INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
PAPER TWO (P2) 
GRADE 12
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAM
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of SIX sections:
   SECTION A: Short questions (15)
   SECTION B: System Technologies (26)
   SECTION C: Communication and Network Technologies (23)
   SECTION D:  Data and Information Management (27)
   SECTION E: Solution Development (22)
   SECTION F:  Integrated Scenario (37)
2. Read ALL the questions carefully. 
3. Answer ALL the questions.
4. Start EACH question on a NEW page.
5. The mark allocation generally gives an indication of the number of  facts/reasons required.
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: SHORT QUESTIONS 
QUESTION 1 

1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  number (1.1–1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, FOR EXAMPLE 1.1.6 E. 

1.1.1 A file with a .dll extension is … 

1. 1.  used to implement direct links to LAN servers.
   2. a dynamic link library file.
   3. used to provide communication to peripheral devices.
   4. the source code for a database management system. (1)

1.1.2 … is a protocol used to retrieve messages on an Internet/Intranet  e-mail server. 

1. 1. POP3
   2. HTTPS
   3. HTTP
   4. SMTP (1)

1.1.3 A 64-bit processor refers to the … 

1. 1. processing speed of the processor.
   2. number of basic instructions the processor can recognise.
   3. size of the registers inside the processor.
   4. size of level 1 cache memory inside the processor. (1) 

1.1.4 The licence under which most freeware is distributed is known  as … 

1. 1. EULA. 
   2. FTP. 
   3. AUP. 
   4. GNU. (1) 

1.1.5 Working away from the company's standard workplace and using  the Internet to communicate with the office is known as … 

1. 1. telecommuting.
   2. cloud computing. 
   3. piggybacking. 
   4. outsourcing. (1)

1.2 Give the correct computer term for each of the following descriptions.  Write only the term next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.10) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 

1.2.1 A text file which stores customised settings for a website on your  local computer (1) 
1.2.2 A technology that automates the configuration process of a device  before it can be used (1)
1.2.3 A general term for conning techniques used to make electronic  communication appear to originate from a legitimate source (1) 
1.2.4 A practice where queries are entered in data fields which then allow  unauthorised access to the database (1) 
1.2.5 The immediate and real-time delivery of media content to a receiving  device over the Internet starting from the time the media file is  opened (1) 
1.2.6 Simulation of human decision-making processes by a computer  system that is programmed to react on the basis of input gained from  sensors (1) 
1.2.7 A type of search that is managed by humans rather than by reliance  on algorithms (1) 
1.2.8 The general term for software that allows you to work with electronic  databases (1) 
1.2.9 A type of website that displays the same information to the user  every time it is accessed (1) 
1.2.10 Local area network in which resources are shared among  workstations without using a dedicated server (1) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 15

SECTION B: SYSTEM TECHNOLOGIES 
QUESTION 2 

2.1 The friends are considering the use of a notebook computer to run their  business. 

2.1.1 The notebook that is being considered contains a 2.16 GHz  processor with 2 MB cache memory and a 500 GB HDD. 

1. 1. Briefly explain why the use of cache memory inside a processor enhances the performance of the system. (2)
   2. Why would it not be possible to upgrade the 2 MB cache  memory in the CPU of the notebook? (1) 
   3. Give TWO reasons why a notebook with an SSD would be a better option than one that contains a conventional HDD. (2) 

2.1.2 The notebook will be issued with the Windows 10 PRO operating  system. 

1. 1. The management of caching and networking capabilities are some of the functions of an operating system.
      Name TWO other primary functions of an operating  system. (2)
   2. Besides the Windows operating systems, there is a range  of other operating systems.
      Briefly state what area of application each of the following  operating systems were primarily designed for: 
      1. Android (1)
      2. Unix (1)
   3. Fast access to the Internet is important for their business.
      Explain how web caching is applied to enhance the  process of browsing the Internet. (3)

2.2 System software consists of operating systems and utility software.

2.2.1 Explain the general purpose of utility software. (1) 
2.2.2 Name ONE type of utility software that is used to avoid other  windows from appearing on the screen while you are browsing the Internet. (1) 
2.2.3 Why is it better to uninstall a program instead of just deleting the  program folder? (2) 
2.2.4 Files are normally compressed before they are archived. 

1. 1. Explain the difference between archiving files and backing  up files. (2)
   2. Explain lossy compression. (2)

2.3 Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow. 

2.3.1 What is the segment on the hard disk, indicated by the black arrow in the diagram above, called? (1) 
2.3.2 Explain the concept of the process that is illustrated in the diagram  above. (3) 

2.4         

Although freeware and open-source software are normally provided free  of charge, it has been suggested that the learners should rather use open source software. Motivate this suggestion by giving TWO valid arguments. (2) 

TOTAL SECTION B: 26 

SECTION C: COMMUNICATION AND NETWORK TECHNOLOGIES 
QUESTION 3 
3.1 Although networking has many advantages in a business environment there  may be some challenges from a set-up and management point of view. 
      Name TWO of these challenges. (2)
3.2 Star topology is a popular choice for the set-up of networks for businesses.

3.2.1 Draw a simple diagram to illustrate a star topology. (3)
3.2.2 State TWO advantages of using a star topology. (2)

3.3 The learners will use UTP cables to set up the computers at the business.

3.3.1 Give ONE advantage of using UTP cables. (1)
3.3.2 Would it be sensible to use fibre-optic cables for the Internet café? State TWO arguments to motivate your answer. (2)

3.4 Data transmission is governed by protocols. 

3.4.1 Which protocol is used for a secure website? (1)
3.4.2 What is the function of the VoIP? (1) 

3.5 Study the representation of a network below that can be used by a small  business. 

3.5.1 What does VOD stand for? (1) 
3.5.2 What is the name given to the physical location in a public area  where users may be granted Wi-Fi access to connect wirelessly to  the Internet on their mobile devices? (1) 
3.5.3 What is the function of an ISP? (1) 
3.5.4 What does the symbol indicated by the black arrow in the diagram  represent? (1) 
3.5.5 Bluetooth technology could be used by a cellphone to share its  Internet access. 
State ONE disadvantage of using Bluetooth to share access. (1) 

3.6 Location-based computing requires the technology to send the location from  a device to the computer that is processing it. 

3.6.1 Which technology is generally used for location-based computing? (1)
3.6.2 Suggest ONE advantage for the Internet café owners if they use  location-based computing. (1) 

3.7 The learners will use their mobile devices to send and receive e-mail while  they are running their business. 

3.7.1 Explain how push technology will keep learners up to date with  new e-mails. (2) 
3.7.2 State TWO shortcomings when e-mail is received on a mobile  device. (2) 

TOTAL SECTION C: 23

SECTION D: DATA AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT 
QUESTION 4 
The Internet café must keep records of the users and be able to charge users for the  time that they were logged onto the Internet. A database for this purpose has been  designed for the Internet café. 
4.1 The GUI of the software system for the Internet café users is shown below. 

4.1.1 Motivate the choice of radio buttons for the Gender option. (2) 
4.1.2 Without changing the label, suggest ONE way in which the GUI  could be changed to indicate the format in which the user should enter the time. (1)
4.1.3 The integrity of data is always a problem. 
Explain the difference between valid data and correct data by using the information in the GUI above. (2)

4.2 Two tables,tblComputers and tblUsers, have been created for the  database. 
       tblComputers: Keeps data on the computers used at the Internet café. tblUsers: Keeps data on the clients who use the computers at the Internet  café. 

4.2.1 Indicate how the tables above could be linked so that a  one-to-many relationship can be formed. (2) 
4.2.2 Write SQL code for the questions below. 

1. 1.  Display the logout time of the users who paid with debit cards in sequential order. (4)
   2. Change the payment method for 7311017564076 to 'Credit  Card'. (3)
   3. Display the number of users who paid with cash. The number  of users must be displayed in a field called CountCashIds. (4)
   4. Display a list of users who logged in after 12:00 on  2016/02/25. (4)

4.3 An audit trail was set up to maintain the integrity of the database. State the basic information that is captured during an audit trail. (2) 
4.4 Large amounts of data, for research and marketing purposes, are collected in  a data warehouse.  

4.4.1 Some of the data is collected by means of invisible data capturing. Indicate TWO ways in which data is captured invisibly. (2) 
4.4.2 Sophisticated software is used to determine significant patterns  between the data items statistically. 
What is this process called? (1)

TOTAL SECTION D: 27

SECTION E: SOLUTION DEVELOPMENT 
QUESTION 5 

Answer the questions that follow to help them with their problem-solving skills.
5.1 Indicate how many times each of the following loops will be executed: 

5.1.1         

 k ? 1 
repeat 
… instructions to be executed 
until k = 1 (2) 

5.1.2           

k? 0 
while k >= 0 
 begin 
 …instructions to be executed 
 increment k 
 end (2) 

5.2 Each user will log onto the system and an object called User will be  instantiated with the following layout: 

5.2.1 What does it mean to instantiate an object? (2)
5.2.2 Explain the purpose of: 

1. 1. An accessor method  (1) 
   2. A mutator method  (1)

5.2.3

The cost to use an Internet connection is R3,00 per minute.  The login and logout time is entered using the 24-hour clock system. For example, the login time is entered as 15:25 and the  logout time as 16:05. 
Write an algorithm for the CalculateCost(LogoutTime) method in  pseudocode to determine the cost for the amount of time that the  user was logged onto the Internet. (8)

5.3 For one of the games on the computer the user must enter any integer value  between 0 and 100. The computer must generate random numbers until the  generated number is the same as the one the user entered. The number of  values that were randomly generated must be displayed. 
An algorithm to solve this problem is given below.  

1. Enter number (for example user enters the number 40) 
2. Found ? false 
3. While not found do 
4. randomNum ? Generate a random number in the range 0 to 100
5. If randomNum <> number then 
6.  Increment Counter 
7. Else
8. Found ? true 
9. End of loop 
10. Display the Counter value
    This algorithm contains errors. Copy and complete the trace table to indicate  the line numbers where the errors occur. Indicate how the errors may be  corrected. 

(4) 

5.4 Study the pseudocode segment below. 

X ? 0 
Y ? 1 
Loop Z from 0 to 1 
   Begin 
             answer ? (X = 1) OR (NOT (Y = 1) OR (Z = 1)) 
             If answer is true then  
                      output ? 1  
             else 
                     output ? 0 
          Display X, Y, Z and output 
  End loop 
Write down the values that will be displayed each time the loop is executed. (2)

TOTAL SECTION E: 22

SECTION F: INTEGRATED SCENARIO 
QUESTION 6 

6.1 All hardware in the Internet café will be fitted with an RFID tag. 

6.1.1 Which technology do RFID tags use? (1)
6.1.2 Give TWO advantages of having an RFID tag on the hardware. (2)

6.2 One of the learners will be the network administrator. 

6.2.1 Motivate the need for a network administrator. (1) 
6.2.2 All users will be issued a once-off password which must be  changed when they log onto the computer system. 
Besides using letters and digits, state TWO other requirements so  that passwords will be strong. (2)
6.2.3 The network administrator will need remote access to the server. Name and briefly discuss TWO types of remote access technology. (4) 
6.2.4 How can the administrator safeguard the computers against virus  attacks? (1) 
6.2.5 Besides issuing passwords and avoiding virus attacks, state TWO  other responsibilities of the network administrator. (2) 

6.3 A helpdesk facility is part of the service provided by the learners. The  community members are encouraged to ask questions about computers,  ethics and security. 
     Answer the following questions. 

6.3.1 What is spam e-mail? (2)
6.3.2 Suggest TWO ways in which a user may avoid identity theft. (2)
6.3.3 Which technique is used to ensure that Skype calls are secure? (1)
6.3.4 Some websites have a digital certificate. What is the purpose of a digital certificate? (1)
6.3.5 State TWO practical ways in which users can check the validity of  the information that they find on the web when they do research. (2) 
6.3.6 Explain the concept Internet of Things. (2) 
6.3.7 Some people complained that the batteries in their always-on  devices were not lasting very long. Give them TWO ideas to improve the battery life of their devices. (2)
6.3.8 Study the information below. 

 Explain what a rootkit is. (2) 

6.4 Users will be able to download movies at the Internet café. Some users would  like to use BitTorrent to download movies. 

6.4.1 What type of network is supported by BitTorrent? (1)
6.4.2 One disadvantage of using BitTorrent is the distribution of malware. State ONE other disadvantage of using BitTorrent. (1) 

6.5 There are many services, such as Google Drive, which allow users to share  data and other services which offer file syncing. 

6.5.1 Motivate using a file-sharing service instead of sending a document  by e-mail. (2) 
6.5.2 List THREE benefits that a file-syncing service offers users. (3)

6.6 The learners want to start a business to develop apps for mobile devices. 
       State THREE aspects to consider when designing apps for users of mobile  devices. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION F: 37
GRAND TOTAL: 150

Information Technology
Paper One (P1) 
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers And Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper is divided into THREE sections. Candidates must answer  ALL THREE sections.
2. The duration of this examination is three hours. Because of the nature of this  examination it is important to note that you will not be permitted to leave the  examination room before the end of the examination session.
3. This question paper is set in programming terms that are not specific to any  particular programming language (Delphi/Java (using the Netbeans IDE)).
4. Make sure that you answer the questions according to the specifications that  are given in each question. Marks will be awarded according to the set  requirements.
5. Answer only what is asked in each question. For example, if the question does  not ask for data validation, then no marks will be awarded for data validation.
6. Your programs must be coded in such a way that they will work with any data  and not just the sample data supplied or any data extracts that appear in the  question paper. 
7. Routines, such as search, sort and selection, must be developed from first  principles. You may NOT use the built-in features of a programming language  for any of these routines. 
8. Data structures that are not supplied must be defined by you, the programmer. 
9. You must save your work regularly on the disk/CD/DVD/flash disk you have  been given, or on the disk space allocated to you for this examination session.
10. Make sure that your examination number appears as a comment in every  program that you code, as well as on every event indicated.
11. If required, print the programming code of all the programs/classes that you  completed. You will be given half an hour printing time after the examination  session. 
12. At the end of this examination session you must hand in a disk/CD/DVD/flash  disk with all your work saved on it OR you must make sure that all your work  has been saved on the disk space allocated to you for this examination  session. Ensure that all files can be read.
13. The files that you need to complete this question paper have been given to  you on a disk/CD/DVD/flash disk or on the disk space allocated to you. The  files are provided in the form of password-protected executable files.
    NOTE:  
    • Delphi candidates must use the file DelphiDataENGJune2016.exe.
    • Java candidates must use the file JavaDataENGJune2016.exe.
      Do the following:
    • Double click on the password-protected executable file.
    • Click on the 'Extract' button.
    • Enter the following password: Hosp9@%$
      Once extracted, the following list of files will be available in the folder DelphiDataENGJune2016/JavaDataENGJune2016: 

QUESTIONS

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1: GENERAL PROGRAMMING SKILLS 

Do the following: 

• Compile and execute the program found in the Question1 folder. The interface  displays four different sections named Question1_1 to Question1_4. Currently the  program has no functionality. 
• Complete the code for each section of QUESTION 1, as described in  QUESTION 1.1 to QUESTION 1.4 on the next page. 
  Example of graphical user interface (GUI):
  

1.1 Write code to set the font size of the text on the label lblQuestion1_1 to 14 pt  and display the text 'Good Health Medical Centre' on the label when the  program is executed.  

      (2) 
1.2 Button [Question1_2] 

The community is encouraged to contribute towards a medical aid scheme.  The scheme offers four options: Option A to Option D. Option A provides the  minimum number of benefits and is the least expensive option with an amount  of R1 000,00 per month as contribution for the main member of a family. This  amount increases by 20% with each option (Option B, Option C and  Option D) thereafter. 
Family members of the main member are added as dependants to the  account of the main member. An amount of 50% of the payment by the main  member will be added to his/her account for each dependant. 
The user must select an option from the list box and enter the number of  dependants in the text box. 
Write code to calculate the total monthly payment the member has to make  towards the medical aid scheme. Display the monthly payment in a dialog box  with a suitable message. If no option was selected, display a message  instructing the user to select an option.  
Example of output if Option A is selected and the number of dependants is one: 

Example of output if Option B is selected and the number of dependants is  three (as below):

(10)

1.3 Button [Question1_3] 

The patient's account can be paid over a period of 12 months.
The first payment is calculated as 15% of the account balance. After the first  payment has been deducted the balance must be paid in equal payments  over the remainder of the months. 
The user is required to enter the account balance in the text box. 
Write code to calculate and display the payment number, the amount to be  paid monthly and the decreasing balance in neat columns with suitable  headings. The amounts must be formatted to currency with two decimal  places. 

(10)

1.4 There are three doctors on duty every day:

Doctor 1, Doctor 2 and Doctor 3.  The total number of patients must be divided equally amongst the three  doctors. If there are any remaining patients, the first patient will be allocated  to the first doctor (Doctor 1) and the second patient to the second doctor  (Doctor 2). 
The algorithm below was compiled to calculate and display the number of  patients each doctor will attend to during the day. 
Algorithm: 

1. 1.  number ? Enter the total number of patients 
   2. patients_per_doctor ? number integer division by 3 
   3. doctor1 ? patients_per_doctor 
   4. doctor2 ? patients_per_doctor
   5. doctor3 ? patients_per_doctor
   6. remainder ? number modulus 3 
   7. if remainder = 1 then 
      doctor1 ? doctor1 + 1
      if remainder = 2 then 
      doctor2 ? doctor2 + 1 
   8. display doctor1, doctor2 and doctor3 

1.4.1         

1. 1. Convert the instructions provided in the algorithm above into  programming code to calculate and display the number of patients per doctor. (10)
   2. The incorrect number of patients is allocated to the doctors due to a logical error in one of the IF statements in the algorithm. Identify the incorrect IF statement and correct it in your code so that the correct number of patients is assigned to each doctor.
      Example of correct output for a total of five patients: 
      
      Example of correct output for a total of ten patients (as below):
      

(3) 

1.4.2

The doctors on duty have to wait until all the patients on the list have  been attended to before they can sign out as a team. They have to  provide the number of hours and minutes they have worked using the  number of hours and minutes that the first doctor has worked. They  are only allowed to sign out on the hour. For example, if they worked  for 3 hours and 30 minutes, starting at 08:00, they will all sign out at  12:00. 
Add code to the QUESTION1_4 button to do the following: 
Obtain the duration of one consultation in minutes. The default time is  15 minutes, but the user is allowed to enter any other value. Obtain  the time of day when consulting starts. Calculate and display the time  the doctors have worked and the time of day when they will sign out. 
Example of output if the total number of patients is five, the duration  of one consultation is 15 minutes and consulting starts at 08:00:

Example of output if the total number of patients is ten, the duration of  one consultation is 20 minutes and consulting starts at 13:00: 

(10) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 45

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: OBJECT-ORIENTATED PROGRAMMING 

Do the following:

• Compile and execute the program. The program currently has no functionality.  Example of the interface: 
  
  NOTE: The pnlGeneric panel is set not to be visible when the program is executed.
• Complete the code for this program as specified in QUESTION 2.1 and  QUESTION 2.2 below. 

2.1     

The given incomplete object class (TPrescriptionItem/PrescriptionItem)  contains the declaration of four attributes that describes the PrescriptionItem object. 
The given attributes of the PrescriptionItem object are as follows: 

Complete the code in the given PrescriptionItem class  (TPrescriptionItem/PrescriptionItem) as described in QUESTIONS 2.1.1 to  2.1.6 below. 
NOTE: The dosage attribute consists of four characters in the format XX#X,  where the # is used as a symbol to separate information. 

Example 1: D1#B 
Example 2: H2#8

2.1.1 Write code for a constructor method to receive the tablet code,  dosage code, number of days and the price per tablet as parameter  values. Assign these values to the relevant attributes. (4) 
2.1.2 Write a method called calcTabletsPerDay that will use the dosage code to determine and return the number of tablets that is  prescribed per day. A day is regarded as a period of 24 hours.

Example 1: If the dosage code is D1#S, it means that one tablet  must be taken daily after supper. 
Example 2: If the dosage code is H2#4, it means that two tablets must be taken every four hours, which adds up to a  total of 12 tablets per day. (8) 

2.1.3 Write a method called compileFrequencyOfUseMessage that will  use the dosage code to compile and return a message indicating  when the tablets should be taken.  

Example 1: If the dosage code is D1#S, the message to return is:  Take 1 tablet(s) daily after supper. 
Example 2: If the dosage code is H4#8, the message to return is:  Take 4 tablet(s) every 8 hours. (8) 

2.1.4 Write a method called calcTotalTablets to calculate and return the  total number of tablets for this prescription item. (3) 
2.1.5 Write accessor methods for the tablet code and price attributes. (2) 
2.1.6 Write a compileLabel method to return the necessary information to  be printed on the label of the tablet container in the format shown  below. 

Tablet code: <code> 
<Frequency of use message> for <number of days>  days 
(<Total number of tablets included> tablets) 

Example of output if the tablet code is HPCMCN, the dosage code is  H2#8 and the number of days is four: 

(5)

2.2 Two parallel arrays are provided in the incomplete class  Question2_U.pas/Question2.java.  

The array called arrCodes contains the codes of all available tablets.  The array called arrPrices contains the prices per single tablet for each  corresponding code. 
Example of data in the supplied arrays: 
The first four codes in the arrCodes array: 
CBLTAD, HPCMCN, TRVKMG, BGJKPT 
The first four prices in the arrPrices array: 
17.89, 14.60, 23.50, 22.75 
The data for the first tablet can be interpreted as follows:

• • The code of the tablet is CBLTAD.
  • The price of a single tablet is 17.89. 

Do the following to complete the code for each button in the main form unit  (Delphi)/GUI class (Java): 
NOTE: The object objPrescriptionItem has been declared in the program.

2.2.1 Code for the combo box 
The user is required to select the code of the tablet from the relevant combo box. If the code selected ends with the letter 'G', it means  that a generic equivalent for the tablet is available. The panel pnlGeneric must be displayed, which allows the user to choose the  generic equivalent of the tablet. 

A generic tablet is defined as a tablet that is used to treat the same  condition as the original tablet but is usually sold at a lower price.  
In this program the cost of the generic equivalent of a tablet is 40%  less than the cost of the original tablet. The arrPrices array contains  the prices of the original tablets.
The pnlGeneric panel must not be visible if there is no generic  equivalent available for the tablet. 
HINT: The indices of the codes in the arrCodes array are the same  as those of the codes in the combo box. (9)

2.2.2 Button [2.2.2 – Instantiate Prescription Item] 
Use the information supplied by the user and instantiate a new  PrescriptionItem object. The tablet code, dosage code, number of  days and the price per tablet must be used as arguments to  instantiate the object. 
If the pnlGeneric panel appears and the generic check box is  selected, the price of the tablet must be reduced by 40% before the  object is instantiated. 
Display a message in a dialog box to indicate that the object was  instantiated successfully. 

(8)

2.2.3 Button [2.2.3 – Display] 
Use the compileLabel method to display the label information in the  output area on the Prescription Item panel. 
Also display the tablet code and the cost of this prescription item in  the output area of the Prescription Account panel. The cost must  be formatted to currency with two decimal places. 
NOTE: The total cost of all prescription items must be calculated to  be displayed when the 2.2.4 – Total of all Prescription Items button is clicked. 
Example of output for the prescription item and account details if the  tablet code is HPCMCN, the dosage code is D2#B and the number  of days entered is 3: 

 (8)

2.2.4 Button [2.2.4 – Total of all Prescription Items] 
Display the total amount owed for this specific prescription, formatted to currency with two decimal places.
Example of output for the Prescription Account output area after  all prescription items have been entered: 

(2) 

2.2.5 Button [2.2.5 – Clear All] 
Clear the output area for the prescription item and the prescription  account. Also clear all the input components and set the relevant  variables to 0. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION B: 60

SECTION C 
QUESTION 3: PROBLEM-SOLVING PROGRAMMING 

Do the following: 

• Compile and execute the program found in the Question3 folder. Currently the  program has no functionality. 
• Complete the code for each question as described in QUESTION 3.1 and QUESTION 3.2 below.
  Supplied GUI: 
  The supplied GUI contains components for events that have to take place. An example of the GUI is given below. 
  
  Use the program requirements in the questions that follow to decide on a suitable  output component to be placed in the output area labelled Ward Statistics on the  GUI.
  Supplied data: 
  NOTE:
• You are not allowed to modify supplied data manually. Code must be written to  manipulate the supplied data according to the requirements. 
• The use of good programming techniques and modular design must be applied in  the design and coding of your solution.
  You are provided with a two-dimensional array called arrWardStats, which contains  the number of beds currently occupied by patients in each of the five wards. 
  The values that appear in the arrWardStats array are the following:
  NOTE: The labels are not part of the content of the array. 

3.1 Button [3.1 – Display Ward Statistics] 

The program must display the different sections, ward numbers and the  number of patients in each ward. The information must be neatly displayed in  columns with suitable headings and labels. 
Example of output: 
(8)

3.2 Button [3.2 – Place New Patients] 

A text file called DataQ3.txt contains information on new patients that need to  be admitted. Each line of text in the file contains the full name and date of birth  (YYYY-MM-DD) of the patient separated by a hash character. If the patient  must be admitted to the emergency ward, a semicolon, followed by the  character 'E', has been added to the line of text. 
Example of the first three lines of text in the file: 
Debra Jenkins#2005-10-12 
Geraldine Mathews#1992-01-09 
Nosipho Mbele#2010-09-23;E

Write code to do the following: 
Check whether the text file DataQ3.txt exists. 
If the text file does not exist, display a suitable message and close the program. If the text file exists, do the following for each new patient: 

• Determine the section: Emergency, Children or Adults. A patient is  considered to be a child if he/she is younger than eighteen years. 
• Find a ward with an available bed in the section. The search process must  start at Ward 1. If there are no available beds in Ward 1, then Ward 2 must  be checked, and so forth. Each ward has a maximum of ten beds. 
• Compile a placement code indicating the section and number of the ward  where the patient will be placed.
  
  Example:
  A3 means that the patient will be placed in the section for adults in Ward 3.
  If all wards in the specific section are full, the placement code for the  patient must be the words 'Waiting list'.
  If an emergency patient is placed on a waiting list, the colour of the  'Emergency' panel must be changed to red. 

• Display the name, age and placement code in the output area for new  patients. 
• If a patient is placed in a ward, the values in the arrWardStats array must  be updated accordingly.
  Display the updated arrWardStats array after processing all the patients in the  text file.
  
  Example of New Patients output area (on the last page):

Example of Ward Statistics output area after new patient details have been  processed: 

TOTAL SECTION C: 45
GRAND TOTAL: 150

English Paper One (P1)
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers And Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 

1. Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions. 
2. This memorandum has been finalised at a memorandum discussion session at  DBE at which all provinces were represented. Any omissions or queries should  be referred to Chief Markers/Analytical Moderators/Internal Moderators at  marking centres. All protocol must be followed.
3. Candidates' responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.

MARKING THE COMPREHENSION 

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in  responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the  meaning/understanding. (Errors must still be indicated.)
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined,  disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise.  However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an  answer, this will be acceptable.
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I  DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.
• When one word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence,  mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/ highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first  two/three.
• Accept dialectal variations.
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct  answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1  
1.1 The youngsters feel positive/hopeful✔       AND              cheerful/excited/enthusiastic✔ 
       NOTE: Accept any combination of TWO of the above answers. 
       Award 1 mark if neither ‘happy’ nor ‘optimistic’ has been changed. (2) 
1.2 That it is a way of living where the youth are always✔ engaged with some  form of electronic media. ✔
       OR 
      That one can always ✔be reached via cell phone or other gadgets.✔ (2) 
1.3 One would not expect✔ the youth to be interested in anything else but cell  phones and clothes. ✔ 
      OR 
      It seems unbelievable that /unlikely that✔ the youth would prioritise family and  parents above cell phones and clothes.✔ (2) 
1.4 C/third✔ (1)
1.5       

• 'Education'
• 'Sport'
• 'Social engagements'
  NOTE: Quotations must be accurate. However, do not penalise if quotation   marks are omitted. (3)

1.6 Multitasking is when you perform different assignments/tasks/duties at the  same time.✔ (1) 
1.7       

• They do not have positive ways to manage a busy lifestyle.✔
• They develop unhealthy eating habits.✔
• They do not engage (in face-to-face communication) with their families.✔
• They spend too little time with their families.✔
  NOTE: Accept any THREE of the above answers. (3)

1.8 Social media relationships/ relationships with people on the internet/ via cell  phones✔ have become more important than direct/personal relationships/relationships with people you physically encounter.✔ (2)
1.9 The youth want to be up to date with everything that happens. As a result they  are continually engaged with social media. This might be a challenge  because they neglect tasks or other social skills and relationships may suffer.  
NOTE: The above is merely an example. A candidate can score 1 mark for an  answer that is not well-substantiated. For full marks the response must be based on the text. (2) 
1.10 The curriculum demands/expectations at schools are greater ✔ than in the  past with many assignments and projects having to be completed. ✔ (2) 
1.11 youth/teenagers/youngsters 
        NOTE: Quotations must be accurate. However, do not penalise if quotation   marks are omitted. (1)
1.12 The writer tries to tell us to manage our time properly/to slow down the pace✔ to avoid anxiety✔ and start living a meaningful life.✔ (3) 
1.13 Trains. ✔ The bar graph indicates that (4.4 %). /They are slow/not  safe/reliable/easily accessible ✔ 
        NOTE: The above substantiations are merely examples. Accept other  suitable answers. (2) 
1.14 There is a picture of a taxi. /The picture of the taxi is big.✔ The column  indicating 'Taxi' on the bar graph is the highest.✔ (2) 
1.15 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g. 
        A bar graph is effective because you can see the different columns showing  the main modes of transport clearly. You do not have to read through complicated facts and figures to understand how South Africa gets around. 
                 OR 
         A bar graph is not effective because some people may not be able to interpret  it and would, therefore, prefer a written text. 
        NOTE: The above are merely examples. A candidate can score 1 mark for  an answer that is not well-substantiated. Combination answers are  acceptable. (2)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2 
The following points form the answer to the question:

MARKING THE SUMMARY 
The summary should be marked as follows:

• Mark allocation: 
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point) 
  • 3 marks for language 
  •  Total marks: 10
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim:
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks 
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim: 
  • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark 
  • 1–5 quotes: award 1 language mark
    NOTE: 
• Format: Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must   be assessed.
• Word count: 
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used. 
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the  number of words used or if the number of words used is indicated  incorrectly. 
  • If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above  the stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.

TOTAL SECTION B: 10 

SECTION C: LANGUAGE 
NOTE: 

• One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect, unless  the error changes the meaning of the word. 
• In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is in the  language structure being tested.  
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as  per instructions. 

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING AN ADVERTISEMENT 
3.1

Anyone who discards used oil into drains/gets rid of used oil in an unsafe  manner/ wants to know how to dispose of used oil/ uses motor oil/  (motor) mechanics. (1) 

3.2   

The advertiser cleverly illustrates how dumping oil can eventually contaminate  our drinking water. This is shown through the picture of oil being poured from  a gallon into the pipeline ending up in a glass of drinking water. 
OR 
The font style initially appears dark and resembles water pipes and then becomes lighter resembling drinking water. (2) 

3.3

Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g. 
This word is effective because it makes the reader realise the dangers of  dumping used oil irresponsibly. Therefore, the reader will be influenced to  dispose of used oil in a responsible manner. 
OR 
This word will not be effective if the meaning is not understood by the reader.  As a result the message of the advertisement may be lost. 
NOTE: The above are merely examples. A candidate can score 1 mark for an  answer that is not well-substantiated. Combination answers are  acceptable. (2)

3.4 B/acronym✔ (1) 
3.5

The South African dialling code / 021✔ 
The website address which has the South African country code 'za' at the  end. /www.rosefoundation.org.za.✔ (2) 

3.6 Don't (1) 
3.7 Company (1)

[10] 

QUESTION 4: ANALYSING A CARTOON 
4.1

Indoors/ in the living room/lounge/sitting room/home. ✔ 
There is a lamp in the room. /Calvin's father is sitting in an armchair.✔ (2) 

4.2

He wants to ask his father something/get his attention/ wants to win his  favour/wants to create an atmosphere of trust/ secrecy /confidentiality/ reassurance. (1) 

4.3

Frame 3: The ellipsis indicates a pause between words/hesitation/suspicion of the father.  
Frame 4: The ellipsis indicates that Calvin has not completed his sentence/ has been interrupted.
 NOTE: If the frame is not mentioned, the sequence must be correct. (2) 

4.4

4.4.1 Verbal clues: The use of very bold font for 'DO'. / The exclamation  mark (and the question mark side by side.)/ The words are all in  bold font and 'DO' is in a darker font. 
Visual clues: The jagged speech bubble (to show anger)/ the large  bold font to show that he is shouting/ his mouth wide open to show  that he is shouting/his arms are outstretched /his head is tilted back  to show tension and frustration. 
NOTE: Accept THREE of the above answers that discuss both  verbal and visual techniques. (3) 

4.4.2Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g. 
The father is justified. He knows his son's behaviour✔ and expects  that Calvin has done something seriously wrong. ✔ 
OR 
The father is not justified in his reaction because Calvin has not yet  told him what he has done✔/he jumps to conclusions. ✔ 
NOTE: The above are merely examples. A candidate can score 1  mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. (2)

[10]

QUESTION 5: LANGUAGE AND EDITING SKILLS 
NOTE: Spelling in this question must be correct. 

5.1 

5.1.1   

1. 1. received/ receives (1) 
   2. farmer's (1) 
   3. them (1) 
   4. at/on (1)

5.1.2 Brackets✔and dashes✔ (2) 
5.1.3 pronoun✔ 
        adjective✔ (2) 
5.1.4 The mechanic gave the Land Rover her first professional  makeover.✔ (1) 
5.1.5 Pieter told the mechanic that he✔ had been✔ looking for him✔ the  whole day. 
NOTE: Award ONE mark for each underlined change and ONE mark for the correct use of punctuation. (4) 
5.1.6 D/personification (1)

5.2    

5.2.1 The entire country knew when the Springboks were playing. (2)
5.2.2 divides/fragments/splits/separates (1)
5.2.3     

Accept a suitable response e.g. 
He has a sore throat. 
She saw him at the rugby match. 
He went to the hardware shop to buy a saw. 
NOTE: The homophone must be used correctly in the sentence. (1) 

5.2.4 Watching the Springboks at the stadium is better than watching  them on television. (1) 
5.2.5 don't they/do they not (1)

[20]
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 80

English Paper Three (P3)
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers And Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

This memorandum must be used together with the attached English FAL assessment  rubrics for SECTIONS A, B and C. 

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION1 
Instructions to Markers: 

• Candidates are required to write on ONE topic only. 
• The ideas listed below the topics are only some ways in which the topic could  be interpreted. 
• Full credit must be given for the candidates' own interpretation. 
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.  
• Use the 50-mark assessment rubric to mark the essays. The texts produced by  candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria as set out in the  assessment rubric: 
  • Content and planning (30 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (15 marks)
  • Structure (5 marks)
    NOTE: No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties. 

1.1 My entire future lay in that sealed envelope. 

Narrative/Reflective/Descriptive 

• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line. The essay must  have an interesting ending. 
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings  experienced by the writer. 
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words, trying to use as  many senses as possible to make the description clear. [50] 

1.2 Write an essay that includes the following words: 

We could not stand each other when we met but now ... 
NOTE: The words given in the topic MUST be included somewhere in the essay. 
Narrative/Reflective/Descriptive 

• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line. This topic lends itself  to the possibility of being written in both the past and the present tense.  The essay must have an interesting ending.  
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings  experienced by the writer. 
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words, trying to use as  many senses as possible to make the description clear. [50]

1.3 How I reached my most difficult goals. 

Reflective/Descriptive/Narrative 

• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings experienced by the writer. 
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words, trying to use as  many senses as possible to make the description clear. 
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line, usually written in the  past tense. The essay must have an interesting ending. [50] 

1.4 It was picture perfect. 

Descriptive/Reflective/ Narrative 

• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words, trying to use as  many senses as possible to make the description clear. 
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings  experienced by the writer. 
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line, usually written in the  past tense. The essay must have an interesting ending. [50] 

1.5 Problems can arise if one generation fails to understand the other. 

Argumentative/Reflective/Discursive 

• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint  for or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments  to support and substantiate his/her view. The conclusion should be a  strong, clear and convincing statement of the writer's opinion. 
• If reflective, the writer must still take a stance for or against the topic. • If discursive, the writer may come to a particular conclusion at the end of  the essay but the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and  clearly analysed in the course of the essay.[50] 

1.6 What you wear reflects who you are. 

Discursive/Argumentative 

• The writer may come to a particular conclusion at the end of the essay  but the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and clearly  analysed in the course of the essay. 
• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint  for or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments  to support and substantiate his/her view. The conclusion should be a  strong, clear and convincing statement of the writer's opinion. [50]

1.7 Interpretation of pictures 

• The candidate may interpret the pictures in any way. 
• The candidate may choose to write any type of essay. 
• The interpretation must be linked to the picture. 
• The candidate should give the essay a suitable title. 
• The candidate may write in any appropriate tense. 

1.7.1 Picture: A girl reading a book 

• • Literal interpretations: importance of reading, literacy, children's education.
  • Figurative interpretations: liberation, hope, escaping into a  world of your own. 

1.7.2 Picture: Roads 

• • Literal interpretations: road construction, scenery, road  transport, how development impacts on nature.
  • Figurative interpretations: career choices, making difficult  decisions, road less travelled. [50] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 2 
Instructions to Markers:

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question. 
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas. 
• Use the 30-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The  texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria  as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content, planning and format (18 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (12 marks)
    NOTE: No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties.

2.1 FORMAL LETTER 
A letter of complaint 

• The following aspects of format should be included:
  • Address of sender
  • Date 
  • Recipient: The Manager 
  • Name of the store 
  • Address of recipient 
  • Greeting/Salutation 
  • Topic line 
  • Suitable ending
  • Signature and name of sender
• The tone and register of the letter should be formal. 
• The candidate must give details of the complaint. 
• The expectations of the writer must be clear. [30]

2.2 OBITUARY 
A close colleague has passed away suddenly. 

• The tone must be formal. 
• The following aspects of format should be included:
  • Full name of the deceased 
  • Date of birth 
  • Date of death
• The following information may also be included:
  • Birthplace 
  • Where the person was living at the time of death 
  • Key survivors (spouse, children) and their names 
  • Date and time of funeral
  • Biographical information 
• A tribute must be paid to the deceased. [30] 

2.3 REVIEW 
Film/DVD review 

• The tone and register should be appropriate for the target audience. 
• The content must be suitable for family viewing. 
• The following information should be included in the review, among others: o The title of the film/DVD 
  • A description of plot, main characters and key incidents 
  • A judgment or evaluation/rating of the film/DVD
• Some of the following may be included:
  • Genre/setting/plot/style/lighting/camera angles 
  • Director/producer of the film/DVD
• Accept different formats of the review. [30]

2.4 SPEECH 
Speech at a wedding 

• The speechshould be written using a suitable salutation/greeting. 
• The tone and register should be appropriate for the audience. 
• The speech must include the following: 
  • Purpose 
  •  Audience
• The introduction must attract attention.
• Points must be developed well. 
• A conclusion must be included. [30]

TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C: SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT
QUESTION 3 
Instructions to Markers: 

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question. 
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas. 
• Use the 20-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The  texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following criteria  as set out in the attached rubric: 
  • Content, planning and format (12 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (8 marks)
    NOTE: No additional penalties may be imposed as any deviations are addressed  bythe rubric. 

3.1 ADVERTISEMENT 
Seeking employment 

• The advertisement should:
  • Have a catchy headline to attract the attention of the reader 
  • Have the following details: qualifications, experience and contact  details 
  •  Create interest and desire in the service
  •  Inspire action
• The target market should be clear. 
• The language may be formal or informal but not slang or colloquial.
  NOTE: Do not award marks for illustrations. [20]

3.2 DIARY ENTRIES 
The candidate's feelings before and after a discussion with the friend. 

• There MUST be TWO diary entries with two different dates. 
• The entries should express the candidate's feelings before and after the  discussion with the friend.  
• The diary entries should be written in the first person. 
• The language should be simple and informal. 
• The tone must reflect suitable emotions. [20]

3.3 INSTRUCTIONS 
Appropriate behaviour in a library 

• The instructions may be in point or paragraph form. 
• The candidate must mention the context of the library in the heading. • Instructions must be in a logical sequence. 
• The instructions should say how one has to behave appropriately in a  library. [20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20
GRAND TOTAL: 100

SECTION A: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [50 MARKS]

SECTION B: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [30 MARKS]

SECTION C: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [20 MARKS]

English Paper Two (P2)
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers and Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Candidates are required to answer questions from TWO sections.
2. A candidate may not answer more than ONE question on the same genre.
3. If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next  one is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the rest.
4. If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the memo.
5. If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the meaning, mark correct.
6. If a candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not  penalise.
7. For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or  I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should  be considered.
8. No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.
9. Candidates' responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: NOVEL 

QUESTION 1: TO KILL A MOCKINGBIRD 

Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 1.1 and 1.2. 
1.1

1.1.1  

1. 1. E/brother of the narrator✓
   2. C/narrator of the novel✓
   3. D/cousin of the narrator✓
   4. B/father of the narrator✓ (4)

1.1.2 Cecil announces (in the school yard) that Scout's father defends  niggers✓and Scout becomes very angry.✓/She wants to  punch/hit/fight him.✓ (2) 
1.1.3         

• • She is strict/a good disciplinarian to the children. ✓
  • She is fair. ✓
  • She is not a racist/prejudiced. ✓
  • She is not afraid to speak her mind. ✓
  • She is caring. ✓
  • She is loving towards the children/motherly. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

1.1.4 Maycomb is plagued by racism and so Tom, being a black  man,✓will be found guilty irrespective of his innocence. ✓ 
OR 
Atticus is a respected white lawyer✓ who will lose the respect of  the white Maycomb society if he chooses to defend Tom. ✓ (2) 
1.1.5 'She says they're clean-living folks.' ✓ (1) 
1.1.6     

1. • Courage/Compassion/Moral values. ✓ 
   • Atticus tries to teach his children (Scout and Jem) not to judge  people. He teaches Scout to have compassion/ to treat people  equally. These are some of the values he tries to instil in his own  children therefore he must defend Tom Robinson – it affects him  personally. ✓✓ 
     OR
   • Racial prejudice. ✓ 
   • Atticus is advised not to take the case because Tom will be found  guilty because of the colour of his skin. ✓✓
     NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 2 marks for discussion.
     Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion.
     The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (3)

1.1.7 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Atticus's bravery;
  • his good moral values;
  • the fact that he leads by example;
  • *how Atticus proves that the colour of one's skin does not
  • determine whether one is less of a man/human;
  • the fact that Atticus puts his children's lives at risk and they are  almost killed;
  • his actions can be regarded as irresponsible.
    NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO.
    Credit responses where a combination is given.
    For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response which is  not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be  grounded in the text of the novel. (4)

1.2     

1.2.1           

1. 1.  C/Bob Ewell✓ (1)
   2. Atticus proves that Bob attacks his own daughter (Mayella)  and then tries to blame Tom Robinson. ✓
      Bob swears to take revenge on Atticus. ✓ (2)
   3. Scout is almost choked/smothered/flung to the ground ✓ and  Jem's arm is broken. ✓ (2)
   4.        

• • • He is heartless/cruel/abusive/evil. ✓ 
    • He is vengeful. ✓ 
    • He is dishonest. ✓
    • He is a neglectful father. ✓
      NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

1.2.2   

1. 1. Simile ✓ (1) 
   2. It shows how tightly Bob holds Scout /Bob's strength. ✓ (1)

1.2.3       

1. 1. Boo (Radley) ✓ kills Bob (Ewell)/the attacker/their attacker. ✓ (2) 
   2.            

• • • He means no harm. ✓/He is kind/caring. ✓
    • He is not the monster he is made out to be. ✓
    • He is protective of the children. ✓
    • He is brave/courageous. ✓
      NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

1.2.4 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • People believe Tom is guilty even before the case starts – this is a result of the racial prejudice in Maycomb;
  • The social prejudice in the Maycomb society causes Tom to be secluded with the result that nobody knows his gentle nature;
  • The community finds it hard to believe that a black man can do  something good.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response  which is not well-substantiated.
    The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the novel. (4)

[35] 

QUESTION 2: LORD OF THE FLIES 

Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 2.1 and 2.2. 

2.1

2.1.1       

1. 1.  E/symbolises all that is good ✓
   2. D/a quiet but evil boy ✓
   3. B/undisciplined and fun-loving ✓
   4. C/believes in democracy ✓ (4) 

2.1.2

1. 1. Jack has taken all the boys away to hunt✓
      AND
      therefore there is no fire/smoke to attract the attention of the  ship that passes. ✓ (2)
   2. Yes. This was an opportunity for them to be rescued. ✓
      OR
      No. They needed meat/food, so the hunt was necessary. ✓ (1)

2.1.3 'We had a smashing time.' ✓ (1) 
2.1.4             

• • Jack disobeys Ralph's instruction to keep the fire going. ✓
  • He takes all the boys on the hunt. ✓
  • He does not see the importance of the fire/ignores Ralph's concern  in his excitement about the hunt. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

2.1.5           

• • Savagery/Innate evil. ✓ 
  • The boys have just killed a pig./They are very proud of their actions./They are becoming bloodthirsty./They look savage./They have painted faces./Jack removes his clothing. ✓✓
    
    OR
  • Loss of innocence/Triumph of evil. ✓
  • The boys have killed a pig./They have taken a life./They are losing  the link to civilization./They are proud of their actions./Rescue does not seem to be important. ✓✓
    NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 2 marks for discussion.
    Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion.
    The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (3) 

2.1.6 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Jack is a good disciplinarian;
  •  he provides food for the boys;
  • the hunt creates the element of fun which he deems important to keep the boys happy;
  • he was in a leadership position before - he was head boy of the choir;
  • he is a dictator and rules by instilling fear;
  • he is not concerned about rescue and does things to suit himself;
  • he manipulates the boys.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response  which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the novel. (4) 

2.2

2.2.1 Jack and his tribe attack Ralph's camp and steal Piggy's  glasses. ✓ (1)
2.2.2       

• • Piggy is fed up with Jack bullying him/He is no longer prepared to  tolerate Jack's behaviour.✓
  • Piggy is angry and wants to confront Jack. ✓ 
  • Piggy overestimates Jack's ability to be reasonable. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

2.2.3 (a) Simile ✓ (1) 
         (b) To emphasise Piggy's weak sight without his glasses. ✓/To  show Piggy's near-blindness without his spectacles. ✓/Piggy is  vulnerable without his glasses. ✓ (1)
2.2.4 (a) Simon is killed by the boys who are dancing and chanting ✓and the boy with the birthmark dies in the fire. ✓ (2) 
         (b) They have become savage/bloodthirsty/primitive/uncivilised. ✓ They are now able to kill each other/humans. ✓ (2) \
2.2.5         

• • Ralph is protective./He is afraid Piggy might get hurt. ✓ He is caring./He does not want Piggy to get hurt. ✓ 
  • He is realistic./He knows Jack is stronger than Piggy. ✓
  • He is rational./He knows what the consequences of Piggy's actions  might be. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any THREE of the above. (3)

2.2.6 C/anger ✓ (1)
2.2.7 Piggy is killed by Roger/a rock dislodged from Castle Rock. ✓ (1)
2.2.8 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others:

• • The innate evil of the boys on the island;
  • the boys' ability to be both good and bad (Simon and Ralph (good)  and Roger and Jack (bad);
  • without rules the boys become corruptible;
  • the boys become capable of murder/savagery;
  • the boys are no better than animals because they kill each other;
  • when Jack hunts Ralph down, survival of the fittest reigns supreme.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.  A candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response  which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the novel. (4)

[35]

QUESTION 3: A GRAIN OF WHEAT 

Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 3.1 and 3.2. 

3.1       

 3.1.1   

1. 1. D/works at the library ✓
   2. C/a detention camp ✓
   3. A/the research station ✓
   4. E/Margery's husband ✓ (4)

3.1.2 He says he had sex with her. ✓ (1)
3.1.3 C/mocking. ✓ (1) 
3.1.4         

• • Thompson wants to send Karanja to his house/to Margery/his wife. ✓
  • He wants Karanja to inform his wife that he will not be home for  lunch. ✓ (2) 

3.1.5         

• • Mwaura is suspected of betraying Karanja./He is in the employ of  General R. ✓
  • Karanja is suspected of betraying Kihika. ✓
  • Mwaura does not trust Karanja./Karanja is regarded as a traitor to  the people of Kenya./He betrayed the people of Kenya by working  for the British Government. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

3.1.6 Karanja is easily angered. ✓ 
         He is rude. ✓ 
         He is impatient. ✓ (3)

3.1.7 Open-ended
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • The symbolic significance of the title: in order for wheat to grow it  first has to die.
  • Kenya's struggle for independence can be linked to the  symbolic significance of the title.
  • the loss of life/sacrifice is a necessary element for independence to be gained.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A  candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the novel. (4)

3.2   

3.2.1 He has told Mugo about Mumbi's unfaithfulness. ✓ (1) 
3.2.2   

'Suddenly he wanted to go, get away from Mugo, and cry his  shame in the dark.' ✓
OR 
'Gikonyo felt the discomfort of a man standing before a puritan  priest.' ✓ (1) 

3.2.3 A puritan/priest is somebody who is pure ✓ but Mugo is actually  guilty of betraying Kihika. ✓ (2) 
3.2.4         

1. 1. Metaphor ✓ (1)
   2. It shows/highlights that Gikonyo feels suffocated/weighed down/depressed/frustrated ✓ by his problems (darkness) because of Mumbi's betrayal/the broken relationship between him and Mumbi. ✓ (2) 

3.2.5     

1. 1.  To gain his freedom ✓ to be with Mumbi. ✓ (2) 
   2. He felt that he had betrayed the movement for nothing as  Mumbi had betrayed him. ✓ (1)
   3. Sadness/anger/disappointment ✓ (1) 

3.2.6 Betrayal. ✓ 
         Mumbi betrays Gikonyo by having intercourse with Karanja. She  also has an illegitimate child. Gikonyo feels that he has betrayed the Movement. ✓✓ 
OR 
          Shame. ✓ 
          Gikonyo is ashamed for telling Mugo about Mumbi's  betrayal/behaviour. He is ashamed for baring his soul to Mugo. Gikonyo feels that he has betrayed the Movement. ✓✓ 
NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 2 marks for discussion.
Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion. 
The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (3)

3.2.7 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Their circumstances at the time: because of the war they are   separated;
  • Gikonyo is detained for a long period of time;
  • Mumbi suffers greatly and is vulnerable;
  • Karanja takes advantage of Mumbi's vulnerability;
  • Mumbi should not have succumbed to his advances;
  • Gikonyo should have been more understanding of her  circumstances;
  • their circumstances are no excuse for their behaviour.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.  A candidate can score 1 or 2 or 3 marks for a response  which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the novel. (4)

[35] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 35

SECTION B: DRAMA 

QUESTION 4: ROMEO AND JULIET 

Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 4.1 and 4.2. 

4.1       

4.1.1           

1. 1. B/cousin ✓
   2. D/husband ✓
   3. A/father ✓
   4. C/confidante ✓ (4) 

4.1.2 The two families are enemies/foes/adversaries/have a long standing feud. ✓ (1) 
4.1.3           

1. 1. D/challenge✓ (1)
   2. The beautiful Rosaline will seem ugly✓ when compared to the  other girls at the ball.✓/Compared to the other girls at the ball Romeo will realise that Rosaline is not beautiful✓ but in fact ugly. ✓ (2) 

4.1.4     

• • He is impulsive. ✓
  • Romeo is irrational. ✓
  • He is immature. ✓
  • He loves to exaggerate. ✓
  • He is stubborn. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2) 

4.1.5         

• • Love/Love versus hate. ✓
    Romeo meets Juliet and is stunned by her beauty.
    He instantly falls in love with her.
    He completely forgets about his feelings for Rosaline.
    The love between Romeo and Juliet blooms despite the hate  between the Capulets and the Montagues. ✓✓✓
    OR
  • Fate. ✓
    He only realises later that he is in love with a Capulet.
    He marries Juliet in secret.
    Their union leads to tragic consequences for them. ✓✓✓
    NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 3 marks for discussion.
    Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion.
    The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (4) 

4.1.6 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • The fact that Benvolio prevents fighting, whereas Tybalt is  confrontational;
  • that Benvolio tries to reason, whereas Tybalt wants to settle arguments by fighting;
  • Benvolio is calm/relaxed, whereas Tybalt is provocative.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in the text of the drama. (3) 

4.2     

 4.2.1     

• • Nonchalant/indifferent/unconcerned/casual✓
  • Tybalt is the enemy/not important to Mercutio. ✓ (2) 

4.2.2 Benvolio encourages them to settle their differences in private as  he knows Prince (Escalus) has forbidden any public fighting. ✓/Prince (Escalus) will have them killed. (1) 
4.2.3 Mercutio is quick-tempered/feisty. ✓/He is confrontational/ challenging. ✓/He is mocking. ✓
         Benvolio is calm/resolute. ✓/He is sensible /reasonable. ✓/He is peace-loving. ✓ 
         NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above for each of the characters. 
                    The comparison must be clear for full marks. (4)
4.2.4       

1. 1. Angry/defiant/adamant/determined/challenging/arrogant. ✓ (1) 
   2. Open-ended
      Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate knows and understands the following aspects, among others:

• • • that he responds to an insult by Tybalt;
    • the fact that he challenges Tybalt to a fight;
    • that their fighting could have fatal consequences;
    • Prince Escalus has ordered that there may not be any fights  in public.
      NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO.
      The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in  the text of the drama. (1)

4.2.5           

• 1. Tybalt wants to fight Romeo, Mercutio intervenes and is  killed.✓
     Romeo becomes angry and avenges Mercutio's death and kills Tybalt. ✓
     The Prince arrives and Romeo is banished. ✓ (3)
  2. Juliet mourns the death of her cousin/Tybalt because her  husband Romeo has killed him. ✓
     She is separated from her husband/Romeo which directly leads to both their deaths. ✓ (2)

4.2.6 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Because the love between Romeo and Juliet leads to a secret marriage, it has no influence on the behaviour of others;
  • honesty instead of secrecy could have resulted in  acceptance;
  • out of fear for Capulet and loyalty, the Nurse keeps Juliet's secret;
  • the Friar marries them in secret, instead of trying to mediate a  peaceful end to the feud;
  • Fate plays a role when Romeo is not informed of the plan with the  potion.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.  A candidate can score 1, 2 or 3 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the drama. (4)

[35]

QUESTION 5: NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH 

Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 5.1 and 5.2. 

5.1   

5.1.1

a) C/nephew✓ 
b) D/wife✓ 
c) B/brother✓ 
d) A/daughter✓ (4)

5.1.2 She is a teacher. ✓ (1) 
5.1.3

• • Both Thando and Mandisa attach value to their African  heritage/are proud to be African. ✓When Mandisa tells Thando that Themba called her 'African Princess', Thando says that Sipho called her the same. ✓
  • They are both intellectually/mentally strong/well-educated/ independent thinkers.✓ They have a lively debate on the workings  of the TRC and neither is afraid to voice her opinions./It is clear that both girls have a thorough grounding in the history of the  Struggle. ✓
  • Both girls respect tradition. ✓ Even though the African custom of  staying home to mourn is strange to Mandisa, she agrees to  respect it when informed by Thando. ✓ Both girls regard family as important. ✓ Thando immediately  treats Mandisa like a sister (she even calls her 'sister').Mandisa not only agrees to change her arrangements and stay with  Thando and Sipho, but she is also clearly delighted to learn more of her African family. ✓
  • Both girls are hardworking/ ambitious.✓ Thando holds two jobs  and Mandisa comes to the funeral but will also see a fashion designer on work related issues. ✓ (4)
    NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above combinations as well as  other relevant and correct examples from the text.

5.1.4 He does not have faith/believe in the TRC/does not want to relive  the sorrow/horror that is revealed at the TRC/is more concerned about the restructuring at the library than the events at the TRC. ✓ (1) 
5.1.5 ('My father always said that) he was the best in the whole  country.' ✓ 
         NOTE: Do not penalise if quotation marks are omitted. (1)

5.1.6   

• • Truth/Reconciliation/Forgiveness/Justice. ✓
    At the amnesty hearings the perpetrator reveals the truth.
    Depending on the nature of the crime they are granted amnesty.
    Some perpetrators of apartheid crimes were sentenced to lengthy prison terms.
    Some victims/families received retribution for crimes committed  against them during apartheid. ✓✓✓
    NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 3 marks for discussion.
    Accept other valid interpretations or the discussion.
    The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (4)

5.1.7 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Mandisa grew up in a different country/England and lacks full knowledge of South Africa/TRC;
  • her lack of understanding of the concept of reconciliation and  forgiveness;
  • she believes there should be punishment for crimes;
  • she has a lack of knowledge of the apartheid era.
    NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the drama. (3) 

5.2

5.2.1 Port Elizabeth✓ (1)
5.2.2 B/figuratively ✓ (1)
5.2.3 Anger/fury/shock/disbelief/outrage. ✓ (1)
5.2.4         

1. 1. Pride/admiration/satisfaction/gratitude ✓
      Due to her father's achievements/good work in the library.✓
      OR
      Anger/bitterness/resentment✓
      Sipho did not get the job. ✓ (2)
   2. Admiration/respect/appreciation/ ✓
      She believes in Sipho since she recommends him for the position as Chief Librarian. ✓/She is concerned about him when he is not appointed as Chief Librarian. ✓/She  appreciates him when she acknowledges that he is valuable to  the running of the library. ✓
      NOTE: Accept any other relevant examples. (2)

5.2.5 Thando consoles her father.✓/She empathises with him.✓/She  feels sorry for him. ✓ 
          Mandisa is angry./She is furious./ She is disgusted.✓/ Mandisa  incites him to take action. ✓ 
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above for each of the characters. The comparison must be clear for full marks. (4)

5.2.6       

Sipho is caring because he keeps warm water when Thando comes from work. ✓ 
He is sometimes very strict when he tells her she cannot go to  Johannesburg with her cousin. ✓ 
Thando respects her father when she obeys his orders. ✓ 
Thando is a dutiful daughter as she does not want to leave the  house before she prepares dinner. ✓ 
They observe similar traditional values as both adhere to the  mourning period. ✓ 
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

5.2.7 Open-ended 
          Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • • Themba could have mended his relationship with Sipho;
    • he could have apologised for the affair;
    • he could have sought forgiveness from Sipho;
    • Themba felt ashamed for having an affair with Sipho's wife;
    • his return might have caused Sipho more pain/harm;
    • he made a new life for himself in London.
      NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO.
      Credit responses where a combination is given.
      For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
      A candidate can score 1, 2 or 3 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in the text of the drama. (4)

[35] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 35

SECTION C: SHORT STORIES
QUESTION 6 
Candidates are required to answer BOTH Questions i.e. QUESTIONS 6.1 AND 6.2
6.1 'The Sisters'  

6.1.1 Marrying old Jan Redlinghuis./humilation ✓ (1)
6.1.2 B/see her mother in heaven ✓ (1) 
6.1.3           

• • Jan is insensitive when he drives Marta around in the streets of  Platkops✓/He is boastful when he tells everybody that Burgert sold Marta to him. ✓/Jan is unreasonable by requesting Marta in return  for land. ✓
  • Marta is sensitive to her father's plight when she agrees to marry  Jan. ✓/She is loyal to her father when she decides to save him  financially. ✓/Marta is obedient when she allows Jan to humiliate  her. ✓/She is loving/kind when she never judges anyone/ Jan. ✓
    NOTE: Accept any ONE of the above for each character. The comparison must be clear for full marks. Accept any other relevant, correct examples. (2) 

6.1.4

1. 1. Zeekoegatt ✓and Bitterwater. ✓ (2) 
   2. Only Burgert is happy with the state of his lands. ✓
      Sukey realises that Marta is suffering/is being humiliated./
      Sukey knows that the water-cases caused her mother's  death. ✓
      NOTE: Award one mark for each character. (2)
   3. Burgert is materialistic /obsessed /greedy/selfish✓ (1)

6.1.5\

Powerlessness of women/Women being exploited/abused. ✓ Marta and Sukey are powerless in this situation. They have no  control over what is happening to them.
Marta is the victim of her  father's greed. ✓✓✓ 
OR 
Family betrayal/Obsession/Greed/Selfishness.✓ Sukey feels betrayed by her father. She blames her father for Marta's  humiliation. It is his greed that causes the humiliation.✓✓✓ 
NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 3 marks for discussion. 
Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion. 
The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (4) 

6.1.6 Open-ended 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • Marta is brought up to be obedient; 
  • she is too good/gentle to resist Jan; 
  • she believes that it is part of the sacrifice she is making for her  father;
  • she should never have agreed to marry Jan;
  • she should have stood up for herself and refused to be driven around in public;
  • she should have remembered her mother's fate;
  • Marta knew full well what Jan Redlinghuis was like;
    NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO.
    Credit responses where a combination is given.
    For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1,2 or 3 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in the text of the short  story. (4)

QUESTION 6.2 

6.2 'The Soft Voice of the Serpent' 

6.2.1 

1. 1. The garden (of the young couple). ✓ (1) 
   2. The young man is convalescing/recovering/trying to heal physically ✓ and emotionally ✓ from the loss of his leg. 
      OR
      The young man has lost a leg✓ therefore the peaceful and  beautiful garden makes it ideal for the man's healing  process. ✓ (2) 

6.2.2   

1. 1. Simile ✓ (1)
   2. He is harmless because he is in a wheelchair and cannot move ✓ just like the locust which has also lost its (left) leg. ✓
      OR
      The man and the locust share a similar condition. ✓ (2)
   3.        
      • He is loving/gentle towards her. ✓
      • He cares for her. ✓
      • He is protective of her. ✓
        NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2) 

6.2.3       

• • • She is disgusted/in disbelief that she injured the locust. ✓ 
    • She feels guilty for hurting the locust. ✓ 
    • She regrets her actions. ✓
      NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

6.2.4

• • The man is angry at the world because of the loss of his leg/he is  confined to the wheelchair. ✓ 
  • He struggles to accept his handicap.✓  
  • He is sometimes impatient with his wife when he answers her  curtly. ✓ 
  • He becomes irritated with his wife when she pities the locust. ✓  
  • The woman is not angry at the world/is more positive because she  always acts in a pleasant manner. ✓ 
  • The woman has come to accept her husband's disability when she  treats him with great respect.✓ 
  • She is empathetic towards her husband. ✓
  • She is patient/tolerant of his mood swings when she does not react  to his outbursts. ✓ 
    NOTE:
    Accept any TWO of the above for each character. 
    The comparison must be clear for full marks. 
    Accept any other relevant, correct examples (4)

6.2.5 Open-ended. 
Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate  knows and understands the following aspects, among others:

• • • The garden of the couple is similar to the Garden of Eden;
    • there is no real serpent in this garden;
    • the locust is symbolic of the serpent/ the betrayal of a serpent; 
    • the locust (serpent) changes the relationship between the man and the woman;
    • the man's peace is shattered with the arrival of the locust;
    • the young man feels betrayed when the locust can still fly after its injury.
      NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.  A candidate can score 1, 2 or 3 marks for a response  which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's  interpretation must be grounded in the text of the short  story. (4)

TOTAL SECTION C: [35] 

SECTION D: POETRY 
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions. 
7.1 'The serf' 

7.1.1

1. 1. Italian/Petrarchan sonnet/ Irregular sonnet ✓ (1)
   2.  The first eight lines are known as the octave. ✓
      The last six lines are known as the sestet. ✓
      OR
      In this sonnet half of line 9 forms part of the octave ✓and the other half belongs to the sestet. /The turning point is in the middle of line 9 and not in the beginning.✓ (2) 

7.1.2   

1. 1.  'torrid' ✓ (1) 
   2. It is so hot that he does not want/need to wear a shirt/ clothes. ✓/He works very slowly/sleepwalks. ✓ (1)
   3. D/a cloud of dust✓ (1)
   4. 'slow somnambulist'✓ (1)
   5. The serf works mechanically as if he is asleep. ✓
      He is not enthusiastic. ✓/ He seems to find the work boring. ✓ (2) 

7.1.3 His heart is empty and hurt, ✓ just as the land is left bruised/hurt  after ploughing. ✓ (2) 
7.1.4 The serf will physically destroy the symbols of oppression ✓and be  freed from forced labour. ✓ (2) 
7.1.5 Threatening/ominous/foreboding/rebellious. ✓ (1)
7.1.6 Open-ended 

Accept a text-based response which shows that the candidate knows and understands the following aspects, among others: 

• • The difficult working circumstances of the serf;
  •  that he has been enslaved/has lost his land and has to work for  somebody else; 
  • the fact that he has lost his individuality/identity as a proud  warrior; 
  • he has suffered severely at the hands of his oppressors; 
  • given the opportunity, the labourer will conquer his masters; 
  • that the serf will destroy the symbols of power and wealth.
    NOTE: Do not award a mark for PITIED or FEARED 
    Credit responses where a combination is given.
    For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. 
    A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which  is not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in the text of the poem. (3) 

7.2 'An elementary school classroom in a slum' 

7.2.1     

1. 1.  To emphasise how great the distance is between the slum  where the children are✓ and the sea and rivers which would  offer them a different life experience. ✓ (2)
   2.                
      • There is a tall girl. ✓
      • She has a big head.✓
      • There is a very thin boy. ✓
      • The boy's eyes are red.✓
      • There is a disabled/disfigured boy.✓
      • There is a boy who looks like he is dreaming.✓
      • The children are pale.✓
      • The children's hair is untidy/unkempt. ✓
        NOTE: Accept any THREE of the above. (3)
   3. He escapes in his imagination. ✓ (1) 

7.2.2

(a) The children's world is the classroom and the streets they live  in, ✓not the world map on the wall. ✓ (2)
(b) Metaphor✓ (1)
(c) Open-ended 

Accept a response which shows knowledge and  understanding of, among others:

• • • The fact that the pictures can be an escape mechanism;
    • that these pictures can be inspirational;
    • the fact that education is the key to escape poverty;
    • that the pictures make them realise that there is a better world out there.
      NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO.
      Credit responses where a combination is given.
      For full marks, the response must be well substantiated. A candidate can score 1, 2 or 3 marks  for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate's interpretation must be grounded in the  text of the poem. (4) 

7.2.3 Their living experience is darkened by their living conditions in the  slums, ✓meaning they do not have any hope for a bright future. ✓ (2)
7.2.4 Hope for the future. ✓ 
         He pleads/appeals to all officials to get involved to improve/make  better the lives/future of these children. ✓✓ 
NOTE: 1 mark for identification + 2 marks for discussion. 
Accept other valid interpretations for the discussion. 
The discussion must be relevant to the initial theme. (3) 

TOTAL SECTION D: 35 

GRAND TOTAL: 70

English Paper Three (P3)
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers And Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE SECTIONS:
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Longer Transactional Text (30)
   SECTION C: Shorter Transactional Text (20)
2. Answer ONE question from EACH section.
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
5. You must plan (e.g. using a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words), edit and proofread your work. The plan must appear BEFORE each text.
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line  through all planning.
7. You are strongly advised to spend approximately:
   • 80 minutes on SECTION A
   • 40 minutes on SECTION B
   • 30 minutes on SECTION C.
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
9. Write down the title/heading of each response. Give your own title/heading if  one has not been provided. 
10. The title/heading must NOT be included when doing a word count. 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY 

QUESTION 1

• Write an essay of between 250 and 300 words in length on ONE of the following  topics.  
• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE of the essay correctly, for example  1.1 My entire future lay in that sealed envelope. 
• Give your own title if your choice is QUESTION 1.2, 1.7.1 OR 1.7.2. 
• Spend approximately 80 minutes on this section.

1.1 My entire future lay in that sealed envelope. [50]
1.2 Write an essay that includes the following words: 
      We could not stand each other when we met, but now ... [50]
1.3 How I reached my most difficult goals. [50]
1.4 It was picture perfect. [50]
1.5 Problems can arise if one generation fails to understand the other. [50]
1.6 What you wear reflects who you are. [50] 
1.7 Choose ONE of the pictures and write an essay on a topic that comes to  mind. Write the question number (1.7.1 or 1.7.2) and give your essay a  suitable title. 
 
NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you  have chosen. 
1.7.1    [50]  

1.7.2         [50] 

SECTION B: LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to ONE of the following transactional writing tasks. 
• The body of your response should be between 120 and 150 words in length. 
• Write down the NUMBER and the HEADING of the text you have chosen, for  example 2.1 FORMAL LETTER. 
• Pay particular attention to format, language and register. 
• Spend approximately 40 minutes on this section.

2.1 FORMAL LETTER

You have been experiencing problems with your cell phone which you  recently purchased. 
Write a letter of complaint to the manager of the store from which you bought  the cell phone. [30] 

2.2 OBITUARY 

A close colleague has passed away suddenly. His or her family has asked  you to write an obituary paying tribute to him or her. [30] 

2.3 REVIEW 

You are the owner of a store that hires out films/DVDs. You provide reviews  of films to assist your customers in their selection.  
Write a review of a recently released film/DVD that is suitable for family  viewing. [30] 

2.4 SPEECH 

Your best friend will be getting married soon and you have been invited to  speak at the wedding. 

Write out the speech that you will deliver at the wedding. [30]

TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C: SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT  

QUESTION 3 

• Choose ONE of the following topics and write a short text.  
• The body of your response should be between 80 and 100 words in length. 
• Write down the NUMBER and the HEADING of the text you have chosen, for  example, 3.1 ADVERTISEMENT. 
• Spend approximately 30 minutes on this section. 

3.1 ADVERTISEMENT 

You have just completed your studies and have decided to place an  advertisement in a local newspaper to seek employment. Write out the  content of your advertisement. 

NOTE: Do NOT include illustrations or drawings. [20]

3.2 DIARY ENTRIES 

Your close friend has left you feeling disappointed about something. You have  decided to discuss the matter with him or her. 
Write out TWO diary entries expressing your feelings before and after your  discussion with your friend. [20] 

3.3 INSTRUCTIONS 

You are a volunteer at your local library. The librarian has reported that some  learners do not behave well when visiting the library. He or she has asked you  to write out a set of instructions on how to behave when using the library. 
Write out the instructions. [20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20
GRAND TOTAL: 100  

English Paper One (P1)
Grade 12
Amended Senior Certificate Exam
Past Papers And Memos 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30)
   SECTION B:  Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language (40) 
2. Answer ALL the questions.
3. Read ALL the instructions carefully.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. Leave a line between answers. 
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
7. For multiple-choice questions, write only the question number and the letter  (A–D) of the correct answer.
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction.
9. Use the following time frames as a guideline:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 30 minutes
   SECTION C: 40 minutes
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION  
QUESTION 1 
Read BOTH TEXT A and TEXT B and answer the set questions.
TEXT A

NOTE:  

• Answer ALL the questions in your OWN WORDS.
• For one-word answers, write only the question number and the word. • For multiple-choice questions, write only the question number and the letter  (A–D) of the correct answer.

1.1 How do South African youngsters feel about the future? (2) 
1.2 Explain what the writer means when he refers to teenagers' way of life as  'continuously connected' (lines 3–4). (2) 
1.3 Refer to paragraph 2. 

Why is it surprising that cellphones and clothes have dropped out of the top  three in the Sunday Times Generation Next Youth Brand Survey of 2015? (2) 

1.4 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence. 

In the Sunday Times Generation Next Youth Brand Survey of 2015, music  was ranked ... 

1. first.
2. second.
3. third.
4. fourth. (1)

1.5 Quote THREE pressures that the youth experience, according to Janet Davel. (3)
1.6 What does it mean to multitask (line 12)? (1) 
1.7 How do parents who spend too much time working set a poor example for  their children? State THREE ways. (3)
1.8 Anastasia Savopoulos says that more emphasis is placed on electronic  relationships than on real ones. What does she mean by this? (2) 
1.9 Discuss how the fear of missing out (paragraph 8) may become a negative  factor in today's technological world. (2) 
1.10 Why do today's school-going youth face much higher workloads than the  previous generations? (2) 
1.11 Find a word from the passage that means the same as 'adolescents' (line 52). (1)
1.12 Explain Janet Davel's intention or goal in the concluding paragraph. (3)

TEXT B 

1.13 What is the SECOND least popular mode of transport used by South  Africans? Give a reason for your answer. (2)                                                                                                      [Source: Mail & Guardian, 17–23 July 2015] 

1.14 How do the graphics show that the taxi is the most popular mode of  transport? (2) 
1.15 The artist used a bar graph to show how South Africans travel. Discuss the  effectiveness of conveying information in this way. (2) 
                                                                                                                                                                               TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2 
You have been asked to write an article on what parents can do to encourage children  to read. The article will be placed in an educational newspaper.  
Read TEXT C below and list SEVEN points that you will include in your article on how  to encourage children to read. 
INSTRUCTIONS 

1. Your summary must be written in point form.
2. List your SEVEN points in full sentences, using no more than 70 words.
3. Number your sentences from 1 to 7.
4. Write only ONE point per sentence.
5. Use your OWN words as far as possible.
6. Indicate the total number of words you have used in brackets at the end of your  summary.

TEXT C 

                                                                                                                                                                                                                           TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE 

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING AN ADVERTISEMENT 
Study the advertisement (TEXT D) below and answer the set questions. 
TEXT D 

3.1 Whose attention does the advertiser hope to attract in this advertisement? (1)
3.2 Refer only to the visual aspects of TEXT D. 
      Discuss ONE advertising technique that is used to capture the reader's  attention. (2) 
3.3 Refer to the body copy of the advertisement. 
      Discuss whether the use of the word 'hazardous' is effective in the  advertisement. (2)
3.4 The advertisement is for the R.O.S.E. Foundation, whose logo appears on the  left side. 
       Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence: 
        R.O.S.E. is an example of a … 

1. homonym.
2. acronym.
3. synonym.
4. pseudonym. (1)

3.5 Which TWO clues in the contact details prove that the R.O.S.E. Foundation  operates in South Africa? (2) 
3.6 The contraction 'Dont' in the text is incorrect. 
      Rewrite the word, inserting an apostrophe in the correct place. (1) 
3.7 Give the singular form of the underlined word in the following sentence. Write  down only the correct word.  
      There are many oil companies that support the responsible disposal of oil. (1)

[10]

QUESTION 4: ANALYSING A CARTOON 
Read the cartoon (TEXT E) below and answer the set questions.  
TEXT E 

 Calvin and Hobbes by Bill Watterson 

4.1 Refer to FRAME 1. 
      Where does the conversation between Calvin and his father take place? Give a reason for your answer. (2) 
4.2 Give a reason why Calvin moves closer to his father in FRAMES 2 and 3. (1)
4.3 Ellipsis (…) is used differently in FRAMES 3 and 4.  
      Explain these TWO different uses of ellipsis. (2)
4.4 Refer to FRAME 4. 

4.4.1 Which verbal and visual clues does the cartoonist use to show that  Calvin's father is upset? (3)
4.4.2 Discuss whether Calvin's father is justified in being upset. (2)

[10]

QUESTION 5: LANGUAGE AND EDITING SKILLS 

5.1 Read the passage (TEXT F) below, which has some deliberate errors, and  answer the set questions.  

TEXT F 

5.1.1 Correct the SINGLE error in each of the following sentences. Write  down ONLY the question numbers and the words you have  corrected. 

1. In a case of mistaken identity, an old Land Rover recieved its  first ever professional makeover from a dreamy mechanic. (1)
2. A farmers workhorse is a wonderful vehicle. (1)
3. When a vehicle on his farm gives him problems, he phones  the professionals and lets they worry about it. (1)
4. The following week the mechanic arrived by our farm and began repairing our old Land Rover. (1)

5.1.2 Name TWO punctuation marks that can be used to replace the  commas in the following sentence:
         Our neighbour Pieter, a pharmacist, does not waste time with  engines. (2) 
5.1.3 Identify the parts of speech of the underlined words. 
         She is often driven in harsh conditions. (2)
5.1.4 Rewrite the following sentence in the active voice: 
         The Land Rover was given her first professional makeover by  the mechanic. (1) 
5.1.5 Change the following sentence into reported speech: 
         Pieter told the mechanic, 'I was looking for you the whole day.' 
         Start with: 
         Pieter told the mechanic that ... (4)
5.1.6 Choose the correct answer to complete the following sentence: 
         The figure of speech used to describe the writer's Land Rover in  the first nine lines of the passage is … 

1. a metaphor.
2. a simile.
3. assonance.
4. personification. (1)

5.2 Study the text (TEXT G) below and answer the set questions. 

TEXT G 

5.2.1 Rewrite the following sentence in the past tense:
         The entire country knows when the Springboks are playing. (2)
5.2.2 Give the antonym of the word 'unites' in the following sentence: 
        The entire country knows when the Springboks are playing – green and gold is worn proudly and becomes a symbol that unites us on match days. (1) 
5.2.3 Study the following sentence and use a homophone for the word  'soar' in a sentence of your own. 
         Their fans give the Bokke all the support they deserve to soar to new heights. (1)
5.2.4 Rewrite the following sentence and give the correct form of the  word in brackets: 
         Watching the Springboks at the stadium is (good) than watching  them on television. (1) 
5.2.5 Complete the following tag question. 
         The Springboks strive to remain the best, ...? (1)

[20]
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 80

Mathematics Paper 2
Grade 12
Senior Certificate Examinations
Past Paper (memorandum) 2016

NOTE:

• If a candidate answered a question TWICE, mark only the FIRST attempt.
• If a candidate has crossed out an attempt to answer a question and did not redo it, mark the crossed-out version.
• Consistent accuracy applies in ALL aspects of the marking memorandum. Stop marking at the second calculation error
• Assuming answers/values in order to solve a problem is NOT acceptable.

MEMORANDUM

 QUESTION 1

1.1	Mean = 189/11                      Answer only: Full marks  = 17,18	✓189  ✓ answer   (2)
1.2	Min = 8, max = 26  Median = 19  Q1 = 10, Q3 = 24  ∴ (8 ; 10 ; 19 ; 24 ; 26)	✓ min, max ✓ median  ✓ Q1 & Q3  (3)
1.3		✓ box ✓ whiskers   (2)
1.4	The data is skewed to the left  OR  Negatively skewed	✓ answer (1)  ✓ answer (1)
1.5	SD/SA = 6,46	✓✓ answer  (2)
1.6	17,18 + 6,46 = 23,64  ∴ 3 destinations	✓ interval ✓ answer  (2)  [12]

QUESTION 2

QUESTION 3

QUESTION 4

4.1	radius ⊥ tangent	✓ R  (1)
4.2	CR² = TR² + CT² (Pyth)  CR² =  20² + 10² = 500  CR = √500 or 10 √5	✓ substitution ✓ answer    (2)
4.3	CR² = (X2 - X1)² + (Y2 -Y1)² 500 = (k - 3)² + (21 +1)² k² - 6k + 9 + 484 = 500 k² - 6k - 7 = 0 (k-7)(k+1) = 0 k = 7   or k = -1           OR CR² = (X2 - X1)² + (Y2 -Y1)² 500 = (k - 3)² + (21 +1)² (k - 3)² = 16   k - 3 = 4     or k - 3 = -4         k = 7   or k = -1	✓ substitution  ✓ standard form  ✓ factors  ✓ k = 7             (4)  ✓ substitution  ✓ square form  ✓ square root  ✓ k = 7               (4)
4.4	(x - 3)² + (y + 1)² = 100	✓✓ answer      (2)
4.5	CS = 10 and CS ⊥ PS  ∴S(3; −11)  ∴y = – 11	✓S(3; −11)  ✓ answer    (2)
4.6.1	S(3;-11) ∴ 3(-11) - 4x = 35 x = -17 ∴ P(-17;-11)  OR 4/3x + 35/3 = -11 4/3x = -68/3 x = -17 ∴ P(-17;-11)	✓ substituting ✓ answer (2) ✓ equating ✓ answer  (2)
4.6.1	PT = PS [tangents from common point]  = 17 + 3 = 20 units OR = √500   or 10√5 PT² = PC² - TC² [Pyth th] = 500 - 100 = 400 ∴ PT = 20     OR = √500   or 10√5 ΔPTC = ΔRTC [90ºHS] ∴ PT = TR ∴ PT = 20	✓ S ✓R ✓ answer     (3) ✓ value of PC  ✓ using Pyth ✓ answer     (3)  ✓ value of PC ✓ S/R or proved  ✓ answer   (3)
4.7.1	M(3;−16)	✓answer  (1)
4.7.2	Radius = 4	✓ answer  (1)
4.7.3	r1 + r2 = 10 +4 = 14 distance CM =  = √225 = 15 CM >  r1 + r2 Therefore the two circles do not intersect or touch	✓r1 + r2 ✓ 15  ✓explanation   (3)  [21]

QUESTION 5

5.1.1(a)	sin T = 1/√5 = √5/5 = 0,45	✓value   (1)
5.1.1(b)	cos S = 3/√10 = 3√10/10 = 0,95	✓value (1)
5.1.2	cos (T + S) = cosTcosS - sinTsinS = 6/√50 - 1/√50 = 5/√50  or  1/√2 or √2/2	✓expansion ✓2/√5 ✓1/√10  ✓ simplification  ✓ answer  (5)
5.2	1                    - tan2(180º + θ) cos(360º - θ)sin(90º - θ) =                    1                    - tan2 θ              (cos θ)(cos  θ) =                    1                    - (sin2 θ)                   (cos2    θ)                 (cos2    θ) =   1 - sin2 θ           cos2    θ =   cos2   θ     or    1 - sin2 θ                cos2    θ             1 - sin2 θ	✓cosθ ✓cosθ ✓tan2 θ  ✓sin2 θ     cos2    θ      ✓identity  ✓ answer (6)
5.3	(sin x - cos x)2 = [3/4]2 sin²x - 2sinxcosx + cos²x = 9/16 1 - 2sinxcosx = 9/16  2sinxcosx = 7/16 ∴sin2x = 7/16	✓ squaring both   sides ✓expanding LHS ✓ using identity  ✓ simplifying  ✓answer    (5)   [18]

QUESTION 6

6.1	4sinx + 2 cos 2x = 2  2sinx + cos 2x - 1 = 0  2sinx +  (1 - 2sin²x ) - 1 = 0  2sin²x -  2sinx = 0  2sinx (sin x - 1) = 0  2sin x = 0 or sin x - 1 = 0  sin x = 0        sin x = 1  x = k.180º   or x = 90º +k.360,k∈Z	✓using identity  ✓ standard form  ✓ factors  ✓sin x = 0 or   sin x =1  ✓ k.180°  ✓ x = k.180º   or x = 90º +k.360,k∈Z (6)
6.2.1		✓ turning point   (–90° ; –3)   ✓ turning point   (90° ; 1)  ✓ (–180° ; –1) &  (0° ; –1)
6.2.2	(−90°;0°)  OR − 90°< x < 0°	✓ ✓ answer   (2)  ✓ ✓ answer (2)
6.2.3	f(x) = g(x) ∴ -180º ; 0º; 90º; 180º f(x +30º) = g(x + 30º) ∴x = -30º; 60º ; 150º	✓ any ONE correct ✓ other 2 correct   (2) [13]

QUESTION 7

QUESTION 8
8.1            

8.2          

QUESTION 9

9.2       

QUESTION 10

10.2        

 TOTAL: 150

Mathematics Paper 2
Grade 12
Senior Certificate Examinations
Past Paper (questions) 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions. 

1. This question paper consists of 10 questions.
2. Answer ALL the questions.
3. Clearly show ALL calculations, diagrams, graphs, et cetera that you have used in determining your answers.
4. Answers only will not necessarily be awarded full marks.
5. You may use an approved scientific calculator (non-programmable and non-graphical), unless stated otherwise.
6. If necessary, round off answers to TWO decimal places, unless stated otherwise.
7. Diagrams are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
8. An information sheet with formulae is included at the end of the question paper.
9. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1 
On a certain day a tour operator sent 11 tour buses to 11 different destinations. The table below shows the number of passengers on each bus.

1.1 Calculate the mean number of passengers travelling in a tour bus. (2)
1.2 Write down the five-number summary of the data. (3)
1.3 Draw a box and whisker diagram for the data. Use the number line provided in the ANSWER BOOK. (2)
1.4 Refer to the box and whisker diagram and comment on the skewness of the data set. (1)
1.5 Calculate the standard deviation for this data set. (2)
1.6 A tour is regarded as popular if the number of passengers on a tour bus is one standard deviation above the mean. How many destinations were popular on this particular day? (2)
[12]

QUESTION 2 
On the first school day of each month information is recorded about the temperature at midday (in °C) and the number of 500 ml bottles of water that were sold at the tuck shop of a certain school during the lunch break. The data is shown in the table below and represented on the scatter plot. The least squares regression line for this data is drawn on the scatter plot. 


2.1 Identify an outlier in the data. (1)
2.2 Determine the equation of the least squares regression line. (3)
2.3 Estimate the number of 500 ml bottles of water that will be sold if the temperature is 28 °C at midday. (2)
2.4 Refer to the scatter plot. Would you say that the relation between the temperature at midday and the number of 500 ml bottles of water sold is weak or strong? Motivate your answer. (2)
2.5 Give a reason why the observed trend for this data cannot continue indefinitely. (1)
[9]

QUESTION 3 
In the diagram below (not drawn to scale) A(-8; 6), B(8; 10), C and D(-2; 0) are the vertices of a trapezium having BC|| AD. T is the midpoint of DB. From B, the straight line drawn parallel to the y-axis cuts DC in F[ 8;3¹/₃] and the x-axis in M. 

3.1 Calculate the gradient of AD. (2)
3.2 Determine the equation of BC in the form y= mx + c. (3)
3.3 Prove that BDI AD. (3)
3.4 Calculate the size of BÔM. (2)
3.5 If it is given that TC ||DM and points T and C are symmetrical about line BM, calculate the coordinates of C. (3)
3.6 Calculate the area of ABDF. (5)
[18]

QUESTION 4 
A circle having C(3 ;-1) as centre and a radius of 10 units is drawn. PTR is a tangent to this circle at T. R(k;21), C and P are the vertices of a triangle. TR = 20 units. 

4.1 Give a reason why TC 1 TR.(1)
4.2 Calculate the length of RC. Leave your answer in surd form. (2)
4.3 Calculate the value of k if R lies in the first quadrant. (4)
4.4 Determine the equation of the circle having centre C and passing through T. Write your answer in the form (x -a)² +(y- b)² = r² (2)
4.5 PS, a tangent to the circle at S, is parallel to the x-axis. Determine the equation of PS. (2)
4.6 The equation of PTR is 3y - 4x = 35 

4.6.1 Calculate the coordinates of P.(2)

4.6.2 Calculate, giving a reason, the length of PT.(3)

4.7 Consider another circle with equation (x – 3)² +(y+16)² = 16 and having centre M. 

4.7.1 Write down the coordinates of centre M. (1)
4.7.2 Write down the length of the radius of this circle. (1)
4.7.3 Prove that the circle with centre C and the circle with centre M do not intersect or touch. (3)

[21] 

QUESTION 5 
5.1 In the diagram PR ⊥ TS in obtuse triangle PTS.
PT = √5; TR = 2; PR = 1; PS = √10 and RS = 3 

5.1.1 Write down the value of:

(a) sin Î (1)
(b) cos ŝ  (1)

5.1.2 Calculate, WITHOUT using a calculator, the value of cos(Τ + S) (5)

5.2 Determine the value of: 
                         1                                    - tan² (180º + θ)        (6)

COS(360º - θ).sin(90º - θ)
5.3 If sin x - cos x = ³/₄, , calculate the value of sin 2x WITHOUT using a calculator. (5)
[18]

QUESTION 6 
6.1 Determine the general solution of 4sin x + 2 cos2x = 2 
6.2 The graph of g(x) = -cos 2x for x € [-180º ; 180º) is drawn below. 

6.2.1 Draw the graph of f(x) = 2 sin x-1 for x€ [-180° ; 180°] on the set of axes provided in the ANSWER BOOK.(3)
6.2.2 Write down the values of x for which g is strictly decreasing in the interval x€[-180° ; 180°] (2)
6.2.3 Write down the value(s) of x for which   f(x + 30°)- g (x + 30°) = 0 for x € [-180° ; 180°]  (2)
[13] 

QUESTION 7 
From point A an observer spots two boats, B and C, at anchor. The angle of depression of boat B from A is 0. D is a point directly below A and is on the same horizontal plane as B and C. BD = 64 m, AB = 81 m and AC = 87 m.

7.1 Calculate the size of θ to the nearest degree. (3)
7.2 If it is given that BÂC = 82,6º, calculate BC, the distance between the boats. (3)
7.3 If BỘC = 110º, calculate the size of DĈB. (3)
[9]
Give reasons for ALL statements in QUESTIONS 8, 9, 10 and 11. 

QUESTION 8 
8.1 In the diagram below, P, M, T and R are points on a circle having centre 0. PR produced meets MS at S. Radii OM and OR and the chords MT and TR are drawn. Τ₁= 148°, PMO=18° and Ŝ= 43°

Calculate, with reasons, the size of: 

8.1.1 P (2)
8.1.2  O₁ (2)
8.1.3 OMS (2)
8.1.4  R₃, if it is given that TMS= 6° (2)

8.2 In the diagram below, the circle passes through A, B and E. ABCD is a parallelogram. BC is a tangent to the circle at B. AE = AB. Let Ĉ₁ = x 

8.2.1 Give a reason why B₁ = x (1)
8.2.2 Name, with reasons, THREE other angles equal in size to x. (6)
8.2.3 Prove that ABED is a cyclic quadrilateral. (3)

[18]

QUESTION 9 
9.1 Complete the statement so that it is TRUE: 
The angle between the tangent to a circle and the chord drawn from the point of contact is equal to the angle ...    (1)
9.2 In the diagram below, two unequal circles intersect at A and B. AB is produced to C such that CD is a tangent to the circle ABD at D. F and G are points on the smaller circle such that CGF and DBF are straight lines. AD and AG are drawn.

Prove that: 

9.2.1 B₄ =D₁ +D₂ (4)
9.2.2 AGCD is a cyclic quadrilateral (4)
9.2.3  DC = CF (4)

[13]

QUESTION 10
10.1 In the diagram below, ΔMVT and ΔAKF are drawn such that M =Â, V =K and T = F

Use the diagram in the ANSWER BOOK to prove the theorem which states that if two triangles are equiangular, then the corresponding sides are in proportion, 
that is:   MV = MT
              AK     AF
10.2 In the diagram below, cyclic quadrilateral EFGH is drawn. Chord EH produced and chord FG produced meet at K. M is a point on EF such that MG || EK. Also KG = EF 

10.2.1 Prove that: 

(a)  ΔKGH ||| ΔKEF  (4)
(b)  EF² = KE .GH (2)
(c) KG² = EM . KF (3)

10.2.2 If it is given that KE = 20 units, KF = 16 units and GH = 4 units, calculate the length of EM. (3)

[19]

TOTAL: 150 

INFORMATION SHEET 

Mathematics Paper 1
Grade 12
Senior Certificate Examinations
Past Paper (memorandum) 2016
NOTE:

• If a candidate answers a question TWICE, only mark the FIRST attempt.
• Consistent accuracy applies in ALL aspects of the marking memorandum.

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1

1.1.1	4x2 - 25 = 0 (2x - 5)(2x + 5) = 0 x = 5/2 OR x= -5/2 OR 4x2 = 25 x2 = 25/4 x = ± √25/4 x = 5/2 OR x= -5/2	✓✓ factors   ✓ answers          (3)     ✓ x2 = 25/4 ✓ x = ± √25/4 ✓ answer           (3)
1.1.2	x2 - 5x - 2 = 0 x = -b ± √b2 - 4ac                 2a = -(-5) ± √ (-5)2 - 4(1)(-2)                        2(1) = (5) ± √33         2  x= 5,37 or  x = -0,37 OR  x2 - 5x + 25/4 = 2 +  25/4  [x - 5/2] 2 =33/4 x - 5/2 = ± √33/2 x = 5 ± √33           2   x= 5,37 or  x = -0,37	✔ correct substitution into correct formula   ✔ answer  ✔ answer  (3)    ✔ for adding 25/4 on both   sides      ✔answer  ✔answer (3)
1.1.3		✔method     ✔critical values in context of inequality  ✔inequality or interval   (3)    ✔change of inequality  ✔critical values in context of inequality  ✔inequality or interval  (3)
1.1.4	x -  3x½ - 4 = 0 [x½ - 4] [x½ + 1] =0 x½ = 4 or x½ = -1 x = 16       N/A OR x -  3x½ - 4 = 0 let x½ = k k2 -3k - 4 = 0 [k - 4] [k + 1] =0 x½ = 4 or x½ = -1 x = 16       N/A OR x -  3x½ = 4 x - 4 = 3√x       Restrictions 9x = x2 - 8x +16   x ≥ 4 and x ≥ 0 x2 - 17x +16 = 0 [x -1] [x - 16] = 0 x = 1 or x = 16   N/A	✔ standard form  ✔ factors  ✔x½ = 4 ✔ x½ = -1 ✔ answer  (5)  ✔ standard form  ✔ factors   ✔ x½ = 4 ✔ x½ = -1 ✔ answer  (5)  ✔ isolating  3√x or 3x½ ✔ standard form  ✔ factors  ✔ answers  ✔ selection  (5)
1.2	y = 2x +1 x2 -3x - 4 - (2x + 1) = (2x + 1)2 x2 -3x - 4 - 2x + 1 = 4x2 + 4x + 1 3x2 + 9x + 6 = 0 x2 + 3x +2 = 0 [x + 2] [x + 1] = 0 x = -1 or x = -2 if x = -2 then y = -3 if x = -1 then y = -1 OR x = y - 1         2 [ (y - 1)/2]2 -3 [ (y - 1)/2] - 4 -y =y2 y2 - 2y +1 -3 (y - 1) - 4 - y = y2         4               2 y2 - 2y +1 -6y + 6 - 16 - 4y = 4y2 3y2 + 12y +9 =0 y2 + 4y +3 = 0 [y + 3]  [y + 1] = 0 y = -3 or  y = -1 if y = -3 then x = -2  if y = -1 then x = -1	✔ y subject of formula  ✔ substitution    ✔ standard form  ✔ factors  ✔ values of x  ✔ values of y  (6)      ✔ x subject of formula  ✔ substitution  ✔ standard form  ✔ factors  ✔ values of y  ✔ values of x  (6)
1.3.1	2x + 1 ≥ 0 x ≥ -½ OR	✔ answer (1)    ✔ answer (1)
1.3.2	f(x) = 2x -1 √2x +1 = 2x -1 Restrictions 2x + 1 = 4x2 - 4x +1  x ≥ -½ and x ≥ ½ 4x2 - 6x = 0 x (4x -6) = 0 x = 3/2 or  x = 0 ∴x = 3/2	✔ √2x +1 = 2x −1 ✔ standard form  ✔ factors  ✔ answers  ✔ correct selection  (5)                                  [26]

QUESTION 2

QUESTION 3

QUESTION 4

QUESTION 5

5.1	r = 2	✔r = 2      (1)
5.2	g(x) = 2x + 2  g(0) = 2º + 2 = 3 B(0 ; 3) 3 =      3     + 2         0 - p p = −3	✔ g(0) = 2º + 2 = 3 ✔ y = 3  ✔substitute B(0 ; 3) and q = 2  ✔ p = −3  (4)
5.3	at A: x = −3 y = 2-3 + 2 = 21/8	✔ at A : x = –3 (p-value)  ✔ substitute x = –3 into exponential eqution  ✔ y-value     (3)
5.4	− 3 <  x  ≤ 0 OR  (− 3; 0]	✔ − 3 < x   ✔ x  ≤  0               (2)
5.5	f (x) =      3     + 2              x + 3 f (x - 2) =      3     + 2              x - 2+ 3 h(x) =      3     + 2              x + 1	✔substitution of x – 2  ✔ h(x) =      3     + 2              x + 1                                    (2)                                    [12]

 QUESTION 6

6.1	A= P (1 -i )n 2/3P = P( 1- 0,047)n 2/3 = (1- 0,047)n log 2/3 = nlog (1- 0,047) n =           log2/3                         log (1- 0,047) n = 8, 42 years	✔A = 2/3P ✔substitution into correct formula  ✔logs  ✔answer (4)
6.2.1	The book value of the tractor after 5 years book value = x(1 - 0,2)5  or x(0,8)5 =0, 32768x	✔x(1 - 0,2)5  or x(0,8)5 ✔ 0,32768x  (2)
6.2.2	Price of new tractor after 5 years book value = x(1 + 0,18)5    or x(1,18)5 =2,28776x	✔ x(1 + 0,18)5    or x(1,18)5 ✔ 2,28776x    (2)
6.2.3		✔ i = 0,10/12 ✔ n = 60  ✔ subst. into future value  formula  ✔ answer  (4)
6.2.4	Sinking fund = New tractor price – Scrap value 619496,58 = x(1 +0,18)5 - (1 - 0,2)5  619496,58 = x[(1,18)5 - (0.8)5] x =      619496,58           [(1,18)5 - (0.8)5] x = R316 057,15 x = R316 000 OR 619496,58 =x(2,28776) -x(0,32768) 619496,58 = x[1,96008] x =        619496,58                    1,96008 x = R316 056,78 x = R316 000	✔ 619496,58 ✔ x(1 +0,18)5 - (1 - 0,2)5  ✔ common factor x   ✔ R316 000    (4)    ✔ 619496,58  ✔ x(2,28776) − x(0,32768) ✔ simplification  ✔ R316 000 (4)                                  [16]

QUESTION 7

7.1	f(x + h) = 3(x +h)2 - 5 = 3(x2 + 2xh +h2) - 5 =3x2 + 6xh + 3h2 -5   f(x + h) - f(x) = 3x2 + 6xh + 3h2 - 5 - 3x2 +5  = 6xh + 3h2 OR	✔3x2 + 6xh + 3h2 - 5 ✔ 6xh + 3h2 ✔ f(x + h) - f(x)                h ✔ common factor/ (6x + 3h)  ✔ answer    (5)      ✔ f(x + h) - f(x)                h ✔ 3x2 + 6xh + 3h2 - 5   ✔ 6xh + 3h2 ✔ common factor/(6x + 3h)      ✔ answer    (5)
7.2.1	y = 2x5 + 4/x3 y = 2x5 + 4x-3 dy /dx = 10x4 - 12x-4	✔ 2x5 + 4x-3 ✔ 10x4 ✔ - 12x-4     (3)
7.2.2	y = ( √x -x2)2 y = x½ - x2)2 =x - 2x 5/2 + x4 dy /dx = 1 - 5x 3/2  + 4x3	✔ x - 2x 5/2 + x4 ✔1 ✔ - 5x 3/2 ✔ 4x3       (4)   [12]

QUESTION 8

QUESTION 9

QUESTION 10

QUESTION 11