi uses the analogy of a choir to describe an event while in Extract D he introduces the reader to the ‘prusten’ sound. How do these sound analogies contribute to the mood in each of these extracts?
In both there is a sense of triumph.
The harmonious jubilation of Extract C marks Pi’s victory over his classmates’ mockery of his name. Here the mood is one of pride and pleasure.
In Extract D, Pi no longer feels threatened by the presence of the Bengal tiger. The mood is one of contentment and peace as Pi and Richard Parker have slipped into a companionable existence aboard the lifeboat.
In both, Pi shows his resourcefulness and incredible ability to cope with adverse circumstances.
[Award full marks only if the mood in both extracts is discussed.]           (4)
[25]
TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA
OTHELLO – William Shakespeare
QUESTION 10: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION
Iago describes Othello as having ‘… a free and open nature, that thinks men honest that seems to be so, And will as tenderly be led by th’nose As asses are’.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent Iago’s observation leads to Othello’s demise.

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 29 for the rubric to assess this question.

Candidates may agree or disagree with this statement.
OTHELLO DOES HAVE A ‘FREE AND OPEN NATURE:

• He is a trusted soldier who leads the army against the Turkish invasion of Cyprus – he is described as ‘valiant’ and ‘brave’ and trusts his men implicitly.
• He defends his elopement, maintaining that their relationship is sincere – ‘I love the gentle Desdemona’.
• He honourably and confidently refuses to hide from Brabantio as he knows his conscience is clear – ‘my perfect soul shall manifest me rightly’.
• He is respected and the Duke admires Othello so much that he convinces Brabantio to accept his new son-in-law – ‘your son-in-law is far more fair than black’.
• Even Iago who claims to ‘hate the Moor’ admits that he is a good man – ‘The Moor … is of a constant loving noble nature and I dare think that he’ll prove to Desdemona a most dear husband’.

HOWEVER, HE DOES HAVE HIS FLAWS:

• He is too proud, too trusting, too impulsive and extremely insecure.
• His later behaviour towards Cassio and Desdemona is partially motivated by wounded pride – ‘I’d rather be a toad … than keep a corner in the thing I love for other’s uses’.
• It is Othello’s gullibility that Iago uses to his advantage – he accepts Iago’s insinuations even before he has the ‘ocular’ proof.
• He is insecure because he is an outsider in Venetian society. He lacks the experience and local knowledge when it comes to Venetian women and so believes Iago’s assertion that they secretly cheat on their husbands. This makes him look silly and naïve.
• It is unforgiveable that he secretly tests his wife’s loyalty, that he publicly insults and strikes her and that he absolves himself of blame, describing himself as an ‘honourable murderer’.

It can be considered that it is exactly Othello’s free and open nature that elicits sympathy from the audience despite some of his appalling actions:

• He stood no chance against Iago’s skilful and intelligent manipulations.
• As an outsider, he does feel unworthy of Desdemona and it is his love for her that makes the perceived betrayal so much more intense.
• He does show profound anguish while contemplating her murder and the audience can sympathise with his overwhelming grief.
• His suicide can be considered as either a brave, noble deed or the actions of a coward who does not take responsibility for his actions.
  [Consider mixed/valid alternative responses.]
  [25]

QUESTION 11: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
11.1 Place this extract in context.
The Duke has ordered Othello and the Venetian army to Cyprus to defend it against a Turkish invasion. Othello and Desdemona are reunited in Cyprus. Before Othello arrives, Iago notices that Cassio takes Desdemona away to speak to her privately. Iago intends to use this as a plot to frame Cassio so that he loses his newly gained promotion to lieutenant.
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct points.]    (3)

11.2 Comment on the appropriateness of the image that Iago uses in lines 9–10: ’O, you are well tuned now, But I’ll set down the pegs that make this music’.
It is appropriate.
Iago means to ‘untune’ the harmony of the marriage between Othello and Desdemona by ‘loosening its strings’. He will sow suspicion and discord so that the love and warmth that Othello shows here will be replaced by jealousy and conflict.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]       (3)

11.3 Refer to lines 26–27: ‘base men being in love have then a nobility in their natures more than is native to them’. How is Iago’s attitude to Othello shown in this line? Refer to diction in your response.
Iago claims that all Roderigo needs to do is display the courage that even unworthy men demonstrate when they are in love. He is clearly disparaging towards Othello and believes he is ‘unworthy’. He is determined to ruin him by placing negative thoughts about infidelity in his head. His reference to ‘native’ establishes Othello as an outsider which gives Iago an opportunity to mislead him about Venetian culture and Venetian women. He is determined to belittle Othello.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]    (3)

11.4 Describe the relationship between Roderigo and Iago.
Roderigo is in love with Desdemona. Roderigo is prepared to sell all his land to pay Iago to try to get Desdemona. He has already given him money and jewellery. It shows Iago’s material greed and how truly manipulative he is, and how susceptible Roderigo is.
[Award 3 marks for 3 ideas or 2 ideas well discussed.]   (3)

11.5 What is the dramatic effect of Othello entering with a light at the start of this scene?
The symbolic light is put out by Iago’s deceit as Othello prepares to murder Desdemona – ‘put out thy light’. It also represents the innocence and goodness of Desdemona. Othello uses it to comment on her pure appearance in the darkness of her bedroom. However, he is so steeped in Iago’s machinations that he cannot control his jealousy. It is symbolic of Othello’s conflict between the goodness of Desdemona and the evil of Iago. He eventually submits to the latter.
[Award 3 marks for 3 ideas or 2 ideas well discussed.]   (3)

11.6 In line 1 Othello refers to ‘the cause’. How does this contribute to how Othello portrays himself as a figure of Justice as he prepares to take Desdemona’s life?
Justice implies fairness and impartiality. Desdemona is charged with infidelity (her ‘crime’) and in Othello’s mind, the evidence points towards her guilt. He believes he is upholding the principles of chastity (‘the cause’). He shows grief over what he has to do (‘cruel tears’) and justifies his actions as punishing out of love (‘strikes where it doth love’).
[Award 3 marks for 3 ideas or 2 ideas well discussed.] (3)

11.7 Refer to line 26: ‘Have you prayed tonight, Desdemona?’
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.
Othello might lean closer to her in the hope of getting her to confess her ‘crime’. He may fall on his knees in a gesture of prayer so that she may find redemption before she dies.
He is so consumed by jealousy and convinced that his actions are justified that his tone may be confident/supportive/gentle/considerate/ controlled/ composed tone.
[Accept valid alternative responses.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and includes a justification.]       (3)

11.8 Refer to both Extracts E and F: Critically discuss the change in Othello’s attitude towards Desdemona.
In Extract E Othello is happy to have survived physical danger and be reunited with Desdemona. However, he is unaware of the ‘war’ that he has yet to face. The metaphoric war against his own insecurities and jealousies is what compels him to take the horrific action of murdering Desdemona in Extract F.
In Extract F, he believes he has been duped and ‘discord’ in their relationship has been caused by her infidelity. He has trusted in the ‘honesty’ of Iago rather than Desdemona’s loyalty to him. He is convinced that he has to kill Desdemona.
[Award full marks only if both extracts are discussed.]  (4)
[25]

HAMLET – William Shakespeare
QUESTION 12: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Hamlet is no ‘sweet prince’. In pursuit of his revenge he becomes increasingly ruthless, callous and cruel.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this assessment of Hamlet’s character.

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 29 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates may agree or disagree with this statement. A ‘SWEET PRINCE’:

• Everything seems to have gone wrong in his life: His father is dead, his mother dishonoured, and his country disgraced and weakened.
• He mourns for his father and is true to his feelings – ‘o what a rogue and peasant slave am I’.
• He questions the validity of the ghost’s claims, for fear it may be the devil trying to trap him.
• He does love Ophelia – ‘forty thousand brothers with all their quantity of love could not make up my sum’.
• He is respected – ‘oh what a noble mind is overthrown’.
• He is torn between avenging his father’s death and the belief that revenge is sinful.
• He is in a difficult situation as he feels there is no one left to trust in ‘rotten’ Denmark.
• He is contrasted with the reckless Laertes and Fortinbras and delays his final revenge.
• He stoically accepts his fate and takes responsibility for his actions.

AN ‘ARRANT KNAVE’

• His ‘antic disposition’ may seem deliberately deceptive.
• He kills his old friends, Rosencrantz and Guildenstern, without remorse.
• He expresses no horror at the impulsive murder of Polonius.
• He is misogynistic and cruel towards Ophelia – ‘get thee to a nunnery’. His merciless insults and murder of Polonius drive her to madness and suicide.
• He berates his own mother – ‘Did coldly furnish forth the marriage tables’.
• He treats his mother with disdain when he sarcastically remarks – ‘I shall in all my best obey you madam’.
• He wants Claudius to suffer and his thoughts become ‘bloody’.
• He becomes increasingly reckless and dismisses Horatios’ advice – ‘If your mind dislike anything, obey it’.

It could be argued that the ‘sweet prince’ finds himself in an unusually complex situation: his father has just died, his mother tactlessly and hastily remarried his uncle and now the ghost of his father burdens him with the directive to avenge his death. In addition, he is tormented by thoughts that even his friends and girlfriend cannot be trusted; he has nowhere to turn. Thoughts of revenge and aggression fester in Hamlet’s mind, corrupting his initially sweet and peaceful nature.
[Consider mixed/valid alternative responses.]
[25]

QUESTION 13: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
13.1 Refer to the stage instructions ‘A flourish of trumpets …’ at the start of the extract. What impression of King Claudius and his kingdom is created with this instruction?
The announcement of the King’s arrival by ‘A flourish of trumpets’ within the palace suggests that Claudius is vainglorious; self-important. He enjoys the display of his power and status.
He is accompanied by assistants and courtiers – he probably wants to establish his position with the presence of ‘others’.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed. Specific reference has to be made to the quote.]                (3)

13.2 Refer to line 5: Explain how Hamlet has been ‘transformed’.
He is displaying strange behaviour that is analogous to madness. He seems to be unbalanced and keeps to himself. He treats those around him with cruelty and derision. He did not enjoy the wedding festivities; instead, he is still in mourning.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]      (3)

13.3 Why does Claudius feel compelled to ‘remedy’ Hamlet’s strange disposition?
Claudius is insecure and suspects that Hamlet knows the truth about his role in his father’s death, and will sabotage his position as king. His ‘remedy’ is not out of sincere concern but rather to ensure that Hamlet is eliminated as a potential threat.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]    (3)

13.4 To what extent is Gertrude’s concern shown here sincere? Comment by referring to the drama as a whole.
Gertrude is passive and gullible and probably does not see through Claudius’ evil intentions. The fact that she remarried her husband’s brother so soon after his death makes her seem inconsiderate of her son’s feelings and decorum. Instead of showing maternal concern she reports Hamlet’s behaviour to Claudius and sides with Claudius in betraying his friendship with Rosencrantz and Guildenstern. She is redeemed in the end when she warns Hamlet of the poisoned cup.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.] [Consider valid alternative responses.]       (3)

13.5 Place this extract in context.
Hamlet sets the stage to prove the authenticity of the ghost and to expose Claudius’ guilt. Horatio is the only one who is aware of the warning from his father’s ghost. Hamlet and Horatio will observe the King carefully during the play of The Murder of Gonzago. The plot of the play closely resembles the manner in which Hamlet’s father was murdered.
[Award 3 marks for three relevant points.]       (3)

13.6 Consider Polonius’ aside in line 22. How is this typical of his character?
He typically meddles in the lives of his children, even in the relationship between Hamlet and Ophelia. He uses Ophelia as bait to trick Hamlet. His fatherly advice may often be well-intentioned but his methods are always underhanded and shady. He is ignorant and filled with his own self- importance.
[Award 3 marks for three ideas or two ideas well discussed.]     (3)

13.7 Refer to line 23: ‘Lady, shall I lie in your lap?’
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.
Hamlet might bow to Ophelia in a suggestion of exaggerating his adoration for her. He is disillusioned and does not really trust her. His request that she allows him to ‘lie in (her) lap’ is suggestive and not indicative of their true relationship.
His tone would be affected/mocking.
[Consider valid alternative responses.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and includes a justification.]   (3)

13.8 Refer to both Extracts G and H: Critically comment on how friendship and loyalty are contrasted in each of the extracts.
In Extract G, Rosencrantz and Guildenstern are shown to be shallow and easily flattered by Claudius and Gertrude’s comments about their friendship with Hamlet. The ‘service’ they offer is disloyal merely to win favour with the king. Their lack of principle is indisputable.
In Extract H, Horatio remains steadfast throughout and Hamlet trusts him with his deliberate plan to trap the king. Hamlet acknowledges that he can confide in Horatio without having to resort to flattery to earn his confidence. Horatio’s loyalty and unwavering support are apparent throughout the drama.
[Award full marks only if reference is made to both extracts.]    (4)
[25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION
John Proctor may have found his ‘goodness’ in the end but he must take responsibility for the conflict and destruction in Salem.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement.

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 29 for the rubric to assess this question.

Candidates may agree or disagree with this statement.
RESPONSIBILITY:

• Proctor’s affair is the catalyst for his downfall as well as the witch-hunts.
• He abuses his power as an employer, takes advantage of his wife’s trust and immorally has an affair with such a young girl in this Puritan community.
•  He is arrogant and stubborn by refusing to go to church because he dislikes Parris and his sermons.
• He claims to be remorseful but his initial strained relationship with his wife shows some hubris – ‘I’ll not have your suspicion anymore’.
• After the affair he does not admit that he spoke privately with Abigail, exacerbating the already broken trust.
• Even when he knows the witchcraft allegations are fraudulent, he will not testify to this in court as it would involve a public confession of the affair which would deeply tarnish his reputation.
• He only confesses once his own wife is charged with witchcraft but it is already too late as many innocent lives have been lost.

PROCTOR’S ‘GOODNESS’:

• Proctor places great emphasis on his reputation but is prepared to proclaim his guilt publicly to stop Abigail’s rampage through Salem.
• He is aware of his terrible role in allowing the fervour to continue.
• By the end of the play he is more concerned with personal integrity than his public reputation.
• Although he signs a confession, he realises that such a confession would dishonour his fellow prisoners, who are brave enough to die as testimony to the truth.
• A false admission would also dishonour him and his legacy.
• He is resolute in his decision not to agree to Hale’s pleas to lie and live.
• He goes to the gallows redeemed and freed from the torture of his earlier sin.

Candidates could argue that the initial allegations of witchcraft stem from more than just the adulterous affair between Proctor and Abigail. A divided, fractious community simmered beneath the façade of this Puritan community. The allegations merely serve as a stimulus for jealousies, rivalries and antagonism to be exposed.
[Consider mixed/valid alternative responses.]
[25]

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
15.1 Comment on the stage direction in line 4: ‘holding back a full condemnation of her’.
There is a tension in the relationship between Proctor and Elizabeth. He holds back his anger because he knows he is the cause of the estrangement. Only later is it revealed that it is a result of his adulterous affair with Abigail.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]   (3)

15.2 Account for Mary Warren’s change in attitude towards her employers.
In this Puritan community young girls like Mary have very little power and play a subservient role. At the start of the witch trials Mary has been given some authority by her role as an officer of the court. She relishes this new- found privilege and speaks officiously about the importance of the ‘work’ she does there. She also holds the power to save or condemn them and others.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]     (3)

15.3 Refer to lines 24–26: Comment on the appropriateness of the image used to describe Abigail’s character.
The Biblical allusion here shows that Abigail savours being the centre of attention. She can command crowds with her ‘dissembling’ and skilfully manipulates and deceives an entire town. She easily intimidates the other girls into following her lead. Even the ‘weighty judges’ are duped by her ability to subvert justice and make fools of them.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]       (3)

15.4 Consider Elizabeth’s suggestion to Proctor that he should ‘tell them it is a fraud’ (line 29). How does this not have the intended outcome?
When Proctor does eventually attempt to do this in court, it is not only too late, he also condemns himself and Elizabeth. Part of his testimony that his wife never lies is what dooms him. Not even the truth can break the powerful frenzy that Abigail has initiated. There are already too many others who have admitted to witchcraft in order to save their lives and this gives credibility to the witch trials.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]    (3)

15.5 What is the dramatic impact of Hathorne’s utterance, ‘The sun is soon up’ (line 1)?
It is the moment of suspense and revelation. The dawn of the new day will reveal the untruths that have been hidden. If Proctor confesses then, it gives integrity to the witch trials and not ‘cast doubt on the guilt of those of them that died’. It is a moment of truth, the moment of John Proctor’s crucible.
[Award 3 marks for 3 points or 2 points well discussed.]             (3)

15.6 Explain the irony in Hathorne’s excitement at Proctor’s willingness to confess.
The Justice system stands for truth and integrity. He assumes that Proctor’s confession will uphold the integrity of the witch trials. However, John Proctor’s confession is a lie and he later chooses to do the right thing and defend the truth.
[Award full marks only if irony is discussed.]   (3)

15.7 Refer to lines 20–21: ‘Do as you will, do as you will!’
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you instruct the actress to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.
The actress might turn away from Proctor to hide her own anguish at the possibility of his imminent death. She may also move closer to him and take his hand in a gesture of affection to show that she understands the difficult decision he must make; she gives him her blessing to make the right one. She might smile at him to show that her trust in him has been restored.
Her tone may be sorrowful/forlorn/miserable or soothing/comforting.
[Accept valid alternative responses.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to both body language and tone, and includes a justification.]          (3)

15.8 Refer to both extracts I and J: How is Elizabeth’s character presented in each of these extracts?
In Extract I, Elizabeth appears weak and easily intimidated, even by Mary who ‘frightened all [her] strength away’. The source of the tension between her and Proctor is evident when she refers to Abigail in a sarcastic manner, ‘I thought she were a saint to hear her’. She is clearly hurt and struggles to contain her resentment.  
In Extract J she shows self-awareness and strength. Her forgiveness of John frees her from her own feebleness. She is no longer powerless but is able to offer John the strength to find his goodness and redeem himself; ‘let none be your judge’.
[Award full marks only if both extracts are discussed.]       (4)
[25]
TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL: 80

SECTION A: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LITERARY ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE: POETRY [10 MARKS]

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and Language.

SECTIONS B AND C: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LITERARY ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE: NOVEL AND DRAMA [25 MARKS]

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and Language.
There must not be more than two categories’ variation between the Structure and Language mark and the Content mark.

NOTE:

• This marking guideline is intended as a guide for markers.
• It is by no means prescriptive or exhaustive.
• Candidates' responses should be considered on merit.
• Answers should be assessed holistically and marks awarded where applicable. The marking guideline should be discussed before the commencement of marking.

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS
Marking the comprehension:

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the meaning/understanding. (Errors should still be indicated.)
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined, disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise. However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an answer, this will be acceptable.
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.
• No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The reason/substantiation/motivation/quotation is what should be considered.
• For questions which require quotations from the text, do not penalise candidates for omitting the quotation marks or for an incorrect spelling within the quotation.
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence, mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first two/three.
• Accept dialectal variations.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING
QUESTIONS: TEXT A
1.1 The writer wants the reader to be able to identify with the issue of human cloning stated in the rhetorical question, so that the reader would be interested enough to continue reading.
[NOTE: this is a split mark. If the candidate only mentions ‘to involve the reader’, only 1 mark can be awarded. The second mark is awarded for the identification of the issue/topic (i.e. human cloning). Candidates should explain the ISSUE with which the reader identifies.]  (2)
1.2 ‘But’ (1)
1.3 The successful cloning shows us that human cloning is perhaps possible, but it also demonstrates how extremely difficult it would be to clone an adult.  (2)
1.4 Scientists discovered that the technique used to clone other mammals had to be modified to clone a primate successfully.  (2)
1.5 The nucleus from the original egg of an adult monkey is removed.
The chromosomes from the donor cell are extracted and placed inside the egg from which the nucleus has been removed.
Scientists stimulate the egg to grow in a surrogate womb.
[NOTE: Candidates must list the three steps clearly.]   (3)
1.6 The word, ‘apparently’ casts doubt on the success of the experiment. At this early stage the baby monkeys still look healthy, but if there are any abnormalities, they will only be discovered as they grow older, which may influence the success of the experiment.   (2)
1.7 The word, ‘cute’ evokes an emotional response to the monkeys. The cuteness of the two monkeys is all the more heart wrenching when one takes into account that scientific experiments will be conducted on them. The ethical issues raised by these experiments are being emphasised as monkeys are so close to humans.  (2)
1.8 The purpose of the Alzheimer’s research is to eradicate the individual genes suspected to cause the disease. If the monkeys were not genetically identical, the result of deactivating certain genes cannot be studied. / It is in comparing two identical study subjects that the success or not of their research can be established.  (2)
1.9  Yes, the protection of human life is paramount. During the process of cloning the monkeys, 79 embryos were implanted, but Hua Hua and Zhong Zhong were the only two “normal” babies. These experiments are bad enough when one thinks about all the monkeys who died during the process; the thought of this happening to human babies makes the process completely reprehensible.
OR
No, IVF began with research that was thought to be unsafe and unethical, but today it is a normal procedure which does not lead to the birth defects that were predicted. Cloning is, therefore, not necessarily disrespectful of human life. All the ethical concerns raised by the possibility of human cloning might not be realised, just as the fears about IVF were not realised.
[NOTE: global marking]   (3)
1.10 The writer is of the opinion that the only reason for wanting to clone oneself would be ‘vanity’, as one would only want a copy of oneself in order to achieve a form of immortality. It is, therefore, not surprising that most of the requests came from Hollywood, where film stars – who are notorious for their vanity and inflated sense of importance – live.
[Note: context of paragraph 9 = √ ; desire for immortality = √; critical comment = √]   (3)
1.11 He is frowning. (1)
1.12 The scientist in Frame 2 is arrogant, √ since he refutes the criticism regarding ‘playing’: he is adamant that he is not pretending but involved in serious work. √ His statement implies that he thinks he is similar to God, because he is creating life. √  (3)
1.13 In Text B, Frame 1, the scientist states that some people are critical of scientists who think they are God, because they clone humans. The writer suggests in paragraph 10 of Text A that we are judgemental about the technology used to make babies (‘about our prejudices towards reproductive technologies’).
In Text B the scientist is of the opinion that the cloning of a human embryo is a scientific triumph. However, in Text A, paragraph 10, the writer says we should be concerned about the ethics/right and wrong of some of the current medical breakthroughs (‘our ability to make wise decisions about biomedical advances’).
Text A, therefore, partially agrees with the critics in Text B, because the writer thinks we miss the point if we do not think that cloning humans is unethical/unwise (‘would be foolish and lacking solid motivation’). However, he does admit that some of the criticism is unfounded (‘baseless reasons often advanced against it’).
[Candidates might motivate a NO response by referring to the writer’s defence of the possible success of cloning when he refers to the achievements of IVF.]
[NOTE: Mark globally. Both paragraph 10 of Text A and frame 1 of Text B must be considered and a value judgement must be clear.]         (4)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS
Use the following main points that the candidate should include in the summary as a guideline.
Any 7 valid points are to be credited in paragraph form.
(Sentences and/or sentence fragments must be coherent.)

PARAGRAPH FORM
NOTE: What follows is merely an example. It is not prescriptive and must be used very carefully.

Marking the summary
The summary must be marked as follows:

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
  • 3 marks for language
  • Total marks = 10
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim:
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim:
  • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark
  • 1–5 points quoted: award 1 language mark

NOTE:

• Format:
  Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be assessed.
• Word count:
• Markers are required to verify the number of words used.
• Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of words used, or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly. If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCURES AND CONVENTIONS
Marking SECTION C:

• Spelling:
  • One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect, unless the error changes the meaning of the word.
  • In full sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is in the language structure being tested.
  • Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly.
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as per instruction.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct.

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING
3.1 Literal meaning: The food is stacked, one on top of the other, like a balancing act.
Figurative meaning: The advertiser implies that a balanced meal (containing all the food groups) can be bought.(2)
3.2 The advertiser uses these pronouns to indicate a process of collaboration between them and their customers. The use of ‘we’ indicates that they have certain items that they offer on the menu. The use of ‘you’ implies that the customer makes a choice, thus leaving the responsibility of buying a balanced meal in the hands of the buyer.(2)
3.3 The image of the food items literally balanced on top of one another suggests that the take-away is a balanced meal. However, the placement of the carton of ‘low-fat cowpus’ at the top effectively illustrates the claim that this ‘scam’ of ‘junk-food’ is sold by ‘McJunk’, thus drawing attention to the message that it is an unhealthy product. The image, therefore, clearly conveys the advertiser’s opinion that claims that the product is a healthy and balanced meal are false.
[Award 3 marks only if a value judgement has been made regarding the appropriateness of the image in the context of the advertisement.](3)
3.4 Text D describes the product as attractive since it contains ‘100% pure American beef’, as well as some healthy vegetables (‘Lettuce and tomatoes’). McDonald’s also claims that their menu is balanced. Fast-food customers will see this as “proof” that they can still order a conveniently healthy meal.
Text E is scathing in its criticism of McDonald’s. It calls the product ‘pus’ and ‘junk’. It echoes the words of McDonald’s in Text D that the choice of ordering a healthy meal is up to the customer but leaves no doubt in the mind of the reader that it is an impossibility. People who are health- conscious will see this as justification of their view that fast food is unhealthy.
[Award 3 marks only if both texts have been discussed AND a value judgement regarding the greater impact has been made.](3)
[10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA
4.1 The little girl is irritated by her father’s attempts to record everything. This is indicated by the word, ‘DAD’ being written in capital letters, with an exclamation mark, in bold and being underlined. The word, ‘parade’ is also underlined to emphasise her irritation.(2)
4.2 The pedestrians in the background change with each consecutive frame. The father’s feet change with each consecutive frame as he is walking backwards.
The girl’s cape is floating behind her, indicating her movement.
[TWO clues must be given.] (2)
4.3 In frame 4 he seems to be amused (he is laughing) by the father in front of him trying to immortalise this event in the little girl’s life and her extreme irritation at his actions. In frame 5, however, he is not laughing any more. His head is turned as he is looking at the accident as the little girl rides into her father just outside the frame. This is evident by the onomatopoeic, ‘OW’ yelled by the father.
[Award full marks only if both frames are mentioned AND explained.](3)
4.4 The cartoonist satirises society’s love of sensationalism. People have an obsession with recording every minute detail of their lives, even the bad things that happen. The dad has a broken leg in frame 6, but still watches the video and makes a comment about the smiling paramedic. The mother (his wife) is excited about how much the grandmother will love the video, in spite of the fact that her husband has been injured! Because of their behaviour, the little girl, who should be rather traumatised by what has happened (both her unfortunate ride in the parade and her father’s injury), is excited about experiencing next year’s parade.
It could also be argued that the writer is satirising the lengths that parents will go to in order to help their children overcome traumatic events, as well as the rather selfish tendency of children to ignore the pain of others and focus on their own desires.(3)
[10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY
5.1 Addition (1)
5.2 ‘other LEGO® toys include’ (1)
5.3 ‘constantly over and over again’ (1)
5.4 The Lego Group had its start/was started/originated in the carpentry workshop of Ole Kirk Christiansen.
[Accept an answer which eliminates the colloquialism.](1)
5.5 ‘leg godt’ is a Danish word/foreign word used in an English passage. (1)
5.6 The Lego Group began making its famous plastic interlocking blocks in 1949.(1)
5.7 ‘they became very popular as the company made them part’ (1)
5.8 The Lego Group patented the LEGO® block design still in use today on January 28, 1958.
[Sentence must be completely correct to be awarded 1 mark.](1)
5.9 C – an initialism (1)
5.10 indicted – inducted (1)

[10]
TOTAL SECTION C: 30
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections:
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Transactional texts (2 x 25) (50)
2. Answer ONE question from SECTION A and TWO questions from SECTION B.
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
5. You must plan (e.g. use a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words, etc.), edit and proofread your work. The planning must appear BEFORE the answer.
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line across all planning.
7. You are strongly advised to spend approximately:
   • 80 minutes on SECTION A
   • 70 minutes on SECTION B (2 x 35 minutes)
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
9. Give each response a suitable title/heading, as indicated by the question.
   NOTE: The title/heading must NOT be considered when doing a word count.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1

• Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics.
• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay.

1.1 ‘Our house is on fire. According to the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) we are less than 12 years away from not being able to undo our mistakes.’     
 [Greta Thunberg]       
 [50]
1.2 The Gatekeeper.
[50]
1.3 ‘Science may have found a cure for most evils; but it has found no remedy for the worst of them all – the apathy of human beings.’
[Helen Keller]
[50]
1.4 ‘I have noticed even people who claim everything is predestined, and that we can do nothing to change it, look before they cross the road.’ [Stephen Hawking]
[50]
1.5 Take the risk or lose the chance. [50]
1.6 The pictures reproduced below and on page 4 may evoke some reaction or feeling in you or stir your imagination.

• Select ONE picture and write an essay in response.
• Provide your essay with a suitable title.
• Write the correct topic number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3).

NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you have chosen.
1.6.1

[Source: 360livemedia.com] [50]
1.6.2

[Source: www.pintrest.com]       [50]
1.6.3

[Source: www.unlockingthebible.org]
[50]
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS
QUESTION 2

• Respond to TWO of the following topics.
• The body of EACH answer should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length.
• Pay careful attention to the following:
  • Content and planning
  • Audience, register, tone and style
  • Choice of words and language structure
  • Format, structure and editing
• Write down the NUMBER and the TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen,
  e.g. 2.1 Letter to the Editor.

2.1 LETTER TO THE EDITOR

Read the above newspaper extract.
Our actions and celebratory rituals can have a negative impact on our environment and neighbours.
Write a letter to the editor of your local newspaper, in which you express your thoughts about this statement.       [25]

2.2 FORMAL REPORT
As the Grade Twelve group, you have been part of your school the longest and are familiar with its triumphs and pitfalls. Your principal has to write a school improvement plan at the end of each year.

As the RCL member in your class, your principal has tasked you with writing a formal report on any area of improvement that should be considered for the school’s future success.  [25]

2.3 FORMAL SPEECH

Write the speech that you will deliver to an audience of young minds wanting to change the world. In your speech encourage them to be real life heroes and donate blood.   [25]

2.4 CURRICULUM VITAE AND COVERING LETTER

After seeing the above advertisement on a flyer handed out at school, you have decided that a working gap year is for you.
Write a covering letter and your curriculum vitae, to apply for this opportunity. Your covering letter should use the above address to reach the recipient.  [25]

2.5 INTERVIEW
Imagine that you have the opportunity to meet the founder of your school.
Write an interview in which you explore the need for your school’s establishment and some of the choices and decisions the founder made and why.    [25]

2.6 REVIEW
Imagine that you were lucky enough to watch a drama production of your Grade Twelve drama (‘The Crucible’, ‘Hamlet’ or ‘Othello’) on stage.
Write the review of this theatrical production for your local newspaper. [25]

TOTAL SECTION B: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 100

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Read these instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of contents on the next page and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts you have studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the ones you wish to answer.
3. This question paper consists of THREE sections.
   SECTION A: POETRY (30)
   SECTION B: NOVEL (25)
   SECTION C: DRAMA (25)
4. Answer FIVE questions in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B and ONE in SECTION C as follows:
   SECTION A: POETRY
   PRESCRIBED POETRY – Answer TWO questions.
   UNSEEN POEM – COMPULSORY question
   
   SECTION B: NOVEL
   Answer ONE question.
   
   SECTION C: DRAMA
   Answer ONE question.
5. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA):
   Answer questions ONLY on the novel and the drama you have studied.
   • Answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL QUESTION. If you answer the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the contextual question in SECTION C.
   • If you answer the contextual question in SECTION B, you must answer the essay question in SECTION C.
     Use the checklist to assist you.
6. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
   • The essay question on Poetry should be answered in about 250–300 words.
   • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered in 400–450 words.
   • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and relevance.
7. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully.
8. Number your answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
9. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
10. Suggested time management:
    SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
    SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
    SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes
11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS

*NOTE: In sections B and C, answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. If you answer an essay question from SECTION B, you must answer a contextual question from SECTION C. If you answer a contextual question from SECTION B, you must answer an essay question from SECTION C.

CHECKLIST
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.

NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, answer ONE ESSAY and ONE CONTEXTUAL question.

QUESTION 1: PRESCRIBED POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION
somewhere i have never travelled, gladly beyond
– ee cummings

1. somewhere i have never travelled, gladly beyond
2. any experience, your eyes have their silence:
3. in your most frail gesture are things which enclose me,
4. or which i cannot touch because they are too near
   
   
5. your slightest look easily will unclose me
6. though i have closed myself as fingers,
7. you open always petal by petal myself as Spring opens
8. (touching skillfully, mysteriously) her first rose
   
   
9. or if you wish to be close to me, i and
10. my life will shut very beautifully, suddenly,
11. as when the heart of this flower imagines
12. the snow carefully everywhere descending;
    
    
13. nothing which we are to perceive in this world equals
14. the power of your intense fragility: whose texture
15. compels me with the colour of its countries,
16. rendering death and forever with each breathing
    
    
17. (i do not know what it is about you that closes
18. and opens; only something in me understands
19. the voice of your eyes is deeper than all the roses)
20. nobody, not even the rain, has such small hands

Cummings once commented that ‘love is the mystery-of-mysteries’.
Critically discuss to what extent this view of love is evident in the poem by referring to the paradoxes, imagery and tone.
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words (1–1½ pages).          [10]
OR

QUESTION 2: PRESCRIBED POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
VULTURES – Chinua Achebe

1. In the greyness
2. and drizzle of one despondent
3. dawn unstirred by harbingers
4. of sunbreak a vulture
5. perching high on broken
6. bones of a dead tree
7. nestled close to his
8. mate his smooth
9. bashed-in head, a pebble
10. on a stem rooted in
11. a dump of gross
12. feathers, inclined affectionately
13. to hers. Yesterday they picked
14. the eyes of a swollen
15. corpse in a water-logged
16. trench and ate the
17. things in its bowel. Full
18. gorged they chose their roost
19. keeping the hollowed remnant
20. in easy range of cold
21. telescopic eyes...
22. Strange
23. indeed how love in other
24. ways so particular
25. will pick a corner
26. in that charnel-house
27. tidy it and coil up there, perhaps
28. even fall asleep ̶ her face
29. turned to the wall!
30. ...Thus the Commandant at Belsen
31. Camp going home for
32. the day with fumes of
33. human roast clinging
34. rebelliously to his hairy
35. nostrils will stop
36. at the wayside sweet-shop
37. and pick up a chocolate
38. for his tender offspring
39. waiting at home for Daddy's
40. return...
41. Praise bounteous
42. providence if you will
43. that grants even an ogre
44. a tiny glow-worm
45. tenderness encapsulated
46. in icy caverns of a cruel
47. heart or else despair
48. for in the very germ
49. of that kindred love is
50. lodged the perpetuity
51. of evil.

2.1 How does the alliteration in line 2 contribute to the atmosphere? (2)
2.2 What does the speaker find ‘Strange’ in line 22? (2)
2.3 Comment on the contrast between the physical description of the Commandant and his interaction with his child. (3)
2.4 Refer to lines 48–51: ‘for in the very germ of that kindred love is lodged the perpetuity of evil’.
Critically comment on the parallel drawn between the vultures and the Commandant at Belsen. (3)
[10]
OR

QUESTION 3: PRESCRIBED POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
A HARD FROST – Cecil Day Lewis

1. A frost came in the night and stole my world
2. And left this changeling for it – a precocious
3. Image of spring, too brilliant to be true:
4. White lilac on the windowpane, each grass-blade
5. Furred like a catkin, maydrift loading the hedge.
6. The elms behind the house are elms no longer
7. But blossomers in crystal, stems of the mist
8. That hangs yet in the valley below, amorphous
9. As the blind tissue whence creation formed.
10. The sun looks out, and the fields blaze with diamonds.
11. Mockery spring, to lend this bridal gear
12. For a few hours to a raw country maid,
13. Then leave her all disconsolate with old fairings
14. Of aconite and snowdrop! No, not here
15. Amid this flounce and filigree of death
16. Is the real transformation scene in progress
17. But deep below where frost
18. Worrying the stiff clods unclenches their
19. Grip on the seed and lets our future breathe.

3.1 Why does the speaker refer to the frost as ‘precocious’ in line 2? (2)
3.2 How is the brilliance of that Winter morning captured in lines 7–10? (2)
3.3 Critically discuss the effect of the image in lines 11–14. Refer to the tone in your response. (3)
3.4 ‘Real transformation’ (line 16) is extraordinary. Critically comment on how this is shown in the poem. (3)
[10]
OR

QUESTION 4: PRESCRIBED POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
AN AFRICAN THUNDERSTORM – David Rubadiri

1. From the west
2. Clouds come hurrying with the wind
3. Turning
4. Sharply
5. Here and there
6. Like a plague of locusts
7. Whirling
8. Tossing up things on its tail
9. Like a madman chasing nothing.
10. Pregnant clouds
11. Ride stately on its back
12. Gathering to perch on hills
13. Like dark sinister wings;
14. The Wind whistles by
15. And trees bend to let it pass.
16. In the village
17. Screams of delighted children
18. Toss and turn
19. In the din of the whirling wind,
20. Women –
21. Babies clinging on their backs –
22. Dart about
23. In and out
24. Madly
25. The Wind whistles by
26. Whilst trees bend to let it pass.
27. Clothes wave like tattered flags
28. Flying off
29. To expose dangling breasts
30. As jagged blinding flashes
31. Rumble, tremble, and crack
32. Amidst the smell of fired smoke
33. and the pelting march of the storm.

4.1 How does the simile in line 6 contribute to your understanding of the poem?(2)
4.2 Explain the use of the capital letter in the following line: ‘The Wind whistles by’ (lines 14 and 25).(2)
4.3 Critically discuss how the use of the short lines convey the effect of the wind. (3)
4.4 The approaching thunderstorm with the promise of rain should be considered a blessing in African society. Critically comment on how this idea is subverted in the poem. Refer to the tone in your response. (3)
[10]
AND

UNSEEN POETRY: The following question is compulsory.
QUESTION 5: UNSEEN POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
a teaching fantasy ̶ Margaret Hatcher

1. I teach.
2. Ideas and words are my business.
3. I toss them into the air
4. and watch them float
5. softly
6. as autumn leaves
7. (though with much less color
8. and grace)
9. They float around your heads.
10. drift in piles on your desk tops.
11. glide along your sleeves
12. and whisper ̶ dance
13. around your ears.
14. Someday
15. one may catch your attention
16. and inspire you with its colour ̶
17. at least for a season

5.1 Explain the comparison used in the stanza 1. (2)
5.2 Suggest how the structure of the poem is appropriate to the season of autumn. (2)
5.3 Refer to stanza 2. Explain critically how the diction reveals the speaker’s attitude. (3)
5.4 Refer to the last line of the poem and comment on its appropriateness in the context of the poem. Consider the tone in your response. (3)
[10]
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied.
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual question).
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION
In his novel The Picture of Dorian Gray, Oscar Wilde explores how the relentless pursuit of youth and pleasure becomes a destructive power.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, critically discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement.   [25]
OR
QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT A

7.1 Briefly explain the circumstances of the meeting between Lord Henry and Dorian Gray. (3)
7.2 Refer to line 4: ‘They spoil every romance by trying to make it last forever’.
To what extent does Lord Henry’s attitude to women revealed here influence Dorian’s relationship with Sibyl Vane? (3)
7.3 ‘… he murmured, flushing at his own boldness …’ (lines 8–9) Critically comment on what these lines reveal about Dorian’s attitude towards Lord Henry at this stage. (3)
7.4 Refer to lines 21–22: ‘It was certainly a wonderful work of art, and a wonderful likeness as well’. Comment on the irony of Lord Henry’s observation in the light of later events. (3)

AND
EXTRACT B

7.5 How do the images in lines 1–5 reflect Dorian’s state of mind at this stage of the novel? (3)
7.6 ‘His soul, certainly was sick to death’ (line 7). Comment on the appropriateness of this utterance in the context of the novel as a whole. (3)
7.7 Refer to lines 12–13: ‘… what right had Basil to have spoken to him as he had done?’ Explain whether Dorian’s indignation here is justified. (3)
7.8 Critically discuss how Basil’s exclamation in Extract A: ‘It is quite finished’ (line 18) could be considered prophetic of the journey Dorian takes in Extract B.  (4)
[25]
OR

LIFE OF PI – YANN MARTEL
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual question).
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION
Life of Pi challenges the reader to embrace ‘a better story’ and sacrifice ‘dry, yeastless factuality’.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement with close reference to the novel.            [25]
OR
QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.

EXTRACT C

9.1 What has sparked ‘a new beginning’ (line 1) for Piscine? (3)
9.2 Pi states that ‘Repetition is important in the training not only of animals but also of humans’ (lines 2–3). How does this knowledge ensure his survival while at sea? (3)
9.3 Consider the exchange between Pi and his brother Ravi (lines 11–16). Comment on Ravi’s change in attitude towards his brother. (3)
9.4 Critically comment on Pi’s observation that he found ‘refuge’ in an ‘irrational number’ (lines 17–19). Refer to later events in the novel in your response. (3)
AND

EXTRACT D

9.5 Discuss the ‘irony’ (line 1) that Pi refers to here. (3)
9.6 Explain how Richard Parker had acquired his name and how this could establish a connection between the tiger and Pi. (3)
9.7 Comment on the significance of the ‘hyena’ (line 8) in the context of the novel as a whole. (3)
9.8 In Extract C, Pi uses the analogy of a choir to describe an event while in Extract D he introduces the reader to the ‘prusten’ sound. How do these sound analogies contribute to the mood in each of these extracts? (4)
[25]
TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA
Answer ONLY on the drama you have studied.
OTHELLO – WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual question).
QUESTION 10: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION
Iago describes Othello as having ‘… a free and open nature, that thinks men honest that seems to be so, And will as tenderly be led by th’nose As asses are’.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent Iago’s observation leads to Othello’s demise. [25]
OR
QUESTION 11: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT E

11.1 Place this extract in context. (3)
11.2 Comment on the appropriateness of the image that Iago uses in lines 9-10: ‘O, you are well tuned now, But I’ll set down the pegs that make this music’. (3)
11.3 Refer to lines 26–27: ‘… base men being in love have then a nobility in their natures more than is native to them’. How is Iago’s attitude to Othello shown in this line? Refer to diction in your response. (3)
11.4 Describe the relationship between Roderigo and Iago. (3)
AND

EXTRACT F

11.5 What is the dramatic effect of Othello entering with a light at the start of this scene? (3)
11.6 In line 1 Othello refers to ‘the cause’. How does this contribute to how Othello portrays himself as a figure of Justice as he prepares to take Desdemona’s life? (3)
11.7 Refer to line 26: ‘Have you prayed tonight, Desdemona?’
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3)
11.8 Refer to both Extracts E and F: Critically discuss the change in Othello’s attitude towards Desdemona. (4)
[25]
OR

HAMLET – WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual question).
QUESTION 12: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION
Hamlet is no ‘sweet prince’. In pursuit of his revenge he becomes increasingly ruthless, callous and cruel.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this assessment of Hamlet’s character.
[25]
OR
QUESTION 13: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

EXTRACT G

13.1 Refer to the stage instructions ‘A flourish of trumpets. Enter CLAUDIUS, GERTRUDE, ROSENCRANTZ and GUILDENSTERN with others’ at the start of the extract. What impression of King Claudius and his kingdom is created with this instruction? (3)
13.2 Refer to line 5: Explain how Hamlet has been ‘transformed’. (3)
13.3 Why does Claudius feel compelled to ‘remedy’ (line 18) Hamlet’s strange disposition? (3)
13.4 To what extent is Gertrude’s concern shown here sincere? Comment by referring to the drama as a whole. (3)
AND

EXTRACT H

13.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
13.6 Consider Polonius’ aside in line 22. How is this typical of his character? (3)
13.7 Refer to line 23: ‘Lady, shall I lie in your lap?’
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.  (3)
13.8 Refer to both Extracts G and H. Critically comment on how friendship and loyalty are contrasted in each of the extracts.  (4)
[25]
OR

THE CRUCIBLE – ARTHUR MILLER
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual question).
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION
John Proctor may have found his ‘goodness’ in the end but he must take responsibility for the conflict and destruction in Salem.
In a carefully planned essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) in length, discuss to what extent you would agree with this statement.   [25]

OR
QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.

EXTRACT I

15.1 Comment on the stage direction in line 4: ‘holding back a full condemnation of her’.  (3)
15.2 Account for Mary Warren’s change in attitude towards her employers. (3)
15.3 Refer to lines 24–26 (‘and where she walks … in jail for bewitchin’): Comment on the appropriateness of the image used to describe Abigail’s character. (3)
15.4 Consider Elizabeth’s suggestion to Proctor that he should ‘tell them it is a fraud’ (line 29). How does this not have the intended outcome? (3)

AND

EXTRACT J

15.5 What is the dramatic impact of Hathorne’s utterance, ‘The sun is soon up’ (line 1)? (3)
15.6 Explain the irony in Hathorne’s excitement at Proctor’s willingness to confess. (3)
15.7 Refer to lines 18–19: ’Do as you will, do as you will!’
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you instruct the actress to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.  (3)
15.8 Refer to both Extracts I and J: How is Elizabeth’s character presented in each of these extracts?  (4)

[25]
TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL: 80

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30)
   SECTION B: Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language structures and conventions (30)
2. Read ALL the instructions carefully.
3. Answer ALL the questions.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
5. Rule off after each section.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
7. Leave a line after each answer.
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction.
9. Suggested time allocation:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 30 minutes
   SECTION C: 40 minutes
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING
Read TEXTS A and B and answer the questions in your own words as far as possible.
TEXT A

HOW AFRAID OF HUMAN CLONING SHOULD WE BE?

1. The creation of two monkeys brings the science of human cloning closer to reality. But that doesn’t mean it will happen.
2. The cloning of macaque monkeys in China makes human reproductive cloning more conceivable. At the same time, it confirms how difficult it would be to clone a random adult – Adolf Hitler, say – from a piece of his tissue. And it changes nothing in the debate about whether human cloning should ever be allowed to occur. 
3. Since the cloning of Dolly the sheep by scientists in Scotland in 1996, several other mammals have been cloned, including dogs, cats and pigs. But the same methods didn’t work so well for primates, like monkeys, and us. So this latest step is significant, because with a bit of modification, the technique used for Dolly created cloned, apparently healthy baby monkeys. The pair made this way by scientists at the Institute of Neuroscience in Shanghai have been christened Hua Hua and Zhong Zhong.
4. Crucially, the cute duo was cloned from the genetic material in the cells of a macaque foetus, not from an adult monkey. This material – the chromosomes, housed in the cell’s nucleus – was extracted from the donor cell and placed inside the egg from an adult monkey, from which its own nucleus had first been removed. The egg was then stimulated to grow into an embryo in a surrogate1 mother’s womb, to make the egg respond as if it had been fertilised.
5. The important additional step – not needed for Dolly and her kind – added some molecules to the egg before implantation. These molecules could activate genes involved in embryo development. Without the encouragement of the added molecules, these genes don’t seem to “awaken” in primates, and so the embryo can’t develop. But in adult cells, those genes can’t so easily be revived, which is what still prevents the successful cloning of adult monkeys. In contrast, Dolly was cloned from cells of an adult ewe.
6. The Chinese scientists want to clone monkeys to study the genetic factors behind Alzheimer’s disease. With a strain of genetically identical monkeys, they can deactivate individual genes thought to play a role in the disease and see what effect it has. Such biomedical use of primates is fraught with ethical issues – it is of course the very closeness of the relationship to humans that makes such research more informative but also more disturbing.
7. But the research also reopens the debate about human reproductive cloning. No one can yet know if cloning of a human foetus would work this way, but it seems entirely possible. Human cloning for reproduction is banned in many countries. A declaration by the UN in 2005 called on all states to prohibit it as “incompatible with human dignity and the protection of human life”. Right now this advice is respected on safety grounds alone. Hua Hua and Zhong Zhong were the only live births from six pregnancies, resulting from the implantation of 79 cloned embryos into 21 surrogates. Two baby macaques were in fact born from embryos cloned from adult cells, but both died – one from impaired body development, the other from respiratory failure.
8. My guess is that the success rate will improve – and that there will eventually be successful cloning from adult cells. That won’t avoid safety concerns for human cloning though, and it’s hard to see quite how the issue can ever be convincingly resolved short of actually trying it. That was how IVF2 began. Many people, including some eminent scientists, were convinced that it would lead to birth defects. But in the absence of a clear ethical framework, Robert Edwards and Patrick Steptoe were able to try it anyway in 1977. Their bold, even reckless move has now alleviated the pain of infertility for millions of people.
9. It’s not hard to think up invalid reasons for human cloning, of course – most obviously, the vanity of imagining that one is somehow creating a “copy” of oneself and thereby prolonging one’s life. That notion would not only be obnoxious, but also deluded. Which is not to say that it would prevent someone from giving it a go. The fantasist “human cloning company” Clonaid, run by the Raëlian cult, which falsely claimed to have created the first cloned child in 2002, stated in its publicity material that “a surprisingly large number” of the requests it had received “come from the Los Angeles/Hollywood area”.
10. Although human reproductive cloning would be foolish and lacking solid motivation, that doesn’t excuse some of the baseless reasons often advanced against it. Suggestions that a cloned child would be stigmatised and “unnatural” echo many of the earlier objections to IVF. The cloning debate reveals more about our prejudices towards reproductive technologies in general than it does about our ability to make wise decisions about biomedical advances. A good case was never made with bad arguments.

[Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com]

GLOSSARY:
¹surrogate: the practice whereby a substitute mother develops an implanted egg in her uterus.
²IVF – in vitro fertilisation: a process of fertilisation where an egg is combined with sperm outside the body (in vitro) and then implanted into the uterus where the embryo develops and grows.
AND

TEXT B

[Source: http://www1.lasalle.edu]

QUESTIONS: REFER TO TEXT A.
1.1 Provide a reason for the writer’s use of the pronoun, ‘we’ in the heading of the article. (2)
1.2 Quote the word in the first two lines which shows that the writer wants to allay the fears of the reader regarding the cloning of humans. (1)
1.3 Outline the paradox in the successful cloning of the two monkeys, Hua Hua and Zhong Zhong (paragraph 2, lines 3–5). (2)
1.4 Explain in your own words why the successful cloning of the two monkeys was ‘significant’ (line 11). (2)
1.5 List the three steps in the cloning process in your own words (paragraph 4). (3)
1.6 Refer to lines 11–12: ‘… the technique used for Dolly created cloned, apparently healthy baby monkeys.’ How does the use of the word, ‘apparently’ (line 12) affect your understanding of the statement? (2)
1.7 Refer to line 15: ‘Critically, the cute duo was cloned’. Explain the writer’s intention in calling these monkeys, ‘cute’ when taking into consideration the purpose for which they have been created. (2)
1.8 How would the validity of the genetic research be affected if Hua Hua and Zhong Zhong were not ‘genetically identical monkeys’ (line 29)? (2)
1.9 Do you think the UN is correct in stating that human cloning is ‘incompatible with human dignity and the protection of human life’ (line 38)? Motivate your
answer by referring to the text. (3)
1.10 Refer to lines 59–60: ‘“a surprisingly large number” of the requests it had received “come from the Los Angeles/Hollywood area”.’
Taking into consideration the writer’s opinion as expressed in paragraph 9, comment critically on his inclusion of the above claim made by Clonaid. (3)

QUESTIONS: REFER TO TEXT B.
1.11 Identify ONE visual clue in Frame 1 which suggests that the man with the beard reacts negatively to the first speaker’s words. (1)
1.12 What does the sentence in Frame 2 convey about the speaker’s attitude? (3)

QUESTION: REFER TO TEXT A AND TEXT B.
1.13 Refer to the writer’s opinion about the ‘prejudices’ (line 65) of humans in paragraph 10 of Text A, and the statements made by the first speaker in Frame 1 of Text B.
Do you think the writer of Text A agrees with the statements made in Text B? Motivate your answer by referring to both paragraph 10 of Text A and frame
1 of Text B. (4)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS
You have been asked to research the detrimental effects on children of watching violence on screens. You found the following article (TEXT C) during your research on the internet. Summarise the contents of Text C IN YOUR OWN WORDS.

1. Your article should include SEVEN points and NOT exceed 90 words.
2. You must write a fluent paragraph.
3. You are NOT required to include a title for the summary.
4. Indicate your word count at the end of your summary.

TEXT C
WATCHING VIOLENCE ON SCREENS MAKES CHILDREN MORE EMOTIONALLY DISTRESSED
Children today can access media through both traditional devices, like televisions, and portable devices like laptops and tablets. With more access, children are more likely to be exposed to violent content – in real-life or cartoons where force is being used and harm is being done to a person or character. Studies show that 37% of media aimed at children have physical or verbal violence. What’s more, 90% of movies, 68% of video games, 60% of TV shows, and 15% of music videos have some form of violence. In some cases, it’s rising.

Evidence shows that this can be detrimental to young children. Around the ages of three and four, children begin to develop perceptions and expectations about the world around them – views strongly influenced by their daily experiences. If children are often exposed to scenes of violence, they may develop a view of the world as a more dangerous place than it is.
Studies found that those exposed to violence become more antisocial and emotionally distressed in terms of sadness and a lack of enthusiasm. The results were similar for boys and girls: they lack remorse, lie, are manipulative and show insensitivity to the emotions of others.

Studies also reveal significant associations between exposure to violent media and classroom attention problems. Age-appropriate programmes – like Sesame Street for kindergarteners – which aim to help children understand words or ideas, are known to help them develop language and mental skills.
On the other hand, violent films and video games often feature attractive protagonists that engage in a disproportionate number of aggressive actions. Children exposed to this type of content can develop a deformed perception of violence and its actual frequency in real life. Eventually, this can give rise to the impression that the world is an overly dangerous place filled with ill-intentioned people. People that have such a worldview are more likely to interpret an ambiguous or accidental gesture as hostile or as a personal attack.

[Adapted from http://theconversation.com]

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS
QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING
Study the advertisement (TEXT D) below and answer the set questions.
TEXT D

[Source: Alamy Stock Photo]
The text in small font reads as follows:

TEXT E

[Source: Alamy Stock Photo]
The text in small font reads as follows:

QUESTIONS: REFER TO TEXT D.
3.1 Account for the use of the word, ‘Balance’. Refer to the literal and figurative meaning in the context of the advertisement.  (2)
3.2 Discuss the repetition of the pronouns, ‘we’ and ‘you’ in the advertisement. (2)

QUESTION: REFER TO TEXT E.
3.3 Comment on the appropriateness of the image in the context of the advertisement as a whole. (3)

QUESTION: REFER TO TEXT D AND TEXT E.
3.4 In your opinion, which advertisement would have a greater impact on the reader? Justify your choice by referring to both advertisements. (3)
[10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA
Study TEXT F and answer the set questions.
TEXT F: CARTOON

[Source: Cul de Sac cartoons]
QUESTIONS: REFER TO TEXT F.
4.1 Refer to FRAME 1.
How does the little girl feel? Motivate your answer by referring to ONE VERBAL clue. (2)
4.2 Refer to the cartoon as a whole.
Provide TWO VISUAL CLUES that indicate that the girl is travelling down the road. (2)
4.3 Account for the change in the pedestrian’s body language from FRAME 4 to FRAME 5. (3)
4.4 Comment on the cartoonist’s use of satire in FRAME 6. (3)
[10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY
Read TEXT G, which contains some deliberate errors, and answer the set questions.
TEXT G
WHO INVENTED LEGO® BLOCKS?

1. If you're like most kids, you probably love to play and build things with those colourful little blocks we all know as LEGO® blocks.
2. LEGO® blocks are just part of the overall line of construction toys made by the Lego Group, a company from Denmark. In adition to the colourful interlocking plastic blocks we're all familiar with, other LEGO® toys includes various other parts that allow kids to construct buildings, machines, vehicles and even robots.
3. The great thing about LEGO® toys is that they can be taken apart and reused constantly over and over again to make new creations. LEGO® toys have become popular all over the world!
4. The Lego Group got its start in the carpentry workshop of Ole Kirk Christiansen. He started making wooden toys in 1932. He began calling his company “Lego" in 1934, based upon the Danish phrase leg godt, which means “play well."
5. The Lego Group began making it’s famous plastic interlocking blocks in 1949. Over time the blocks became very popular as the company made it part of an overall system of toys that kids could use to build an unlimited variety of things.
6. The LEGO® block design still in use today was patented on January 28, 1958. Blocks from that year are still compatible with blocks made today. The Lego Group takes great pride in manufacturing precise pieces that fit firmly together, yet can be easily taken apart.
7. Since 1963, LEGO® blocks have been made from a special plastic called acrylonitrile butadiene styrene or ABS. Over the last 50 years, the Lego Group has produced over 400 billion LEGO® blocks. That's enough LEGO® blocks for every person in the world to have over 60 LEGO® blocks!
8. The popularity of LEGO® blocks has grown so much over the years that they were indicted into the National Toy Hall of Fame in 1998.

[Source: https://www.wonderopolis.org]

QUESTIONS: REFER TO TEXT G.
5.1 Identify a spelling mistake in paragraph 2 and rewrite the word correctly. (1)
5.2 Correct an error of concord in paragraph 2. (1)
5.3 Identify an error of redundancy in paragraph 3. (1)
5.4 ‘The Lego Group got its start in the carpentry workshop of Ole Kirk Christiansen.’ (line 11–12)
Rewrite this sentence in standard English by removing the colloquialism. (1)
5.5 Refer to line 13: ‘based upon the Danish phrase 'leg godt’.
Account for the use of italics in ‘leg godt’. (1)
5.6 Correct an error of punctuation in paragraph 5. (1)
5.7 Correct a pronoun error in paragraph 5. (1)
5.8 ‘The LEGO® block design still in use today was patented by the Lego Group on January 28, 1958.’ (line 19)
Rewrite this sentence in the active voice. (1)
5.9 ABS’ (line 24) is an example of …

1. an acronym.
2. an abbreviation.
3. an initialism.
4. a palindrome. (1)

5.10 Correct a malapropism in paragraph 8. (1) [10]

TOTAL SECTION C: 30
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
This marking guideline must be used in conjunction with the attached English FAL assessment rubrics for SECTIONS A, B and C.
NOTE: All pieces of writing should be read at least TWICE during assessment, once for content and once for language respectively. Errors have to be indicated in your second reading.

Marking Guidelines

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS:

• Candidates are required to write on ONE topic only.
• The ideas listed below the topics are only some ways in which the topics can be interpreted.
• Full credit must be given for the candidates’ own interpretation.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 50-mark grid to mark the essays. The texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content and planning (30 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (15 marks)
  • Structure (5 marks)

NOTE:

• Adhere to the length of 250–300 words as prescribed in the CAPS document. However, should the maximum word count be reached mid-sentence, read to the end of that sentence.
• No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties.

1.1 My pleasant/frightening experience
Narrative/Reflective/Descriptive

• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type.    [50]

1.2 And now this …
Descriptive/Narrative/Reflective

• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type. [50]

1.3 Changing your mindset
Reflective/Descriptive/Narrative

• If reflective, the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type. [50]

1.4 Choices
Reflective/Descriptive/Argumentative/Narrative

• If reflective, the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.
• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint for or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments to support his/her view. The conclusion should be a strong, clear and convincing statement of the writer’s opinion.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type. [50]

1.5 ‘I have decided to stick with love. Hate is too great a burden to bear.’
– Martin Luther King Jnr.
Discursive/Argumentative/Descriptive/Reflective/Narrative

• If discursive, the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and clearly analysed in the essay. The candidate may come to a particular conclusion at the end of the essay, which may include recommendations.
• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint for or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments to support his/her view. The conclusion should be a strong, clear and convincing statement of the writer’s opinion.
• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If reflective, the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type.    [50]

1.6 Toxic (poisonous) friendship
Reflective/Narrative/Descriptive

• If reflective, the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the candidate experienced.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.
• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear.

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay/any other essay type.     [50]

1.7 Interpretation of pictures
The candidate:

• must give the essay a suitable title
• may interpret the pictures in any way, relevant to the picture.
• may choose to write any type of essay, relevant to the picture.
• must link the interpretation to the picture.
• may write in any appropriate tense.

1.7.1 Picture: Railway track and discarded shoes
Narrative/Descriptive/Reflective/Argumentative/Discursive

• Literal interpretations: journey by rail, rail destination(s), abandoned shoes, giving up, abandonment, etc.
• Figurative interpretations: your life’s journey, destiny, dreams, the future, loneliness, depression, etc. [50]

1.7.2 Picture: Person with empty pocket and single coin in his/her hand
Narrative/Descriptive/Reflective/Argumentative/Discursive

• Literal interpretation: broke, unemployment, nothing to give, bankrupt, lean economic times, poverty, living below the breadline etc.
• Figurative interpretation: underpayment, economic opportunities, investment, poor economic conditions, savings, miserliness, entrepreneurship etc.

[50]
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT
QUESTION 2
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 30-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content, planning and format (18 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (12 marks)

NOTE:

• Adhere to the length of 120–150 words as prescribed in the CAPS document. However, should the maximum word count be reached mid-sentence, read to the end of that sentence.
• No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties.

2.1 FRIENDLY LETTER
Comfort and assurance to friend

• The following aspects of format must be included:
  • Address of sender
  • Date
  • Greeting/Salutation
  • Suitable ending
• The tone and register of the letter should be friendly and informal.
• Comforting a friend and giving assurance about change of situation.      [30]

2.2 OBITUARY
Obituary of an activist

• The tone must be formal
• The following aspects of format must be included:
  • Full name of the deceased
  • Date of birth
  • Date of death
  • Birthplace
  • Where the person was living at the time of death
  • Key survivors (e.g. parents, siblings) and their names
• The following information may be included:
  • Date, time and place of funeral
  • Biographical information
  • Cause of death
  • The obituary must pay tribute to the deceased.
• Mention must also be made of his/her contribution to the development of the community.        [30]

2.3 INTERVIEW
An interview between a candidate and the director of a company

• A brief context must be provided at the beginning of the interview.
• A dialogue format must be used.
• The dialogue must be between a candidate and director of a company.
• The tone must be formal.
• The questions must be probing and to the point.
• The names/title/designation of the speakers should be followed by colons.
• A new line should be used to indicate each new speaker.          [30]

2.4 NEWSPAPER ARTICLE
How teenagers can prevent teen-suicide and seek help

• The article must have a suitable heading.
• Paragraphs must be well developed and not too long.
• The style should be personal, addressing the reader.
• The language must be formal.
• The article should be stimulating to the reader. [30]

TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C: SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT
QUESTION 3
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS:

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 20-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content, planning and format (12 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (8 marks)

NOTE:

• Adhere to the length of 80–100 words as prescribed in the CAPS document. However, should the maximum word count be reached mid-sentence, read to the end of that sentence.
• No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties.

3.1 INVITATION CARD
Surprise function for retiring educator

• The following aspects of format must be included:
  • Date
  • Venue
  • Time
  • RSVP details
• The type of function should be clear.
• The name of the retiring educator must be included.
• Language must be appropriate to the context.
• Full sentences are not necessary.
  NOTE: No marks are awarded for drawings and illustrations. [20]

3.2 DIARY ENTRIES
Feelings BEFORE and AFTER undergoing medical tests

• There must be TWO diary entries with two different times / dates.
• The entries must express the candidates’ feelings before and after having undergone medical tests.
• The diary entries must be written in the first person.
• The language should be simple and informal.
• The tone must reflect suitable emotions. [20]

3.3 INSTRUCTIONS
Instructions to a domestic worker

• Instructions may either be in point or paragraph form.
• Complete sentences are not necessary.
• May be written in the imperative.
• Language should be instructional. [20]

TOTAL SECTION C: 20
GRAND TOTAL: 100

SECTION A: RUBRIC FOR ASSESSING ESSAY – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [50 MARKS]

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A).
• The marks from 0–50 have been divided into 5 major level descriptors.
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper and a lower level sub-category with the applicable mark range and descriptors.
• Structure is not affected by the upper level and lower level division.

SECTION B: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [30 MARKS]

SECTION C: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [20 MARKS]

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Candidates are required to answer questions from TWO sections.
2. These marking guidelines are merely a guide to assess learners’ responses.
3. Candidates' responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.
4. MARKING GUIDELINES
   4.1 A candidate may not answer more than ONE question on the same genre.
   4.2 If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next one is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next.
   4.3 If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guidelines.
   4.4 If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the meaning, mark correct.
   4.5 If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not penalise.
   4.6 For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/ motivation is what should be considered.
   4.7 No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: NOVEL
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ONE question on the novel they have studied.
QUESTION 1: CRY, THE BELOVED COUNTRY
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 1.1 and 1.2.
1.1
1.1.1 

1. B/rents a room out to Kumalo √
2. D/takes Kumalo to Msimangu √
3. A/the lawyer who defends Absalom √
4. C/John’s wife √ (4)

1.1.2 They are told by Dubula (the leader of the bus strike) that buses are boycotted. √ They therefore decide not to take the bus. √ / He persuades them not to take a bus in solidarity with the boycotters. √√ (2)
1.1.3

1. Metaphor √ (1)
2. Dubula has managed to convince them not to take a bus and may have done that to a number of people. He is very persuasive. √√ / Dubula, as a community leader, politely requests them to participate in a boycott of buses. He tells them why there is a boycott and so persuades them. √√ (2)

1.1.4 John is a great speaker who can address the crowds. √ Dubula is a very brave man; he is not afraid to act. John is all about talking, but Dubula is not afraid to act. √ (2)
1.1.5 He is determined/firm/resolute. √
Kumalo is on a mission to look for his son. √/ He does not want to allow anything to deter him from finding his son. √ (2)
1.1.6 Absalom has been in Johannesburg and alone for a long time before his father comes, yet his father thinks he should not be alone now that he has seen how Johannesburg is. √√ (2)
1.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Absalom leaves his home like other people from rural areas to find his aunt in Johannesburg.
• The city of Johannesburg is a place to which people from rural areas are drawn and they never return.
• It promises to naïve people like Absalom to be a city of gold / more opportunities.
• Poverty is rife in Johannesburg and for living poor black people resort to immoral behaviour.
• Absalom kills Arthur Jarvis in a robbery that goes wrong.

OR
No.

• Absalom is a self-made victim because of the choices he makes.
• He decides to stay in Johannesburg instead of going back to Ndotsheni and pursue his studies.
• He mixes with the wrong crowd (thieves/thugs).
• He is given a chance to a better life at the reformatory school but decides to go back to his wrong ways.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel. (3)
AND
1.2.1 The new pastor comes from outside the village/he is a stranger to the ways of life of the people of Ndotsheni and their experiences. √ Kumalo on the other hand knows all the villagers and is able to understand them. / Ndotsheni people are used to their old priest rather than the young man sent by the bishop. √ (2)
1.2.2 He feels ashamed of what Absalom has done and that to him indicates that he is not a good priest. √ /The welcoming affirms that they accept
him despite what has happened. √ (1)
1.2.3 Ndotsheni symbolises the moral and spiritual decay of the country – youth has left and only old people remain behind. √ There is a drought and their farming methods lead to the destruction of land. √ (2)
NOTE: Accept other relevant answers.
1.2.4

1. Despair/hopelessness √ (1)
2. Kumalo’s friend is concerned about the lack of rain and feels helpless. √ (1)

1.2.5 C/Great Spirit. √ (1)
1.2.6 The girl is Absalom’s wife. √ (1)
1.2.7 Kumalo felt that he could not leave her in Johannesburg carrying Absalom’s child. √ The girl is now Absalom’s wife / Kumalo will take care of her. √ (2)
1.2.8 The discussion of the theme of comfort in desolation should include the following points, among others:

• The love and care that the people of Ndotsheni show Kumalo when he comes back restores his confidence.
• It takes away his fear and he confesses the sins of his sister, brother and son.
• Kumalo’s faith in God’s love is shown when he seeks comfort in his suffering when his son is about to be hanged.
• He finds comfort in entrusting his dying son to God’s love and saving grace.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel. (3)
1.2.9 Open ended.
Accept any relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Absalom left Ndotsheni and his father did not know his whereabouts.
• Kumalo did not have an idea about Johannesburg and its predicaments.
• Only when he goes to Johannesburg and sees the situation there that he gets worried about his son and unfortunately it is at the time when he is found guilty of murdering Arthur Jarvis, James Jarvis’ son.
• James gets a better understanding of his son after his death.
• He gets closer to him from reading the collection of reading material in his house.
• Unlike Kumalo, there is little that Jarvis can do for his son. He can only show his love to his son’s family.
• Kumalo, on the other hand, has time to bond with his son and pray for him.
• Kumalo also shows his love by taking care of a girl pregnant with his son’s child.

OR
No.

• The Kumalos have been a close family which causes Absalom to go and look for his aunt in Johannesburg.
• At home his parents are saving money to take him to school.
• Absalom is still young when he goes to Johannesburg and the assumption is that he will come back.
• His parents are left wondering why he is not coming back and not writing.
• James Jarvis has been close to his son. Kumalo recalls seeing them together when Arthur was still young.
• Unfortunately for Jarvis, his son is murdered and he did not get the chance to get to understand him better as an adult.

NOTE: Do not award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well- substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the novel. (3)
TOTAL SECTION A: 35

QUESTION 2: STRANGE CASE OF DR JEKYLL AND MR HYDE
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 2.1 AND 2.2.
2.1
2.1.1

1. D/Dr Lanyon’s residence/consulting rooms √
2. E/a police officer √
3. B/a chemist √
4. A/Dr Jekyll’s footman √ (4)

2.1.2

1. At the back of Dr Jekyll’s laboratory rooms / house. √ (1)
2. Mr Utterson has made it his duty to search for Mr Hyde. √ He meets Mr Hyde here at night because this is when Mr Hyde normally goes out. √ (2)

2.1.3

1. D/withdraws from Utterson. √ (1)
2. Mr Hyde’s evil character is associated with a snake √ which makes the hissing sound as warning off people. √ (2)

2.1.4 They meet at night √ / nobody else is going to see them as Mr Hyde is hiding from other people. √ (1)
2.1.5

1. Polite / well-mannered / enquiring/ curious. √ (1)
2. Mr Utterson addresses Mr Hyde respectfully despite the fact that he does not trust him. /Mr Utterson is curious to know or see Hyde because he is suspicious of his friendship with Dr Jekyll. √ (1)

2.1.6 Tense √ – It is the first time they meet, they do not ‘know’ each other. / Mr Utterson is the last person that Mr Hyde would have wanted to see.
/ Mr Utterson has heard about Mr Hyde and what he sees is not likeable. √ (2)
2.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints among others:
Yes.

• Mr Utterson does not jump to conclusions without having enough information.
• He is not quick to judge Dr Jekyll.
• He is secretive / he does not divulge the information he has about Dr Jekyll, not even to his cousin Enfield.

No.

• He does not handle Jekyll’s case well because they are friends.
• He is concerned with Dr Jekyll’s reputation so that he does not act when he has vital information.
• He concludes that Dr Jekyll is blackmailed by Mr Hyde, instead of dealing with Mr Hyde.
• He does not go to the police when he knows about the relationship between Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the novel. (3)
AND
2.2.1

1. He believed in the dual nature of a human being thus created Hyde. √ Hyde made him feel younger/ for secret pleasures that he cannot enjoy as Dr Jekyll but does not want to dent his reputation. √ (2)
2. Dr Jekyll chooses to create Hyde whom he is able to control by taking the drug when he does not want him, but at the end he involuntarily becomes Hyde and does not want to be Hyde. √√ (2)

2.2.2

1. He stayed committed to his decision of not indulging himself with the pleasures of being Mr Hyde. √ (1)
2. Jekyll decides to stay true to himself because he can see the danger of changing involuntarily into Mr Hyde without taking the transformation draught. √ (1)

2.2.3 

1. Metaphor √ (1)
2. The temptation /Hyde having been repressed for a long time finally comes out very angry/ being inconsiderate/destructive. (2)

2.2.4 Dr Jekyll is kind / intelligent. √
Mr Hyde is evil / violent. √ (2)
2.2.5 The discussion of the theme of the importance of reputation should include the following points, among others:

• Dr Jekyll is determined to maintain a good reputation and appearance as expected of him as a Victorian physician.
• In order for him to satisfy his evil side, he must create Hyde.
• Whatever evil events Hyde is involved in should have no repercussions for Jekyll’s character.
• Dr Jekyll does not realise that Hyde would become uncontrollable and be detrimental to him.
• Dr Jekyll commits suicide rather than face a jail sentence for killing Sir Danvers Carew. (3)

NOTE:
For full marks, the response must be well substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel.
2.2.6 Open-ended.
Accept any relevant response which shows understanding of the story, among others:
Yes.

• Dr Jekyll clearly shows signs of being a drug addict: where he starts experimenting by drinking the transforming draught / willingly testing the drug.
• He enjoys the feeling he gets from the drug.
• He is in denial when confronted by Utterson about Hyde and he says that Hyde is not bad and he can easily get rid of Hyde when he chooses to do that.
• He attempts to quit when he involuntarily changes to Hyde but the need becomes a problem and therefore he goes back to taking the drug.
• Ultimately his self-destructive behaviour becomes so severe that it leads him to commit murder and eventually to take his life.

No.

• Dr Jekyll, as an intelligent scientist, wants to prove that man is dual in nature.
• He conducts an experiment to separate the two personalities.
• The temptation to discover this profound suggestion lies in the actual practice of consuming the transformation draught which turns him into Hyde.
• He could not stay being Hyde so he had to take it again to be Dr Jekyll.
• Dr Jekyll preferred to be himself to being Hyde.

NOTE: Do not award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the novel.   (3)
[35]
TOTAL SECTION A: 35

SECTION B: DRAMA
QUESTION 3: MACBETH
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ONE question on the drama they have studied.
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 3.1 and 3.2.
3.1
3.1.1 

1. B/Macduff’s castle √
2. C/Banquo’s son √
3. D/a sacred house where the kings’ predecessors are buried √
4. A/a traditional coronation site of Scottish kings √ (4)

3.1.2

1. Ross thinks that Banquo has not kept his promise of coming to the banquet. √ He thinks it is Banquo’s fault.√ (2)
2. Banquo is dead / has been murdered. √ (1)

3.1.3

1. The murder of Banquo. √ (1)
2. He fears that Banquo suspects that he killed Duncan. √ / He is jealous of Banquo because his heirs will be kings. √ / Possibly Banquo may take Macbeth’s lead and in turn kill his king/Macbeth to usurp the throne. √

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)
3.1.4 B/bloodstained hair. √ (1)
3.1.5

1. Scolding / angry / reprimanding √ (1)
2. Lady Macbeth is annoyed by Macbeth’s behaviour which is inappropriate. / She thinks that Macbeth may reveal secrets. √ (1)

3.1.6 He should open his eyes wide. √
He should point at what he is seeing. √ He should retreat from his chair. √
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above or any other relevant responses. (2)
3.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the drama, among others:
No.

• Macbeth is evil, he kills the king and further kills the king’s bodyguard whom he blames for the murder.
• He kills Banquo (his friend) because his sons will be kings.
• He kills Macduff’s family (wife and children) for revenge because Macduff joined the opposition.

OR
Yes.

• Macbeth does not want to kill the king even though he thought of the idea initially.
• He knows that he cannot kill Duncan, especially since he has been good to him. Instead, he is supposed to protect him as he did in the battle.
• His wife’s questioning of his manhood compels him to be a man and kill Duncan.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response should be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)
AND
3.2
3.2.1 

1. Metaphor √ (1)
2. The hour should be cursed because it brings terrible news. √ The news he has just heard does not bring him any joy; instead it leaves him confused. √ (2)

3.2.2 Macbeth believes in the witches, yet he says those who believe in the witches should suffer. √√ (2)
3.2.3 Macbeth means that he is thinking he should have acted fast √ and killed Macduff when he had time. √ (2)
3.2.4 Macduff cannot take Macbeth’s tyrannical rule anymore. √ He goes to support Malcolm in organising the army to fight against Macbeth. √ (2)
3.2.5 He is cruel / insensitive / violent. √
He arranges the murder of Lady Macduff / children. / He is determined to destroy Macduff’s family for revenge. √ (2)
3.2.6 The discussion of the theme of guilt and its consequences should include among others:

• Macbeth hallucinates about the dagger he is about to use in killing Duncan.
• He alludes to blood and his inability to sleep after the murder of the king. / Macbeth is haunted by nightmares.
• He sees Banquo’s ghost at the banquet leaving the lords puzzled.
• Lady Macbeth is later the one who sleepwalks and is tormented by a blood stain in her hand that cannot be washed off.
• She goes mad and kills herself.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.
A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)
3.2.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
No.

• Macduff has not done anything to Macbeth except not going to his court.
• Macbeth should have expected that other people will not take his way of ruling Scotland.
• Macbeth becomes a tyrant forcing people to do his bidding.
• Macduff goes to England because of his loyalty to Scotland.

OR
Yes.

• Macduff immediately mistrusts Macbeth for the killing of Duncan.
• He does not go to Macbeth’s coronation.
• He escapes to England to join Malcolm who is looking for help to overthrow Macbeth.
• Macduff is not at all loyal to Macbeth as a king.
• Macbeth fears Macduff owing to the witches’ prophecy.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)
[35]

QUESTION 4: MY CHILDREN! MY AFRICA!
4.1
4.1.1

1. C/Thami’s mother √
2. B/Mayor √
3. D/Learner at Camdeboo G.H. √
4. A/Choir Mistress √ (4)

4.1.2

1. Women and men are not the same physically and psychologically; there should be different educational syllabi. √ (1)
2. Mr M asks the audience to vote for the best speaker. √ Isabel gets the highest number of votes. √ (2)

4.1.3 The discussion is heated and each one strongly believes in what he/she is talking about. √ They have neglected the rules of the debate (giving each other a turn to talk). √ (2)
4.1.4 A/instinctive √ (1)
4.1.5 

1. Simile √ (1)
2. The debaters ignore the rules of the debate.√ Mr M equates their good debating skills without self-discipline to a donkey with a cart without harness.√ (2)

4.1.6 He is a disciplinarian/orderly/ authoritative/ respectful √
Mr M calls the learners to order when they are out of control. √ / He further reads the meaning of the debate in the book so that they can further understand what he is saying to them.√ /He addresses the debaters formally by calling them with their surnames. √ (2)
4.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Mr M believes that order and personal discipline are important when dealing with conflict.
• He refers to the power of words which he thinks can bring about change.
• Educating learners is the way Mr M believes he is fighting the apartheid system from within.

OR
No.

• Thami (youth) believes in violence for a quick solution.
• Thami thinks that education and debate take a long time and blacks will never achieve what they want/freedom.
• According to Thami education and debate have yielded no positive results / they are still oppressed.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.
A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)
AND
4.2
4.2.1 He wants the learners to trust him so that he can win them over into accepting Bantu Education. √
He is befriending them so that they can believe that they are getting better treatment./ He does not want to be seen as a policeman who enforces discipline. √ (2)
NOTE: Accept ANY relevant answer.
4.2.2 The arrival of the Huguenots refers to the history of white people which has nothing to do with Thami as he is black. √
Kliptown deals with the history of black people which Bantu Education supresses. √ (2)
4.2.3

1. Bitter / angry / frustrated √ (1)
2. He has come to the realisation that school is no longer what he thought it to be.√ /Bantu Education is only meant to make black people slaves to white people. √ (1)

4.2.4 He is the inspector of Bantu schools in the Cape. √ (1)
4.2.5 It is ironic that Thami says as comrades they are whispering to teach each other about the struggle, yet he rejects Mr M’s whispering methods of fighting apartheid. √√ (2)
4.2.6 He should shake his head. √
He should put up his hands / palms out. √ He should stand up and walk about. √
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above or any other relevant responses. (2)
4.2.7 The discussion of the theme of the meaning of a useful life should include the following points, among others:

• Mr M believes in the power of education to provide opportunities. / He organises a debate and literature quiz for Zolile High School learners and a white girls’ high school in town.
• From the literature quiz he hopes to get funding for Thami.
• Mr M is disturbed by the way human potential is going to waste as he sees the schoolchildren getting involved in violent protests.
• Isabel shares the same sentiments about the literature quiz. As a result, she is disappointed when Thami pulls out.
• Isabel knows exactly what she wants to do after matric – she is going to do be a writer, i.e. study journalism.
• At Wapadsberg she promises Mr M that she will lead a meaningful life as Mr M would have wanted her to.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama.(3)
4.2.8 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Bantu Education does not liberate non-white/ black people.
• Thami sees black people (chemist delivery man/ Isabel’s home maid) from his location mostly working for white people as slaves.
• Though they have work, they still go back to poor living conditions whilst whites have better opportunities and better living conditions.
• Bantu Education oppresses black people as the history of white people is the only history taught at Zolile High School / in black schools.
• Strict media censorship is implemented when it comes to black people’s history and movement.

No.

• Bantu Education is not completely wrong.
• Mr M uses Bantu Education to liberate young people’s minds like Thami.
• Thami is living proof of what Mr M did with Bantu Education teaching him words to be an eloquent speaker and an independent thinker.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama.  (3)
[35]
TOTAL SECTION B: 35

SECTION C: SHORT STORIES QUESTION 5
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions set on the TWO short stories they have studied i.e. QUESTIONS 5.1 and 5.2.

QUESTION 5.1: ‘A CHIP OF GLASS RUBY’ by Nadine Gordimer
5.1
5.1.1

1. E/an anti-governmental rebel √
2. A/a hawker √
3. D/works in a factory √
4. C/intelligent and outspoken √ (4)

5.1.2

1. D/tome √ (1)
2. It contains educational and political information that Mrs Bamjee thinks will be useful for her children. √ It is written by an Indian activist that Mrs Bamjee associates herself with. √ (2)

5.1.3 It is ironic that Mrs Bamjee as an Indian is arrested by Coloured policemen; yet they are victims of the apartheid system just like Indians and Blacks. √√ (2)
5.1.4 Mrs Bamjee is known to be a political activist, mostly helping Black people with their political activities. √ (1)
5.1.5

1. Despair/accusatory/self-pity √ (1)
2. Although his wife is arrested he is worried about himself and not the effect of the arrest to his kids or his wife. (1)
3. He is self-centred. √
   He does not like the fact that his wife is busy with activities that do not concern them as Indians. / Now that she has been arrested, he only thinks about himself and not any other person. √ (2)

5.1.6 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints among others:
Yes.

• Mrs Bamjee should have done what Mr Bamjee has been telling her not to involve herself in black people’s troubles.
• It is not her place because Indians do not have to carry passes like black people.
• Mrs Bamjee witnesses a lot of people getting arrested.
• Mrs Bamjee goes as far as printing illegal material for Blacks in her house – something which leads to her imprisonment.

No.

• Apartheid affects everyone who is non-white.
• Though Mr and Mrs Bamjee as Indians do not have to carry passes like Blacks, their living conditions attest to the fact that they are affected.
• As Indians they are affected by the Group Areas Act.
• They have fewer privileges compared to white people.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit response where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the story. (3)
AND
5.2
5.2.1

1. Simile √ (1)
2. The old woman is small and thin, so her fall does not make much of a sound. √√ (2)

5.2.2 The crowd’s in the same predicament as the old woman. They feel embarrassed that she would just say it publicly that she is hungry. √ It is humiliating to them. √ (2)
5.2.3 The narrator immediately asks for water for the old woman. √ She asks a small child to take the old woman to her house where she will prepare something for her to eat. √ (2)
5.2.4 The old woman does not hide the fact that she is hungry, she just says it the way it is. √ (1)
5.2.5 The family is poor. √ Water is the only thing that they have to offer the narrator. √ / They have saved her the trip to get herself some water. √ (2)
5.2.6 Old woman – outspoken / honest / grateful √ Young woman – patient / shy / respectful √
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)
5.2.7 The discussion of the theme of kindness and compassion should include the following points, among others:

• Africans are able to show kindness and compassion towards other people.
• The narrator takes care of the hungry old lady.
• Africans are able to understand the pain of a mother who loses a child by being with her until the pain is bearable.
• The old lady’s family repays the narrator’s act of kindness with the little that they have (water).

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the story. (3)
5.2.8 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Poverty leads to fear and anxiety which makes poor people not to be receptive to outside help – the village people find it humiliating that the old woman talks of her hunger like that.
• They find it difficult to leave the situation they are familiar with and look for greener pastures.
• They adapt to harsh conditions.
• They lack skills.

No.

• The young narrator is improving herself by learning English from a Geography book.
• Her cousin tells her that there is no end to the knowledge to be gained.
• She has not accepted her condition of poverty.
• She changed the method of thinking. / She cannot have too many babies that she will not know how to feed. / She has hope for the future and new good days.

NOTE: Do not award marks for YES or NO only. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the short story. (3)
[35]
TOTAL SECTION C: 35

SECTION D: POETRY
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions.

QUESTION 6.1: CAPTIVE by Francis Slater
6.1
6.1.1

1. B/a passionate expression of grief or sorrow √
2. C/a creature’s home or hiding place √
3. D/a prisoner or something in jail √
4. A/sentimental longing for a period in the past √ (4)

6.1.2

1. Simile √ (1)
2. The speaker feels trapped at the hospital because of fever. √ He is like a bird caught in a snare in need of freedom. √ (2)

6.1.3 C/Onomatopoeia √ (1)
6.1.4 The family gathers and recount the adventures and stories of what happened during the day over and over again. √√ (2)
6.1.5 Hunting in the veld. √
Knowledge of making snares with a cow’s hair. √ Girls and woman hoeing the mealies. √ Mentions herd boys using clay to make cows. √
NOTE: Accept ANY relevant responses. (2)
6.1.6 The discussion of the theme of the evils of migrant labour should include the following points, among others:

• The speaker, like other men, leaves his rural home because of economic conditions that force him to seek employment elsewhere or in the mines.
• Life there is brutal and the poor conditions they work in result in them contracting contagious diseases.
• They are on contract and cannot go home but are confined to the mines.
• When they are sick, they are confined to mine hospitals with no proper care.
• They are confined for fear of infecting other mine workers and it leads to loneliness and helplessness and sometimes death.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the poem. (3)
6.1.7
Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows the understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• The conditions of the hospital are not favourable.
• He is also lonely and isolated with no visits from fellow workers.
• There is no warmth everything is cold also because he is inactive and sick.
• The hospital is obviously unhygienic: there are flies that are the only source of entertainment to the sick miner.

OR
No.

• No the speaker would have missed home even if he was not in a compound hospital but in a hospital nearby his home.
• He is sick and has to be confined for full recovery.
• He is also confined so that he does not infect other workers.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the poem. (3)
AND

QUESTION 6.2: MID-TERM BREAK by Seamus Heaney
6.2
6.2.1 The knelling of the bell is associated with the sadness of being isolated from other learners. √ / The boy is thinking about death as the knelling bell is associated with death. √ (1)
6.2.2 The father has been able to cope with the pain that death brought previously but now it is difficult because it is his own child. √√ (2)
6.2.3 The baby is innocent and unaware of death or the events that are taking place √ but is happy to see his brother or other familiar faces around him. √ (2)
6.2.4

1. Sympathetic/sorrowful/woeful √ (1)
2. The speaker has been away at school when the incident happened; he has just come in and people in the house are trying to comfort him in his pain. √ (1)

6.2.5 The speaker has been away at boarding school. √ (1)
6.2.6 ‘stanched’ √ (1)
6.2.7

1. Simile √ (1)
2. The poet uses the word box for a coffin in which his young brother is now lying lifelessly. √ He compares it to a cot that he slept in when he was alive in his past years. √ (2)

6.2.8 Mid-term break is meant to refer to a school holiday associated with happiness, but now there is death in the family, hence the boy is at home midterm. √√ (2)
6.2.9 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• The pain is unbearable to the speaker’s father who has always been strong.
• He is now breaking down for the loss of his young child.
• The mother is too emotional; she cannot accept the loss of her child.
• The neighbours consider this death as a terrible loss.

OR
No.

• Children in the poem do not show sorrowful emotions.
• The child in the pram laughs happily from seeing people around her/him.
• The speaker is just observing other peoples’ reactions rather than expressing his own feelings.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the poem. (3)

[35]
TOTAL SECTION D: 35
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS

1. Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions.
2. This marking guideline serves as a guide to markers. Some responses may require a marker’s discretion.
3. Candidates’ responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.

MARKING THE COMPREHENSION

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the meaning/ understanding. (Errors must still be indicated.)
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined, disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise. However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an answer, this will be acceptable.
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence, mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first two/three.
• Accept dialectal variations.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

Marking Guidelines

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 Playing sport has many benefits. (1)
1.1.2 In the past high school sport was very limited, but today there is a variety of sporting codes to choose from. (2)
1.2

• Learners would sit around idly.
• They would watch television.
• They would play video games.

NOTE: Accept any ONE of the above answers. (1)
1.3
1.3.1 The writer wants to emphasise/highlight that only 14%/very few/a minority of the learners engage in dangerous/reckless behaviour. (2)
1.3.2 Learners who do not play sport have nothing exciting to look forward to at school, so they lose interest. (2)
1.4
1.4.1 It is the title of the journal. (1)
1.4.2 ‘… performed ten percent better …’
NOTE: Do not penalise if quotation marks and/or ellipsis are omitted. (1)
1.5
1.5.1 The writer means that many valuable life lessons are learnt outside of school, for example on the sports field. (1)
1.5.2 Learners who want to perform well at school should spend time doing schoolwork instead of with friends.

• By working hard, they will achieve better results.
• By not giving up, they will be successful.

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above answers. (2)
1.6 B/guide (1)
1.7 Learners form lasting friendships because they spend time together/share a common love for sport. (1)
1.8 Learners encourage the younger players.

• They set an example and provide advice/guidance. (2)

1.9 Planning/organising our activities to ensure that everything is done within a specific time. (1)
1.10 Studies are reliable and authentic because they have been conducted by professionals. (2)
1.11 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.

• Yes. Playing sport teaches you discipline, leadership skills and to be a team player. It makes your body stronger, is enjoyable and a good stress reliever. Furthermore, it can improve your life expectancy, your mood and your attitude.
  OR
• No. Sport can be dangerous and does not guarantee an improved life expectancy. Playing sport exposes you to lifelong injuries, poor self-esteem if you do not always do well and the pressure of always wanting to win can become intense.

NOTE: The above are merely examples. Do not award a mark for Yes or No. Accept other suitable responses. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer. (2)
1.12 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.

• The title is suitable because it is linked to the article which is about playing sport at high school. The passage focuses on the many advantages of playing sport and how it can benefit learners for life. Playing sport leads to personal growth and helps learners to cope with challenging situations.
  OR
• The title is not suitable because playing sport is neither the only thing that leads to personal growth nor does it guarantee to benefit every learner after school. Taking part in cultural activities and community projects plays a major role and has its advantages too.

NOTE: The above are merely examples. Do not award a mark for Yes or No. Accept other suitable responses. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer. (2)
1.13 ‘volunteers.’ (1)
1.14 Five (5) more provinces can be reached. (1)
1.15 The smile on the learner’s/boy’s face shows that he is excited about reading and being a part of this programme. He shows confidence and realises the importance of reading at a young age. Being a part of this programme will change his life. (2)
1.16 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.

• Yes. It is important because many children attend school but cannot read. Some children need individual attention which is not always possible in the classroom. This organisation provides assistance in smaller groups.
  OR
  No. South African children are avid readers and learn to read from a young age. Every child in our country has access to a school where teachers teach them to read. This programme only reaches a small group of learners so it cannot profess to be successful in reaching all children.
  NOTE: The above are merely examples. Do not award a mark for Yes or No. Accept other suitable responses. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer.  (2)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY QUESTION 2
The following points form the answer to the question.

MARKING THE SUMMARY
The summary should be marked as follows:

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
  • 3 marks for language
  • Total marks: 10
• Distribution of language marks when a candidate has not quoted verbatim:
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when a candidate has quoted verbatim:
  • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark
  • 1–5 quotes: award 1 language mark

NOTE:

• Format
  • Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be assessed.
• Word Count:
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used.
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of words used, or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly.
  • If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE

• One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect, unless the error changes the meaning of the word.
• In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is in the language structure being tested.
• Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly.
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as per instructions.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct.

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING AN ADVERTISEMENT
3.1 People who drive/Drivers (who consume alcohol) (1)
3.2 It shows that many people lose their lives in accidents because drivers are under the influence of alcohol/of drunken driving. (2)
3.3 C/The Department of Transport (1)
3.4 Alcohol affects your ability to see properly.

• Alcohol affects your ability to make rational decisions in dangerous situations.
• Alcohol affects your coordination.

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above answers. (2)
3.5 Too many people still drink and drive.

• We must reduce the number of deaths on our roads. (2)

3.6 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.

• Yes. It makes people aware/warns of the dangers of drinking and driving. If all our citizens are responsible, there will be fewer deaths on our roads.
  OR
  No. Not everyone will read or pay attention to this advertisement. Even though people are made aware of the dangers of drinking and driving, we still have many deaths on our roads.

NOTE: The above are merely examples. Do not award a mark for Yes or No. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer.    (2)         [10]

QUESTION 4:
ANALYSING A CARTOON
4.1 Mathematics (1)
4.2

• Calvin’s arms are raised.
• His hands are in fists.
• He covers his eyes.
• He bites on his teeth.
• His head is slightly tilted.

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above answers. (2)
4.3

• Calvin’s teacher is going to shout at him.
• He could be sent to the principal’s office.
• The principal could phone his parents.
• He could be sent to detention.
• He could be kept inside the classroom during break.

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above answers. (2)
4.4

• The teacher announces that she would collect their homework the following day.
• The bell rings. (2)

4.5 ‘sweat’ (1)
4.6 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.

• Yes. Calvin knows he should have done his homework. He is panic-stricken because he knows he is in trouble. In the end the teacher does not collect the homework, so Calvin’s anxiety was all in vain.
  OR
  No. Going to school without having done your homework is not a joke. Calvin is irresponsible and not serious about school.

NOTE: The above are merely examples. Do not award a mark for Yes or No. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer.   (2)      [10]

QUESTION 5: LANGUAGE AND EDITING SKILLS
5.1
5.1.1 

1. believe (1)
2. strongly (1)
3. pride (1)
4. country’s (1)

5.1.2 comfortable (1)
5.1.3 do they not/don’t they (1)
NOTE: Apostrophe must be used correctly.
5.1.4 Donors neither drop the shoes nor leave immediately. / Neither do donors drop the shoes nor (do they) leave immediately. (1)
5.1.5 souls (1)
NOTE: Spelling must be correct.
5.1.6 The children’s eyes will be lighting up when they receive their shoes. (1)
5.1.7 A donor does not ensure that every child’s shoe fits. (1)
5.1.8 The organisers said that shoes were vital to those children and it made them happy.
NOTE: Award ONE mark for each of the underlined changes and ONE mark for the omission of the comma, the quotation marks and the insertion of the final full stop as well as the correct use of capital and small letters throughout. (4)
5.1.9 They’ve (1)
NOTE: Apostrophe must be used correctly.
5.2
5.2.1 Those in need should be helped (by us). (1)
5.2.2

• you – pronoun
• of – preposition (2)

5.2.3 Giving an unwanted item to the needy should be a priority. (1)
5.2.4 most satisfying (1)

[20]
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 80