1 Physical and chemical change
1.1 Characteristics of physical and chemical change
1.1.1 Law of conservation of matter
1.1.2 Law of constant composition
1.2 Representing chemical change
1.3 Energy transfer in chemical change
2 Reactions in aqueous solution
2.1 Ions in aqueous solution
2.2 Electrolytes and ionisation
2.3 Precipitation reactions
Compound Solubility | |
All nitrates | All are soluble. |
Salts containing potassium, sodium or ammonium | All are soluble. |
Chlorides | All are soluble, except silver, lead and mercury chloride. |
Sulphates | All are soluble, except lead sulphate, barium sul- phate and calcium sulphate. |
Carbonates | All are insoluble, except those with potassium sodium or ammonium. |
Silver bromide and silver iodide are insoluble. |
2.2 Other chemical reaction types
3 Quantitative aspects of chemical change
3.1 Atomic mass and the mole concept
3.2 Molecular and formula masses
3.2.1 Relationship between moles, mass and molar mass
The number of moles = total mass of substances
relative atomic mass of one atom of the substance
OR
n = m / M where n = number of moles; m = the mass of a substance in grams and M is the atomic/formula mass.
3.2.2 Water of crystallisation
3.3 Determining the composition of substances
3.3.1 Percentage composition
3.3.2 Empirical formula
Example: The empirical formula is HO and the molecular mass is 34. The relative molecular mass of the empirical formula is (1 + 16). 34 ÷ 17 = 2.
Therefore HO × 2 = H2O2, which is the molecular formula.
3.3.3 Molar volume
3.3.4 Concentration
3.4 Basic stoichiometric calculations
Question 1: Multiple choice
Choose the correct answer. Write only the letter of the answer you select.
1.1 Which of the following statements about magnetic field lines is/are true?
1.2 Which one of the substances below will be attracted by a magnet?
1.3 A small, neutral, metal sphere becomes charged when it is brought into contact with a positively charged rod. In the process the sphere …
1.4 An insulated metal sphere carries a charge of –7 μC. An identical sphere carries a charge of –9 μC. The spheres are brought together to touch and are then sepa- rated. What is the charge on each sphere now?
1.5 Two identical metal spheres, X and Y, are mounted on insulating stands. Sphere X has a charge of +8 μC and sphere Y is neutral. The spheres are allowed to touch and are then separated. What is the charge on X?
1.6 An insulator can be attracted by a charged plastic ruler because …
1.7 The SI unit for current is …
1.8 You wish to connect a circuit to measure the current in a resistor and the potential difference across it. Which circuit below is connected correctly?(3)
1.9 A volt can be described as a …
1.10 A conductor carries a current of 2 A. What is the total charge that passes through the conductor in 4 minutes?
1.11 Three resistors each have a resistance of 6 Ω. Which of the following correctly gives their equivalent resistance when first connected in series, then in parallel?
1.12 Which pair of words, in order, correctly completes the following statements?
When the length of a resistor is increased, its resistance … When the thickness of a resistor is decreased, its resistance …
1.13 Three resistors, each of resistance 4 Ω, are to be used to make a 6 Ω combination. Which arrangement will achieve this?(3)
1.14 You are given this section of an electric circuit Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.15 In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between X and Y is …
1.16 The bulbs in this circuit are all identical. If the reading on ammeter A1 is 6 A, what is the reading on ammeter A2?
1.17 The resistance of a conductor does not depend on …
1.18 One of the bulbs in this circuit breaks and that causes all the other bulbs to go out as well. Which bulb broke?
Question 2: True/false
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. If the statement is false, write down the correct statement.
2.1 When a bar magnet is broken in half, one half is a north pole only and the other half is a south pole. (2)
2.2 The SI unit for resistance is the volt per coulomb, given the name ohm. (2)
2.3 In any series electrical circuit we will find the biggest potential difference across the resistor with the biggest resistance. (2)
2.4 The voltage across the terminals of a battery always decreases when the battery starts to deliver current to the circuit, due to the resistance of the battery. (2)
2.5 The total potential difference across three resistors connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the potential differences across each resistor. (2) 5 × 2 = [10]
Question 3: One-word answers
Provide one word or term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the word or term next to the question number.
3.1 A region where a magnetic substance will experience a force.
3.2 A substance that will not allow a flow of charge through it.
3.3 The voltage measured across the terminals of a battery when it is not providing current to a circuit.
3.4 The SI unit for charge.
3.5 The rate of flow of charge. 5 × 1 = [5]
Question 4: Matching pairs
Choose an item from column B that matches the description in column A. Write only the letter of your choice (A–J) next to the question number.
Column A | Column B |
4.1 axis on which Earth spins | A plastic |
4.2 charging by rubbing | B voltage dividers |
4.3 polarised molecules | C geographic N and S poles |
4.4 resistors in parallel | D ammeter |
4.5 measuring instrument that is con- nected in series | E induction |
F water | |
G current dividers | |
H magnetic N and S poles | |
I voltmeter | |
J tribo-electric |
5 × 2 = [10]
Question 5: Long questions
You are given a painted metal rod and a magnet. Explain how you could show whether the painted metal rod is …
5.1 non-magnetic (for instance, copper). (2)
5.2 magnetic, but not a magnet. (2)
5.3 a magnet. (2) 3 × 2 = [6]
Question 6: Long questions
6.1 Explain the difference between a magnetic field and a magnetic field line. (4)
6.2 What is meant by the ‘north pole’ of a magnet? (2)
6.3 You are given two identical magnets of equal strength. You place them with the north pole of one facing the south pole of the other, as shown.
6.3.1 Draw the magnets in the area of the dotted line box, then sketch the mag- netic field pattern in the area of the box. (4)
6.3.2 How would the pattern change if both magnets were much weaker? (2) [12]
Question 7: Long questions
7.1 Explain the difference between the geographic north pole and the magnetic north pole of the Earth. (4)
7.2 What is the angle between the lines drawn between the geographic N and S, and the magnetic N and S? (1) [5]
Question 8: Long questions
8.1 Name the three particles that make up an atom, and state the charge on each. (3)
8.2 Why are the names ‘positive’ and ‘negative’ used for the two types of charge? (3) [6]
Question 9: Long questions
Plastic carrier bags are made of polythene. A strip is cut from a carrier bag and rubbed with a cloth or by pulling it through your fingers. When it is then hung from a string as shown, the ends push apart. Explain why this happens. (4)
[4]
Question 10: Long questions
10.1 Explain why a water molecule is said to be ‘polarised’. Draw a labelled sketch of a water molecule to illustrate your answer. (4)
10.2 A plastic rod is charged positively by rubbing it with cloth. When it is brought near to a thin stream of water from a tap, the water is attracted to the rod.
10.2.1 Explain in terms of transfer of charge how the rod became positively charged. (2)
10.2.2 What name if given to the process of charging an object by rubbing? (1)
10.2.3 The charge on one electron is 1,6 × 10–19 C. If 3,6 × 106 electrons were trans- ferred in the rubbing process, calculate the charge on the rod. (4)
10.2.4 Explain why the water is attracted. (4) [15]
Question 11: Long questions
11.1 How would you measure the emf of a battery? Explain why this works. (2)
11.2 Why is the emf of a battery always slightly higher than the potential difference that it can provide to an electric circuit? (4) [6]
Question 12: Long questions
Study the circuit diagram and answer the questions below.
12.1 Is the resistance of a voltmeter very high or very low? Explain how this affects the measurement of voltage. (4)
12.2 When switch S is open, as shown, the reading on voltmeter V is 10 V. Switch S is then closed and the voltmeter reading drops to 9 V. Explain why. (5)
12.3 How much energy does the battery give to each coulomb of charge that it pushes out into the circuit? (1)
12.4 If the reading on voltmeter V1 is 4 volts, what is the reading on V2? (2)
12.5 How much energy is lost by each coulomb of charge as it passes through bulb A? (2)
12.6 Into what two forms of energy is it transformed in bulb A? (2) [16]
Question 13: Long questions
In the above circuits, the bulbs and cells are not all identical. The readings on some of the voltmeters are given. What are the readings on the other voltmeters V1 to V4? [8]
Question 14: Long questions
In the above circuits, the light bulbs are not all identical. The readings on some of the ammeters are given. What are the readings on the other ammeters A1 to A5? [10]
Question 15: Long questions
15.1 Define current. (2)
15.2 Name the instrument used to measure current. (1)
15.3 Does this instrument have a very high or a very low resistance? Give the reason for your answer. (3)
15.4 An electric light bulb carries a current of 0,25 A. Calculate the time taken for 30 C of charge to pass through the bulb. (4) [10]
Question 16: Long questions
16.1 State the four factors that determine the resistance of a resistor. (4)
16.2 Why are metals good conductors of electricity? (2)
16.3 Explain why a metal can get hot when carrying an electric current. (4) [10]
Question 17: Long questions
17.1 What name is given to a ‘volt per ampere’? (1)
17.2 When an electric heater is connected to the electricity mains of 240 volts, the cur- rent is 5 amperes.
17.2.1 How many volts are required to produce a current of one ampere in the bulb? (3)
17.2.2 What is the resistance of the bulb? (1) [5]
Question 18: Long questions
An electric circuit consists of a battery of four cells connected to two resistors and an ammeter all connected in series. The resistances are 6 Ω and R (representing an unknown resistance). The ammeter reads 1 A. The potential difference across the 6 Ω resistor is 6 V. A voltmeter connected across the battery reads 8 V.
18.1 Draw the circuit diagram, entering all the given information. (4)
18.2 What is the potential difference across R? Explain your answer. (3)
18.3 Is the resistance of R greater than or less than 4 Ω ? Explain your answer. (3)
18.4 What is the current in R? Give a reason for your answer. (2)
18.5 How much charge passes through the 6 Ω resistor in 1½ minutes? (4) [16]
Question 19: Long questions
Consider the circuit given in the diagram below.
19.1 Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination. (4)
19.2 What is the total resistance of the whole circuit? (2)
19.3 If the potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor is 9 V, what is the reading on voltmeter V? (2)
19.4 If the current in the 6 Ω resistor is 2 A, what is the reading on ammeter A? (2)
19.5 How much charge passes through the 3 Ω resistor in 20 s? (4) [14]
1.1 C
1.2 D
1.3 A
1.4 B
1.5 C
1.6 B
1.7 A
1.8 C
1.9 D
1.10 A
1.11 B
1.12 A
1.13 C
1.14 D
1.15 D
1.16 C
1.17 B
1.18 A 18 × 3 = [54]
2.1 False. When a bar magnet is broken in half, each half remains being a magnet, each with a north pole and a south pole.
2.2 False. The SI unit for resistance is the volt per ampere, given the name ohm.
2.3 True.
2.4 True.
2.5 False. The total potential difference across three resistors connected in series is equal to the sum of the potential differences across each resistor. 5 × 2 = [10]
3.1 magnetic field
3.2 insulator
3.3 emf
3.4 coulomb
3.5 current 5 × 1 = [5]
Question 4: Matching pairs
4.1 C
4.2 J
4.3 F
4.4 G
4.5 D 5 × 2 = [10]
Question 5: Long questions
5.1 Hold the magnet close to the painted metal rod. If there is no attraction, the painted rod is not magnetic.
5.2 If the painted rod is attracted by both poles of the magnet, the painted rod is magnetic, but not a magnet.
5.3 If the one end of the painted rod is attracted by the north pole of the magnet, while the other end of the rod is repelled by the north pole, then the painted rod is a magnet. 3 × 2 = [6]
Question 6: Long questions
6.1 A magnetic field is simply a region where a magnet or magnetic material will experience a force. Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines that are drawn to show the direction in which the north pole of a compass would point if placed at any point on the lines.
6.2 If the magnet is suspended so it can swing freely, the north pole of the magnet is the end that will point towards to north pole of the Earth under the action of the magnetic field of the Earth.
6.3.1
Shape of field
Direction of arrows
6.3.2 All field lines would be further apart. [12]
Question 7: Long questions
7.1 The geographic north pole is the northern point of the axis around which the Earth spins.
The magnetic north pole is the point towards which the north pole of a compass will point.
7.2 11,5° [5]
Question 8: Long questions
8.1
8.2 The charge on a proton equals that on an electron, but when a proton and an electron are brought together, the charge cancels to give a total charge of zero. This is the same as considering a proton to have a charge of +1 and an electron –1, so if added together equals zero. [6]
Question 9: Long questions
When the polythene strip is rubbed, electrons are transferred onto the strip making the whole strip negatively charged. When hung over the string, the two ends of the strip repel each other, as negative repels negative. [4]
Question 10: Long questions
10.1 The oxygen atom attracts electrons in the molecule more strongly than the hydrogen atoms. This makes the oxygen end of the molecule slightly negatively charged and the hydrogen end slightly positively charged.
10.2.1 Negatively charged electrons were rubbed of the rod onto the cloth. This left more protons than electrons on the rod, making the whole rod positively charged.
10.2.2 tribo-electric charging
10.2.3
10.2.4
Question 11: Long questions
11.1 Connect a voltmeter directly to the battery. Because the voltmeter has very high resistance, the current is effectively zero. The reading on the voltmeter is the emf.
11.2 The resistance of the circuit is much lower than that of the voltmeter, so the cur- rent in the battery is now large. The battery has resistance, so some of the energy provided to the charge by the battery is used up in the battery itself, leaving less available for the circuit. [6]
Question 12: Long questions
12.1 Very high. A voltmeter is connected in parallel across the resistor(s) where it measures potential difference. By having a very high resistance, very little cur- rent passes through the voltmeter.So the voltmeter does not affect the current in the circuit.
12.2 When the switch is open, current from the battery passes only through the voltmeter of very high resistance. This current is so small that it is effectively zero. So the emf is 10 V. When the switch is closed, the current through the battery is now the same as the current in the circuit and is much larger. Be- cause the battery has resistance, some of the energy supplied by the battery is transformed into heat inside the battery, so only 9 V is available for the external circuit.
12.3 9 J
12.4 5 V
12.5 4 J
12.6 heat and light [16]
Question 13: Long questions
V1 = 1 V
V2 = 6 V
V3 = 12 V
V4 = 12 V [8]
Question 14: Long questions
A1 = 2 A
A2 = 3 A
A3 = 5 A
A4 = 2 A
A4 = 1,5 A [10]
Question 15: Long questions
15.1 Current is the rate of flow of charge.
15.2 Ammeter
15.3 Very low resistance. An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit. It must have a very low resistance so that it does not affect the current in the circuit.
15.4 I = Q / Δt Δt = Q / I = 30 / 0,25 = 120 s [10]
Question 16: Long questions
16.1 type of material; length; thickness; temperature
16.2 Some of the electrons in a metal are held loosely by the nucleus, so they are free to move.
16.3 The battery sets up an electric field in the circuit. This forces all loose electrons in the circuit to move from the negative towards the positive terminal. The electrons collide with the atoms of the metal, causing them to vibrate faster and heat up. [10]
Question 17: Long questions
17.1 ohm
17.2.1 If a voltage of 240 volts produces a current of 5 amperes, 1 ampere will be produced by (240 ÷ 5) = 48 volts
17.2.2 48 Ω [5]
Question 18: Long questions
18.1 The 6 Ω resistor, resistor R and the ammeter can be connected in any order.
18.2 2 V The resistors in series are voltage dividers – they divide the voltage of the battery in proportion to the resistances of the resistors. The voltages across the two resistors together must add up to 8 V.
18.3 Less than 4 Ω. Voltage is divided in proportion to the resistance. R has the smaller proportion of the voltage, so must have the smaller resistance.
We can actually predict that the resistance of R is 2 Ω, because the ohm is defined as a volt per ampere. The current in R is 1 ampere and the potential difference across it is 2 volts, therefore 2 V A–1 = 2 Ω. We can calculate the resistance another way. The voltage of the battery is divided in proportion to the resistance. R takes ¼ of the voltage of the battery, so must have ¼ of the total resistance. If the 6 Ω resistor is ¾ of the total resistance, the other ¼ must be 2 Ω.
18.4 1 A. Current is the same at all points in a series circuit.
18.5 Time must be expressed in seconds. 1½ minutes = 90 s.
Q = I Δt = 1 × 90
= 90 C [16]
Question 19: Long questions
19.1
19.2
19.3 9 V (Must add up to the potential difference provided by the battery.)
19.4 1 A (Branched currents must add up to mainstream current.)
19.5
1 Magnetism
1.1 Magnetism
2 Electrostatics
2.1 Two kinds of charge
An electric field is a region in space in which an electric charge will experience a force. All charged objects are surrounded by electric fields.
2.2 Conservation and quantisation
2.2.1 Worked examples
Answers:
1.1
1.2
2. A glass rod is charged positively by rubbing it with a silk cloth. The charge on the rod is 1,12 × 10 –11C. Calculate the number of electrons that were rubbed off the glass rod.
Answer:
Q = nqe
n = Q / qe
= 1,12 × 10–11 / 1,6 × 10–19
= 7 × 107 electrons
3 Electric circuits
3.1 Potential difference
3.2 Current
3.2.1 Worked example
Calculate the total charge that passes through a light bulb in 2 minutes when the current is 4 amperes.
Answer:
Q = I × Δt (Δt must be expressed in seconds: 2 minutes = 120 s)
= 4 × 120
= 480 C
3.3 Resistance
3.1.1 Worked examples
Answers:
1.1
1.2 The two resistors divide the voltage of the battery. If one voltmeter reads 4 V, the other must read 2 V.
1.3 Current is the same at all points in a series circuit, so the ammeter reads 2 A.
2 In the circuit diagram below, what is:
2.1 the equivalent resistance of the two resistors in parallel?
2.2 the reading on ammeter A?
2.3 the reading on voltmeter V?
Answers:
2.1
2.2 Resistors in parallel divide the current. The mainstream current is 5 A, and the current in one branch is 3 A. So the ammeter A must read 2 A.
2.3 The voltage must be the same as the voltage across the 2 Ω resistor. So the voltmeter V reads 6 V.
Question 1: Multiple choice
Choose the correct answer. Write down only the letter of the answer you select.
1.1 What is the angle between the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave?
1.2 What is the period of a wave with a frequency of 5 Hz?
1.3 Two transverse pulses meet and cancel out through a process called:
1.4 In order to calculate the speed of a wave, which formula would you use?
1.5 The speed of a water wave is 4 m.s-1. If the frequency is 8 Hz, what is the wavelength?
1.6 A vibrating hacksaw blade completes 40 oscillations (complete vibrations) in 5 s. What is its period?
1.7 The speed at which water molecules are moving in a wave in a ripple tank:
1.8 Sound travels fastest through a:
1.9 The sketch shows a rope with two pulses of equal amplitude approaching each other. When the two pulses pass through point X, what is the maximum ampli- tude of the pulse?
1.10 Which diagram below has both the wavelength () and the amplitude (A) la- belled correctly?
1.11 Sound is:
Which of the above statements about sound is/are correct?
1.12 The wavelength of a particular form of electromagnetic radiation in a vacuum is 10–12 m. The wavelength of a form of electromagnetic radiation of twice the frequency is:
1.13 The energy of a photon of electromagnetic energy can be calculated using the equation:
Question 2: True/false
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. If the statement is false, write down the correct statement.
2.1 In a longitudinal wave, each particle in the medium is travelling fastest as it passes through the rest position. (2)
2.2 In a transverse wave, a pulse length is equal to a wavelength. (2)
2.3 Wavelength is the maximum displacement from the position of rest. (2)
2.4 An increase in frequency of a sound wave and a simultaneous increase in amplitude will cause a note that is louder and has a lower pitch. (2)
2.5 The energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the wavelength of the radiation. (2) [10]
Question 3: One-word answers
Provide one word or term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the word or term next to the question number.
3.1 The colour of visible light that has the shortest wavelength, highest frequency and greatest energy. (1)
3.2 A region in a longitudinal wave where the particles of the medium have been pulled far apart. (1)
3.3 The type of electromagnetic radiation that is responsible for us feeling the heat from the sun. (1)
3.4 The distance between two consecutive points in a longitudinal wave that are in phase. (1)
3.5 A quantum of visible light. (1) [5]
Question 4: Matching pairs
Choose an item from column B that matches the description in column A. Write only the letter of your choice (A–J) next to the question number.
Column A | Column B |
4.1 released during nuclear reactions | A S |
4.2 a unit for frequency | B electric field |
4.3 a charged particle experiences a force | C gamma rays |
4.4 distance moved per second | D speed |
4.5 a quantum of visible light | E s–1 |
F photon | |
G magnetic field | |
H microwaves | |
I proton | |
J frequency |
[5]
Question 5: Long questions
The sketch below shows a pendulum consisting of a weight attached to the end of a length of string. The pendulum was set in motion by pulling the weight to position A and releasing it.
Explain the meaning of each of the following terms, making use of the positions shown in the sketch where appropriate.
5.1 one oscillation (or complete vibration) (2)
5.2 the rest position (or equilibrium position) (2)
5.3 frequency (2)
5.4 amplitude (2)
5.5 period (2) 5 × 2 = [10]
Question 6: Long questions
The sketch below shows a transverse wave in a medium.
Use the letters supplied in the sketch to indicate the following:
6.1 the rest position (position of equilibrium) (2)
6.2 two points that are in phase (2)
6.3 a crest 2)
6.4 amplitude (2)
6.5 two points completely out of phase (2)
6.6 wavelength (2) 6 × 2 = [12]
Question 7: Long questions
Refer again to the illustration in question 6. Ten wavelengths pass point B in 2 seconds. The distance between points B and F is 300 mm. Calculate (in SI units):
7.1 the frequency (2)
7.2 the period (3)
7.3 the speed of the waves. (4) [9]
Question 8: Long questions
Each particle in the wave shown above completes one vibration (oscillation) in 0,4 s.
8.1 How long will it take eight wavelengths to pass a specific point in the medium? (2)
8.2 What is the amplitude of this wave? (2)
8.3 What is the period of this wave? (2)
8.4 What is the wavelength of this wave? (2)
8.5 Calculate the frequency of the wave. (3)
8.6 Calculate the speed of the wave. (4) [15]
Question 9: Long questions
Two beads are attached to the vibrator of a ripple tank and are positioned so that they dip into the water, as shown in the photo above. The resultant pattern is shown in the second photograph.
9.1 What is the phenomenon in the tank called? (2)
9.2 What do the fan-shaped lines in the second photo represent? (2)
9.3 How are these lines formed? (2) [6]
Question 10: Long questions
10.1 What type of wave is a sound wave that reaches your ear? (2)
10.2 Explain briefly how you would use a slinky spring to demonstrate this type of wave to a friend. (4)
10.3 What is meant by the ‘wavelength’ of this type of wave? (2) [8]
Question 11: Long questions
A typical sound wave associated with human speech has a frequency of 500 Hz, while the frequency of yellow light is about 5 × 1014 Hz. Assuming that sound travels at 340 m.s-1 and light at 3 × 108 m.s–1:
11.1 Calculate the wavelength of the sound wave. (4)
11.2 Calculate the wavelength of yellow light. (3)
11.3 Express the wavelength of yellow light in nanometres. (1) [8]
Question 12: Long questions
2.1 Describe an experiment or demonstration that shows that sound cannot travel in a vacuum. (5)
12.2 Why is the moon sometimes referred to as ‘the silent planet’? (2)
12.3 The speed of sound in air is 340 m.s–1. Calculate the wavelength of the sound produced by a tuning fork of frequency 156 Hz. (4)
12.4 Calculate the period of this sound wave. (3)
12.5 What is the sound called that has a frequency higher than the human ear can hear? (1)
12.6 Describe one use for this type of high-frequency sound wave. (2) [17]
Question 13: Long questions
Vibrations of frequency 2,0 Hz are produced by a generator attached to a spring. These vibrations are at 90° to the spring. The waves that it produces have a wavelength of 0,45 m.
13.1 What type of wave is passing along the spring? (1)
13.2 How many complete wavelengths pass a point in the spring in 3 seconds? (2)
13.3 What is the speed of the waves along the spring? (4)
13.4 Calculate the time taken for three complete wavelengths to pass a point in the spring. (5)
13.5 What is the wavelength of the waves along the spring if their frequency is in- creased to 6,0 Hz, without changing the tension (stretch) of the spring? (4) [16]
Question 14: Long questions
Sunlight is a form of electromagnetic radiation.
14.1 What is an ‘electromagnetic wave’? (3)
14.2 What causes electromagnetic waves? (2)
14.3 What is the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum? (1)
14.4 Assume that the sun is 1,5 × 108 km from the Earth. Calculate the time taken for sunlight to travel to the Earth. (5) [11]
Question 15: Long questions
A gamma ray has a period of 2 × 10–24 s.
15.1 What is a gamma ray? (2)
15.2 Why is it dangerous for humans to be exposed to gamma rays? (2)
15.3 What is the frequency of this gamma ray? (3)
15.4 Calculate the wavelength of the gamma ray in metres. (4) [11]
Question 16: Long questions
16.1 What types of radiation are A and B? (2)
16.2 Which type of radiation can cause tanning of the skin? Give another use for this type of radiation. (4)
16.3 Which type of radiation next to A in the spectrum has a longer wavelength than A? Give one use for this type of radiation. (3) [9]
Question 17: Long questions
Max Planck proposed that there is a relationship between the energy of a quantum of electromagnetic radiation and the frequency of the wave.
17.1 What is meant by a ‘quantum’ of electromagnetic radiation? (2)
17.2 What is a quantum of visible light called? (2)
17.3 What is the relationship between E and f as proposed by Max Planck? (2)
17.4 If we were to draw a graph of the energy of a quantum vs. the frequency of the quantum, what would the shape of the graph be? (2) [8]
Question 18: Long questions
Calculate the energy content of a quantum of each of the following types of electromagnetic radiation:
18.1 a radio wave of frequency 600 kHz (4)
18.2 a green light wave of wavelength 500 nm in air (5)
18.3 an X-ray of wavelength 12 pm in air (5) [14]
Question 19: Long questions
In a totally dark room, the human eye is only able to detect a flash of red light if the flash consists of at least 50 photons and if the flash is directed straight into the eye. Red light has a wavelength of 450 nm. Calculate the total minimum energy of a flash of red light that can be detected by the human eye. [7]
1.1 B
1.2 A
1.3 C
1.4 C
1.5 D
1.6 B
1.7 D
1.8 A
1.9 C
1.10 C
1.11 D
1.12 C
1.13 A
2.1 True
2.2 False. In a transverse wave, a pulse length is half as long as a wavelength. OR In a transverse wave, a wavelength is twice as long as a pulse length.
2.3 False. Amplitude is the maximum displacement from the position of rest. OR Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points that are in phase.
2.4 False. An increase in frequency of a sound wave and a simultaneous increase in amplitude will cause a note that is louder and has a higher pitch.
2.5 False. The energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the frequency of the radiation.
3.1 violet
3.2 rarefaction
3.3 infrared
3.4 wavelength
3.5 photon
Question 4: Matching pairs
4.1 C
4.2 E
4.3 B
4.4 D
4 5 F
Question 5: Long questions
5.1 movement from B to C to B to A and back to B
5.2 position B
5.3 number of oscillations per second
5.4 horizontal distance from B to A (or B to C)
5.5 time taken for one oscillation
Question 6: Long questions
6.1 line through points AHCEG
6.2 A and E (or B and F) (or C and G)
6.3 B (or F)
6.4 distance BH
6.5 A and C (or B and D) (or C and E) (or D and F) (or E and G)
6.6 straight-line distance AE (or BF) (or CG)
Question 7: Long questions
7.1
7.2
7.3
Question 8: Long questions
8.1 One oscillation of a particle produces one wavelength. So one wavelength passes a point in 0,4 s. Eight wavelengths pass in
8.2 Amplitude is distance from rest position to crest = 12,5 mm = 0,0125 m.
8.3 0,4 s
8.4
8.5
8.6
Question 9: Long questions
9.1 constructive and destructive interference
9.2 flat water (or areas of destructive interference)
9.3 These are areas where crests and troughs meet, and cancel out to produce flat water.
Question 10: Long questions
10.1 longitudinal wave
10.2 Fix one end of the spring or have the friend hold it still. Stretch the spring. Hold the other end of the spring and push it forward and backwards rapidly and continuously along the straight line of the spring.
10.3 It is the distance between two consecutive crests (or two consecutive troughs or two consecutive points that are in phase).
Question 11: Long questions
11.1
11.2
Question 12: Long questions
12.1 For the demonstration you will need an electric bell or buzzer with a switch, a suitable power supply, and a glass jar that can be connected to a vacuum pump that is able to pump the air out of the jar to produce a near vacuum. Connect the bell or buzzer to the power supply. Place it in the jar and switch on. You will hear the bell ringing loudly. Switch on the vacuum pump to extract air. The sound gets fainter and fainter. In a total vacuum, the sound would be inaudible.
12.2 The moon does not have an atmosphere, so no sound can be heard on the moon.
12.3
12.4
12.5 Ultrasound
12.6 Used in medicine to observe internal organs such as a baby in the womb. OR Used in industry to detect cracks in metals.
Question 13: Long questions
13.1 Transverse wave
13.2 f = 2 Hz, so two wavelengths pass a point in one second. Therefore, in three seconds, six wavelengths pass a point.
13.3
13.4
One wavelength passes in 0,5 s, so three wavelengths pass in 1,5 s.
13.5 If the tension of the spring does not change, speed of the wave is constant. Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other. So, if frequency is made three times larger, wavelength must be made three times smaller. So the wavelength is 0,15 m.
OR
Question 14: Long questions
14.1 A changing electric field produces a changing magnetic field, which in turn produces a changing electric field. An electromagnetic wave is a transverse wave consisting of electric and magnetic fields at 90° to each other. The crests and troughs represent points where the electric or magnetic fields are strongest.
14.2 Accelerating charges produce electromagnetic pulses. A continuous electromagnetic wave is produced by vibrating charges, as in alternating current.
14.3 3 × 108 m.s–1
14.4
Question 15: Long questions
15.1 Gamma rays are very high-frequency and high-energy electromagnetic radiation emitted by radioactive material.
15.2 They can destroy human tissue and cause cancer.
15.3
15.4
Question 16: Long questions
16.1
16.2
16.3
Question 17: Long questions
17.1 ‘Quantum’ means a discreet amount or ‘package’. So, the radiation is not in con- tinuous waves, but small packages of energy, each made up of electromagnetic waves.
17.2 photon
17.3 E is directly proportional to f. This means that if f is doubled, E is doubled.
17.4 a straight line through the origin
Question 18: Long questions
18.1
Question 19: Long questions
First calculate the energy of one photon of red light. 450 nm = 450 × 10–9 m
1 Transverse pulses and waves
1.1 Properties of transverse pulses and waves
1.2 Wavelength, frequency, amplitude, period, wave speed
Distance A is the amplitude of the wave. Each point in the medium simply vibrates up and down. Point B must be moving down for the wave to be moving to the right. Point B and F and points C and G are in phase. Points B and D and points C and E are completely out of phase. Distance CG and distance BF are equal and are the wavelength.
1.2.1 Worked example
A transverse wave is set up in a slinky spring lying on a long table. The wavelength is 540 mm. One wavelength passes a mark on the table every 0,8 s.
Calculate:
Answers:
1.3 Superposition of pulses
2 Longitudinal waves and sound
2.1 Longitudinal pulses and waves
2.2 Sound waves
2.3 Pitch and loudness
3 Electromagnetic radiation
3.1 Wave nature and spectrum
3.2 The wave and particle nature
3.2.1 Worked Examples
Answers:
Question 1: Multiple choice
Choose the correct answer. Only write the letter of the answer you select.
1.1 Where are metals found on the periodic table?
1.2 What is the name given to the group VII elements?
1.3 What change to a neutral atom will result in the formation of a negative ion?
1.4 Which statement about the numbers of particles in atoms is correct? Apart from hydrogen, most atoms contain:
1.5 Metal atoms form:
1.6 Which are the correct formulae for sodium chloride and calcium carbonate?
1.7 Which of the elements below has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p4?
1.8 Which of the following terms describes the change in state that occurs when a liquid changes into a solid?
1.9 Copper has two isotopes; 69,1% of copper isotopes have a mass of 63 and 30,9% have a mass of 65. What is the average mass of a copper atom?
1.10 In which of the following compounds are electrons shared between atoms?
1.11 Which compound contains two double bonds in which electrons have been shared?
1.12 In the molecules CH4, HBr and H2O, which atoms use all of their outer shell electrons in bonding?
1.13 The following statement is about chemical bonding. Covalent bonds are formed by the … of electrons. Covalent bonds occur between ... Which combination of words completes the statement? (3)
A | transfer | two non-metals |
B | transfer | a non-metal and a metal |
C | sharing | two metals |
D | sharing | two non-metals |
1.14 Which of the elements below is most likely to form a positive ion?
1.15 Which substance when combined with oxygen will form a covalent bond?
Question 2: Matching pairs
Choose an item from column B that matches the description in column A. Write only the letter of your choice (A–J) next to the question number.
Column A | Column B |
2.1 formation of positive ions | A – the number of protons and neutrons added together |
2.2 mass number | B – loss of electrons |
2.3 group VIII elements | C – when a substance changes from a liquid to a solid state |
2.4 chromatography | D – the number of protons and electrons added together |
2.5 condensation | E – halogens |
F – gain of electrons | |
G – separation of mixtures of pigments/colours | |
H – when a substance changes from a gas to a liquid state | |
I – separation of a solid from a liquid | |
J – noble gases |
[5]
Question 3: True/false
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false. If the statement is false, write down the correct statement.
3.1 Isotopes are elements with the same number of protons, but different numbers of electrons. (2)
3.2 Isotopes contain the same number of electrons in their outermost energy shell. (2)
3.3 Sodium has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s1. (2)
3.4 Calcium and magnesium both form anions with a charge of +2. (2)
3.5 A mixture can be separated into its component substances by physical means. (2) [10]
Question 4: One-word answers
Provide one word or term for each of the descriptions. Write only the word or term next to the question number.
4.1 The movement of particles from a region where there are many to a region where there are fewer. (1)
4.2 The basic building block of matter. (1)
4.3 The electrons found in the outermost energy shell. (1)
4.4 A mixture in which the different substances that make up that mixture can be seen. (1)
4.5 The type of chemical bonding that occurs when electrons are transferred from one atom to another. (1) [5]
Question 5: Long questions
Mixtures can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
5.1 What is the difference between a homogeneous mixture and a heterogeneous mixture? (2)
5.2 Give one example of each. (2)
5.3 How do mixtures differ from compounds? (2)
5.4 Which of the following substance is pure?
Question 6: Long questions
The following are the melting points of the metals in group II on the periodic table:
6.1 What is the general trend in melting points as you go down the group? (1)
6.2 One metal does not fit this trend. Which one is it? (1)
6.3 Does this information support the idea that beryllium atoms are held together more strongly than barium atoms? (1)
6.4 Explain your answer to question 6.3. (2) [5]
Question 7: Long questions
Use the table below to answer the questions that follow.
Substance | Melting point (°C) | Boiling point (°C) |
lead | 317 | 174 |
radon | –71 | –62 |
ethanol | –117 | 78 |
cobalt | 1492 | 2900 |
nitrogen | –210 | –196 |
propane | –188 | –42 |
ethanoic acid | 16 | 118 |
7.1 Define the boiling point of a substance. (2)
7.2 Which two substances are gaseous at –50 °C? (2)
7.3 Which substance is a liquid at 2500 °C? (1)
7.4 Is nitrogen a liquid, solid or gas at 35 °C? (1) [6]
Question 8: Long questions
The table below shows information about two isotopes of chlorine.
Atom | Number of protons | Number of electrons | Number of neutrons |
Chlorine-35 | A | 17 | 18 |
Chlorine-37 | 17 | B | C |
8.1 Replace the letters with the correct numbers to complete the table. (3)
8.2 Define isotopes. (2)
8.3 Draw an Aufbau diagram of a chlorine atom. (2)
8.4 A chlorine ion has a charge of –1. Write down the electron configuration for a chlorine ion. (1) [8]
Question 9: Long questions
The diagram below shows the electron configuration of four different elements.
9.1 Which element has an atomic number of 3? (1)
9.2 Which atom has the electron configuration 1s22s2 2p63s2? (1)
9.3 Which element is nitrogen? (1) [3]
Question 10: Long questions
The structure of a typical ionic compound is a regular arrangement of positive and negative ions.
10.1 What is the name of this regular arrangement of particles? (1)
10.2 Name an ionic substance. (1)
10.3 Ions are formed by electron loss or gain.
10.3.1 Give the formula of the magnesium ion. (1)
10.3.2 Give the formula of the oxide (oxygen) ion. (1)
10.3.3 Why are these two ions attracted to each other? (1)
10.3.4 Draw a Lewis diagram to show the bonding that takes place between a magnesium and oxygen atom. (3) [8]
Question 11: Long questions
The table below describes the number of protons, neutrons and electrons found in three different substances: A, B and C.
Particle | Number of protons | Number of electrons | Number of neutrons |
A | 15 | 15 | 16 |
B | 15 | 18 | 16 |
C | 15 | 15 | 17 |
Use the information in the table to explain why the following statements are true.
11.1 Particle A is a neutral atom. (1)
11.2 They are all particles of the same element. (1)
11.3 Particle B is a negative ion. (1)
11.4 Particles A and C are isotopes. (2)
11.5 What is the charge on particle B? (1)
11.6 Is particle B a metal or a non-metal? Give a reason for your answer. (2) [8]
Question 1: Multiple choice
1.1 C
1.2 C
1.3 A
1.4 B
1.5 D
1.6 A
1.7 C
1.8 C
1.9 D
1.10 B
1.11 B
1.12 B
1.13 D
1.14 A
1.15 C [45]
Question 2: Matching Pairs
2.1 B
2.2 A
2.3 J
2.4 G
2.5 H [5]
Question 3: True/False
3.1 False – Isotopes have the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons.
3.2 True
3.3 True
3.4 False – Sodium and calcium both form cations with a charge of +2.
3.5 True [10]
Question 4: One-word answers
4.1 diffusion
4.2 atom
4.3 valence electrons
4.4 heterogeneous
4.5 ionic [5]
Question 5: Long questions
5.1 In a homogeneous mixture, the substances that make up the mixture are not visible as separate substances whereas in a heterogeneous mixture they are.
5.2 Homogeneous – sea water, fruit juice, tea, coffee, steel (any correct one)
Heterogeneous – granite, nuts and raisins, smoke, oil and water, box of biscuits (any correct one)
5.3 In mixtures, the substances that make up that mixture can be in variable proportions. In compounds, the elements combine in fixed ratios. Mixtures can be separated by physical means, while compounds can only be separated by chemical means.
5.4 Only sugar is a compound. The rest are mixtures. [7]
Question 6: Long questions
6.1 melting points decrease
6.2 magnesium
6.3 yes
6.4 because the melting point of beryllium is much higher, so more energy is needed to melt it [5]
Question 7: Long questions
7.1 The boiling point of a substance is the temperature at which that substance changes from a liquid into a gas.
7.2 radon and nitrogen
7.3 cobalt
7.4 gas [6]
Question 8: Long questions
8.1 A 17
B 17
C 20
8.2 Elements with the same atomic number, but different mass numbers.
8.3
Question 9: Long questions
9.1 element 1
9.2 element 3
9.3 element 2 [3]
Question 10: Long questions
10.1 crystal lattice
10.2 Any metal atom combined with a non-metal atom.
10.3 10.3.1 Mg+2
10.3.2 O–2
10.3.3 The electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.
10.3.4
Question 11: Long questions
11.1 It has the same number of protons as electrons.
11.2 They all have the same number of protons.
11.3 It has more electrons than protons.
11.4 They have the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons.
11.5 –3
11.6 It is a non-metal, as it has formed a negative ion. [8]
1 Revision of matter (Grade 9)
1.1 Matter and classification
2 States of matter and the kinetic molecular theory
3 The atom – the basic building block of matter
3.1 The models of the atom
Matter is any substance that has a mass and occupies a volume. A number of models have been developed by different scientists explaining the structure of these atoms. Some of these models are described below:
3.2 The structure of the atom
The atom consists of a central nucleus containing positively charged protons and neutral neutrons. Together these are known as nucleons.
Surrounding the nucleus is a number of energy shells containing negatively charged electrons.
The number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic number (Z). In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
The number of protons and neutrons (added together) in the nucleus is called the mass number (A).
A = Z + N
Mass number Atomic number Number of neutrons
3.3 Isotopes
3.4 Electron configuration
THE S-ORBITAL is spherical (ball-shaped).
EACH ENERGY shell has only one s-orbital.
P-ORBITALS ARE shaped like dumb-bells.
THERE ARE no p-orbitals in the first shell.
THE OTHER shells each contain three p-orbitals, named px, py and pz.
EACH ORBITAL can hold two electrons, which means that the three p-orbitals in a shell can hold six electrons in total.
Energy level | Types of orbitals | Maximum number of electrons contained |
1 | Only an s-orbital | 2 electrons in the s-orbital |
2 | An s- and 3 p-orbitals | 2 electrons in the s-orbital and 6 electrons in the p-orbitals |
3 | An s- and 3 p-orbitals | 2 electrons in the s-orbital and 6 electrons in the p-orbitals |
Example: An Aufbau diagram for fluorine
4 The periodic table
5 Chemical bonding
5.1 Lewis diagrams (dot-cross diagrams)
5.2 Formation of ions
Group | Charge on the ion |
I | +1 |
II | +2 |
III | +3 |
IV | These elements do not form ions. |
V | –3 |
VI | –2 |
VII | –1 |
Elements in group VIII will not form ions, as they already have a full outer shell of electrons.
5.3 Ionic bonding
5.4 Covalent bonding
5.5 Metallic bonding
5 Particles that make up substances
6.1 Covalent molecular substances
6.2 Ionic substances
6.3 Covalent network structures
6.4 Metallic substances
6.5 Summary
Bonding: | Ionic: (between metals and non-metals) | Covalent (between non- metals) | Metallic (between metals) | |
Structure: | Giant ionic | Covalent network | Molecular | Giant metallic |
Example: | Sodium chloride | Diamond | Iodine | Zinc |
When revising, many people find it helpful to write as they work. You are more likely to remember something that you have written than something that you have just looked at in a book. You will also find that you can concentrate better and learn faster if you revise hard for a few short sessions rather than for one long one. You will find that you get more revision done in three half-hour sessions with five minute breaks in-between than in one session of 1½ hours. When you take a break, do something completely different – preferably physical. Go for a walk, jump up and down, run around the garden or kick a ball.
Your memory recall of the work you have learned will be improved immensely if you go through it at regular intervals. People who have studied memory talk about the ‘forgetting curve’. Suppose you have done an hour’s revision and have learned a
summary of a topic. The forgetting curve shows that whatever you are going to forget of that summary, you are likely to forget as much as half of it in the next 24 hours. If you spend just five minutes quickly going through that same summary the next day, and another five minutes a few days later, your memory recall at a later date when you write the exam will be much better.
Multiple choice questions
You probably will have to answer the questions by filling in blocks on an answer sheet. Use a pencil to fill in the blocks, so that you can rub it out if you wish to change an answer. If the examination requires you to use a pen, go over them again at the end when you are satisfied with your answers.
There will usually be four options to choose from in a multiple choice question. When you read the question, try to answer it in your mind without looking at the choices, then see if your answer is one of them. Sometimes the wrong choices can confuse you. There is always only one correct answer, so never fill in two blocks. If you do that, your answer will be marked wrong.
You do not lose marks if you get a multiple choice question wrong, so never leave out a question simply because you are not sure of an answer. Try to eliminate some choices that you think are definitely wrong, and then guess and hope for the best. Do not go on to the next question without committing yourself to an answer to the previous question, even if you are not sure of it. Answer it, but make a mark on the question paper so that, if you have time, you can come back to it when you have finished the rest of the examination.
Calculations
Any answer to a question that requires a calculation must start with a statement of the principle, law or equation that is required for the calculation. If you do not state the formula first and only write down numbers and an answer, you will get no marks, even if your answer is correct.
We use the SI system of units. If you are given a value in another unit, it first must be converted into the relevant SI unit before you substitute it into the equation. It is not necessary to write the unit with each substitution in the equation, provided each is in the correct SI units. You must write the correct SI unit with you final answer.
So the procedure is as follows:
Mark allocation
Marks are usually allocated as follows:
Positive marking
Very often questions requiring calculations are structured so that an answer to one part of the question is used in another part of the question. If you make a mistake in the first part so that the answer to that part is wrong, you will not be penalised for an incorrect answer in the later part, provided your calculations are correct. This is often called ‘positive marking’. Nevertheless, what should you do if you have no idea how to answer (say) question 2.1, but know that if only you had the answer to 2.1 you could answer 2.2? Simply assume an answer to 2.1. Write ‘2.2 Assume the answer to 2.1 is …’. Write any number with the correct unit and carry on.
Each topic is presented as a summary followed by a selection of examination-type questions. The summaries are the ‘bare bones’ of what you need to know for each topic. Do not try simply to learn the summaries off by heart. You must make sure that you understand each statement in the summary. If not, then refer to the Learner’s Book and study the relevant section. Once you are sure that you understand the statements, you can concentrate on learning the summary. It will be useful for you to write down the key words as they appear in the summary, then test yourself to see if you can state what is in the summary. Then work through the questions set on the topic. The answers are given at the back of the book, with an indication of how marks would be allocated in an exam.
A full sample Physics examination and a full sample Chemistry examination are also provided, with answers for you to test yourself before the final exams at the end of the year.
Prefixes and units
You will encounter the prefixes given in the table below as you study Physical Science. You will see from the table that the prefixes that are used in science all relate to exponents that are multiples of 3. While there are prefixes for numbers bigger than 106 and also smaller than 10-15, it is sufficient for you to learn only those that are in this table.
Prefix | mega- | kilo- | unit | milli- | micro- | nano- | pico- | femto- |
Factor | × 106 | × 103 | 1 | × 10–3 | × 10–6 | × 10–9 | × 10–12 | × 10–15 |
Symbol | M | K | m | μ | n | p | f | |
Example | MW º megawatt | kW kilowatt | W Watt | mW milliwatt | μW microwatt | nW nanowatt | pW picowatt | fW femto- watt |
SI units used in the Grade 10 curriculum
Here is a list of the symbols and SI units for quantities that you will come across in the Grade 10 curriculum. Test yourself to see that you know the symbol and unit for the quantity and the quantity for the unit.
Temperature | T | K (kelvin) |
Distance | D | m |
Amplitude | A | m |
Frequency | f | Hz (hertz) |
Time | t | s |
Period | T | s |
Speed, velocity | v | m.s–1 |
Wavelength | λ | m |
Energy | E | J (joule) |
Planck’s constant | h | J.s |
Charge | Q | C (coulomb) |
Potential difference | V | V (volt) |
Emf | E | V (volt) |
Current | I | A (ampere) |
Resistance | R | Ω (ohm) |
Quantity of matter | n | mol |
Volume | V | m3 (or dm3 for concentration) |
Concentration | c | mol·dm–3 |
Pressure | p | Pa (pascal) |
Acceleration | a | m.s–2 |
TIME: 2 HOURS
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options have been given as answers to the following questions. Choose the correct answer and write only the letter (A – D) next to the question number in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.1.1 Hot deserts are regions where evaporation of water is the rainfall.
1.1.2 Animals living in the grass tundra have adapted to the very cold conditions in a variety of ways. Indicate which of the adaptations below would be the most effective adaptation:
1.1.3 Typical savannah vegetation is
1.1.4 The practice of keeping/breeding animals under natural conditions in a certain ecological environment, is called production.
1.1.5 A cattle breed that has a thick hide that makes it difficult for lice or ticks to penetrate the skin is the
1.1.6 Reasons for the development of new breeds and plant cultivars:
1.1.7 An example of a plant that can survive in dry/arid environmental conditions and which is mostly found growing on northern slopes, is called a/an
1.1.8 A dormant stage of animals in winter months is called
(8 x 2) (16)
1.2 Give ONE-word answers for each of the statements or explanations below:
1.2.1 A farmer that grows just enough food for the family to live on
1.2.2 The practice of growing the same crop in the same soil continuously
1.2.3 A plant family that fixes nitrogen in the soil
1.2.4 Returning plant residues to soil to provide nutrients
1.2.5 The cattle breed that adapted to the African continent over the centuries
1.2.6 The practice where different breeds are interbred to develop a new breed
1.2.7 The increase of a country’s population that results in the need for greater food production
1.2.8 The dairy breed that produces the highest butter fat in milk
(8)
1.3 Choose an item/word from COLUMN B that matches the description/item/word in COLUMN A.
COLUMN A | COLUMN B |
1.3.1 Natural resources 1.3.2 Subtropical fruits 1.3.3 Symbiosis |
|
(3 x 2) (6)
1.4 Each of the following sentences consists of TWO statements. Choose the correct statement as follows:
1.4.1 | Government plays an important role in developing links with other countries | because | it negotiates trade agreements to ensure good markets for businesses. |
1.4.2 | An ant and plant lice are examples of mutualism | because | in mutualism one individual derives benefit and the other not. |
1.4.3 | People can produce food for themselves | because | they are directly dependent on agricultural activities for their food. |
1.4.4 | Lucerne is not capable of binding nitrogen | because | it contains no nitrogen fixing bacteria. |
(5 x 2) (10)
TOTAL SECTION A: 40
SECTION B
QUESTION 2
2.1 Study the distribution of rainfall in South Africa as shown in the map and key that accompanies the map.
2.1.1 Indicate what regions (A to F) would be more likely to have these individual rainfall figures. (Write down the LETTERS with the appropriate rainfall figures in the answer book.) (6)
2.1.2 Identify the region as indicated below.
2.1.3 In which region would one find:
2.2
2.2.1 Explain what the difference is between the following:
2.2.2 Name the TWO abiotic factors that determine the type of veld found in the different ecological regions of South Africa. (2)
2.3 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
The San People
The San are the oldest inhabitants of Southern Africa. They are a group of about 100 000 people who know a lot about the plant and animal life of the Kalahari and have learnt how to survive in this harsh environment. They are hunter-gatherers by tradition and have
excellent animal tracking and hunting skills. Many of them have been forced off their lands to live in settlement areas where they are unable to hunt or gather food.
The San discovered that the Hoodia succulent cactus plant prevented them from getting hungry and thirsty – very useful when on long hunting journeys. Their indigenous knowledge is now being used to produce a drug for dieting. The San people are very poor and would like to be paid by the drug companies that are using their knowledge.
2.3.1 Name THREE systems of farming used in South Africa today. (3)
2.3.2 The San migrated to gather food. What sort of food did they eat traditionally? (2)
2.3.3 Why do you think did the San people lose their habitat? (1)
2.3.4 What Act did the government put in place to redress the imbalances of land ownership of the past? (1)
2.3.5 Give TWO reasons for modern day migration, away from rural areas. (2)
2.3.6 The San’s indigenous knowledge is being put to use by producing a secondary industrial product. Name this product. (2)
2.4 Developing secondary industries is a natural process in meeting the demand of communities. Indicate what raw materials were used to produce the following products:
2.4.1 Wine
2.4.2 School shirts
2.4.3 Bacon
2.4.4 Bread (4)
2.5 During each wet or dry cycle that occurs every seven to nine years, South Africa received an above or below average rainfall just as was experienced in Mozambique a few years ago. These weather phenomena have a devastating effect on agricultural production. Name and give the reasons for each of these weather phenomena:
2.5.1 The dry period in a wet cycle
2.5.2 The above average rainfall or even floods (2 x 2) (4)
[35]
QUESTION 3
3.1 Study the water cycle illustrated below and answer the questions that follow:
3.1.1 What is indicated by the letters A to D. (4)
3.1.2 Indicate ONE method how the water loss as indicated by A to D, can be minimised. (4)
3.2
3.2.1 Why is the building of dams advantageous for agricultural production? Also state TWO negative effects of dams being build for water storage. (2)
3.2.2 What do we call the artificial application of water? (1)
3.3 Give the meaning of the following:
3.3.1 Herbivore
3.3.2 Carnivore (2 x2) (4)
QUESTION 3
4.1 Indicate which of the livestock is best suited to produce the following products:
Dorper, Jersey, Australop, Dormer, Merino, Drakensberger, Angora,Dorper, Jersey,Australop, Dormer, Merino, Drakensberger, Angora,Large White, Frieslander, Simmentaler, Leghorn, Saannen |
4.1.1 Red meat production
4.1.2 Milk production
4.1.3 Wool production
4.1.4 Egg production
4.1.5 Meat and egg production
4.1.6 Mohair production
4.1.7 Meat and milk production
4.1.8 Meat and wool production
4.1.9 Goats milk production
4.1.10 Pork production (10)
[25]
TOTAL SECTION B: 60
TIME: 11⁄2 HOURS
SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options have been given as answers to the following questions. Choose the correct answer and write only the letter (A – D) next to the question number in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.1.1 The soil forming mineral that is a clear crystal, very hard, transparent to milky white and does not weather is
1.1.2 The soil-forming mineral that weathers to form soils rich in phosphates is
1.1.3 In the prevention of pollution it is important that the pesticides used for agricultural purposes must
1.1.4 An example of physical weathering is
1.1.5 The indigenous management of fungal diseases and insects was done by
1.1.6 Which mineral is an example of a toxic ion in irrigation water?
1.1.7 An example of the plant family Graminaceae is
1.1.8 Veld management systems must be based on the principle of
1.2 Give ONE word answers for each of the statements below:
1.2.1 The practice where crops are planted without disturbing the soil
1.2.2 The practice where only one crop is grown over and over on the same land
1.2.3 The practice where plant residues are returned to the soil to provide nutrients
1.2.4 The farming method where a farmer grows just enough food for the family
1.2.5 The farming method where a farmer produces on a large scale for profit
1.2.6 The family that legumes belong to
1.2.7 The process refers to organisms changing organic material into humus
1.2.8 The process when minerals in rocks come into contact with oxygen (8)
1.3 Study the different types of crops in COLUMN B and match them with the information provided in COLUMN A. (6)
COLUMN A | COLUMN B |
1.3.1 Oil seeds | A kikuyu |
1.3.2 Field crops | B tobacco |
1.3.3 Horticultural crops | C deciduous fruits |
D sunflowers |
1.4 Draw a rough map of South Africa. On it, show where the horticultural crops in the list below that grow well.
1.4.1 Wine grapes
1.4.2 Citrus
1.4.3 Bananas
1.4.4 Cherries
1.4.5 Apricots (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 35
SECTION B
QUESTION 2
2.1 Study the diagram showing the different layers of the earth and answer the questions that follow:
2.1.1 In which layer do we find magma? (1)
2.1.2 Define the term magma. (2)
2.1.3 Briefly describe the economic importance of the crust. (2)
2.1.4 Define igneous rocks and give an example of each and where they are formed. (5)
2.1.5 What do we call the continuous process of solid rock breaking down to form soil particles? (2)
2.2
2.2.1 Describe the term bare cultivation. (3)
2.2.2 Give FIVE disadvantages of this method of cultivation. (5)
2.2.3 What farming practice would you use to prevent erosion on the slopes? Give a reason for your answer. (2)
2.2.4 Explain the process of weathering. (3)
[25]
QUESTION 3
3.1
3.1.1 Describe step by step how you would go about laying out a compost heap. (6)
3.1.2 How would you go about testing the compost heap to see whether decomposition is actively taking place? (2)
3.1.3 Name FIVE benefits that compost will have for your soil. (5)
3. 2 Cultivated pasture plays a very important role in a sustainable supply of food. Briefly discuss this statement. (4)
3.3 Read the stories about the soil utilisation taking place on two different family farms.
The Mbuza family farm
Every member of the family helps on the farm. Lindiwe helps her grandma collect eggs and feed the chickens. She also helps to hoe the soil and dig in chicken manure. Bongani helps to milk the cows and move them from one pasture to another.
Vegetables also grow well. They make sure never to plant the same vegetables in the same soil two years in a row. ‘The vegetables all need different things from the soil,’ they say, ‘so if we do not plant the same things in the same soil, we give the soil a chance to re- build itself.’
The Mbuza pastures have good grass and the animals are fat. The animals are moved to different pastures to prevent the animals from eating all the grass. ‘The soil gets dry and blows away in the wind because there are no roots to keep it in place,’ says Mr Mbuza. Bongani helps his father to make fences between the pastures
The Nkondo family farm
They live near the Mbuza family. Although they have more cows and goats than the Mbuza family, they have not built fences around different pastures, so the animals graze all over the farm all the time.
The family used to grow vegetables but now they only grow mealies. ‘We bought a small tractor with the money that we get from selling our mealies,’ says Mrs Nkondo, ‘but I don’t think it is so good for the soil because it squashes the soil and only breaks it into big lumps.’
Lately the mealie production on the Nkondo farm has not been so good. The soil is dry and blows away in the wind.
3.3.1 Describe TWO methods used by the Mbuza family to keep their pastures and animals growing well. (2 x 2) (4)
3.3.2 List THREE reasons why the Nkondo family’s mealies are not growing well. (3)
3.3.3 Explain why the Nkondo animals are in poor condition. (2)
TOTAL SECTION B: 25
Question 1.1
1.1.1 B
1.1.2 B
1.2.3 D
1.1.4 D
1.1.5 C
1.1.6 A
1.1.7 B
1.1.8 C
Question 1.2
1.2.1 Subsistence
1.2.2 Monoculture
1.2.3 Legume
1.2.4 Zero tillage
1.2.5 Nguni
1.2.6 Crossbreeding
1.2.7 Population growth rate
1.2.8 Jersey
Question 1.3
1.3.1 A
1.3.2 E
1.3.3 F
Question 1.4
1.4.1 C
1.4.2 A
1.4.3 A
1.4.1 B
Question 2.1
2.1.1 A = less than 200 mm; B = 201 – 400 mm; C = 401 – 600 mm; D = 601–800 mm; E = 801– 1 000 mm; F = more than 1 000 mm
2.1.2
2.1.3
Question 2.2
2.2.1
2.2.2 Adaptation of grasses to rainfall and the temperature, will determine the veld types
Question 2.3
2.3.1 Subsistence; small-scale; commercial
2.3.2 Game; certain roots and leaves
2.3.3 They were forced off their land by economic development: mining and agriculture
2.3.4 Restitution Act of 1994
2.3.5 People look for work and for a better life (education, medical care, etc.)
2.3.6 Hoodia succulent cactus plant
Question 2.4
2.4.1 Grapes
2.4.2 Cotton
2.4.3 Pork (pigs)
2.4.4 Wheat
Question 2.5
2.5.1 El Niño – temperatures over equatorial Pacific become warmer = more precipitation
2.5.2 La Niña – temperatures over equatorial Pacific become cooler = less precipitation
Question 3.1
3.1.1 A = Ocean evaporation; B = Land evaporation/transpiration; C = Percolation; D = Runoff
3.1.2 Mulching (prevent evaporation); contour ploughing (minimise runoff)
Question 3.2
3.2.1 Stores water for when it needed; makes water available where needed. Alters river courses; displaces people; causes siltation; can cause flooding
3.2.2 Irrigation
Question 3.3
3.3.1 Plant eating
3.3.2 Meat eating
Question 4.1
4.1.1 Drakensberger
4.1.2 Jersey; Frieslander
4.1.3 Merino
4.1.4 Leghorn
4.1.5 Australop
4.1.6 Angora
4.1.7 Simmentaler
4.1.8 Dormer
4.1.9 Saannen
4.1.10 Large White
Question 1.1
1.1.1 B
1.1.2 C
1.1.3 A
1.1.4 C
1.1.5 A
1.1.6 A
1.1.7 A
1.1.8 D
Question 1.2
1.2.1 Minimum cultivation / no-till
1.2.2 Mono culture / mono cropping
1.2.3 Mulching
1.2.4 Subsistence farming
1.2.5 Cash-crop farming
1.2.6 Leguminaceae
1.2.7 Humification
1.2.8 Oxidation
Question 1.3
1.3.1 D
1.3.2 B
1.3.3 C
Question 1.4
1.4.1 Western Cape
1.4.2 Eastern Cape (and around Citrusdal in Western Cape)
1.4.3 KwaZulu-Natal
1.4.4 Southeastern Free State
1.4.5 Boland
Question 2.1
2.1.1 Inner core
2.1.2 Melted rock / cooled down gas
2.1.3 Soil is formed in the crust where agricultural production takes place
2.1.4 Igneous rocks form due to cooling down of magna Granite – very deep cooling down slowly
Dolorite/ gabbro / basalt – shallow with a fine structure
2.1.5 Weathering
Question 2.2
2.2.1 A practice where all the plants are removed from the soil
2.2.2 Destroys structure and therefore weakens aeration; weakens water infiltration; weakens water capacity; hampers root penetration; difficult to till
2.2.3 Contour ploughing – the contours prevent runoff which prevents soil being washed away
2.2.4 When rocks are subjected to soil forming factors, such as weathering, over a period, the outer layer of the rocks loosens and crumbles to form soils. Rock weathering takes place through mechanical weathering, chemical weathering and biological weathering.
Question 3.1
3.1.1 Base – maize stalks; organic material, e.g. grass and leaves; manure; wood ash; lime; topsoil; dry leaves; water
3.1.2 Wire pushed into centre of compost heap – warm when taken out after 24 hrs / Open slightly – warm centre / Push hand in – warm inside
3.1.3 Improved structure; improved aeration; improved inflitration; improved water capacity; easier tillage; better root penetration
Question 3.2
Dung of cattle will fertilize the soil and:
Question 3.3
3.3.1 Rotational grazing – camps rest to recover; Crop rotation – soil minerals replenished
3.3.2 Overgrazing – no rotation of grazing in camps; Over tiling – soil structure broken down; Mono crop cultivation – soil not being replenished
3.3.3 Over populated – carrying capacity of veld exceeded (should lessen animal numbers and practise rotational grazing)
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I
L
M
N
O
P
R
S
T
U
W
Z