Adele

Adele

HISTORY
PAPER ONE (P1)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

1. SOURCE-BASED QUESTIONS 

1.1 The following cognitive levels were used to develop source-based  questions: 

COGNITIVE  LEVELS

HISTORICAL SKILLS 

WEIGHTING OF  QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1

  • Extract evidence from sources.
  • Selection and organisation of relevant  information from sources.
  • Define historical concepts/terms. 

30% 

(15)

LEVEL 2

  • Interpretation of evidence from the  sources.
  • Explain information gathered from the  sources.
  • Analyse evidence from the sources.

40% 

(20)

LEVEL 3

  • Interpret and evaluate evidence from  sources.
  • Engage with sources to determine its  usefulness, reliability, bias and  limitations.
  • Compare and contrast interpretations  and perspectives presented in sources  and draw independent conclusions.

30% 

(15)

1.2 The information below indicates how source-based questions are  assessed: 

  • In the marking of source-based questions credit needs to be given  to any other valid and relevant viewpoints, arguments, evidence or  examples.
  • In the allocation of marks emphasis should be placed on how the  requirements of the question have been addressed.
  • In the marking guideline the requirements of the question (skills that  need to be addressed) as well as the level of the question are indicated in italics. 

1.3 Assessment procedures for source-based questions 

  • Use a tick (✔) for each correct answer
  • Pay attention to the mark scheme e.g. (2 x 2) which translates to  two reasons and is given two marks each (✔✔ ✔✔); (1 x 2) which  translates to one reason and is given two marks (✔✔)
  • If a question carries 4 marks then indicate by placing  4 ticks (✔✔✔✔)

Paragraph question  
Paragraphs are to be assessed globally (holistically). Both the content  and structure of the paragraph must be taken into account when  awarding a mark. The following steps must be used when assessing a  response to a paragraph question: 

  • Read the paragraph and place a bullet ( . ) at each point within the  text where the candidate has used relevant evidence to address the  question.
  • Re-read the paragraph to evaluate the extent to which the candidate  has been able to use relevant evidence to write a paragraph.
  • At the end of the paragraph indicate the ticks (√) that the candidate  has been awarded for the paragraph; as well as the level (1,2, or 3)  as indicated in the holistic rubric and a brief comment e.g. 
    hist 5

Used mostly relevant evidence to write a basic paragraph 

  • Count all the ticks for the source-based question and then write the mark on  the right hand bottom margin e.g. 32/50 
    Ensure that the total mark is transferred accurately to the front/back cover of  the answer script. 

2. ESSAY QUESTIONS 
2.1 The essay questions require candidates to: 

  • Be able to structure their argument in a logical and coherent manner.  They need to select, organise and connect the relevant information  so that they are able to present a reasonable sequence of facts or an  effective argument to answer the question posed. It is essential that  an essay has an introduction, a coherent and balanced body of  evidence and a conclusion. 

2.2 Marking of extended writing 

  • Markers must be aware that the content of the answer will be guided  by the textbooks in use at the particular centre.
  • Candidates may have any other relevant introduction and/or  conclusion than those included in a specific essay marking guideline  for a specific essay.
  • When assessing open-ended source-based questions, learners  should be credited for any other relevant answers.

2.3 Global assessment of the essay 
The essay will be assessed holistically (globally). This approach requires  the teacher to score the overall product as a whole, without scoring the  component parts separately. This approach encourages the learner to  offer an individual opinion by using selected factual evidence to support  an argument. The learner will not be required to simply regurgitate 'facts'  in order to achieve a high mark. This approach discourages learners  from preparing ‘model’ answers and reproducing them without taking into  account the specific requirements of the question. Holistic marking of the  essay credits learners’ opinions supported by evidence. Holistic  assessment, unlike content-based marking, does not penalise language  inadequacies as the emphasis is on the following: 

  • The construction of argument
  • The appropriate selection of factual evidence to support such  argument 
  • The learner’s interpretation of the question. 

2.4 Assessment procedures of the essay 

2.4.1 Keep the synopsis in mind when assessing the essay. 
2.4.2 During the reading of the essay ticks need to be awarded for a  relevant introduction (indicated by a bullet in the marking  guideline/memorandum), each of the main points/aspects that is  properly contextualised (also indicated by bullets in the marking  guideline/memorandum) and a relevant conclusion (indicated by  a bullet in the marking guideline/memorandum) e.g. in an answer  where there are 5 main points there will be 7 ticks. 
2.4.3 The following additional symbols can also be used:

    • Introduction, main aspects and conclusion not properly  contextualised       ^
    • Wrong statement _________________
    • Irrelevant statement |
                                       |
                                       |
    • Repetition R
    • Analysis A√
    • Interpretation 1√

2. The matrix 

2.5.1 Use of the matrix in the marking of essays. 
In the marking of essays, the criteria as provided in the matrix should  be used. When assessing the essay note both the content and  presentation. At the point of intersection of the content and  presentation based on the seven competency levels, a mark should be  awarded. 

(a) The first reading of essays will be to determine to what extent the  main aspects have been covered and to allocate the content  level (on the matrix). 

C                                

LEVEL 4                               

                                
     

(b) The second reading of essays will relate to the level (on the  matrix) of presentation

C                                

LEVEL 4                               

                                

LEVEL 3

 

(c) Allocate an overall mark with the use of the matrix.

C                                

LEVEL 4                                

}26–27                               

LEVEL 3

MARKING MATRIX FOR ESSAY: TOTAL: 50 

 

 

 

 

PRESENTATION  ⇒

 

 

 

 

 CONTENT
  ⇓

LEVEL 7 

  • Very well  planned and  structured. 
  • Good synthesis  of information
  • Constructed an  argument
  • Very good use  of evidence to  support the  argument

LEVEL 6 

  • Well planned  and  structured 
  • Synthesis of  information 
  • Constructed an argument
  • Evidence used to  support the argument

LEVEL 5 

  • Writing structured.
  • Constructed  an argument
  • Evidence  used to  support  argument

LEVEL 4 

  • Clear attempt  to construct  an argument
  • Evidence  used to a  large extent  to support the  argument 

LEVEL 3 

  • Some attempt to  organise the  information  into an  argument
  • Evidence not  well used in  supporting  the argument.

LEVEL 2 

  • Largely descriptive
  • with little  to  some  attempt  develop  an  argument.

LEVEL 1 

  • Answer not  at all well structured.

LEVEL 7 

  • Question has been fully  answered. 
  • Content selection fully  relevant to line  of argument.

47–50 

43–46

         

LEVEL 6 

  • Question has  been answered.
  • Content  selection  relevant to a line  of argument.

43–46 

40–42 

39–39

       

LEVEL 5 

  • Question  answered to a  great extent. 
  • Content  adequately  covered and  relevant. 

38–39 

36–37 

34–35 

33–34 

28–29

   

LEVEL 4 

  • Question recognisable in  answer.
  • Some  omissions/irrele vant content  selection.
   

30–33 

28–29 

26–27

   

LEVEL 3 

  • Content  selection does  not always  relate.
  • Omissions in  coverage.
     

26–27 

24–25 

20–23

 

LEVEL 2 

  • Sparse content.
  • Question  inadequately  addressed
       

20–23 

18–19 

15–17

LEVEL 1 

  • Question not  answered.
  • Inadequate  content. 
  • Significant 
  • irrelevance
         

14–17 

0–13

*Guidelines for allocating a mark for Level 1: 

  • Question not addressed at all/totally irrelevant content; no attempt to structure the essay = 0 
  • Question includes basic and generally irrelevant information; no attempt to structure the essay = 1–6 ∙ Question inadequately addressed and vague; little attempt to structure the essay = 7–13

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1: THE COLD WAR – THE ORIGINS OF THE COLD WAR 
HOW DID THE BERLIN CRISIS INTENSIFY THE COLD WAR TENSIONS  BETWEEN THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA AND THE SOVIET UNION IN  THE 1960s? 
1.1

1.1.1 [Definition of a historical concept from Source 1A – L1] 

    • Economic system in which the means of production are controlled  by private owners for private profit.
    • State plays a very limited role in the economy.
    • Any other relevant answer. (1 x 2) (2)

1.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1A – L1]

    • To drive the USA, Britain and France out of West Berlin. (1 x 2) (2)

1.1.3 [Using evidence from Source 1A – L1]

    • The West responded by implementing the Berlin Airlift.
    • West Berlin was supplied from the air.
    • Food, fuel and other supplies were delivered daily to West Berlin.   (1 x 2) (2) 

1.1.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1A – L2] 

    • The Berlin Airlift was proving to be a runaway success.
    • The Blockade was not achieving its stated objectives.
    • Instead of starving West Berlin, it had an abundance of supplies to  the envy of East Berlin.
      ∙ Any other relevant response (2 x 2) (4) 

1.1.5 [Interpretation, analysis and evaluation of evidence from Source 1A to  formulate an opinion – L2]  

    • Economic development of East Germany would be negatively  affected.
    • Delivery of key services to the people will be adversely affected.
    • Industrialisation would become a pipe dream.
      ∙ Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4)

1.2

1.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1B – L1] 

    • Temporary barriers were put up.
    • Asphalt and cobblestones were ripped up.
    • concrete slabs and hollow blocks were used.
    • Traffic was turned away at sector boundaries. (3 x 1) (3)

1.2.2 [Interpretation and analysis of information from Source 1B – L2] 

    • The world was on the brink of a third world war.
    • Real and actual war between the two superpowers was  imminent.
    • The destruction of the world was inevitable as the two countries  had nuclear capabilities at that stage.
    • The escalation of conflict was a real threat for the world.
      Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4)

1.2.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1B – L1] 

    • Kennedy and Khrushchev re-affirmed the universal access to  Berlin for the four superpowers. (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3 [Comparison and interpretation of evidence from Sources 1A and 1B – L3] 

  • Source 1A refers to the need to solve the refugee problem and Source 1B  refers to the actual building of the wall to prevent people from crossing to  West Berlin.
  • When the blockade failed in Source 1A, the building of the wall commences  in Source 1B.
  • Both sources deal with the tension that was between the USSR and the  West emanating from the division of Berlin.
    Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

1.4

1.4.1 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1C – L2] 

    • The people of West Berlin demand unity for Berlin.
    • Emphasis on the right of the people to be free to make choices  whether to remain in East Berlin or to move over to West Berlin.
    • The wall is seen as an affront to the human rights of the people of  Berlin.
    • West Berliners express their opposition to the Berlin Wall.
      Any other relevant response. (3 x 1) (3)

1.4.2 [Interpretation and analysis of evidence from Source 1C – L2] 

    • The authorities in West Berlin did not enforce strict compliance  with regard to the wall as opposed to East Berlin.
    • There was no imminent danger on the youths playing on the wall on the West Berlin side.
    • There was no risk of people leaving West Berlin to East Berlin but those leaving East Berlin to West Berlin were in danger as  can be seen from the barbed wire.
    • The wall divided ordinary people from families, friends and work. ∙ The human rights of people were violated. 
      Any other relevant answer (2 x 2) (4)

1.5

1.5.1 [Extraction of information from Source 1D – L1] 

    • ∙To boost the morale of West Germany.
    • To improve security in West Berlin. 
    • Unity of Europe. 
    • To maintain the confidence of the world in democracy and  capitalism. (3 x 1) (3) 

1.5.2 [Interpretation, evaluation and analysis of usefulness of evidence from  Source 1D – L3] 
The candidate must indicate whether the source is USEFUL or not  and then use relevant historical evidence to support their answer. 
USEFUL 

    • The Soviet Union was seen as a threat to world peace.
    • The security of West Germany had to be guaranteed.
    • The sources commit the Allied powers to deliver on their promises  they had made to the people of the world that they will preserve  democracy and freedom.
    • Reference is made to the defence the rights of the people of Berlin.
    • To confront the communists and defend basic freedoms of the  people of Berlin and the world.
    • The USA was strengthened and mobilised its military.
      Any other relevant response. 

     OR

NOT USEFUL 

    • Contains a one-sided view (Kennedy).
    • The claims against the Soviet Union had not been independently  corroborated.
    • The source promotes capitalism and portrays communism as a  bad ideology and this is not countered by those in favour of  communism. 
      Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6 [Paragraph – interpretation, analysis and synthesis of evidence/information  from relevant sources – L3] 

  • The Berlin crisis did indeed worsen the relations between the USA and  the USSR.
  • The Soviet Union was threatened by this US encroachment in Eastern Europe. (Source 1A)
  • Khrushchev once said West Berlin “stuck like a bone in the Soviet  throat.” (Source 1A)
  • USSR wanted to demonstrate that they were in control in Berlin. ∙ USSR imposed the Berlin blockade (Source 1A)
  • This was the first serious crisis of the Cold War and the world was on the  brink of war. (Source 1A)
  • The USA viewed the blockade as an act of gross violation of human  rights.
  • The USSR thought that they had scored a strategic victory over the USA.  (Source 1A) 
  • The USA implemented an airlift of supplies. 
  • The airlift brought the world to the brink of war (Source 1A) 
  • The blockade was lifted and a wall was built to divide Berlin. (Source 1B)
  • On 25 October 1961 USA and USSR faced off each other and the world  held a collective breath. War was imminent. (Source 1B)
  • Both countries had nuclear capabilities.
  • Kennedy and Khrushchev agreed to re-affirm the principle of four-power  access to Berlin. (Source 1B)
  • The USA began to mobilise its forces and the Congress was requested  for additional defence build-ups. (Source 1D) 
  • The USA began to amass more weapons in anticipation of a Soviet  offensive. (Source 1D) 
  • Again the world was on the brink of a nuclear war. 
  • The delicate balance of power was nevertheless maintained.
  • Any other relevant response. (8) 

[50] 

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark. 

LEVEL 

CRITERIA 

MARKS

Level 1

  • Uses evidence in an elementary manner.
  • Partial use of evidence to respond to the  question.
  • Little or no understanding of how the  Berlin crisis worsened relations between  the USA and the Soviet Union. 
  • Cannot respond to the question asked.
  • Question not answered.

0–2

Level 2

  • Evidence is mostly relevant and relates to a  great extent to the topic.
  • Some understanding of how the Berlin  crisis worsened relations between the  USA and the Soviet Union.
  • Uses evidence in a basic manner but it  relates to the question asked.

3–5

Level 3

  • Uses evidence that is relevant and  appropriate.
  • Demonstrates a thorough understanding  of how the Berlin crisis worsened relations between the USA and the Soviet  Union.
  • Evidence relates very well to the question.
  • Evidence is used very effectively in an  organised paragraph.

6–8

QUESTION 2: INDEPENDENT AFRICA 
WHAT IMPACT DID THE INVOLVEMENT OF FOREIGN POWERS IN THE  ANGOLAN CIVIL WAR HAVE ON POST-INDEPENDENCE ANGOLA? 
2.1

2.1.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A – L1] 

    • South Africa 
    • Cuba 
    • Russia 
    • USA (2 x 1) (2)

2.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A – L1] 

    • UNITA received monetary assistance from South Africa. 
    • Received aid from the USA. 
    • Smuggled diamonds to support its war effort. (1 x 2) (2)

2.1.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A – L1] 

    • When a government takes control of key sectors of the economy.
    • Prohibition of private ownership of certain strategic means of  production. 
      Any other relevant response. (1 x 2) (2)

2.1.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2A – L2] 

    • Wanted to re-build the Angolan economy faster.
    • Wanted to harness the available experience in the private sector  for the benefit of Angola’s emerging mining sector.
    • To build a solid base for a strong socialist dispensation.
    • Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4)

2.1.5 [Interpretation and analysis of evidence from Source 2A – L3]
USEFUL 

    • Foreign powers intervened in Angola.
    • South Africa and USA gave a lot of support to UNITA to enable it  to sustain the war.
    • The involvement of several foreign powers made it necessary for  the government to protect the sovereignty of Angola.
    • The illicit diamond trade was beneficial to UNITA. 
    • The MPLA started a programme of nationalisation of the key sectors in the economy.
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

2.2

2.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2B – L1] 

    • To prevent a communist government from coming to power in  Angola. 
    • Wanted to assert US authority in Africa.
    • Wanted to use Angola to recover from the humiliation of  Vietnam.
    • To restore that balance of power between the super-powers.   (3 x 1) (3)

2.2.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2B – L1] 

    • The civil war was prolonged. (1 x 1) (1)

2.2.3 [Interpretation of information from Source 2B – L2] 

    • Om Sowjet invloed in Angola te beperk.
    • The USA was acting in line with the policy of containment.
    • The US involvement in the war gave UNITA support to continue  to fight thereby frustrating the efforts of the communist backed  MPLA.
    • The USA was humiliated in Vietnam and was therefore looking  for an opportunity to save face. 
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

2.3

2.3.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2C – L1] 

    • To rescue UNITA from defeat.
    • To capture the town of Cuito. (2 x 1) (2)

2.3.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2C – L1] 

    • “The UNITA soldiers did a lot of dying that day.” (1 x 1) (1)

2.3.3 [Evaluation and comparison of two viewpoints from Source 2C – L2] 

    • Viewpoint 1 refers to the failure of SADF to take over Cuito  Cuanavale, whilst Viewpoint 2 states that the intention was never  to take over Cuito.
    • In Viewpoint 1 SADF is said to have used heavy military  machinery to attack the town, whereas in Viewpoint 2 SADF  makes the point that they did not want to jeopardise the delicate  negotiations that have started.
    • In Viewpoint 1 Cubans claim SADF failed dismally whilst in  Viewpoint 2 SADF refers to statistical data to prove the point that  they had the upper hand.
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4) 

2.3.4 [Interpretation and analysis of evidence from Source 2C – L2] 

    • To support their argument that they did not lose.
    • To debunk the Cuban viewpoint about Cuito. 
    • To influence the public into believing that the SADF withdrew on  its own accord. 
      Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4)

2.4

2.4.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2D – L1] 

    • Namibia (1 x 1) (1)

2.4.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2D – L2] 

    • Kasrils, like many in the ANC, believed that Cuito Cuanavale  was a catalyst in the democratic breakthrough in South Africa.
    • The liberation of Namibia was also facilitated by the SADF  withdrawal from Angola after the Battle of Cuito Cuanavale.
    • The liberation of Southern Africa was completed after Cuito. 
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

2.4.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2D – L2] 

    • The SADF recruited many young men to fight in Angola. 
    • There was a commitment on the part of the SADF to remain  engaged in Angola.
    • The jovial mood of the recruits (visual clues) suggests they  thought the war was going to end favourably for South Africa. 
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4) 

2.5 [Paragraph – interpretation, analysis and evaluation of evidence/information  from relevant sources – L3] 

  • Foreign involvement in the civil war had a negative impact on Angola.
  • The involvement of SA, Cuba, USA and the USSR internationalised  the Angolan civil war. (Source 2A)
  • With US and SADF support UNITA became a strong fighting force.  (Source 2A)
  • More than 1,1 million civilians were killed and millions were maimed.  (Source 2A) 
  • Angola has the highest number of amputees as a result of the war.
  • Revenue from oil was committed to the war effort (Source 2A) at the  expense of benefitting the ordinary people.
  • The USA became involved in the war for selfish reasons. She wanted  to exorcise the humiliation of Vietnam. (Source 2B) 
  • As a result of US involvement the civil war was prolonged. (Source 2B)
  • Cuba tilted the scale in favour of Angolan government forces. (Source 2C)
  • Cuba deployed hi-tech weaponry during the Cuito Cuanavale battle  (Source 2C) 
  • SADF had been embarrassed and outclassed (Source 2C)
  • The military frailties of SADF were exposed by the Cuban regiments.
  • Cuito Cuanavale was the last straw for SADF. (Source 2C)
  • Cuito heralded the freedom of the whole of Southern Africa.  (Source 2D)
  • South Africa’s influenced was diminished.
    Any other relevant response (8)

[50]

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark. 

LEVEL 

CRITERIA 

MARKS

Level 1

  • Uses evidence in an elementary manner.
  • Partial use of evidence to respond to the  question. 
  • Little or no understanding of the impact the involvement of foreign powers had on post independence Angola.
  • Cannot respond to the question asked.  
  • Question not answered.

0–2

Level 2

  • Evidence is mostly relevant and relates to a great  extent to the topic.
  • Some understanding of the impact the involvement of foreign powers had on post independence Angola. 
  • Uses evidence in a basic manner but it relates to  the question asked.

3–5

Level 3

  • Uses evidence that is relevant and appropriate.
  • Demonstrates a thorough understanding of the impact the involvement of foreign powers  had on post-independence Angola.
  • Evidence relates very well to the question asked.
  • Evidence is used very effectively in an organised  paragraph.

6–8

QUESTION 3: CIVIL SOCIETY PROTESTS IN USA, 1950s TO 1970s
HOW SUCCESSFUL WAS THE DESEGREGATION OF SCHOOLS IN LITTLE  ROCK, ARKANSAS, DURING THE 1950s? 
3.1

3.1.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3A – L1] 

    • A law abiding citizen.
    • War veteran. 
    • Fought in the Second World War.
    • He recognises the supremacy of the Federal law. (Any 3 x 1) (3)

3.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3A – L1] 

    • To tell the Guard to continue to preserve order. 
    • To tell the Guard to allow African American children to attend  Central High School. (2 x 1) (2) 

3.1.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3A – L2] 

    • Faubus had resisted integration of education at Little Rock. 
    • Faubus had mobilised the National Guard to prevent the African  American students from entering Central High School. 
    • Eisenhower wanted to achieve a resolution of the impasse  through negotiations/dialogue. 
    • Eisenhower wanted to impress upon Faubus the supremacy of  the Federal law and the orders of the Supreme Court.
      Any other relevant response (2 x 2) (4)

3.1.4 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3A – L1] 

    • The state of Arkansas was bound to lose in court. 
    • Faubus, as Governor, would be humiliated. 
    • A trial of strength between the president and governor was not  advisable. (1 x 2) (2) 

3.1.5 [Interpretation and analysis of evidence from Source 3A – L3] 
The candidate must indicate whether Eisenhower’s action was  JUSTIFIED or not and then use relevant historical evidence to  support their answer. 
JUSTIFIED 

    • Law and order had to be restored in Little Rock. 
    • He defended the rights of the black students. 
    • The government made an unambiguous commitment that it will  not tolerate racism. 
    • He was enforcing federal legislation and the decision of the  courts in respect of equal education.
    • Faubus had defied a legitimate and just instruction from the  president. 
      Any other relevant response.
      OR
    • Faubus claims to be a law abiding citizen. 
    • This could be construed as interference by the federal  government. 
    • Faubus was waiting a directive from the courts. 
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

3.2

3.2.1 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3B – L1] 

    • Bringing together people of different racial groups to unite and  accept one another. 
    • Opening of education facilities to accommodate all races.
      Any other relevant answer. (1 x 2) (2)

3.2.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3B – L2] 

Faubus did not act in line with the statement he made. 

    • Faubus is trying to find a justification to disregard the court  decision regarding integration of schools.
    • He argues that the decision of the court could only be  implemented over time, not instantly.
    • He believed that integration would result into violence.
    • He was of the view that the Federal government wanted to force  state governments to agree on integration even if this was  against their constitutions.
      Any other relevant answer. 

Faubus acted in line with his statement. This answer may be  allowed even though this would be moving from a narrow base. 

    • He believed that the interest of the individual states must be  protected. 
    • Faubus wanted to exploit the powers that a state has in a  federal system. 
    • He argued that he was enjoined to give effect to the constitution  of the State of Arkansas. 
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

3.2.3 [Interpretation of and information from Source 3B – L2] 

    • That the state of Arkansas should not be hurried into integration  of schools. 
    • He has not opposed to integration per se. 
    • He was performing his duties under the constitution of  Arkansas.
    • He wanted to make clear the point that he had a public mandate  and he owed it to the people of Arkansas to protect their  interest. 
    • Any other relevant answer. (2 x 2) (4) 

3.3 [Comparing, interpreting and evaluating information from Sources 3A and 3B – L3] 

  • In Source 3A Faubus states his commitment to uphold the Federal  Constitution, but in Source 3B he argues for the respect of the  constitution of Arkansas. 
  • In Source 3A Faubus creates the impression that he would immediately  instruct the National Guard to allow the African American students to  enter Central High School, whereas in Source 3B he argues that the  Federal government must understand that integration cannot be  achieved instantly. 
  • In Source 3A he professes loyalty to the Federal government whilst in  Source 3B he clearly exhibits split loyalty. 
    Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

3.4

3.4.1 [Interpretation of and information from Source 3C – L2] 

    •  Every day they were subjected to rejection by the white students.
    • They were tortured daily and found no happiness.
    • The school environment did not affirm their right to learn at  Central High.
      Any other relevant response. (2 x 2) (4)

3.4.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3C – L1] 

    • Elbowed 
    • Poked
    • Kicked 
    • Punched 
    • Pushed (3 x 1) (3)

3.4.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3C – L1] 

    • Families endured threatening phone calls. 
    • Some parents lost their jobs. 
    • Black community was harassed by bomb threats, gunshots and  bricks thrown through the windows. (2 x 1) (2) 

3.5

3.5.1 [Interpretation of evidence (visual clues) from Source 3D – L2] 

    • There is evidence of a relaxed atmosphere. 
    • There is a measure of acceptance for Brown as shown by the  smiles all around her. 
      Any other relevant response. (1 x 2) (2)

3.5.2 [Interpretation of evidence (visual clues) from Source 3D – L2] 

    • The situation was still tense and volatile. 
    • There was an uneasy peace that prevailed. 
    • Integration was still fraught with challenges. 
      Any other relevant response. (1 x 2) (2) 

3.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis of information from relevant sources  to evaluate the extent of the success of desegregation of schools – L3] 

  • The integration of schools succeeded to a greater extent albeit with  numerous challenges. 
  • This Little Rock Nine incident pitted the state of Arkansas against  federal government authority (Sources 3A and 3B) 
  • President Eisenhower met with Governor Faubus to discuss the reaction  of Faubus to integration of Central High. (Source 3A) 
  • Eisenhower chose to stand and enforce the rights of all Americans and  this point was communicated to Faubus. (Source 3A)
  • Eisenhower impress upon Faubus the importance of ensuring that the  National Guard protect the right of all in Little Rock. (Source 3A) 
  • Faubus attempted to ignore the instructions of the president.  (Source 3B) 
  • Faubus wanted to see a gradual move towards integration not a speedy  implementation of integration as required by the Federal government.  (Source 3B) 
  • Faubus wanted to protect the interests of the conservative and  reactionary elements within the state of Arkansas. (Source 3B)
  • Even though the nine students were eventually enrolled at the school,  they endured constant abuse and prejudice, even from school authorities. (Source 3C) 
  • Even the entire black community was impacted negatively by the  incident.(Source 3C) 
  • Despite the various challenges, desegregation of the school was  achieved. Melba Pattilo Beals eventually became a professor of  journalism. (Source 3C) 
  • Source 3D shows glimpses of a positive environment which can count  as a success story of integration. 
  • However there was still an element of uneasiness and tension as  attested to by the presence of soldiers in the background. (Source 3D)
    Any other relevant response. (8)

[50]

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark. 

LEVEL 

CRITERIA 

MARKS

Level 1

  • Uses evidence in an elementary manner.
  • Question not answered. 
  • Partial use of evidence to respond to the question. 
  • Little or no understanding of how successful was the desegregation of schools in Little Rock.
  • Cannot respond to the question asked.

0–2

Level 2

  • Evidence is mostly relevant and relates to a great  extent to the topic. 
  • Some understanding of how successful was the  desegregation of schools in Little Rock. 
  • Uses evidence in a basic manner but it relates to  the question asked.

3–5

Level 3

  • Uses evidence that is relevant and appropriate.
  • Demonstrates a thorough understanding of how successful was the desegregation of schools in  Little Rock. 
  • Evidence relates very well to the question asked.
  • Evidence is used very effectively in an organised  paragraph.

6–8

SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS 
QUESTION 4: EXTENTION OF THE COLD WAR – VIETNAM 
SYNOPSIS 
The candidate should take a viewpoint as to whether USA was successful or not in  preventing the spread of communism in Vietnam. The candidate must focus on the conflict  between Vietnam and USA as an attempt to withstand the USA’s imposition of capitalism  and rejection thereof by Vietnam between the 1960s and 1970s. The candidate should  refer to the military strategies of both belligerents, the military strength, financial clout of  USA against the resolve and determination of the people of Vietnam. 
MAIN ASPECTS 
INTRODUCTION 

  • Introduction should focus on the involvement of USA in Vietnam and the rejection  thereof by the Vietnamese people. The candidate must in the introduction refer to the  strengths of the two countries. Candidates must briefly outline their line of argument,  whether the USA was successful or not. 

ELABORATION 

  • After the French Vietnamese War, Vietnam was divided, along the 17th Parallel, into  North and South Vietnam. 
  • North Vietnam was under a communist regime, while South Vietnam was under a  capitalist regime. The USA gave unconditional support to South Vietnam.
  • South Vietnam was ruled by the corrupt and unpopular Ngo Dinh Diem.
  • The National Liberation Front was formed and had a guerrilla army, the Vietcong
  • Ngo Dihn Diem was overthrown – instability in South Vietnam 
  • Vietcong started a protracted campaign to unify Vietnam 
  • China and North Vietnam supported the Vietcong 
  • The USA got involved – to prevent the spreading of communism in South East Asia,  the ‘Domino Effect’
  • Safe villages – Strategic Hamlet Programme 
  • The Vietcong received supplies from communist North Vietnam through the Ho Chi  Minh Trail 
  • The USA’s Operation Rolling Thunder 
  • Tet Offensive – “Khrushchev Offensive” 
  • USA’s use of chemical warfare – napalm 
  • WHAM – Winning Heart and Minds of the Vietnamese 
  • My Lai Massacre – war crimes 
  • US public opposition to the war 
  • USA’s heavy losses 
  • US withdrawal 
  • Fall of Saigon 
  • American perspective of the war 
  • Vietnamese perspective of the war 

CONCLUSION 

  • Candidates should tie up the argument with a relevant conclusion. [50]

QUESTION 5: INDEPENDENT AFRICA: COMPARATIVE CASE STUDY – TANZANIA AND THE CONGO 
SYNOPSIS 
Candidates must focus on the successes achieved and challenges faced by both Tanzania and Congo with special reference to the economic development of both  countries. A proper contextualisation of the candidate’s response is expected. The  candidates must give detailed comparison of the two countries with supporting  relevant examples. 

MAIN ASPECTS 

INTRODUCTION 

  • Introduction should focus on the comparative nature of the essay where the  different economic achievements and challenges of the two countries are  discussed. 

ELABORATION 
Tanzania: Villagisation/Ujamaa 

  • Nyerere believed in African socialism 
  • TANU adopted the Arusha Declaration in 1967 
  • Adoption of ujamaa as content for Arusha Declaration 
  • Implementation of ujamaa
  • Compulsory movement to ujamaa villages 
  • Resistance to ujamaa by the peasants 
  • Concept of family hood and communal farming. 
  • Limited economic achievements 
  • Constraints – failures of ujamaa and the economic impact 
  • The impact of IMF and World Bank loans on Tanzania 
  • Reliance on cash-crops and decrease in food security 
  • Nyerere’s admission of the failures of ujamaa 

Congo: Zairianisation of economy 

  • Congo gained independence from Belgium in 1960 
  • Replacement of foreigners with inexperienced Congo nationals 
  • Lack of skills led to neglect and decay of key infrastructure 
  • Congo has substantial natural resources – remained a poor country
  • Mismanagement of the economy under Mobutu 
  • Corruption and theft of state resources 
  • One-product economy not viable 
  • Government unable to service its foreign debts 
  • In the 1970s the inflation rate reached 100% 
  • Poor infrastructure 
  • Development of elite classes 
  • Kleptocracy – government by thieves 

CONCLUSION 

  • Candidates should tie up the argument with a relevant conclusion. [50]

QUESTION 6: CIVIL SOCIETY PROTESTS IN USA, 1950s TO 1960s – THE  BLACK POWER MOVEMENT 
SYNOPSIS 
Candidates must discuss the essential philosophy of the Black Power Movement,  its tactics as they differ to that of the Civil Rights Movement and the specific roles played by Malcolm X and Stokely Carmichael. 
MAIN ASPECTS 
INTRODUCTION 

  • Introduction should focus the philosophy of the Black Power Movement, its  tactics and the roles of Malcolm X and Stokely Carmichael. It may also be  relevant and acceptable when the candidate juxtaposes Black Power  Movement against the Civil Rights Movement. 

ELABORATION 

  • Segregation in USA – briefly
  • Inequalities between black and white Americans 
  • Rejection of non-violence protest by Black Power Movement 
  • African Americans who supported Black Power Movement – believed that use  of violence was justified – to gain equality for all races 
  • Rejection of the tactics of the Civil Rights Movement as they pertain to  promotion of non-violence 
  • The elevation of the struggle for civil rights to a struggle for human rights
  • Black Power Movement encouraged African Americans to be proud of their  African Heritage 
  • This movement had Malcolm X as its chief proponent. 
  • Malcolm X was a member of the Nation of Islam – and was influenced by the  teachings of Elijah Mohammad.
  • Malcolm X’s political philosophy appealed to the youth 
  • He said the fight for civil rights must be escalated to that for human rights
  • USA should be reported to the UNO for its human rights violation
  • Influenced by his pilgrimage to Mecca, Malcolm X adopted a new approach to  racial integration 
  • He was suspended from the Nation of Islam 
  • Formed the Organisation of Afro-American Unity in 1964 
  • Less militant – not popular with black nationalists
  • Assassination of Malcolm X, 21 February 1965 
  • Stokely Carmichael was a former chairman of the SNCC 
  • He believed that blacks should not associate with white radical revolutionaries
  • Carmichael in the leadership of the Black Panther Party – Ten Point Plan
  • His views on peace and violence 
  • “Prime Minister” of the Black Panther Party 
  • Impact of the Black Panther Party 

CONCLUSION 

  • Candidates should tie up the argument with a relevant conclusion. [50]

TOTAL: 150

HISTORY
PAPER TWO (P2)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

1. SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS 
1.1 The following cognitive levels were used to develop source-based questions: 

COGNITVE  LEVELS 

HISTORICAL SKILLS

WEIGHTING  OF  

QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1 

(L1)

  •  Extract evidence from sources 
  • Selection and organisation of relevant  information from sources 
  • Define historical concepts/terms

30% 

(15)

LEVEL 2 

(L2)

  • Interpretation of evidence from sources
  • Explain information gathered from sources
  • Analyse evidence from sources

40% 

(20)

LEVEL 3 

(L3)

  • Interpret and evaluate evidence from the  sources 
  • Engage with sources to determine its  usefulness, reliability, bias and limitations
  • Compare and contrast interpretations and  perspectives presented in sources and draw  independent conclusions

30% 

(15)

1.2 The following information below indicates how to source-based  questions are assessed: 

  • In the marking of source-based questions, credit needs to be given to  any other valid and relevant viewpoints, arguments, evidence or  examples.
  • In the allocation of marks, emphasis should be placed on how the  requirements of the question have been addressed.
  • In the marking guideline, the requirements of the question (skills that  need to be addressed) as well as the level of the question are indicated  in italics.

1.3 Assessment procedures for source-based questions 

  • Use a tick (✔) for each correct answer 
  • Pay attention to the mark scheme e.g. (2 x 2) which translates to two  reasons and is given two marks each (✔✔✔✔); (1 x 2) which translates  to one reason and is given two marks (✔✔) 
  • If a question carries 4 marks then indicate by placing 4 ticks ✔✔✔✔ 
    Paragraph question 
    Paragraphs are to be assessed globally (holistically). Both the content and  structure of the paragraph must be taken into account when awarding a  mark. The following steps must be used when assessing a response to a  paragraph question:  
    • Read the paragraph and place a bullet ( . ) at each point within the  text where the candidate has used relevant evidence to address the  question 
    • Re-read the paragraph to evaluate the extent to which the candidate  has been able to use relevant evidence to write a paragraph.
    • At the end of the paragraph indicate the ticks (√) that the candidate  has been awarded for the paragraph; as well as the level (1, 2 or 3)  as indicated in the holistic rubric and a brief comment e.g. 
      hist 5
      Used mostly relevant evidence to write a basic paragraph
    • Count all the ticks for the source-based question and then write the  mark on the right hand bottom margin e.g. 32/50
    • Ensure that the total mark is transferred accurately to the front/back  cover of the answer script. 

2. ESSAY QUESTIONS 
2.1 The essay questions require candidates to: 

  • Be able to structure their argument in a logical and coherent manner.  They need to select, organise and connect the relevant information so  that they are able to present a reasonable sequence of facts or an  effective argument to answer the question posed. It is essential that an  essay has an introduction, a coherent and balanced body of evidence  and a conclusion. 

2.2 Marking of essays questions 

  • Markers must be aware that the content of the answer will be guided by  the textbooks in use at the particular centre. 
  • Candidates may have any other relevant introduction and/or conclusion  than those included in a specific essay marking guideline for a specific  essay.
  • When assessing open-ended source-based questions, learners should  be credited for any other relevant answer

2.3 Global assessment of the essay 
The essay will be assessed holistically (globally). This approach requires  the teacher to score the overall product as a whole, without scoring the  component parts separately. This approach encourages the learner to offer  an individual opinion by using selected factual evidence to support an  argument. The learners will not be required to simply regurgitate ‘facts’ in  order to achieve a high mark. This approach discourages learners from  preparing ‘model’ answers and reproducing them without taking into account  the specific requirements of the question. Holistic marking of the essay  credits learners’ opinion supported by evidence. Holistic assessment, unlike  content-based marking, does not penalise language inadequacies as the  emphasis is on the following:

  • The construction of argument 
  • The appropriate selection of factual evidence to support such  argument 
  •  The learner’s interpretation of the question 

2.4 Assessment procedures of the essay 

2.4.1 Keep the synopsis in mind when assessing essays. 
2.4.2 During the first reading of the extended writing, ticks need to be  awarded for a relevant introduction (indicated by a bullet in  memorandum) each of the main points/aspects that is properly  contextualised (also indicated by bullets in the memorandum) and a  relevant conclusion (indicated by a bullet in the memorandum) e.g. in  an answer where there are 5 main points there will be 7 ticks. 
2.4.3 The following additional symbols can also be used: 

    • Introduction, main aspects and conclusion not properly  contextualised 
    • Wrong statement —————
    • Irrelevant statement  ¦
    • Repetition R
    • Analysis A√ 
    • Interpretation I√ 

2.5 The Matrix 

2.5.1 Use of analytical matrix in the marking of essay 
In the marking of essays, with reference to page 5, the given criteria  shown in the matrix should be used. In assessing the extended  writing note should be taken of both the content and presentation.  At the point of intersection of the content and presentation based on  the seven competency levels, a mark should be awarded. 

(a) The first reading of essay will be to determine to what extent the  main aspects have been  covered and to allocate the  content level (on the matrix). 

C                                    

LEVEL 4                                   

                                    
     

(b) The second reading of essay will relate to the level (on the matrix) of  

presentation. 

C                                    

LEVEL 4                                   

                                  

LEVEL 3

 

(c) Allocate an overall mark with  the use of the matrix. 

C                                    

LEVEL 4                                    

26–27                        

LEVEL 3

MARKING MATRIX FOR ESSAY: TOTAL: 50 

PRESENTATION ⇒

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

CONTENT
   ⇓

LEVEL 7 

  • Very well planned and  structured essay. 
  • Good synthesis of  information. 
  • Developed an original,  well balanced and  independent line of  argument with the use  of evidence and  sustained and defended the  argument throughout.
  • Independent  conclusion is drawn  from evidence to  support the line of  argument. 

LEVEL 6  

  • Very well planned  and structured  essay.
  • Developed  a relevant line of argument. 
  • Evidence used to  defend the  argument.
  • Attempts  to draw an  independent  conclusion from the  evidence to support  the line of  argument.

LEVEL 5 

  • Well planned  and structured  essay. 
  • Attempts to  develop a  clear  argument. 
  • Conclusion  drawn from the evidence  to support  the line of  argument. 

LEVEL 4  

  • Planned and  constructed  an argument.
  • Evidence  used to some  extent to  support the  line of  argument. 
  • Conclusions  reached  based on  evidence.

LEVEL 3  

  • Shows some  evidence of a  planned and  constructed  argument. 
  • Attempts to  sustain a line of argument. 
  • Conclusions  not clearly  supported by  evidence.

LEVEL 2  

  • Attempts to  structure an  answer. 
  • Largely descriptive or  some attempt  at developing  a line of  argument.
  • No  attempt to  draw a  conclusion.

LEVEL 1 

  • Little or no  attempt to  structure the essay. 

LEVEL 7 

  • Question has been  fully answered. 
  • Content selection  fully relevant to  line of argument.

47–50 

43–46

         

LEVEL 6 

  • Question has been  answered. 
  • Content selection  relevant to a line of  argument

43–46 

40–42 

38–39

       

LEVEL 5 

  • Question  answered to a  great extent. 
  • Content  adequately  covered and relevant.

38–39 

36–37 

34–35 

30–33 

28–29

   

LEVEL 4 

  • Question  recognisable in  answer.
  • Some  omissions or irrelevant content  selection.
   

30–33 

28–29 

26–27

   

LEVEL 3 

  • Content selection  does not relate to  the question, but  does not answer it,  or does not always  relate to the  question. 
  • Omissions in coverage.
     

26–27 

24–25 

20–23

 

LEVEL 2 

  • Question  inadequately  addressed. 
  • Sparse content.
       

20–23 

18–19 

14–17

LEVEL 1 

  • Question  inadequately  addressed or not  at all.
  • Inadequate  or irrelevant  content.
         

14–17 

0–13

* Guidelines for allocating a mark for Level 1: 

  • Question not addressed at all/totally irrelevant content; no attempt to structure the essay = 0 
  • Question includes basic and generally irrelevant information; no attempt to structure the essay = 1–6 
  • Question inadequately addressed and vague; little attempt to structure the essay = 7–13

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1: WHAT IMPACT DID THE PHILOSOPHY OF BLACK  CONSCIOUSNESS (BC) HAVE ON SOUTH AFRICAN  
STUDENTS IN THE 1970s? 
1.1

1.1.1 [Definition of historical concepts Source 1A–L1] 

    • Black people should be proud of themselves 
    • Black people should do things on their own without the help of  white people 
    • Aimed to conscientise many black South Africans about their  political, economic and cultural rights 
      Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.1.2 [Extraction of historical evidence Source 1A–L1] 

    • SASM 
    • BPC 
    • SASO (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

1.1.3 [Interpretation of historical concepts Source 1A–L2] 

    • The book was biased because it shows blacks in an inferior light
    • Frustrating and humiliating 
    • Whites exploiting Blacks 
    • Any other relevant answer (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.1.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1A–L2] 

    • They became aware of the philosophy of Black Consciousness 
    • They stood up for their rights and demanded equal education 
    • Defied the imposition of Bantu Education 
    • Coloured pupils boycotted the exams on the Swart Pelgrim
    • Influenced them to be self-reliant 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.1.5 [Engage with Source 1A to ascertain the usefulness of the source– L3] 

    • It shows the influence of Black Consciousness on the students 
    • It highlights the emergence of organisations that promoted 
      Black Consciousness’ 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.2

1.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1B–L1] 

    • boldness 
    • dedication 
    • sense of purpose 
    • clarity of analysis of the situation (Any 4 x 1) (4)

1.2.2 [Interpretation of evidence in Source 1B–L2] 

    • Inferior education 
    • Cost of living was high 
    • Wanted some aim/direction in life 
    • Increased in rent 
    • High unemployment 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.3

1.3.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1C–L1] 

    • The forced use of Afrikaans as a medium of instruction in all  subjects (1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1C–L2] 

    • Shows that students were dissatisfied with Afrikaans as a  medium of instruction 
    • Shows learners embarking on a march 
    • Shows that students were united in their fight for better  education 
    • Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.3.3 [Engage with the information to ascertain the reliability of  Source 1C–L3] 

    • Reliable – primary source 
    • That information can be corroborated 
    • The photo captures the event as it happened 
    • True reflection of the attitude of the students
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.4

1.4.1 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1D–L2] 

    • All people will be equal 
    • Country concerned about the humanity and welfare of its people
    • No one race more superior than the other
    • End of apartheid 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.4.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1D–L2] 

    • Threat to the apartheid regime 
    • Influenced black people to revolt against apartheid 
    • Unified Blacks, Indians and coloureds 
    • He fulfilled the role of the ANC in exile 
    • Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.4.3 [Extraction of evidence from the Source 1D–L1] 

    • the explosion of pride among the victims of apartheid (1 x 2) (2) 

1.4.4 [Extraction of evidence from the Source 1D–L1] 

    • unveiling a statue 
    • renaming the bridge
    • declaring his Ginsberg house a national monument (Any 2 x 1) (2)

1.5 [Interpretation and evaluation of evidence from relevant sources–L3]
Candidates must focus on the following: 

  • BCM gave hope and impetus to the liberation struggle 
  • Restored the confidence of the youth (Source 1A) 
  • Promoted black pride (Source 1B) 
  • BCM educated students to stand up for their rights (Source 1A) 
  • Promoted unity in challenging the apartheid government 
  • Through the BCM they were united to break the shackles of apartheid  and oppression (Source 1C) 
    Any other relevant response 

(8) 
[50]

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark: 

LEVEL  

1

  • Uses evidence in an elementary manner e.g. shows  no or little understanding of the impact of the  philosophy of Black Consciousness on South  African Black students in the 1970s 
  • Uses evidence partially to report on topic or cannot  report on topic

MARKS 

0–2

LEVEL 

2

  • Evidence is mostly relevant and relates to a great  extent to the topic e.g. shows an understanding of  the impact of the philosophy of Blacck consciousness on South African Black students  in the 1970s 
  • Uses evidence in a basic manner

MARKS 

3–5

LEVEL  

3

  • Uses relevant evidence e.g. demonstrates a  thorough understanding the impact of the  philosophy of Black Consciousness on South  African Black students in the 1970s 
  • Evidence relates well to the topic 
  • Uses evidence very effectively in an organised  paragraph that shows an understanding of the topic

MARKS 

6–8

QUESTION 2: HOW DID THE TRUTH AND RECONCILIATION COMMISSION  (TRC) DEAL WITH THE PAST? 
2.1

2.1.1 [Extraction of evidence Source 2A–L1] 

    • terrors 
    • the pains 
    • miseries 
    • vexations (worries) 
    • lassitudes (state of physical or mental weariness)
      (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

2.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A–L1] 

    • They wanted to help the society move forward (1 x 1) (1) 

2.1.3 [Interpretation of information from Source 2A–L1] 

    • Wanting for others what you want for yourself 
    • To foster national unity 
    • To be human 
    • We cannot live in isolation 
    • I am who I am because of who we all are 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.1.4 [Explanation of concepts from Source 2A–L1] 

    • Provide help to victims so that they could move on 
    • Help through grants, bursaries, social pension, housing 
    • An amount of R30 000 for the victims of human rights violations
    • Compensation for the loss of their loved ones
       Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.2

2.2.1 [Interpretation of evidence Source 2B–L2] 

    • She wanted to hear the truth about her son’s death
    • She wanted to see the perpetrators 
    • She wanted closure 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.2.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2B–L2] 

    • She did not have his body to bury but only the hair 
    • Only remembrance she had of her son 
    • She needed to know who did this to her son 
    • The hair would be used as proof if needed
    • Any other relevant answer (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.3

2.3.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2C–L1] 

    • Shot at the back of the head/ 
    • Put on the pyre to burn (Any 1 x 1) (1) 

2.3.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2C–L1] 

    • Col. du Plessis
    • Gen. van Rensburg (2 x 1) (2)

2.3.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2C–L2]

    • Harms commission was appointed by the National Party  government 
    • He felt what he did was right 
    • He did not expect to give evidence before the TRC 
    • He wanted to get amnesty 
    • He lied to the Commission because he knew that they would not  pursue the matter further/not going to jail 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.3.4 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2C–L1] 

    • Admitted to the abduction and shooting of Mr Madaka and  Mr Mtimkulu on April 14, 1982 (1 x 2) (2) 

2.3.5 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2C–L2] 

    • When her son died her hair was black 
    • After 20 years her hair turned grey/white 
    • It shows that it took 20 years to find some closure 
      Any other relevant answer (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.4 [Comparison of evidence of from sources 2A and 2C–L3] 

  • 2A – talks about pains, terror miseries that victims suffered
    2C – supported when Mrs Mtimkulu collapsed at the hearing as a result  of re-living the pain at the hearing
  • 2A – perpetrators asking for amnesty by showing remorse
    2C – this is supported by Gen. van Rensburg when he admits before the  amnesty committee to the killing of Siphiwo 
    Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.5

2.5.1 [Extracting evidence from Source 2D–L1] 

    • South African Security Branch bomb hidden in the earphones of  Walkman tape player exploded (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.2 [Interpretation of evidence from the Source 2D–L2] 

    • He is the bread winner, and when he died their hopes also died
    • They cannot continue with their lives without him, even though  he is dead 
      Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2D–L1] 

    • “What can they do for me now” (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.4 [Evaluation of evidence to determine justification from the  Source 2D–L3] 
Useful 

    • Shows the impact on the lives of family who survived 
    • It shows how and why activists were killed during apartheid 
    • It reveals that survivors needed some form of compensation 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

2.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis of evidence from sources and using  own knowledge to construct own argument–L3] 
Learners are expected to evaluate the TRC process and say that it was  successful, unsuccessful or both in obtaining their outcomes. 
The TRC process was successful in dealing with the past. 

  • Improved race relations between black and white South Africans  (Source 2A) 
  • Some victims received reparations as compensation for their loss ∙ Helped with the process of nation building (Source 2B) 
  • Helped with reconciliation
  • Granting of amnesty (Source 2C) 
  • Both sides of the conflict came to testify 
  • Many unaccounted victims were identified, graves located and exhumed  and given to families for reburial 
  • Victims came to know what really happened during the apartheid years  (Source 2C) 
    Any other relevant response

The TRC process was less successful in dealing with the past. 

  • Some perpetrators did not appear before the TRC (Source 2D) 
  • Some victims wanted the perpetrators to face prosecution 
  • Some regarded the TRC as a witch hunt (Source 2A) 
  • Amnesty was controversial (Source 2D) 
  • Reopened painful wounds (Source 2B) 
    Any other relevant response 

(8) 
[50]

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark: 

LEVEL  1

  • Uses evidence in an elementary manner e.g.  shows no or little understanding on how the  TRC was able to deal with the past 
  • Uses evidence partially to report on topic or cannot  report on topic

MARKS 

0–2

LEVEL 

2

  • Evidence is mostly relevant and relates to a great  extent to the topic e.g. shows an understanding  on how the TRC was able to deal with the past
  • Uses evidence in a basic manner

MARKS 

3–5

LEVEL  3

  • Uses relevant evidence e.g. shows a thorough  understanding on how the TRC was able to deal  with the past 
  • Evidence relates well to the topic
  • Uses evidence very effectively in an organised  paragraph that shows understanding of the topic

MARKS 

6–8

QUESTION 3: WHAT WAS THE IMPACT OF GLOBALISATION ON THE  LIVES OF ORDINARY PEOPLE IN THE NEW WORLD ORDER? 
3.1

3.1.1 [Explanation of concepts from Source 3A–L1] 

    • Operating at an international level with regard to trade, economy  and technology of national and cultural resources
    • Processes that promote world-wide exchanges 
      Any relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3A–L1] 

    • Gain from trade 
    • Grow economically 
    • Grow socially 
    • Higher income 
    • Higher GDP
      Any relevant response (Any 3 x 1) (3)

3.1.3 [Usefulness of evidence from Source 3A–L3] 

    • Every country can gain from trade 
    • Countries will expand and achieve higher incomes 
    • Raise the GDP 
    • Both rich and poor globalised countries will show increase 
      Any relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.1.4 [Interpretation of Source 3A–L2] 

    • Incomes of the rich increased compared to the poor 
    • The rich remained richer and the poor remained poorer
    • The industrialised countries benefit more because they sell the  finished product and the poor countries extract the raw materials 
      Any relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.2

3.2.1 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3B–L2] 

    • Provided financial aid to poor or underdeveloped countries 
    • Provided economic aid to poor or underdeveloped countries 
    • These countries will be able to survive and compete
       Any other relevant answer (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.2.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3B–L2] 

    • Aid/help would not solve the problems of the poor
    • The IMF/World Bank should make aid available to all poor  countries 
    • The IMF/World Bank should not have any rules/restrictions for  poor countries to apply for loans 
    • When loans are given to poor countries they cannot pay the  loan amount, but rich countries when receiving loans become  richer
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

3.3

3.3.1 [Extraction of the evidence from the source 3C–L1] 

    • IMF 
    • World Bank 
    • WTO (3 x 1) (3) 

3.3.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3C–L1] 

    • To carry the plan of privatisation 
    • Deregulation 
    • Free trade (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

3.3.3 [Interpretation of the evidence from the Source 3C–L2] 

    • If you export, generate more income to pay off your loan and no  money for your own use 
    • Cultivate luxury crops for export 
    • Protection of their own people were compromised to attract  foreign investment 
      Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.3.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3C–L2] 

    • The countries were in debt
      Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.3.5 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3C–L1] 

    • To attract foreign investment (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4

3.4.1 [Extraction of information in the Source 3D–L1] 

    • lack of shelter 
    • poor clothing 
    • poor living conditions 
      Any other relevant answer (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

3.4.2 [Interpretation of relevant information from Source 3D–L2] 

    • Global economy dominated by the rich 
    • The world economy is dominated by industrial nations
    • Created debts among the poor countries
    • Cannot compete with rich countries 
    • Exported unprocessed material to rich countries which in turn  sold it as finished products 
      Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.5 [Comparison of information in Sources 3C and 3D–L3] 

  • 3C – countries were not producing for local consumption
    3D – supports this because it shows people are underfed 
  • 3C – poor countries were paying their loans
    3D – evidence of poor clothing and inadequate housing 
    Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

3.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis of evidence from all sources and own  knowledge to construct own original argument] 
Candidates should either take a stance or focus on both positive and  negative aspects of globalisation. 
Candidates should focus on the following aspects in their response. 
Positive 

  • Brought advancement in fast food chains (Source 3A) 
  • Advancement in communication, transport and infrastructure 
  • Exchange of culture made possible (Source 3D) 
  • Produce more export, bring in more money. etc. (Source 3C) 
  • Global market much more developed than previously. (Source 3C)
  • Through IMF and WTO managed to standardised international economic  policies (Source 3C) 
    Any other relevant response 

Negative 

  • Domination of economies of the world by big companies (Source 3D)
  • Poor countries have no access to shelter, dress and living conditions  (Source 3D)
  • Indigenous culture suffer due to universal culture(Source 3C) 
  • Exploitation of natural resources/Prices of raw material kept low/do not  benefit from company profits (Source 3A) 
  • Exploitation of labour (Source 3D) 
  • Accumulation of debts by poor countries (Source 3A) 
    Any other relevant response 

(8) 
[50]

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark: 

LEVEL  1

  • Uses evidence in a very elementary manner e.g.  shows little or no understanding of the impact of  globalisation on the lives of ordinary people in  the New World Order 
  • Use evidence partially to report on topic or cannot  write a paragraph on the topic

MARKS 

0–2

LEVEL 

2

  • Extract evidence from the sources that is mostly  relevant and relates to a great extent to the topic e.g. show some understanding of the impact of  globalisation on the lives of ordinary people in  the New World Order
  • Use evidence from sources in a very basic manner

MARKS 

3–5

LEVEL  3

  • Uses relevant evidence from the sources e.g.  demonstrate a thorough understanding of the  impact of globalisation on the lives of ordinary  people in the New World Order 
  •  Use evidence from sources very effectively in an  organised paragraph that shows a thorough  understanding of the topic

MARKS 

6–8

SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS 
QUESTION 4: CIVIL RESISTANCE, 1970s TO 1980s: SOUTH AFRICA THE CRISIS  OF APARTHEID IN THE 1980s 
SYNOPSIS 
Candidates need to take focus on the adaptation of the apartheid policy; the measures  Botha introduced to further divide and rule the non-white people. They need to show that  this had the opposite effect and led to massive internal resistance that will ultimately lead to  the destruction of apartheid. 
MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their essays: 
Introduction: Candidates should indicate the extent to which internal resistance  movements challenged the apartheid regime in the 1980s. 
Elaboration: 
To a large extent 

  • Botha’s policy of Total Onslaught/Total Strategy 
  • Reform measures (1983 Constitution, Tricameral Parliament 1984)
  • Formation and role of the UDF (‘Don’t vote’ campaign, ‘Million Signature’ campaign
  • Mass protests in Black South African townships in 1984/5 
  • Protest marches (e.g. Langa township in the Western Cape) 
  • School boycotts led mainly by COSAS in 1983 and 1985 
  • Communities embarked on rent boycotts e.g. Vaal Triangle and Soweto in 1984
  • Formation and impact of COSATU and other unions in workers struggles
  • Stay-away campaigns in May Day 1986 and NUM strike in 1987 
  • Declaration of the State of Emergency 1985 to1986 by the PW Botha government
  • Emergence of the Mass Democratic Movement in1989 and the Defiance campaign
  • The role of the Black Sash 
  • SACC 
  • End Conscription Campaign 
    Any other relevant response 

Conclusion: Candidates should tie up their argument with a relevant conclusion. 
If candidates should indicate to a lesser extent, they need to substantiate their  argument with relevant examples.

[50]

QUESTION 5: THE COMING OF DEMOCRACY TO SOUTH AFRICA AND COMING  TO TERMS WITH THE PAST 
SYNOPSIS 
Candidates need to focus on the roles of the NP and the ANC as the key role players but  should also take into account the roles played by Inkhata, AWB, CP and the Communist  Party. 
MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their essays: 
Introduction: Candidates should indicate whether they agree with the statement or not  and elaborate. 
Elaboration: 
Candidates should include: 

  • The process of negotiations (i.e. Groote Schuur Minute, Pretoria Minute)
  • Commitment of the ANC to review the armed struggle 
  • CODESA I – signing the Declaration of Intent aimed at the creation of a non-racial,  non-discriminatory South Africa
  • Whites only referendum gives a clear mandate for De Klerk to continue negotiations
  • CODESA II collapses 
  • Increased violence (i.e. Boipatong, Bhisho, etc.) 
  • Record of Understanding restarted the negotiation process/Role of Ramaphosa and  Meyer 
  • Death of Hani but Mandela asks for calmness 
  • Sunset Clause 
  • Storming of the World Trade Centre by right wingers 
  • Final agreement reached 
  • 1994 election 
    Any other relevant point 

Conclusion: Candidates should tie up their argument with a relevant conclusion.

[50]

QUESTION 6: THE END OF THE COLD WAR AND A NEW WORLD ORDER:  THE EVENTS OF 1989 
SYNOPSIS 
Candidates need to agree or disagree with the statement and elaborate on how the  collapse of communism forced both the ANC and National Party to negotiate for a better  future for all South Africans. 
MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their response: 
Introduction: Candidates must focus on the collapse of communism, the impact on the  ANC, impact on the National party, the independence of Namibia and  independence of Angola. 
Elaboration: 
In agreeing with the assertion, candidates should have the following points in their  elaboration: 

  • Policy of Glasnost and Perestroika paved the way for both the ANC and NP to reform
  • There was pressure from major powers to work towards a peaceful settlement
  • The ANC had to redefine its position and began to seek recognition from western  countries 
  • Disappearance of Marxist-Leninist states and the fall of the Berlin Wall affected the  ANC 
  • De Klerk desired reform 
  • USSR economy unable to support/sustain aid to Africa and the ANC
  • South Africa’s economy took a downturn in 1989 
  • The ANC struggle for self-determination began 
  • The ANC and the apartheid government had to find a peaceful and workable solution
  • The apartheid government took the opportunity to negotiate with the ANC because  there was no longer a threat from the Soviet Union 
  • Both the NP and the ANC took cognisance of internal factors to save the country’s  future 
  • Independence of Namibia and Angola 
  • Any other response 

Conclusion: Candidates should tie up their argument with a relevant conclusion.

[50]
TOTAL: 150

DRAMATIC ARTS PAPER
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: TWENTIETH CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
QUESTION 1: TWENTIETH CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
Use the following rubric and notes to assess candidate’s response:

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

27–30

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively.

Meritorious  

achievement 

24–26

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure. 
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

21–23

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure. 
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

18–20

  • Structure not always logical. 
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times. 
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references. 
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

15–17

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed. 
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor. 
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

11–14

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner. 
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–10

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding.

The following is merely an example: 
EPIC THEATRE 

Socio-political context 
Epic Theater was due to a revolt against realism. Bertolt Brecht was a medical porter during  the First World War and he experienced the slaughter and brutality on a daily basis. It was  traumatic for Brecht and therefore he was opposed to the political forces that sacrificed  countless lives. He believed that they had only allowed this for capitalist economic gain and  therefore he was an open pacifist. 
Brecht was also influenced by Karl Marx. Marxism gave Brecht a scientific outlook on the  world and strong political beliefs. He was also influenced by Piscator and Expressionism. 
Plot 
Epic Theatre was structured as a montage of independent incidents which Brecht believed  ‘could connect dissimilars in such a way as to “shock” people in to new recognitions and  understandings. Each scene was given a written subtitle that would be removed only to be  replaced by a new one when the scene changed. This was to keep the audience alert and  observant, by discouraging over-emotional sentiment and empathy.  
The episodes were complete within itself, reflecting only a part of the whole. The episodes  are linked by thematic threads, which Brecht wanted his audience to confront, ponder,  debate and reflect upon. The audience should make connections between the past and the  present. 
Characteristics of Epic Theatre 
In describing his ideal theatre, Brecht used specific terms: 
Brecht called his play –epic- because they resembled epic poems in many ways:

    1. They alternated between dialogue and narration
    2. They freely changed place and time
    3. Some scenes are shown and others only narrated 
    4. They could bridge huge passages of time in a single sentence
    5. Epic theatre seeks its ultimate effect outside the theatre. By stirring up thought and  inciting the spectator to act for desirable social reform.

Brecht also made use of the term to alienate. Brecht’s original word was ‘verfremdungs  effect’ which more accurately means ‘to make strange.’ His aim was to make the action on  stage “strange” or “apart” or “alienated’ from the audience. He believed that different means  could be used to make things strange. He may deliberately call the audience’s attention to  the make believe nature of the work, rather than to try convince them of the play’s reality.  The audience should never be allowed to confuse what is seen on stage with reality. The  play must be thought of as a comment on life, something to be watched and judged critically. Songs, narrative passages, filmed sequences, music and scenery are some the devices  Brecht used to alienate the audience 
Such devices prevent a production from pushing the audience into a feeling of security and  timelessness, and engage their judgment in such a way as to arouse their social  consciousness.
Brecht also made use of Historification. 
This means using materials drawn from other times and places. Brecht believed that the  dramatist should emphasise the “pastness” and not depict historical material in a modern  way. He should attempt to arouse in the spectator the feeling that if he had been living under  the conditions shown in the play, he would have taken some positive action. He would have  done things differently. The audience should then go on to see that, since things have  changed, it is possible to bring about desirable social change in the present. He wanted his  audience to be moved to make social reforms. By using the technique of historification he  believed that he could change the audience from a passive one to an active one. 
Costumes  
The costumes may be very casual. The costumes that the actor would wear may not suit the  character they are portraying. 
They made use of masks to create and set the character’s attitude for the actor. This would  be for the generalized characters as the more rounded characters would not wear masks.  
Setting 
The sets went against that of realism. They rejected the box set and would possibly have a  door to walk through, but walls or anything that would give it a realistic feel. There may be  projections at the back to describe the scene and it may tell us where to when that particular  scene is set.  
Sets were unrealistic and more suggestive. Lights would be left in full view of the audience,  scene changes would happen in full view of the audience and pipes, scaffolding, etc. may be  left on stage as an alienation technique.  
Themes  
Themes were often politically based. Brecht used theatre to promote his Marxism views and  therefore many of his plays’ themes explored themes of capitalism. Because the war also  greatly affected Brecht, the theme of War as the product of a capitalist system, as well as the  effects of war were also evident in Brecht’s plays.  
Candidates need to write about these points giving a comprehensive summary of Epic  Theatre as whole, as well as relevant examples from the play they have studied to motivate  their statements. 
It is important that learners understand and answer both aspects of the question. They need  to have discussed the genre of the text that they have studied as a whole, referring to  examples from the text that they have studied to substantiate their answer, as well as  evaluate how this influences the performance of the main character. If the learner did NOT  show evaluation skills in answering the latter part of the question, full marks for this question  can NOT be awarded.

THEATRE OF THE ABSURD 

  • “Theatre of the Absurd” appropriately labelled by Martin Esslin in 1961, offers the  audience an existentialist point of view of the outside world and forces the audience to  consider their meaning in a world where there appears to be no true order or meaning. 
  • The underlying belief of this philosophy was that nothing has a definite, specific or  recognisable existence. 
  • Rather, it is based on the idea that human beings are what they make of themselves;  they are determined by their actions and choices as they continue through life. 

Characters 

  • According to the existentialists instead of having fixed characters, they simply exist in a  bleak state of affairs. Humans, themselves are nothing. Aware of their human condition,  human beings exist in a bleak world devoid of meaning =. 
  • They are therefore lost, confused and all their actions are then worthless, senseless,  futile and even absurd  
  • Dramatists such as Beckett and Ionesco shared this pessimistic outlook of the human  struggle. 
  • Absurdists therefore are mainly concerned with mankind's search for meaning and trying  to make sense of their senseless position and to come to terms with their hopeless  situation. 
  • We therefore find that absurdist drama creates an environment where people are  isolated. 
  • They are clown-like characters blundering their way through life because they do not  know what else to do. 
  • Often the characters stay together simply because they are afraid to be alone in such in  incomprehensible world e.g. Estragon and Vladimir in Waiting for Godot.
  • Unlike realism where the characters are well rounded, fully developed, psychologically  convincing, the characters in The Theatre of the Absurd lack identity and are dull and  uninteresting and lack dimension. 
  • Instead of having virtues the characters are flawed and because they are not well rounded they remain static and show no development. 
  • They come across as being repulsive, pathetic, miserable and incapable. They are  emotionally empty and are representative of the human condition as defined by Theatre  of the Absurd. 
  • The characters in Absurdist plays are representative of humanity, rather than an attempt  to create a 'real' person on stage. 
  • Their qualities are exaggerated and the situations in which they find themselves are  intensified. They have no past and we are given little indication what the future might be.
  • Absurdist playwrights use characters to express their view on the human condition.
  • Beckett's characters show a mutual dependency while Ionesco's characters are  described as 'social puppets'. 
  • The characters are often presented in pairs or groups based on the double acts of  vaudeville or music hall comedians. 
  • Absurdist characters often appear in pairs, representing a unity or aspects of the same  person and therefore mirror images of one another. 
  • The tramps in Waiting for Godot rely on each other for comfort, support and most of all  for meaning. They need each other to avoid living lonely and meaningless lives. They  feel compelled to leave each other but at the same time compelled to stay together
  • They consider parting but never do and their inability to leave is another indication of the  uncertainty and frustration they feel as they wait for an explanation for their existence.
  • As an audience, we can only watch them do the same things, listen to them saying the  same things and accept the fact that Godot may or may not come. 
  • Much like them we are stuck in a world where our actions dictate our survival. 

Dialogue 

  • Another major idea was that humans are not adept at communication and deliberately  create conflict with each other through their dialogue in order to give meaning to a  meaningless world. 
  • Language then acts as a barrier to communication, which in turn isolates the individual  even more, thus making speech almost futile. 
  • Beckett questions the value of language believing it lost its ability to communicate
  • Ionesco shows that attempts at communication often 'disintegrate' from clichés to  meaningless syllables. 
  • In keeping with the Existentialist idea that people feel isolated in a hostile world,  Absurdist playwrights often focus on the inability of language to bridge the gap between  the characters. 
  • Language is depersonalising, automatic and meaningless. Communication between  characters may be sparse, or characters may talk at cross purposes without really  influencing each other. Language then serves the function of presenting the unexpected,  the bizarre and the absurd. 
  • The following are examples of how language can be used in Absurdist plays:
    • Silence is as great a means of communication as the spoken word, for example in  Waiting for Godot there is long pauses and silences in which nothing happens.
    • There are meaningless conversations and “habitual” superficial comments in which  characters often engage. Language is seen as merely an escape from the tedium of  life or because the silence becomes unbearable.
    • New words are created to show people's attempts to communicate with one  another. The attempt is doomed to fail. 
    • Banal daily conversations are mixed with literary language, puns, clichés, slang and  repetitions are interspersed with poetic language.
    • A repetitious style of dialogue is used to emphasise the cyclic nature of life. 

Themes common to Theatre of the Absurd play texts reveal: 

  • The experience of temporality and evanescence (time)  
  • The sense of the tragic difficulty of becoming aware of one's own self in the merciless  process of renovation and destruction that occurs with the change of time (time)
  • the difficulty of communication between human beings (language)  
  • The unending quest for reality in a world in which everything is uncertain and the  borderline between dream and waking is ever shifting  
  • The tragic nature of all love relationships and the self-deception of friendship
  • Man's terror in the face of the total meaninglessness, total shapelessness of the universe  and all the events of which it is composed  
  • Man is alone, lost in a world in which God has deserted him 
    Science and reason are illusory; nature has reaped its revenge

POSTMODERNISM  

  • Is not a genre that started at a specific time 
  • Is a movement that emerged in the mid-1980s 
  • Developed from the Absurdist point of view 
  • Rejects the certainties of the Modern Era 
  • Contains no Grand Narrative or singular truth from which to view the world in
  • Rejects the idea that there is a dominant set of beliefs or a neat solution 
  • 'Destroys' the 'truth' 
  • Embraces multiple viewpoints, perspectives, realities 
  • Includes Art, Theatre, Architecture, Music, Film, Literature, Fashion, TV and other forms  of expression 
  • Borrows from a multiple array of styles 
  • Rejects the notion of 'high art' and 'low art' 
  • Embraces Avant Garde (forward thinking/activist), experimental theatre
  • Does not prescribe to a 'purity' in art 
  • 'Trashes' high art 
  • Contains no fixed way of creating art 
  • Moves towards a more subjective opinion 
  • Holds that culture belongs to every person 
  • Deconstructs (a way of taking set notions apart and putting the together again in a new,  disrupted and disjointed manner) ideas, images and constructs 
  • Contradicts ideas, images and constructs 
  • Does not prescribe a meaning, point or view or perspective 
  • Holds the notion that each individual viewer creates their own unique meaning
  • Reflects and celebrates the madness and chaotic way of life in a Popular culture • Enjoys nonsense art, ideas, constructs and theories 
  • Sees irony and humour 
  • Emphasises HOW things are seen as opposed to WHAT is seen 
  • Uses pastiches:
    • Visual Arts technique of different images, media forms, etc. pasted together to  create one piece 
    • References and layers different texts and images 
  • Meta Theatre/Text:
    • Reminds the viewer that they are in the theatre
    • Contain characters that can step out of character and communicate with the  audience
    • Is the art work reflecting on itself 
  • Stories are: 
    • Non-linear in construction
    • Reflexive 
    • Peripheral even nonessential
    • Theories or ideas
    • Broken up 
    • Overlap with many points of view and conflicting voices 
  • Performances are:
    • The main focus 
    • The main process
    • Not captured in a script because they consist of images, sounds and multimedia o Have no guilty party – no one is guilty 
  • Rehearsal processes are:
    • Improvised 
    • Changed 
    • Revised
    • Updated 
    • Transformed through performance continually 
  • The audience: 
    • Is very important 
    • Plays a part 
    • Are often included in the dialogue  
  • Play Texts: 
    • Have no clear beginning, middle or end 
    • Make the script just the starting point 
    • Have unanswered questions 
    • Texts (visual, aural, the human body, etc.) 
    • Look at themes or theatrical devices 
    •  Leaves the play open ended 
    •  Embraces the idea that the audience makes their own meaning
    • Asks more questions than it answers
    • Contain visual images and non-spoken actions 
    • Deconstructs a truth and does not accept only one reality 
    • Uses time, space and structure to echo the structure of the deconstructed or  defragmented story or plot 
    • Do not necessary have real people 
    • Characters and people are merely a representation of fragmented ideas 
    • Often starts at a realistic point but unravels and the action becomes unreal as the  play goes along 

Use the following to guide you: 

  •  A total of 6 marks for each bullet excellently discussed. 
  • A total of 2 marks for excellent essay structure (Introduction, body and conclusion)
  • A total of 2 marks for excellent arguments and statements.
  • A total of 4 marks for relevant examples taken from the text to substantiate answers. - A total of 4 marks for evaluating how the techniques of the style influence the main  characters and keeping character development as the main idea of the essay.  

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE [1960–1994] 
Answer ONLY ONE question from this section. 
QUESTION 2: WOZA ALBERT! BY PRECY MTWA, MBONGENI NGEMA AND  BARNEY SIMON 
2.1 The following are some of the biblical references: 

  • The resurrection of Morena after three days. 
  • Morena walking on water
  • Morena providing fish (fried fish) to the people 
  • Bobbejaan asks Morena why he has to forgive seventy times seven 
  • Reference to the words on the cross, forgive them for they do not know what they  are doing
  • Zuluboy refers to Bobbejaan as Judas
    (Any TWO biblical references can be accepted) (2) 

2.2 Candidate has to demonstrate an understanding of the concept behind archetypes as  used in a drama. 

For instance: An archetype is a character in many written, literary and dramatic forms  that represents a type a conventional manner e.g. a school kid, a bad boy, a tsotsi, a  priest, etc. 
These archetypes serve thus a particular function in a play by right of the writer. 
Here are the eight archetypal characters, described in terms of their dramatic  functions: 
PROTAGONIST: The traditional Protagonist is the driver of the story: the one who  forces the action. We root for it and hope for its success. 
ANTAGONIST: The Antagonist is the character directly opposed to the Protagonist. It  represents the problem that must be solved or overcome for the Protagonist to  succeed. 
REASON: This character makes its decisions and takes action on the basis of logic,  never letting feelings get in the way of a rational course. 
EMOTION: The Emotion character responds with its feelings without thinking,  whether it is angry or kind, with disregard for practicality. 
SKEPTIC: Skeptic doubts everything - courses of action, sincerity, and truth - whatever. 
SIDEKICK: The Sidekick is unfailing in its loyalty and support. The Sidekick is often  aligned with the Protagonist though may also be attached to the Antagonist.
GUARDIAN: The Guardian is a teacher or helper who aids the Protagonist in its quest  and offers a moral standard. 
CONTAGONIST: The Contagonist hinders and deludes the Protagonist, tempting it to  take the wrong course or approach. 
Candidate need show to demonstrate, at least that they understand the concept of  archetypes and their functions in the play. Award marks for the understanding of  archetypes and identifying them in a play. 
For instance, the singer in the streets, jobs seekers on the side of the road, a destitute  aunt Dudu, the delusional barber, etc., that which creates the element of stereotype in  the play Woza Albert! (6) 

2.3 Consider the following suggestion: 

Agiprop = Agitation and propaganda. Usually a political message conveyed through  an art form, which seeks to agitate its audience and propagate its message. 
Candidate may respond positively to this question for which the following guidelines  may apply: 
In 1948 The National party comes into power, which was followed by the Group Areas  Act being passed in 1950 (which separated the black people from the whites.) In 1955  the Sophiatown removals took place while the Boycott Movement was founded in  1959. This suggests that by time/era and the racial mix in the production team of the  play; the play belongs to the era of protest theatre. The injustices found in a work  place, the absence of quality education, unemployment and poverty, etc. These were  the problem in the society of Woza Albert! and the play propagates that action be  taken to alleviate and even get rid of the issues. 
Markers should consider the above suggestion but most evaluate the understanding  of theatre styles and the ability to identify them from a work of theatre. (5)

2.4

Candidate may use their own understanding and marker to use discretion. Candidate  should demonstrate the comprehension of the drama element of costume and the  functions that it serve in the theatre. Furthermore, candidate must be able to indicate  the use of costumes as per style requirement. 
For instance, in Woza Albert!, the actors underwent a rigorous training season with  the focus placed on Poor Theatre of Jerzy Grotowski. As a system or technique, Poor  Theatre implies the minimal application of technical theatre devices in playmaking.  According to Poor Theatre, the use of costumes must be minimal and serve a  suggestion without limiting the imagination of the actor in a creative space. A clown  nose, a minimal object that suggests and make distinctions between different racial  groups represented in the play. The costumes are used as symbols of suggestions  and thus allow the actors to switch transform from one role to the next without using  full or representational costumes. 
Marker must use discretion when marking this response. (5) 

2.5

Satire is a traditional form of comedy, but can sometimes be found at the heart of  more serious drama. Satire will often ridicule an individual, but the target can also be  a group of people or an institution. The aim of satire is to mock the weaknesses or  similar characteristics of another. 
At the heart of effective satire lies the ability to bring to the audience’s attention the  weaknesses of others. These are usually physical traits or qualities. How Mbongeni  and Percy, for instance, portray the physical characteristics of Baaskom, the manner  through which he speaks and the clown nose, Morena flying out of jail, waiting for  Morena at the airport, the demands made by Aunt Dudu, her wishes, the bribe by  Baaskom to Bobejaan, etc. 
Candidate must understand what satire is and award marks also for examples found  in the play. (4) 

2.6

The performance of Woza Albert! Relies mostly on the physical and vocal qualities of  an actor as explained in the conventions and techniques of Poor Theatres. 
Acting in the style of Poor Theatre places emphasis on the physical skill of the  performer and uses props for transformation into other objects, sometimes of great  significance. The aim was for acting to be authentic, akin to Stanislavski’s system (but  more physical). Grotowski used a variation of Stanislavski’s emotion memory  technique with his own actors. 
It is thus important for an actor performing in Woza Albert! To be able to use voice for  character transformation by applying the skills learnt from Poor Theatre. The actor  must also be able to transform, physically from character to character. (8)

2.7

Consider the following notes as guidelines that may suggest what the question  expects from candidate’s response. Candidate may not be able to write verbatim to  the suggestions and it is in this instance where marker has to evaluate whether  knowledge, understanding of theory, identifying and applying the information to  answer the questions. 
The first clue about the staging of the production is found in the notes written in the  form of an introduction to the play. The staging of the play sees Grotowski as a huge  influence. We see this by the actors only wearing pants allowing the rest of their body  to be used as a tool and their own techniques to show that there was no shame but  was working against inferiority. 
The setting according the conventions of Poor Theatre entails the following:

    • Grotowski’s acting area was typically bare, with few props and no set.
    • Object transformation was a key aspect of Poor Theatre. 
    • After transformation, objects were often symbolic and/or of great significance.
    • Lighting typically flooded the acting area with no use of spotlights or focus areas.
    • Costumes would be anonymous, not identifying character (as with realism).

Candidate must be able to use examples from the play, like the clothing line where  costumes were suspended for transformation purposes, etc. 
Use the following rubric and suggested notes to assess candidate’s response: 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure.
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical.
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times.
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references.
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10) 
[40]

OR 

QUESTION 3: SOPHIATOWN BY JUNCTION AVENUE THEATRE COMPANY 
3.1 Community theatre is made for the following reasons: 

  • To educate the community about the issues affecting the community e.g. Aids.
  • To provide a means of collaborative problem-solving and conflict resolution.
  • To provide income generation, employment and /or meaningful leisure-time  activity for both performers and the audience. 
  • To empower, sensitise and conscientise the community. 
  • To create community spirit and unity. 
  • To provide skills-based training in theatre and facilitation skills.
    Award full marks for every THREE points mentioned. (3) 

3.2 Candidate may agree or disagree to the suggested statement of the question, for  which they give reasons. The following, for instance, maybe some of the reasons that  may make it fit as community theatre. 

  • Because the production itself was done in a manner of collaboration.
  • The play creates a spirit of unity among the people especially by historical  reference.
    Or candidate may disagree and label it as a Township musical and provide reasons to  support the notion.
    Consider candidate’s motives, Sophiatown is more a township musical than a  Community Theatre production. (4) 

3.3

3.3.1 There are several political activities that took place during the time of  Sophiatown. 
The following are suggestions based on the contextual information in the play:

    • The character of Fahfee keeps us up to date with the political situation in  the play.
    • Dr Xuma who was once the president of the ANC lived in Sophiatown and  this forms evidence of the political movement of black consciousness, the  congress that Fahfee constantly refers to land ownership had been  severely restricted through the 1923 Urban Areas Act. (5)

3.3.2 The following are suggestions of what made Sophiatown a multi-cultural  suburb: 

    • There were some number of Indian and Chinese residents, and Indian,  Chinese as well as Jewish shopkeepers.
    • The suburb had an influence of foreign popular culture and its fashion is  sketched, and the flowering of music and writing.
    • Sophiatown was one of the few places were different races could own  their plots and houses.
    • Sophiatown's population in 1921 stood at just under three thousand. Of  these, just under half were Africans, with Whites accounting for just fewer  than 600 and Coloureds almost a thousand, the number of Indians stood  at barely a hundred.
      Candidate may not reach the above cognitive application of analysis,  therefore, markers must consider the above as guidelines to what may be  found in most candidate’s responses. (6) 

3.3.3 Consider the following suggestions in candidate’s response: 

    • Sophiatown represents a period characterized by the military occupation  of black townships and thousands of apartheid-related deaths. 
    • The destruction of Sophiatown is widely documented, considered as the  Nationalist Party (NP) government's model for its urban apartheid  legislation and policies. 
    • In 1950, the NP government passed the Group Areas Act, which  designated specific areas for particular race groups. All blacks living in so called white areas had to be resettled in areas set aside for black  occupation.
    • The Native Resettlement Board, the NRB was responsible for drawing up  and implementing operational plans for the removal and resettlement of  Sophiatown residents in different parts of Soweto
    • Immorality Act of 1957
    • Sometime in 1954 residents received the first batch of notices from the  NRB informing them of the dates earmarked for their removal to  Meadowlands. At this stage several hundreds of match box houses in  Meadowlands were nearing completion. Some residents had had the  opportunity to view the houses in Meadowlands before the fateful day of  removals. Again here there seem to have been conflicting accounts of  what impression residents formed of the standard of houses provided as  compared to what they had in Sophiatown.
    • Some writings about destruction of Sophiatown have suggested that these  developments galvanized the whole community, preparing them for a  showdown with authorities in what was expected to be a fierce resistance  to the resettlement scheme.
    • The ANC protested the removals and launched an 18 month campaign  against the proposed removals "We won't move / ons sal nie dak nie /  Asihambi were the slogans popularised by Congress. The people of  Sophiatown were mobilised against the removals. And in parliament, the  Minister of Justice claimed that the ANC would oppose the removals with  force, using machine-guns, cars loaded with explosives, and tyres which  would be filled with explosives and rolled towards the police
      The events above suggest the reasons for the move and the results,  especially the impact these laws had on the lives of Sophiatown and the  people thereof.
      Consider candidate’s proximity to the suggestions above and award marks for  well-rounded response that is guided by the facts of the era. (5) 

3.3.4 Bloke Modisane, Eskia Mphahlele, Nat Nakasa, Can Thema, etc.
        Award a mark per writer mentioned. (2) 

3.4 Mingus and Charlie are the stereotype gangsters in the play Sophiatown.

  • They dressed like America gangsters and for that reason also adopted their kind  of lifestyle.
  • Charlie and Mingus are jobless characters whose income is based on ‘pulling the  jobs’. 
  • They rob the trains and trams. Mingus owns a baby brown, the one he tells Jakes  about in exchange for a love letter. 
  • Both the characters believe that violence can solve anything and Princess is  forced into a relationship with Mingus, Mingus tells Ruth ‘I clapped Princess until  she loved me’
  • The pearls that Mingus gives to Ruth and the manner through which he obtained  them; robbing the ladies and gents as if he was doing a church collection, etc.
    Award full marks for any three well motivated reasons that validates the quote.  Consider candidates understanding of the quote and the way they refer to it in their  response. (6)

3.5 Use the following notes and rubric to assess candidate’s response: 

South Africa has been faced with great atrocities in terms of racial segregation. The  history of this country is filled with a lot of examples of the destructions that are  politically bounded and an evident segregation in terms of land distribution. This was  a separated land and the repercussions thereof are still felt today.  
Even though, Sophiatown had its own disadvantages in terms of poverty,  
overpopulation and violence, there was something good in it. People could own land,  it was freehold. There was a variety of people dwelling in this suburb. There was a  multiplicity of art, believes, culture, philosophies that governed this suburb. 
There are many other advantages: The writers, vibrant crafts, fashion, music, dance  and the fun could be one of the central aspects that may have been the calming factor  to the lifestyle of Sophiatown’s people. South Africa, now, can do with such vibrancy  in art, culture and the other forces that govern human harmony. 

Use the following rubric and suggested notes to assess candidate’s response: 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure.
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical.
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times.
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references.
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding.

The notes are just a suggestion, consider candidate’s understanding of the history of  South Africa, the ability to find relevance and to demonstrate the synthesising. (10) [40]

QUESTION 4: SIENER IN DIE SUBURBS BY P.G. DU PLESSIS 
4.1 The following are some issues dealt with in the play Siener in die Suburbs and there  are examples of these found in the text itself: 

  • Death: PA and the family complexities that emanate from his absence. Giel can  also be seen as a result, the oblivious chaos in terms of family management that  could be seen as a resistance to change. We see this resistance from the way the  children treat Giel and how disappointed they are at MA.
  • Poverty: Giel goes around selling murals with religious messages to make a living.  The suburb and the setting of the play also suggests a particular economic  circumstance which is that of poverty
  • Disability: It is much debatable whether to see Tjokkie’s abilities as disabilities of  his own in this play. The characters seem to have a certain sense of blurriness  which characterize a sense of psychological disability.
  • Violence: The manner in which some characters in the play handle their problems  seems to rely mostly on violent traits. Jakes threatens to beat up everyone to  come across as the more power contained character in the play
  • Unemployment: Giel, Tjokkie and Ma do not indicate any form of employment as  their occupation. The turmoil in family troubles that arise are closely related to absence of economic viability in the play.
  • Pregnancy: Tiemie’s pregnancy, maybe an indication of new life or the end to her  innocence. The everyday uncertainties that come with pregnancy in many  societies. Who is the father? Does she want to be with the father?
    Candidate may provide any TWO issues and provide a contextual example for each. (5)

4.2

A stock character is a fictional character that relies heavily on cultural types or  stereotypes for its personality, manner of speech, and other characteristics. Stock  characters are instantly recognizable to members of a given culture. In their most  general form, stock characters are related to literary archetypes, but they are often  more narrowly defined. Stock characters are a key component of genre, providing  relationships and interactions that will be instantly recognizable to anyone familiar  with a piece's genre. Stock characters make easy targets for any parody of a given  genre, and the parody will likely exaggerate any stereotypes associated with these  characters. 
Here are some aspects of stock characters: 

    • Not fully rounded
    • Exemplify one particular characteristic to exclusion of everything else
    • Known by: Station in life, Sex, Occupation and personality 
    • In modern terms, stock characters can be a Hero, Villain, Heroine, etc.

The biker, Jakes and the characters accolades of the biker. Tiemie the beautiful,  naïve girl. Ma, a lonely person with the father in absentia contributing to her choices,  etc. 
Candidate should demonstrate their understanding of stock characters and they must  be able to apply that knowledge to determine if the play uses the technique. (5) 

4.3 Use the following rubric and suggestions to assess candidate. 

The antagonist is the main character’s chief opponent. It is common to refer to an  antagonist as a villain (the bad guy) against whom a hero (the good guy) fights in  order to relieve himself or others. In some cases, an antagonist may exist within the  protagonist that causes an inner conflict or a moral conflict inside his mind. This inner  conflict is a major theme of many literary works 
If the play views Tiemie as the protagonist based on her main objectives, her good  intents, then it is true that Jakes is the antagonist. Tiemie’s wishes of s better life  away from the suburb are rather made bleak by the situation in her pregnancy. She  wishes to leave the suburb and have no future association with it, of course with the  exclusion of blood relations, but the baby seem to bind her even more to the very  same suburb.  
Jakes is an antagonist in many other ways, the bike means trouble, the sound of it  becomes the statement of panic in the midst of the rest of the other characters. He is  the sense of harmonic absence that the most part of the characters wish to attain. He  lacks the expected respect from a potential son-in-law. He speaks however he wants  and he bullies Tjokkie, whom we love, at every disposal 
Jakes demonstrates the absence of peace and amicable ways of solving problems.  His remarks are always filled with abusive and insulting speech to the detriment of the  other characters in the play. He forms the stereotype or the microcosmic explanation  of what could be the bigger problem in poor communities.

Use the following rubric and suggested notes to assess candidate’s response: 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references.
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure.
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical.
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times.
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references.
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10) 

4.4

Consider the following suggestions and bear in mind that candidate may not be at a  point in their thoughts to arrive at it. However, pay attention to whether candidate  understands the essence of what makes a play and the characters in it through the ability to analyse text and its people’s (characters) position in the society and  economy of the text itself.  
The play is set in a poor southern suburb of Johannesburg. Tiemie is presented as a  smart and attractive daughter in the play, Tiemie revolts against her social limitations.  She is well dressed, classier than the other characters. Her costume indicates her  character’s wishes and reflects the kind of life that she would like to live. 
Candidate may refer to the Tiemie’s costume as a more urban smart wear, heels and  fancy dress or pants with a well done hairstyle, and some jewellery.  
Award marks to candidate if they indicate the true analysis in terms of the  interpretation of costume and the character of Tiemie. (5)

4.5 Use the notes provided and the rubric to assess candidate’s response:

NB: Candidate will use the conditions of their immediate performance venue which  may not even be a school hall. But in the case where there is a school hall, markers  should then carefully consider the following staging conventions associated with the  style of the play: 

    • School halls are mostly constructed in the form of a proscenium stage.
    • Siener in die Suburb follows the conventions of a realism and thus the staging will  follow suite. 
    • The setting will have to be close to the real or familiar environment. 
    • At a school there might not be enough properties to enhance the visual  effect/reality of the set and that case candidate’s creativity should be considered in  relationship to what the infrastructure at the school. 
    • For instance, there might not be a car for Tjokkie on the set, however, what can  candidate come up with to demonstrate the car in their school hall 
    • Also consider the scene that candidate may choose to present and whether the  setting is plausible and fits with the style of the play. 

Markers must use discretion because responses will vary, school specific and  sometimes artistic in nature. 

Use the following rubric and suggested notes to assess candidate’s response: 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references.
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure. 
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical. 
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times.
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references.
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed. 
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor. 
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support. 
  • Irrelevant. 
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10)

4.6

Markers to assess candidate on the basis of their total understanding of the value of  dramatic arts as a field. Candidate must demonstrate an understanding of the  production of plays and the role they play in the lives of the community/audience.  Furthermore, candidate must display an in depth text analysis of themes in the play  and the ability to identify current issues that may be addressed under the thematic  situation of the play, relate them and support with substantiate motivations. (5) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 40 

SECTION C: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE [POST 1994] 
This section consists of TWO questions. Candidates must answer only ONE question  from this section. 
QUESTION 5: NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH BY JOHN KANI
5.1 A triggering event can be seen as that moment in the play where dramatic action is  set in motion. An event occurs during a harmonious situation in a play. Usually there’s  harmony and peace and everyone is getting along until this moment as a result the  action is steered into a different direction. 

  • The death of Themba can be seen as the triggering event because the entire play  centres around the arrangements thereof
  • Or the arrival of Mandisa from London with the ashes instead of a corpse. 

It is from the above events that the conflict is set in motion and the basic shape of the  narrative is developed. It is also in the solution to this that the narrative finds harmony  again and the characters accept their conditions and forgive. 
Candidate must be awarded marks for the understanding of the drama concept and  applying it in the analysis of a drama text. 
Two marks for the understanding of Triggering Event and TWO marks for the  contextual example (4)

5.2 Use the following as guidelines: 

  • Mandisa is different from Sipho and Thando in terms of where they grew up
  • Mandisa is more westernized than the traditionally grounded Sipho and Thando
  • Sipho opts for and is busy arranging for a traditional funeral whereas Mandisa  brings an urn filled with Themba’s ashes
  • Sipho believes in certain rituals that need to be performed in the process of the  funeral; the mourning period and the night vigil prior to the funeral 
  • The cultural differences are seen mostly in the manner in different characters’  world view and that leads to a series of arguments in the text 
  • Mandisa appears to be disrespectful to Sipho but her account is that she has the  freedom of speech
    Candidate must be awarded marks for identifying the differences and being able to  associate that to a scene or an instance in the play. (6) 

5.3 There are several reasons that make nothing but the truth unfit for a traverse stage:

  • The play is set in a box-set 
  • The house resembles an everyday modern house in a township
  • The text allows for a realistic setting that can be fit only on a proscenium stage
  • The narrative takes place in one house and the set does not change through time  and that can only be effective if the illusion is built on a proscenium stage.
  • The audience has to be put in a household as if they are having a sneak peek into  the lives of the character
  • Most realistic play rely on the method of presentation that support the ideas of  Eugene Scribe’s well-made play
  • The characters are real people and should be seen through the invisible fourth  wall
    Award marks for candidate’s knowledge of stages in drama and the reasons provided  therein. (6) 

5.4 The focus here is on the plot: 

A narrative can be placed synonymously to storytelling. Nothing but the truth is  suitable to be called a narrative in terms of its plot. The following plot structure  describes the essence of what makes NBT a narrative. 
Narratives mostly follow the following Eugene Scribes formulation: 

    • The plot is based upon a withheld secret – known only to some characters – usually about the play’s hero, the revelation of this secret provides the turning  point of the play. 
    • A careful exposition telling the audience what the situation is—usually including  one or more secrets to be revealed later.
    • Surprises – such as letters to be opened at a critical moment and/or identities to  be revealed later in the work. 
    • Suspense that builds steadily throughout the play – usually attained by cliff hanging situations and characters who miss each other by the way of carefully  timed entrances or exits. 
    • A climax late in the play when the secrets are revealed and the hero (or heroine)  confronts his antagonists and succeeds.
    • A denouement – a resolution of the drama when all the loose ends are drawn  together and explanations are made that render all the action quite plausible or  believable. Thus, most well-made plays seem open-ended, as if there were life  beyond the last act curtain. 

With the above guidelines, candidate should be awarded full marks if they provide  suitable examples from the play to verify that Nothing but the Truth is fit under the  term narrative or storytelling. (6) 

5.5

Melodrama is a type of narrative in which the over-dramatic plotline is designed to  play on people's emotions, sometimes at the expense of character development, sub text, and nuance. Moreover, melodramas tend to feature reductive plot lines and  characters that are stereotypical archetypes. In literature and narrative, an archetype  is a character that is a quintessential example of a theme or virtue. Satan, for  example, is a classic archetype of absolute evil. 
The above definition does not fall fit in the case of Nothing but the Truth. It is more of  a realistic play and the characters do not have to behave in an exaggerated manner  as those in a melodrama. 
It is therefore key for actors to follow the realistic style of acting as prescribed by the  Stanislavski’s system. (8) 

5.6 Consider the following notes: 

Truth can be central to the idea of the Truth and Reconciliation Commission; Some  academics have argued that the TRC was just a publicity stunt and that it did not live  up to the main intension of its inception. This is argued to say the perpetrators and the  victims could have behaved in a reconciliation manner for the sake of the public. Yes  the truth and the honesty of these hearings may have been a bit close to accurate or  honesty but no one can really qualify them as actual ‘truths’ and reconciliation might  have been a publicity stunt instead of the actual end point. 
There are several hidden truths that might be hindering the harmony between the  characters, dead and alive. Sipho has a lot that he is internally dealing with and that  affects his behaviour in the play (NB, behaviour = actions and the manners of a  character. In essence, candidate may arrive to this and support it with examples  depicting the moments when truth was revealed in the play and the resultant which is  the reconciliation. 
It can also be observed that Sipho had to reconcile with himself first before the play  can reach reconciliation itself. After reconciling with himself, the play takes on a  different turn, the characters reconcile with each other and a peaceful denouement is  reached. 

Consider the suggestion above and use the rubric to assess candidate’s response

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references.
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure. 
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical. 
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times. 
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references. 
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed. 
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor. 
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant. • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10) 
[40] 

QUESTION 6: MISSING BY REZA DE WET 
6.1

A multi-dimensional character may mean different things. These characters tend to  defy the all good, all evil, all kind-hearted, or all confident, or all obnoxious, or all  positive. Multi-dimensional characters are mostly contradictory in behaviour and the  audiences may interpret them in many ways; which changes also in the development  of the plot. 
For instance, the character of Konstabel, when we first meet him, we see a blind man  who finds himself in Miem’s household. He strikes us as a “good guy” especially when  we witness how the three other characters respond to his presence in the house, they  feel safe. The audience is also made to feel the vulnerability of the three ladies and  the Konstabel incites a false sense of security from both the audience and the three  other characters. There are subtle changes in the progression of the plot that we  witness from Konstabel, he is not what we think he was and the notion of multi dimensional characters may be seen in this regard. 
Candidate must be assessed for the recall, understanding and association of the  concept to the question and a character from the play. (4) 

6.2 To determine means to look for and to find and in this case, candidate has to find the  reasons why Konstabel does not have a name like the rest of the other characters.  The following are some of the reasons in the midst of Konstabel: 

  • He is mysterious 
  • He wears a police uniform and, very strange for a Konstabel, he is blind. This does  not make sense. Already we sense the presence of a strange, magical element.  ∙ During his metamorphosis as a clown, he does not wear a shirt, and the jacket of  the police uniform is upside-down. He now resembles a court clown/fool or pierrot  (a French clown figure). Together with this “new” costume, he can suddenly see  again.
  • In doing so, each member of the audience actually becomes part of the  “conspiracy”. If it were an entirely different jacket, it would not have had the same  effect, and it would definitely be detrimental to the drama if he put it on somewhere  else. As it is, the audience is involved in the dramatic end.
  • Konstabel is not only secretive; he is also a manipulating and magical character.  He only reveals information about himself if he can use it to manipulate others.  Compare what he tells Gertie about “tant” Hannie. He is aware of her sexual  frustration, and to an extent he liberates her from that frustration. He says he is  only used in special cases. This gives Miem a feeling of importance – to think that  midst their poverty they are “a special case”! To compensate for his blindness, he  is blessed with extraordinary well-developed sense organs for smelling and  hearing. About his origin he does not say anything. They call him “snuf in die  neus” (wind of something). Strange indeed, is the fact that Miem, who is always  looking for a villain behind each hill, does not get (“snuf in die neus”) wind of  something. (Note the pun!) 
  • He tells Gertie of his experience with “tant” Hannie, and accompanies her verbally  (by means of words/narration) in her fantasy play as Hannie. At a later stage, as  the clown opposite Meisie, he plays his role completely and manipulates her within  the situation without giving much information about himself. 
  • Being remarkably sensitive for human weaknesses and hidden conflicts within  people, he exploits it. He manipulates the three with his demonstration of a  sharpened sense of smell by guessing each one’s age and sexual status correctly.  Meisie regards him as a sensitive confessor to whom she can confess about her  constrictive existence and need for freedom. For him, this information comes in  handy at a later stage.
    The above are some of the reasons why the playwright chose to keep the Konstabel a  nameless character. Consider candidates’ views in this regard, it may not be verbatim  to the above. Award full marks if candidate provides THREE reasons that are well  discussed. (6)

6.3 The following are the sound effects found in the play and an explanation of its use: 

Play with wind and music: 
Wind contributes to reflect mood. Let’s have a look at the three different types of wind  we find in this play: 

    • A whining wind that depicts Meisie’s melancholic/sad state of mind, giving  ghostliness to the drama. This wind sounds like whispering voices or luring calls  from outside.
    • Soft gusts of wind that coincide with the narration of Meisie about her secret visit  to the circus. These gusts of wind sound like soft, luring calls from outside. This  symbolise Meisie’s need to be free, to go outside. The wind that blows in gusts  indicates that her need only comes to the front occasionally.
    • Hard gusts of wind during Konstabel’s narration of the solar eclipse. This wind  gives a bizarre emotional value to the narration. The falling quinces and flowers  that fly away in the garden, give the narration a dream quality.
      Circus music: 
      According to the text indications the circus music has to sound unusual and eerie.  The music, therefore, is the enticing voice of the irrational, calling her to the outside.  Meisie knows her mother prohibits her to listen to it. This is something she has to  combat together with her mother. In the closing scene she still covers her ears not to  hear it, but then she gives up and leaves the house dancing – to freedom. When she  opens the door, the music enters the house undisturbed. Bear in mind that the kitchen  door remains open. It seems that, in the closing scene, the music is intended to  capture the emotions of the audience too.
      Candidate mentions TWO sound effects and explains their significance in the world of  the play. (5) 

6.4 This question is to test candidate’s ability to create character for a play.

  • It begins with the understanding of the character through a brief analysis. 
  • The understanding of the characters relationship dynamics in the play and the skill  to determine character behaviour a clue to the psychological being thereof.
  • Methods of characterization that can be used to achieve the psycho-pathological  behaviour of characters in action, etc.
    Candidate may mention some of Stanislavski methods and thus need consideration in  application and relation to the expectations of the question. (5)

6.5 Consider the following notes on the character of Meisie: 

She is a beautiful young girl with long hair, and she wears an old dress. She looks  pale. This paleness can be related with her restrictive indoors existence. Her callous  hands (for a young girl) and curved shoulders complete the picture. She is  submissive, and is suppressed and manipulated by her mother. Furthermore, she is  quiet, compliant (agrees to everything) and semi-sad – heart-sore/melancholic. (Note  how often the whining wind is associated with Meisie. The wind becomes a  personification of her feelings.) Although she is so very much suppressed, she  remains in an inner conflict with her prevalent circumstances. But, she is also a  dreamer who not only admires the circus, the circus music and the circus lights. She  also longs for it, i.e. she longs for freedom and happiness. We sense this as we see  her staring at the window. Her mother strictly forbids her to do so.  
These inner desires are prevalent as the influence to her behaviour throughout the  play and the ultimate moment when she truly leaves the house. It has been her desire 

Use the following rubric and the above notes to assess candidate’s response 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure.
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical.
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times. 
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references.
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner. 
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10)

6.6 There are several references to blindness in the play. The following are the most  observable: 

  • Initially Miem complains about the fact that she cannot see well anymore. Meisie  has to put the thread through the eye of the needle. This reference entails more  than merely the loss of sight due to old age. It also refers to her inability to see the  truth, to see what is happening around her – how she is smothering Meisie. She  refers to the other daughters who disappeared and the faults of their parents, but  she is too “blind” to see that she is making the same mistakes. She also trusts  Konstabel blindly.
  • The Konstabel is blind – very strange for someone in his profession. He tells how  he became blind, but at midnight he can see again! 
  • Miem says everybody pretended to be blind, i.e. nobody wanted to understand  what is happening. 
  • Konstabel says they are obsessed by facts (“staar hulle blind teen feite”). This can  also refer to the title, i.e. Mis. All of them are missing the point (“het dit mis”).  Konstabel also refers to things that have been overlooked (“wat misgekyk is”). 
  • Meisie asks the Konstabel whether he has seen the circus yet, and then realises  her mistake. Little she knows that he can see. 
  • “Tant” Salie’s cataracts are also an indication of blindness. Take notice of the fact  that she is seeing by means of dreams.
  • On p.52 we find the expression “om iemand uit die oog te verloor” (to lose sight of  somebody). Everything points to see, because all these people are seeing and not  perceiving.
  • When Konstabel tells about the solar eclipse on, he is “seeing” it again. ∙ Konstabel can see after midnight.
    Consider the above in candidate’s response.

Use the following rubric and the above notes to assess candidate’s response: 

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

9–10

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

8

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure. 
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

6–7

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure. 
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference. 
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical. 
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times. 
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references. 
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed. 
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor. 
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Elementary  

achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner. 
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support. 
  • Irrelevant. 
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

(10)
[40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40

SECTION D: THEATRE HISTORY, PRACTICAL CONCEPTS, CONTENT AND SKILLS 
This section consists of FOUR questions. 
QUESTION 7 is COMPULSORY. 
QUESTION 7: THEATRE HISTORY (COMPULSORY) 
7.1

7.1.1 Thrust stage. (2) 

7.1.2

A performer must be able to project their voice very effectively because the  audience is positioned on three sides of the stage. 
A performer must also be able to project their body language effectively  because of the audience’s position. 
ACCEPT REASONABLE, VALID ANSWERS. (2) 7.1.3 The highest actor who is furthest Up Stage. 
He/She is possibly the dominant character because of his/her height and also  the fact that he/she is Centre Stage. (2) 

7.2 Existentialism is concerned with the problems of human existence. It questions  human existence. (2) 
7.3 Antonin Artuad (Surname ONLY is acceptable) (2) 
7.4 To assault the audience’s senses through dissonance and harmonies and for the  spectacle to have a ceremonial quality of a religious rite. (2) 
7.5 It is literally the period of time after modernism, which began in the mid-1980s. (2) 
7.6 Candidates must ensure that they respond in such a way that they provide a reason  and an example of theories, events or practitioners in their response. 

Refer to the rubric below: 

DESCRIPTOR 

MARKS 

THE CANDIDATE

Outstanding 

5–6

Source, question, content application and thinking  processes are outstanding and exceptionally insightful.

Adequate 

3–4 

Source and rote learnt content insufficiently motivated.

Not achieved 

0–2 

Rote learnt content answer is poor. 

(6) 
[20]

Candidate must answer ONLY ONE question from the following questions.
QUESTION 8: VOICE AND PHYSICAL WORK 
8.1

Candidates must ensure that they incorporate all THREE aspects asked, namely a  VOCAL WARM-UP that includes: CONSONANTS, INTONATION and  ARTICULATION. 
Here are some suggested responses:
"RRR-RRR-RRR" 
Take a deep breath in and roll the tongue by repeating "RRR-RRR-RRR" (on one  breath). 
Take in another deep breath and roll the tongue by repeating "RRR-RRR-RRR-RRR RRR-RRR", which is now twice as long (on one breath). 
See how long the students can continue without taking an additional breath. 
Now continue with this movement of the tongue, starting the first "RRR" as low as  possible and increasing the pitch and then dropping it back down, again as low as  possible. This will explore the highs and lows of the students' voices. 
To incorporate ARTICULATION, one could use alliteration of the "R" sound, which will  enable the students to ensure that their articulation apparatus (lips, tongue, teeth,  cheeks, etc.) are fully warmed up.  
E.g. Red rabbits run rampant round rings, which run concentrically round red ropes. 
Really roll the "R" for maximum effect, ensuring that pace does not compromise what  is being said. 
* THIS CAN BE SUBSTITUTED WITH ANY OTHER CONSONANT. 
Responses must be accurate and points awarded must be done so because the  candidate has supplied a suitable warm-up, incorporating the requirements. 
THREE marks awarded for each of the requirements (3 x 3) (9)

8.2

Candidates may wish to draw on characterization techniques from Grade 11 Realism  (Stanislavski's "System"). 
Candidates may also respond as follows: 
INTERNAL EXPLORATION AND UNDERSTANDING CHARACTER 

  • Approach in an organic way 
  • Approach it as and relate it to their own personal process
  • Be open to exploration
  • Use intuition
    EXTERNAL EXPLORATION AND UNDERSTANDING OF CHARACTER 
  • Investigate/ask questions
  • Do background research
  • Develop character's history
  • Allow text to inform them about the character
    FOCUS ON BECOMING CHARACTER 
  • Focus on costume/make-up
  • Learning lines and running lines
  • Focus on character's nuances
    GETTING READY TO PERFORM
  • Engage in physical warm-ups
  • Relax and focus on own
  • Focus on what needs to be performed
    PERFORMANCE EVALUATION
  • Regarding the process:
  • Constant process of assessment
  • Question performance (8) 

8.3 To internalize the character is to adopt the attitudes or behaviour of the character and  for the character to become an unconscious assimilation, the physical action and  thought processes of the performer (3)

[20]

QUESTION 9: LIVE PERFORMANCE 
9.1

The candidate is capable of writing copious notes on what their theme entails, a clear  message they want to convey to the audience and notes on the relevancy of their  theme in society today. The candidate should be able to evaluate their theme in terms  of all three aspects.  
Award TWO marks for each aspect well explained. Marker to use their discretion  when marking this question. (6) 

9.2

The candidate demonstrates an understanding of the element and how it is important  in the preparation of the programme as a whole. The candidate also supplies  information as to how they applied these element in their preparation.  
Use the following notes and rubric as a guide to assist you: 
Choosing your theme 
It doesn’t matter how you go about choosing a theme, but whatever method you use,  it should be agreed on by everyone. A theme needs to have deeper meaning and  relevance to the public or audience.  
Watch television programmes, read plays, read poems, even quotes for inspiration.  Be specific. 
When choosing a theme, narrow it down to focus on a specific aspect of a broader  theme. 
For example if you want to focus on life, what aspect of life? The theme is too broad  and can actually mean anything. 
Be sure of what exactly you want the moderators to focus on.  
Catchy title 
When you have to pick a book off a shelf, you normally go for the one with the nice  picture or interesting title. Something that catches your eye and tickles your curiosity.  Same with the title of your programme. Choose a title that needs dissecting.  
Constructing a theme programme 
Once you have your theme and your pieces, you should decide on the order that you  are going to perform it in. You should have a variety of poems, monologues, scenes,  movements, songs, etc. to form a cohesive theatrical piece. When selecting your  pieces you should try to find pieces from different genres, different historical periods,  etc. 
Your programme should have a build up with a clear starting point, a middle where  you perhaps explore different scenarios of the topic and then an end to sum up your  ideas, or leave the audience thinking.  
Creating links 
Links are important to a theme programme. They may take any number of forms:  short movement pieces, creative set changes, a quote or short statement, a very brief  extract which makes a relevant point, poetry, a song, physical business. These things  are there to hold the programme together.
Blocking the programme 
While each piece will have its own blocking determined by the character choices you  have made and the relationships explored, the programme as a whole will need to be  blocked. Consider your use of space carefully; remember that there are no  boundaries! 
Be innovative. See if you can incorporate your staging to your theme.  
Exploring your space 
Every space has its own unique energy. You need to familiarize yourself with the size  of the space, the different staging possibilities, the acoustics, etc. The bigger and  emptier the space, the more difficult it becomes to fill the space with your energy and  voice. It will therefore require extra caution to articulation, resonance and breathing. Before your final practical assessment you need to rehearse in the performance  space so you and your group members can test the volumes and echoes of your  voices to ensure that you have the best sound quality possible. When rehearsing one  person can stand at the back of the ‘theatre’ and make sure that everyone is audible  and clear.  
When it comes to staging you need to think outside the box. You need to use all the  space available. Think of how you can create different levels and different performing  areas, also how you are going to position everyone on stage to create a cohesive  piece where they enhance the overall “picture” while individuals are performing. 

Use the following rubric to assist in the assessment of candidate’s response:

CATEGORY 

MARKS 

DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE)

Outstanding  achievement 

8

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent,  outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for  processing information, for original interpretation and  thoughtful selection of facts. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic  references. 
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge  authoritatively.

Meritorious  achievement 

7

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished  structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful  selection of facts for information sake. 
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic  references. 
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well  expressed.

Substantial  achievement 

6

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some  slight flaws evident in structure.
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and  simple direct language. 
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference. 
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic  statements.

Adequate  

achievement 

5

  • Structure not always logical. 
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards  mechanic and stereotype responses at times. 
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references. 
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a  high level of insight and lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

4

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills  might be a contributing factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with  suitable examples.

Elementary  achievement 

3

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort  made to present work in an acceptable manner.
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often  irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with  suitable examples.

Not  

achieved 

0–2

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of  support.
  • Irrelevant.
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate  have learnt, but shows no understanding. 

(8)

9.3

The candidate is able to explain TWO elements, demonstrating their understanding of  each term. They are also able to apply these elements to a monologue they have  prepared for.  
The candidate should be awarded THREE marks per element explained.  
Use the following notes to assist you: 
Relationships 
Creating relationships is tremendously important, even in monologues or poems.  Ensure that you understand who or what your character is relating to and how they  feel about this person or thing in the moment captured by the performance. If  necessary, imagine the person to whom you are speaking and allow yourself to be  affected by him or her. Be specific, be spontaneous and responsive. Acting is  reacting. 
Conflict 
What is your character fighting for? Why do they carry on speaking? 
Why do they stay in a scene? Why are they telling this story? 
Who is interfering with whatever it is they are fighting for?
The moment before  
What happens before your piece begins? Where is your character coming from?  What are they coming into the piece with? Be specific, be focused, visualise, so that  you start every piece with energy. 
Humour  
Find the humour I what you are doing. This does not mean simply being funny, it  means finding a spark, even in the most tragic moments. Even the darkest piece  needs to have a flicker of humour somewhere.  
Discoveries  
What does your character learn for the first time in the monologue? What discoveries  do they make?  
Communication 
Communication is essential in every piece you perform.  
Ensure that your communication is complete – your message must be clear, the  receiver must have received it, the receiver must respond to the communication, and  the communicator must register that the receiver has responded (6)

[20] 

OR

QUESTION 10: CULTURAL PERFORMANCE AND RITUAL 
Candidate may select from a variety of practiced traditional ritual ceremonies within their  immediate community. These practices may range from the normal practices like  marriage/wedding, funerals, harvesting and initiation. 
NB: The suggestions are not cultural group specific to accommodate the diversity of  candidates that we have in our province 
Candidate chooses a ritual and any four elements of drama provided as options in the  instructions. The following notes contain a list of all the elements that are contained in the  instructions and a meaning for each.
Markers should use these guidelines to assess candidate’s understanding of the concepts  per element and whether they are able to apply them in their everyday lives. Candidate  should be able to apply the drama elements and use the traditional ceremony or ritual as an  example. 
The following are drama elements and the generally held definitions thereof: 

  • Focus
    Focus is often used interchangeably with the terms concentration and engagement,  assisting the performer in the portrayal of believable characters. This also implies  memorisation of text (including word, moves and gestures). Furthermore, focus requires  the channelling (focusing) of all the performer’s energies into achieving the given goals or  objectives of a character in a scene (otherwise known as ‘wants’).
  • Rhythm
    Rhythm refers to the timing and pace of the drama. It also means the beat or tempo of  the performance. As a rule, rhythm should never be the same throughout the drama,  regardless of its length. Rhythm can follow the emotional state of one or more characters  or the atmosphere of the performance at particular moments.
  • Contrast
    Without the careful use of contrast a performance is boring and lacks tension. An obvious  example of contrast is a sad scene followed by a happy one. But contrast can be created  in subtler and sophisticated ways, such as manipulating the drama to create a change in  setting, use of space or rhythm. The pace of scenes can also be altered, as can various  dramatic elements within one small section of a performance.
  • Mood
    Mood is the feeling or tone of a performance. It refers to ambience or aura and is often  created through a combination of several dramatic and stagecraft elements working in  harmony with each other. The mood of a performance is closely linked with everyday  feelings such as pity, anger, desire or frustration. Mood in drama can be created via  sound, lighting, movement, setting, rhythm, contrast, conflict and more.
  • Space
    This dramatic element refers to the effective use of available space in a performance.  Different levels of space are utilised by the performer, such as sitting, bending over, lying  down or crawling. Of course, using the space around you can mean downstage and  upstage or walking in or on a stage set. In order to use the space effectively, movement  becomes an important factor. Use of space also implies clearly communicating to the  audience where the action is taking place. This may include any changes in location that  may occur in the performance (particularly if little or no sets and/or props are being used  and there is a heavy reliance on the audience’s imagination).
  • Sound
    Modern theatrical practice relies on sound to assist in a number of ways. It can be useful  in creating atmosphere or mood. Actors and their bodies can construct effective sound in  performance. Small props can also create sound effects that can be used live during a  show. Other uses of sound involve the implementation of technology, such as  instrumental recordings and sound effects on CDs and mp3 players (though this use of  sound is technically a stagecraft element in the theatre, not a dramatic element).
  • Symbol
    The use of symbol in dramatic performance can be one of the simplest and also most  complicated of all techniques. Essentially, symbolism implies a greater meaning than the  literal suggestion. Props are the easiest to work with because objects in everyday life are  symbols in society (for example a rose symbolises love; a cross symbolises Christianity).  Symbols can also be found in the use of colour. We often symbolise purple with royalty,  red with anger or desire, black with evil and darkness or white with purity and innocence.  Colour association can be worthwhile symbols with costumes, sets and props. But the  most sophisticated use of symbol occurs with the application of gesture and movement.  A particular gesture performed by a character early in a performance can be repeated  later under different circumstances (context) and have a very different meaning. Used  only once, a gesture can also be a powerful symbol. Of course, all of the above  examples can be combined for better effect.
  • Conflict
    Playwright George Bernard Shaw (who wrote Pygmalion, which was later adapted to  become the film My Fair Lady) once said ‘No conflict, no drama’. How right he was!  Drama that lacks conflict is normally dull and uninspiring. As a rule, conflict should  always be considered an essential ingredient for all dramatic performances. Conflict can  be between two or more characters, or simply one (inner conflict). Many Elizabethan  soliloquies contain inner conflict (‘To be or not to be…’ is an excellent example). Conflict  on stage can be verbal, physical or non-verbal (psychological). Conflict differs from  tension in that it is often a fixed part of the structure of a play, with characters destined to  clash with one another from the outset.
  • Climax
    Most drama will have one or more crises in the development of the plot. A crisis is a key  moment of dramatic tension and conflict in the play, usually occurring between two or  more characters and having serious implications for the outcome of the plot. The ultimate  crisis, or highest peak, is usually called the climax and often (but not always) occurs  toward the end of a performance. There can also be more than one climax, although this  is uncommon.

Candidate must demonstrate their understanding of the drama element and use the  ceremony to make examples as to demonstrate the similarity or to validity to qualify a ritual  as theatre or drama performance. 

FIVE MARKS to be awarded per point discussed from the list.  

CATEGORY  MARKS DESCRIPTORS (EVIDENCE) 

Outstanding  achievement 

16–20

  • Well organised, comprehensive and coherent, outstanding structure.
  • Displays an exceptional high level of competence for processing information, for  original interpretation and thoughtful selection of facts
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references.
  • Insightful, fluent, observation and knowledge authoritatively

Meritorious  

achievement 

14–15

  • Well organised, detailed and coherent, polished structure.
  • Displays a high level of competence and careful selection of facts for  information sake.
  • Candidate uses a selection of relevant dramatic references.
  • Shows insight, observation and knowledge are well expressed.

Substantial  

achievement 

12–13

  • Organised, detailed, some level of competence, some slight flaws evident in  structure
  • Interesting read, clear statements, convincing, and simple direct language.
  • Uses a select relevant dramatic reference.
  • Shows some insight but not enough. Some logic statements

Adequate  

achievement 

10–11

  • Structure not always logical
  • Displays a basic understanding but tends towards mechanic and stereotype  responses at times.
  • Adequate selection of dramatic references. 
  • Adequate reading but feels memorised. Not always a high level of insight and  lack of imagination.

Moderate  

achievement 

8–9

  • Not always organised, not logically constructed.
  • Limited selection of information, poor language skills might be a contributing  factor.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples

Elementary  

achievement 

6–7

  • Rambling no structure, limited vocabulary and little effort made to present work  in an acceptable manner 
  • Very little information, jumbled, not easy to follow, often irrelevant.
  • Candidate lacks the ability to support his/her answer with suitable examples.

Not achieved 

0–5

  • Incoherent very little work, limited skills, in need of support.
  • Irrelevant
  • Simple phrases or words written down that candidate have learnt, but shows no  understanding. 

[20] 

[TOTAL SECTION D: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER ONE (P1)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1  
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 

1.1.1 B products ✔✔
1.1.2 C economic indicators 
1.1.3 B regulation ✔✔
1.1.4 C direct 
1.1.5 A Nepad ✔✔
1.1.6 A Foreign Investment Incentive 
1.1.7 A The New Growth Path ✔✔
1.1.8 B middle ✔✔ (8 x 2) (16)

1.2 MATCHING ITEMS 

1.2.1 C Money withdrawn from the circular flow ✔
1.2.2 D Markets are inherently stable 
1.2.3 I A document that details expected revenue and  projected expenditure ✔
1.2.4 B A systematic record of all transactions between one  country and other countries ✔
1.2.5 H The value of a currency is determined by market  forces ✔
1.2.6 G Limits are put on the supply of goods and services ✔
1.2.7 F Helps to increase the annual total production or income  in the country ✔
1.2.8 E Monitor issues related to human-well being over a  period of time ✔ (8 x 1) (8)

3 ECONOMICS P1 (EC/SEPTEMBER 2016) 
1.3 IDENTIFYING THE CONCEPT 

1.3.1 Multiplier✔
1.3.2 Kitchin cycle ✔
1.3.3 Trade balance
1.3.4 Sanctions ✔
1.3.5 Supply side approach 
1.3.6 Economic indicator ✔(6 x 1) (6) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B  
Answer TWO of the three questions from this section in the ANSWERBOOK.
QUESTION 2: MACROECONOMICS 
2.1

2.1.1 Name TWO types of financial markets. 

    • Money market ✔
    • Capital market ✔
    • Foreign exchange market ✔ (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

2.1.2 How can the government use the fiscal policy if the  economy is expanding too slowly? 

    • Government can decrease taxes and increase  government expenditure ✔✔
      (Accept any other relevant response.) (2)

2.2 DATA RESPONSE 

2.2.1 Which dotted line on the graph represents the length of  the business cycle?  
                     P1 P2/T2 T3 ✔ (1)
2.2.2 When did the economy reach its highest peak? 
                    2005/year 5 ✔ (1)
2.2.3 Briefly explain what the amplitude demonstrates. 

    • The power of the underlying forces ✔✔ e.g. interest rates or exports. ✔✔
    • The extent of change. ✔✔ The larger the amplitude, the more extreme the changes that may occur. ✔✔ (4) 

2.2.4 How will a large amplitude during an upswing affect  workers in general? 

    • More work opportunities (job creation) will become  available.✔✔
    • More income and increase in the demand of goods and  services. ✔✔
    • This will lead to inflation. ✔✔
    • Indirect links ✔✔
      (Accept any other relevant response.) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

2.3 DATA RESPONSE 

2.3.1 What are tolls used for? 

    • Are used to repay loans obtained to finance the building of the  roads. ✔
    • Upgrading or improvement of the roads. ✔ (2 x 1) (2)

2.3.2 Discuss briefly collective goods as one of the pricing options. 

    • Charges can be levied although they are indisivible ✔✔
    • Free riders are excluded by leving fees, charges and tolls. ✔✔  (2 x 2) (4) 

2.3.3 How successful is the public sector in delivering public goods  in South Africa? 

    • Government fail to provide the public with goods and services in the desired quantity. ✔✔
    • In certain instances public servants do not deliver services  because of bureaucracy, corruption and incompetence ✔ e.g.  roads, infrastructure. ✔
      (Any other relevant response.) (2 x 2) (4) 

2.4 Explain the interaction between households and firms in a circular  flow. 

  • Household are the owners of factors of production because they  provide factors of production to businesses. ✔✔
  • Household receive income in return – rent, wages, interest and profits  from the business. ✔✔
  • Businesses sell final goods and services to household. ✔✔
  • Firms receive income from sales revenue. ✔✔
    (Accept any other relevant response.) (4 x 2) (8) 

2.5 How successful is the supply side policy in South Africa to stimulate  economic activity in the smoothing of business cycle? 

  • Government provides infrastructure and services, ✔✔e.g. energy, transport,and telecommunication to reduce the cost of production. ✔
  • Administration costs, reports and inspections are reduced. ✔✔
  • Government sudsidies are allocated to encourage production in certain  area where serious shortages exist. ✔✔
  • However the government does not subsidise especially the agricultural  sector enough. ✔✔
  • Government intervention is successfully reduced by deregulation to  improve the efficiency of markets.✔✔
  • Government encourages the development of new enterprises and  create a competitive environment through legislation especially  small micro enterprises (SMME). ✔✔
  • Privatising state-owned enterprises have increased competition in  the market place. ✔✔
  • Certain state owned enterprises have not yet been privatised  causing major backlog. ✔✔
  • Tax rates are decreased on personal income and small business  holdings as an incentive to increase supply. ✔✔
  • The depreciation rate on capital goods are raised to encourage  firms to use the latest technology. ✔✔
  • Quality and mobility of human resources are constantly a focus  point regarding skills development. ✔✔
  • Free advisory services are provided by state holdings, for example Onderstepoort. ✔✔
    (Any other relevant response.) (Any 4 x 2) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 3: ECONOMIC PURSUITS 
3.1

3.1.1 Name TWO of South Africa’s industrial development  strategies. 

    • National Research and Development Strategy (NRDS) ✔
    • Integrated Manufacturing Strategy (IMS) ✔ (2 x 1) (2) 

3.1.2 Which specifications will be considered when the GDP is  calculated in assessing the performance of the South  African economy? 
To be meaningful, indicators have to be compiled in terms of  their rules and compilation. ✔✔
(Any other relevant response.) (1 x 2) (2)

3.2 DATA RESPONSE

3.2.1 What is the main objective of Expanded Public Works  Programme (EPWP)? 

    • Provide people with better jobs, ✔
    • decent work for all ✔
    • and sustainable livelihood ✔
    • education ✔
    • health ✔
    • rural development ✔
    • food securities ✔
    • and land reforms ✔
    • and fight against crime ✔
    • and corruption. ✔
    • Give people skills ✔
    • that they can use to find better jobs. ✔
      (Any other relevant response) (Any 2 x 1) (2)

3.2.2 Identify any TWO sectors by EPWP to create jobs. 

    • Infrastructure ✔✔
    • Non-state environment ✔✔
    • Culture ✔✔
    • Social ✔✔ (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.2.3 How successful has the Expanded Public Works Programme  been in achieving growth and development in South Africa? 

    • Although the number of unemployed people decreased, the  economic growth is still decreasing/low. ✔✔
    • EPWP contributes toward supporting employment generation  although it is of temporal nature. ✔✔
    • Training is provided to unskilled, unemployed people and  should lead to a positive growth rate and development. ✔✔
    • The government uses more labour-intensive construction and  maintenance methods in public infrastructure projects. ✔✔
    • Government was also successful in targeting women,the youth  and people with disabilities ✔✔ e.g through temporal  employment. ✔
    • Helps to reduce the negative effects of unemployment, which  include erosion of self esteem, drug and alcohol abuse as well  as loss of knowledge and skills. ✔✔
    • Those participated have a higher prosperity to participate in  savings clubs, to use their personal resources to enhance  social services and community assets and to use media as a  source of information. ✔✔
      (Any other relevant response.) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

3.3 DATA RESPONSE 

3.3.1 Name the social indicator used in the above table. 
          Demographics ✔ (1) 
3.3.2 What is the trend of the percentage Aids deaths from 2013 to  2015? 
          Declining/decreasing ✔ (1)
3.3.3 Define the term life expectancy. 
         The probable number of years a person lives at a given age. ✔✔ (2) 
3.3.4 Why is the above information important for the South African  government? 
         To be able to provide the correct quantity of social services  (budgetary processes). ✔✔ (2)
3.3.5 What positive role can the government play to increase  health care in South Africa? 

    • Rural and urban areas will have access to health care and  medication. ✔✔
    • Healthy and productive society. ✔✔
    • Availability of money to help to increase ARVs availability to  all. ✔✔
      (Any other relevant response.) (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.4 Explain the negative environmental effects caused by economic  activities in the North. 

  • They burn massive amounts of oil and coal. ✔✔
  • The resulting carbon dioxide causes damage to the ozone layer.✔✔
  • Heat trapped under a greenhouse blanket causes weather patterns  to change. ✔✔
  • Major challenges faces include air pollution, water pollution, noise  pollution and toxic waste. ✔✔
    (Any other relevant response.) (Any 4 x 2) (8) 

3.5 What can the government / business sector do to increase the  current low economic growth rate substantially? 

  • Job creation programmes/employment.✔✔
  • Skills development/training. ✔✔
  • Increase in consumption spending by households. ✔✔
  • Increase in production can lead to increase in income. ✔✔
  • Higher investment spending by businesses or higher exports. ✔
  • Government can use fiscal policy by lowering income tax. ✔✔
  • Government can use monetary policy by lowering interest rates. ✔✔
    (Any other relevant response.) (Any 4 x 2) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 4: MACROECONOMIC AND ECONOMIC PURSUITS 
4.1

4.1.1 Name TWO factors that will influence demand for foreign  exchange. 

    • Importing goods ✔
    • Payment for services from foreign countries ✔
    • Buying shares in another country ✔
    • Tourists spending money overseas ✔
    • Repayment of debt borrowed from foreign countries. ✔
      (Any other relevant response.) (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

4.1.2 Why is GDP at market prices more than GNI at market  prices? 

    • Foreigners spend more money in our country (SA) than we  do in their countries. ✔✔ (1 x 2) (2)

4.2 DATA RESPONSE 

4.2.1 What is the main benefit of regional integration to the people  of Southern Africa?

    • Enhance quality of life. ✔
    • Reduce poverty. ✔ Max. (1) 

4.2.2 What role has the establishment of the Maputo Development  Corridor played in the SADC? 

    • Improve trade between countries. ✔
    • Improve their income. ✔
    • Made a world difference to SADC citizens ✔
    • Promoting smooth movement of goods and services across  the region. ✔
    • Improved infrastructure including roads and rail. ✔ Max. (1) 

4.2.3 Discuss the main objectives of the National Development  Plan. 

    • Eliminate poverty ✔✔
    • Private investment ✔✔
    • More innovation ✔✔
    • Reduce inequality by 2030 ✔✔
    • More infrastructure ✔✔
    • To expand economic opportunities through investment and  infrastructure. ✔✔
      (Accept any other relevant response.) (2 x 2) (4)

4.2.4 How successful has South Africa been with regional  development compared to international best practices on  good governance. 

    • Democratic decision-making, transparency, financial  management and control ✔✔ led to job creation, ✔✔ human  development and macro plus micro economic
    • development ✔✔ but it is not necessarily happening ✔✔ (large  unemployment and low economic growth rate). ✔✔
    • Regional development strategies have been effectively managed to reduce corruption ✔✔/regional development  strategies can be managed effectively free of corruption. ✔✔
      (Accept any other relevant response.) (2 x 2) (4)

4.3 DATA RESPONSE 

4.3.1 Mention any ONE zone that has been identified in the  extract. 

    • Musina ✔
    • Tubatse ✔
    • Nkomazi ✔ (Any 1 x 1) (1) 

4.3.2 What is the purpose of the DTI in establishing the SEZ  programme? 

    • To address weaknesses identified with the development zone  programme. ✔
    • IDZ were restricted to being established at port or airport. ✔
    • Tailored incentives for specific industry subsectors could not  be pursued. ✔ (Any 1 x 1) (1) 

4.3.3 Explain the key difference between the IDZ and SEZ. 

IDZ 

SEZ

  • Industrial estate linked to an  airport or seaport. ✔✔
  • Exports main objective. ✔✔
  • Examples: Coega- steel and  auto component,
    OR
    Tambo  International Airport – high  tech industries, East London – vehicles, Richard Bay – metals, Saldanha Bay – steel ✔
    (Any example – 1 mark) 
  • Geographical dermacated area  where specific economic  activities have been identified to  be developed. ✔✔
  • These areas may enjoy  incentives such as tax relief and  support systems to promote  industrial development. ✔✔
  • Creates a basis for a broader  range of industrial parts. ✔✔
  • Provides economic  infrastructure to enable the  effective clustering of value adding and employment  enhancing manufacturers. ✔✔

Max. (4)

4.3.4 Why is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regarded as the  most desired kind of investment in South Africa? 

    • Foreign Direct Investment includes investment in real estate  (fixed property) ✔✔
    • They act as a long term source of capital. ✔✔
    • The investors bring along best global practices of  management. ✔✔
    • Larger amounts of capital come in throught these  investments and more industries are set up. ✔✔
    • This helps to increase employment. ✔✔
    • This investment is non-debt, non-volatile investment. ✔✔
      (Accept any other relevant response.) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

4.4 Explain methods used to support export promotion.  

  • Incentives: ✔
  • The government supplies information on exports markets,  research on new markets, concessions on transport charges, export credit, ✔✔
  • in order to establish and stimulate exports. ✔✔
  • Subsidies:
  • These include direct and indirect subsidies: ✔✔
    • E.g. Direct subsidies: Cash payments to exports ✔
    • E.g. Indirect subsidies: Refunds on import tariffs and general  tax rebates.✔
  • Trade neutrality: ✔
  • Subsidies equal in size to import duties, are paid. ✔✔
  • Neutrality can be achieved through trade liberalisation. ✔✔ Max. (8) 

4.5 Why is education so important as a key social indicator in South  Africa? 

  • The standard of living is related to the level of education. ✔✔
  • The role of education becomes more important in the development  of human capital. ✔✔
  • A society of literate and skilled citizens has more chances of  development at economic and social levels. ✔✔
  • Education can reduce poverty and social injustice ✔✔ by providing  the underpriviledged with resources ✔✔ and opportunities for  upward social mobility and social inclusion. ✔✔
    (Any other relevant response.) (Any 4 x 2) (8)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C
Answer ONE question of the two question from this section in the ANSWER  BOOK.

STRUCTURE OF ESSAY 

MARK  ALLOCATION:

Introduction 

Max. 2

Body: 

  • Main part: Discuss in detail/In-depth discussion/Examine/  Critically discuss/Analyse/Compare/Evaluate/Distinguish/Differentiate/Explain/Assess/Debate
  • Additional part: Give own opinion/Critically discuss/Evaluate Critically evaluate/Draw a graph and explain/ Use the graph  given and explain/ Complete the given graph/Calculate/ Deduce/Compare/Explain/Distinguish/Interpret/Briefly debate/ How? /Suggest

Max. 26 

Max. 10

Conclusion 
Any relevant higher order conclusion that should include:

  • A brief summary of what has been discussed / analysed without  repeating facts already mentioned in the body 
  • An opinion or valued judgment on the facts discussed
  • Additional support information to strengthen the discussion /  analysis 
  • A contradictory viewpoint with motivation, if so required
  • Recommendations

Max. 2

TOTAL 

40

QUESTION 5: MACROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES 
Foreign trade is becoming increasingly important for the economic well-being of a  country. The more open and integrated a country is with the rest of the world the  better its chances of improving the economic welfare of its citizen. 

  • Discuss the main supply reasons of international trade. (26 marks)
  • How effective is international trade in South Africa? (10 marks) 

INTRODUCTION 
Countries may have a surplus of some goods and shortage of other goods and they will  trade to correct these imbalances. ✔✔
(Any other relevant introduction) Max. 2 
BODY 
MAIN PART: 
Supply reasons 

  • Natural resources✔
    • Are not evenly distributed across all countries of the world.
    • They vary from country to country and can only be exploited in places where these  resources exist. ✔✔
  • Climatic conditions ✔
    • Certain crops only be cultivated in certain climatic conditions, countries that cannot produce have to import them. ✔✔
    • It is possible for some countries to produce certain goods at a lower price than other countries e.g. Brazil is the biggest producer of coffee. ✔ 
    • Good climatic conditions are essential for agricultural production. ✔✔
  • Technological resources ✔ 
    • Are available is some countries for them to produce certain goods services that  enable them to produce at a low unit cost ✔✔ e.g. Japan technology based products  are produced.✔
    • Certain knowledge, skills and aptitude are required for the production of specific  products. ✔
    • For example, countries that do not have the technical abilities and knowledge on  production processes for the manufacturing of machinery ✔✔ and high-technology  goods will have to import the machinery and goods. ✔✔
  • Labour resources ✔
    • Differ in quality, quantity and cost between countries. ✔✔
    • Some countries have highly skilled, well-paid workers with high productivity levels e.g. Switzerland is well-known for its excellent watches. ✔✔
  • Specialisation ✔
    • A country can have an absolute advantage if it can produce a good or service or at  most goods and services at lowest cost. ✔✔
    • For example, Japan produces electronic goods and sells these at a low price. ✔
  • Capital ✔
    • Allows developed countries to enjoy an advantage over under-developed  countries ✔✔
    • Due to a lack of capita,some countries cannot produce all the goods they  require themselves. ✔✔
      (Accept any other response.) Max. 26 (If only listed max. 6 marks) 

ADDITIONAL PART 
How effective is international trade for South Africa? 

  • Due to specialisation South African textiles manufacturers cannot compete with  Chinese producers and have had to close down. ✔✔
  • This led to many workers to lose their jobs and will be addressed and managed  by the government. ✔✔
  • South Africa has more minerals that it can use but less oil than it needs. ✔✔
  • Many SA companies try to establish themselves in African countries in order to  secure the advantage of the spending power of millions of people. ✔✔
  • Mass production should always lead to increased demand. ✔✔
  • Producers are able to increase production efficiency ✔✔ more domestic factors  of production will be employed and a higher standard of living will  materialise. ✔✔
  • International trade is at the heart of globalisation ✔✔ e.g trade in IT,  communication and transport. ✔
  • Expanded trade will stimulate more international trade. ✔✔
  • Domestic economic growth follows with further increases in the standard of  living. ✔✔
    (Any other relevant response) (Max. 10)

CONCLUSION 
I will recommend that international trade be carefully monitored so that it brings  benefits to all countries. ✔✔
(Any other relevant conclusion.) (Max. 2)

[40]

QUESTION 6: ECONOMIC PURSUITS 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES 
The purposes of fiscal policy is to stimulate macroeconomic growth and  employment, and to ensure redistribution of income. 

  • Discuss this statement by focusing on the instruments of fiscal policy  in the South African context and how it ensures a desirable  redistribution of income. (26 marks) 
  • In your opinion, how successful is the South African government in  providing the basic needs for disadvantaged people? (10 marks) 

INTRODUCTION 
Fiscal policy is the policy of the state in relation to government revenue and  spending as laid down in the National Budget. ✔✔ Max. 2 (Any other relevant introduction)  

BODY 
MAIN PART  

  • Taxation ✔
    • This is a compulsory payment by all citizen of a country. ✔✔
    • It is imposed to raise income to cover expenditure. ✔✔
    • To discourage the use of demerit goods (sin tax). ✔✔
    • To discourage imports and redistribute income. ✔✔
    • To influence the level of aggregate demand and aggregate supply. ✔✔
  • Government expenditure ✔
    • Government spend money to provide public and merit goods and services  free of charge or at subsidised price. ✔✔
    • To pay interest in government debt. ✔✔
    • To redistribute income. ✔✔
    • To influence aggregate supply and demand. ✔✔
  • Progressive personal income tax✔
    • Higher income earners are taxed at higher tax rates. ✔✔
    • These taxes are used to finance social development. ✔✔
    • The poor benefit more than those with high incomes. ✔✔
  • Cash benefits ✔
    • Old age pension, disability grants, child support and unemployment  insurance are cash grants. ✔✔
    • These are also known as social security payments. ✔✔
  • Wealth taxes ✔
    • Properties are taxed according to their market values. ✔✔
    • Transfer duties are taxed when properties are bought. ✔✔
    • Securities are taxed when traded. ✔✔
    • Capital gains tax is levied on gain on the sale of capital goods e.g.  properties, shares. ✔✔
    • Estate duties are paid on the estate of the deceased persons with a  value of more than R3,5 m. ✔
    • These taxes are used to finance development expenditure which benefit  the poor more eften. ✔✔
  • Benefits in kind ✔
    • These include the provision of healthcare, education, schools meals,  protection, infrastructure etc. ✔✔
    • When user fees are charged, poor or low income earners pay less or  nothing. ✔✔
    • Limited quantities of free electricity and water are provided. ✔✔
  • Other redistribution✔
    • Public works programme e.g Strategic Integrated Project provides  employment subsidies and other cash and financial benefits such as  training, financing and export incentives to SMMEs. ✔✔
  • Subsidies on properties ✔
    • It helps people to acquire ownership of fixed residential properties. ✔✔
    • For example government’s housing subsidy scheme provides funding to  all people earning less than R3 500 per month. ✔✔
  • Land restitution and land redistribution ✔
    • Land restituition is the return of land to those that have lost it due to  discrimination laws in the past. ✔✔
    • Land redistribution focuses on land for residential and production (farm)  to previousely disadvantaged groups. ✔✔
    • The money for these programmes is provided in the main budget. ✔✔   
      (Max. 26) 
      (If only listed max. 8 marks) 

ADDITIONAL PART: 
In your opinion, how successful is the South African government in  providing the basic needs for disadvantaged people? 

  • The government provides many citizens of the country with social security  grants, old age pension, child support grants and disability grants – a  processs that is adapted annually to suit the needs of the population. ✔✔
  • The government is very successful in paying benefits in kind, that included  free water (6 000) litres per household) / free electricity (20 KwH) / and  free housing (3 million units built since 1994) / as well as a school feeding  scheme to about 270 000 primary school children. ✔✔
  • Although services are rendered such as clean water, energy, sewerage  system, storm water drainage, refuse removal, roads and housing to  millions, inefficient municipalities fail everyone. ✔✔
  • Free hospitalisation and medicine are offered to poor people as primary  healthcare. It also includes free immunisation for all children.✔✔
  • Many South Africans do experience a lack of service delivery at state  hospitals where conditions are deteriorating. ✔✔
  • Free education to the poorest 20% of communities ✔✔ but serious  problems in the education system still contributes to thousands of learners  leaving the system without a proper degree of schooling. ✔✔
    (Accept any other relevant response) (Max. 10)

CONCLUSION 
Supply-siders maintain that government intervention in the economy is only  warranted if it improves the smooth operations of markets. ✔✔  
(Accept any other relevant conclusion.) (Max. 2)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER TWO (P2)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 

1.1.1 B quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. ✔✔
1.1.2 B advertising. ✔✔
1.1.3 A public ✔✔
1.1.4 C service ✔✔
1.1.5 C core-inflation.✔✔
1.1.6 A economic profit ✔✔
1.1.7 B a negative ✔✔
1.1.8 A water ✔✔ (8 x 2) (16)

1.2 MATCHING ITEMS 

1.2.1 G costs or benefits that affect a party that was not involved in an  economic activity ✔
1.2.2 F occurs where marginal costs intersect with marginal revenue ✔
1.2.3 I authorise or prohibit large mergers ✔
1.2.4 H entry is restricted through licensing ✔
1.2.5 A measure of the changes in prices of all final goods and  services produced in a particular year ✔
1.2.6 C foreigners visiting South Africa ✔
1.2.7 B introduce waste matter into the environment ✔
1.2.8 D activities of tourists who visit art galleries, museums, and also  attend festivals ✔ (8 x 1) (8) 

1.3 GIVE ONE TERM 

1.3.1 Renewable resource ✔
1.3.2 Domestic tourism ✔
1.3.3 Deflation ✔
1.3.4 Pareto efficiency ✔
1.3.5 Price maker/Monopoly ✔
1.3.6 Homogeneous ✔ (6 x 1) (6)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2: MICROECONOMICS  
2.1

2.1.1

    • Cash grants ✔
    • Interest free loans✔
    • Depreciation written off✔
    • Rent rebates✔
    • Can be direct or indirect✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response (1 x 2) (2) 

2.1.2 No matter how much the supplier supplies in the market, it cannot  change the market price, it is a price taker, and the demand curve is  perfectly elastic. ✔✔
(Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)

2.2 Data Response 

2.2.1 P1✔ (1)
2.2.2 Q1 ✔ (1) 
2.2.3

    • The government makes use of traditional methods to redistribute  wealth ✔✔ e.g. levying of taxes and providing free services✔
    • Implement redress methods to enforce redistribution✔✔ e.g.  BEE and affirmative action ✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 4) (4) 

2.2.4 

    • Maximum prices allow the poor greater access to certain goods  and services. ✔✔
    • Sellers will not be willing to sell at the maximum price as a result  less of that particular good will be supplied ✔✔
    • A black market can be formed where sellers offer their goods or  services at a price that is higher than the maximum price. ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

2.3 Data Response 

2.3.1

Costs: 
high capital costs, ✔ fuel prices, ✔fuel use patterns ✔ (Any 1)
Benefits: 
Energy efficiency, ✔ low cost housing, ✔ solar water heaters ✔
(Any 1) (2) 

2.3.2 CBA – is a tool that is used to evaluate an investment project by  weighing total social costs against total social benefits. ✔✔
          (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)

2.3.3

    • To make decision on whether to undertake a project ✔✔
    • To assess whether a project will be a feasible investment ✔✔
    • Determine whether the project will benefit the country as a  whole ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.3.4

    • Market fails because of inappropriate allocation of resources ✔✔
    • CBA seeks to correct project appraisal for market failure ✔✔
    • A need for cost benefit analysis arises in cases of market failure  where government seeks to provide services needed ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.4 Cartel ✔

  • A cartel is a group of producers whose goal is to form a collective  monopoly in order to fix prices and limit supply and competition. ✔✔
  • In general, cartels are economically unstable because there is a great  incentive for members not to stick to the agreement, to cheat by cutting  prices illegally and to sell more than the quotas set by the cartel. ✔✔
  • Some well-known cartels are the Organisation of Petroleum Exporting  Countries (OPEC) and De Beers diamonds in South Africa. ✔✔
  • Cartels are generally forbidden by law in most countries. However, they  continue to exist nationally and internationally. ✔✔
    (Accept any relevant explanation) (Max 4) 

Price leadership ✔ 

  • A dominant firm will increase the price of a product in the hope that its  rivals will see this as a signal to do the same. ✔✔
  • It is an example of a tacit collusion. ✔✔
  • Examples of price leadership are in steel and food industries. ✔
    (Accept any relevant explanation) (Max 4) (8) 

2.5

  • Due to the fact that monopolies decide on production levels and determine  their own prices, consumers (demand) do not influence the price or  supply. ✔✔
  • The monopoly is however influenced by the limited budget of consumers  as they decide how much they will spend on a particular product. ✔✔
  • Even though the monopoly is the only supplier of the product consumers  may decide not to buy the product. ✔✔
  • In as much as there are no close substitutes consumers may still  substitute the product of a monopolist ✔✔ e.g. paraffin for electricity (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 8) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 3: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 
3.1

3.1.1

    • Increases in advertising and promotion ✔
    • Ease of obtaining foreign exchange and making payments ✔
    • More awareness of leisure and recreation ✔
    • Domestic tourism ✔
    • Increase in disposable income ✔
    • Reduced working hours ✔
    • Improved transport, communication and accommodation  facilities ✔
    • Effect of the internet ✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 1) (2) 

3.1.2 When the prices of key input goods that are imported increase (oil,  energy, capital goods and intermediate goods), the domestic costs of  production are pushed upwards leading to cost push inflation. ✔✔
(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)

3.2 Data Response 

3.2.1 2010 ✔ (1)
3.2.2 Decrease ✔ (1) 
3.2.3 CPI is an index that measures price of a fixed basket of consumer  goods and services✔✔ (2)
3.2.4

    • Prices increase at a very high rate, more than 50% ✔✔
    • The currency of the country loses power as people could not  afford basic goods and services ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.2.5 CPI2012 = Price of basket in current year (2014) 
                         Price of the basket in the base year (2010) x 100 ✔
                       = 248,10 
                              200   x 100 ✔
                       = 124,1 ✔✔ (4)

3.3 Data Response 

3.3.1

    • Sho’t left campaign ✔
    • Its Here Vaya Mzantsi ✔ (2 x 1) (2) 

3.3.2 The activities of people who travel for various purposes, such as  conferences, meetings, leisure, health etc. ✔✔
(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 

3.3.3

    • Advertise tourist attraction destination ✔✔
    • To offer a complete tourism package, ✔✔ i.e. safe and reliable  transport/comfortable accommodation ✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 2) (2)

3.3.4

    • Tourism can stimulate the business environment in areas such  as food, entertainment and other services ✔✔
    • Offer entrepreneurial opportunities for the informal sector ✔✔
    • Construction industry, manufacturing sector and transport sector  benefit from increased demand in tourism ✔✔
    • Businesses benefit when the government develops  infrastructure ✔✔ for example, upgrading of roads, bridges and  airports✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 4) (4) 

3.4

  • Increase in household consumption due to easily available credit ✔✔
    Decline in savings causes consumers to have more money to spend ✔✔
  • Investors expenditure may lead to higher profit expectations of  businesses ✔✔
    They will invest more, this might lead to an increase in the demand for  goods and services ✔✔
  • An increase in government spending leads to an increase in prices ✔✔
    More money comes into circulation due to an increase in spending on  infrastructure, consumption spending and social spending ✔✔
  • Export earnings will grow due to an increased demand for locally  produced goods in foreign countries without an increase in production✔✔
    this might lead to higher prices ✔✔
  • Reduction in individual tax rebates that leave consumers with more  disposable income✔✔
    this might lead to luxurious spending patterns by  consumers ✔✔ (Any 2 x 4) (8)
    (Candidates can earn a maximum of 2 marks for listing of facts) 

3.5

  • Tourists visit countries for different reasons, but mainly, they seek  authenticity. ✔✔
  • Cultural villages can be improved to facilitate and promote tourism ✔✔
  • Advertising campaigns domestically and internationally can focus on  promoting heritage sites- this will make tourists more aware of these  attraction ✔✔
  • Tourists can be encouraged to experience different cultures and  townships- experience life at home with a household and eat at a  shebeen ✔✔
  • Arts and culture festivals e.g. the National Arts Festival, Macufe African  Cultural Festival should be widely advertised to encourage tourists to  attend ✔✔
    (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 4 x 2) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 4: MICROECONOMICS AND CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 
4.1

4.1.1

    • Products are differentiated ✔
    • It is a hybrid structure ✔
    • Little control over price ✔
    • Exit and entry are relatively easy ✔
    • Buyers and sellers have incomplete information ✔
    • Absence of a firms interdependence ✔
    • Non-price competition ✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

4.1.2

    • To ensure our environment is unharmed e.g. our beaches and all  organisms living in it. ✔✔
    • To foster respect for different cultures and human rights ✔✔
    • Promotion of recycling, energy efficiency, water conservation. ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 

4.2 Data Response 

4.2.1 The country is basic ✔ and unspoilt ✔ (2 x 1) (2) 
4.2.2

    • Tourists pollute the environment ✔✔
    • Tourists exploit nature, ✔✔
      (Accept any relevant response) (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

4.2.3 

    • Tourists may benefit by using a strong currency from their country  of origin to enjoy a luxurious holiday ✔✔
    • Tourists will be able to buy cheap products ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

4.2.4 

    • South Africa gains more foreign earnings because of cheap  products ✔✔
    • The country is a cheap holiday destination where tourists spend  more and enjoy longer holidays due to the low value of the  rand ✔✔
    • The demand for locally produced products will increase creating  jobs in various sectors ✔✔
    • South African businesses enjoy bigger exposure to the demands  of foreigners and try to fulfil their needs ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

4.3

4.3.1 An oligopoly ✔ (1)
4.3.2 Price – 10 ✔ (1) 
4.3.3

    • An oligopoly has little to gain from reducing prices and much to  lose from raising prices✔✔
    • The demand curve has two segments, one for higher prices that  is elastic and one for lower prices that is inelastic.✔✔
    • The demand curve is kinked ✔✔
      (Accept any relevant response) (Any 2 x 2) (4)

4.3.4

    • Firms practice product differentiation (physical appearance of the  product) when each firm produces a product that is slightly  different from the product produced by others ✔✔
    • A product is given a particular image which is appealing to  consumers ✔✔
    • Firms use advertising and marketing to build brand loyalty ✔✔
    • Loyalty rewards and door to door deliveries are examples of non price competition ✔✔
    • Product are differentiated in terms of packaging ✔✔
      (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

4.4

  • Salary and wage earners ✔ – affects people whose incomes are  relatively fixed, incomes that do not change as prices in the market  increase ✔✔ e.g. pensioners and the poor. ✔
  • Investors and savers ✔ – investors tend to benefit if they invest in  assets with a flexible market value✔✔ but they will be negatively affected  if they invested in assets with fixed nominal values✔✔On the other hand  savers who invested in fixed deposits tend lose, cause a decline in the  real value of money. ✔✔
  • Creditors and debtors✔ – debtors benefit from price increases because  they pay their debts back with money with a low purchasing power. ✔✔ Creditors tend to lose because when they receive money back overtime  when it has lost its value or purchasing power. ✔✔
  • Industrial peace ✔– wage bargaining is sometimes accompanied by  strikes and mass action ✔✔which sometimes run into violence which  might affect the society at large. ✔✔
  • Taxpayers✔ – taxpayers tend to be pushed in a higher income tax bracket  because they are taxed on their nominal wages ✔✔ the standard of living  is however determined by their real wage (they earn more, pay more tax  and buy less) this is called bracket creep ✔✔
    (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 2 x 4) (8) 

4.5

  • The government can reduce negative externalities ✔✔
  • The government has carried out campaigns in order to change/persuade  people from causing negative externalities. ✔✔ 
  • Levying taxes on goods that cause negative externalities ✔✔ e.g. taxes  are levied on cigarettes and alcohol. ✔ 
  • Passing laws and regulations to prevent activities that cause negative  externalities ✔✔ e.g. tobacco companies are not allowed to advertise.✔
  • The government introduced laws that regulate the amount of air pollution  and waste. ✔✔
    (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 4)
  • The government encourages positive externalities by: ✔✔
  • Advertising on the radio or television encouraging South African citizens  to use scarce resources supplied by government in a specific way ✔✔ 
  • Providing education, health care and other services at a low cost or free  to previously disadvantaged communities ✔✔ 
  • Providing consumer subsidies to poor communities ✔✔ 
    (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 4) (8)

(40) 

SECTION C

STRUCTURE OF ESSAY 

MARK ALLOCATION

Introduction 

  • A good starting point would be to define a concept or  key word that appears in the question.
  • Include other sentences to support the topic.
  • Do not include in your introduction any part of the  question. 
  • Do not repeat any part of the introduction in the body.
  • Avoid saying in the introduction what you are going to  discuss in the body 

Max. 2

Body 
Main part: Discuss in depth/In-depth  discussion/Examine/Critically  discuss/Analyse/Compare/Evaluate/Distinguish/Explain/ Assess/Debate 
Additional part: Give own opinion/Critically  discuss/Evaluate/Critically evaluate/Draw a graph and  explain/Use the graph given and explain/Complete the  given graph/Calculate/Deduce/Compare/Explain/  Distinguish/Interpret/Briefly debate 

Max. 26

Max. 10

Conclusion 
Any relevant higher order conclusion that should include:

  • A brief summary of what has been discussed/analysed  without repeating facts already mentioned in the body
  • An opinion or valued judgement on the facts discussed
  • Additional support information to strengthen the  discussion/analysis
  • A contradictory viewpoint with motivation, if so required
  • Recommendations 

Max. 2

TOTAL 

Max. 40

QUESTION 5: MICROECONOMICS 
Discuss the three equilibrium positions in the short run under perfect markets  with the aid of well labelled graphs. 
Why are equilibrium positions in the short-term not sustainable in the long run? 
INTRODUCTION 
The individual business can make an economic profit, economic loss or normal  profit in the short run. They are referred to as short run equilibrium positions.✔✔ (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
BODY 

Economic profit✔
A firm makes economic profit when average revenue is greater than average  cost.✔✔
17 economics profite

Mark allocation 

  • Correct labelling of  axes 1 mark
  • Correct Cost curves 1 mark 
  • Accurate Revenue  curves 1 mark
  • Profit maximisation  point 2 marks
  • Economic profit area  2 marks 

Max = 4

Given a market price of P3, profit is maximised where MR = MC = P3.✔✔

  • This occurs at a quantity of Q3.✔
  • At Q3 the firm’s average revenue (AR) per unit of production is P3. ✔
  • The average cost per unit is C1 which is lower than the price of P3.✔
  • The firm is making an economic profit per unit of production of P3 – C1. ✔
    Another explanation 
  • Total revenue equals P3 × Q3, therefore total revenue is represented by the area  0P3E3Q3. ✔✔
  • Total cost equals C1 × Q3, this is represented by the area 0C1MQ3. ✔✔
  • The difference between these two areas is the economic profit which is  represented by the light grey shaded area C1P3E3M. ✔✔ (Max 4 for explanation)

Economic loss✔ 
A firm makes economic loss when average revenue is less than average cost.✔✔
18 economics loss

 Mark allocation

  • Correct labelling of axes 1 mark
  • Correct Cost curves 1 mark
  • Accurate Revenue  curves 1 mark
  • Profit maximisation point 2 marks
  • Economic profit area  2 marks 

Max = 4 

  • Given a market price of P3, profit is maximised where MR = MC at point E3. ✔✔
  • This occurs at a quantity of Q3. ✔
  • At Q3 the firm’s average revenue (AR) per unit of production is P3. ✔
  • The average cost per unit is C3 which is higher than the price of P3. ✔
  • The firm is making an economic loss per unit of production which is equal to the  difference between C3 and P3. ✔✔
    Another explanation. 
  •  Total revenue equals P3 × Q3, therefore total revenue is represented by the  area 0P3E3Q3. ✔✔
  • Total cost equals C3 × Q3, this is represented by the area 0C3MQ3. ✔✔
  • The difference between these two areas is the economic loss which is  represented by the light grey shaded area C3P3E3M. ✔✔
  • Whether the firm should continue production would depend on the level of AR  (that is P3) relative to the firm’s average variable cost. ✔✔ (Max 4 for explanation)
    Normal Profit
    A firm makes normal profits when total revenue (TR) equals total costs or when  average revenue (AR) equals average cost (AC). ✔✔
    Normal profit is the maximum return the owner of a firm expects to receive to keep  on operating in the industry. ✔✔
    19 normal profit

Mark allocation

  • Correct labelling of axes 1 mark
  • Correct Cost curves 1 mark
  • Accurate Revenue  curves 1 mark
  • Profit maximisation point 2 marks
  • Economic profit area  2 marks 

Max = 4  

  • Given a market price of P2, profit is maximised where MR = MC = P2. ✔✔
  • This occurs at a quantity of Q2. ✔
  • At Q2 the firm’s average revenue (AR) per unit of production is P2, which is also  equal to the average cost per unit C2 (AC). ✔
  • Since AR = AC, the firm earns a normal profit since all its costs are fully  covered. ✔✔
  • Point E2 is usually called the break-even point. ✔✔
    Another explanation 
  • Total revenue equals P2 x Q2, therefore total revenue is represented by the  area 0P2E2Q2. ✔✔
  • Total cost equals C2 × Q2, this is represented by the area 0P2E2Q2. ✔✔
  • Since Total revenue equals Total Cost the producer makes a normal profit. ✔✔ (Max 4 for explanation) (26)
    ADDITIONAL PART 
  • Profits are signals for the entry of new businesses and extension of current  businesses ✔✔
  • New technology develops daily leading to increased supply in the market✔✔
  • The quantity offered by businesses in the market increases (indicating mass  production) ✔✔
  • The increase in the supply leads to a decrease in price due to lower cost per  unit ✔✔
  • All businesses in the industry will make normal profit and produce at the  minimum of the long term average cost curve ✔✔
  • The economic loss will lead to some businesses leaving the market and the  supply will decrease. ✔✔
  • The decrease in supply will lead to an increase in price until it is at the same  level as the long run average cost.✔✔
  • If businesses are able to turn their losses to profits they will make normal profits  over the long run ✔✔ (Max 10)

(10) 

CONCLUSION 
In reality there are few perfect markets in some sectors such as mining and  agriculture where conditions are met. These sectors illustrate the way in which the  market mechanism works.✔✔
(Accept any relevant conclusion.) (2)

[40]

QUESTION 6: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMICS 

  • Discuss public sector control as measures to ensure environmental  sustainability. 
  •  How effective are the South African government’s interventions with regard  to environmental sustainability? 

INTRODUCTION 
The environment brings life to every living organism, it is important that we take care  of it making sure that we keep it safe for future generations.✔✔
(Accept any other relevant introduction) (2)
BODY 
Granting property rights✔

  • This means that the government gives people rights to own certain areas i.e.  portions of streams, forests etc. this has positive conservation effects, because  it ensures that people take care of the property they own. ✔✔

Charging for the use of the environment

  • Consumers and producers are charged for using and abusing the  environment. ✔✔
  • They are charged a monthly fee to the government for the waste they produce,  such as municipal charges.
  • The government also levies emission charges on industries and vehicle  owners. ✔✔

Environmental taxes

  • These are also known as green taxes or eco taxes. ✔✔
  • The government imposes these taxes on consumption of a good that has a  negative effect on the environment and is not for the good of the  environment ✔✔e.g. the levy on plastic bags. ✔

Environmental subsidies

  • The government subsidises activities that reduce environmental damage. ✔✔
  • These activities include improving techniques and equipment such as solar  energy, and wind power to reduce air pollution✔✔
  • Producing environmentally friendly substitutes, such as unleaded petrol supporting and encouraging recycling of waste ✔✔

Command and Control (CAC)

  • The government enforces policy by setting maximum levels of the emission of  pollution. ✔✔
  • Most developed countries have regulations that control air and water  pollution.✔✔
    There are 3 approaches in CAC systems: 
  • Quantity standards: These focus on the amount of pollution emitted. ✔✔
  • Quality standards: These focus on the environmental impact of the pollution  emitted. ✔✔
  • Social impact standards: These focus on the effect on people of the pollution  emitted. ✔✔

Education

  • People need to be made aware of environmental issues and the consequences  of their actions education plays an important role in improving people’s ability to  manage the environment. ✔✔
  • It can be done by taking it to schools, and re-energising traditional agricultural  systems. ✔✔

Voluntary measures ✔

  • Government tries to enter into voluntary agreements with businesses to cut  pollution, rather than imposing laws and regulations ✔✔
  • The agreements include formal contracts or informal commitments that  businesses negotiate to suite their own circumstances ✔✔
    A maximum of 8 marks for headings. (Max 26)

(26)

ADDITIONAL PART 
How successful has the South African government been in addressing  environmental issues? 

  • In an attempt to control the environmental problems posed by plastic shopping  bags, the South Africa government introduced a levy per bag to discourage  consumers in their use thereof ✔✔
  • The levy charged had only short run success. The effectiveness of the levy has  continued declining despite its comprehensive application at checkout points as  there are many plastic bags that are polluting the environment.✔✔
  • A tyre levy was introduced to encourage reuse, recycling and recovery of waste  due to South Africa generating millions of waste each year ✔✔
  • Electric filament lamps (i.e. non energy-saving light bulbs✔) are subjected to the  payment of an Environmental Levy if used in the RSA ✔✔
  • To encourage use of energy saving light bulbs the government subsidized  residents in rural areas by exchanging their non-saving light bulbs with free  energy saving bulbs ✔✔
  • A motor vehicle CO2 emission levy was introduced where new passenger  vehicles are taxed based on their certified CO2 emissions.✔✔
  • The objective of the levy is to influence the composition of South Africa's (SA)  vehicle fleet to become more energy efficient and environmentally friendly.✔✔
    (Accept any relevant response) (Any 5 x 2) (10) 

CONCLUSION 
It is obvious that the environment is a precious resource, and the government is  doing all it can to take care of it, therefore all man should follow suit. ✔✔ (Accept any relevant conclusion) (2)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER TWO (P2)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

  1. Answer FOUR questions as follows:
    SECTION A: COMPULSORY
    SECTION B: Answer any TWO of the three questions.
    SECTION C: Answer ONE of the two questions.
  2. Answer only the required number of questions. Answers in excess of the  required number will NOT be marked.
  3. Answer the questions in full sentences and the format, content and the  context of your responses must comply with the cognitive requirements of  the questions.
  4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
  5. Write the question number above each answer.
  6. Read ALL the questions carefully. 
  7. Start EACH question on a NEW page.
  8. Leave 2–3 lines between subsections of questions.
  9. Use only black or blue ink.
  10. You may use a non-programmable pocket calculator.
  11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1 30 MARKS – 15 MINUTES 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the correct answer and write only the letter (A to C) next to the question  number (1.1.1 to 1.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.9 C. 

1.1.1 Equilibrium price of a commodity occurs when … 

    1. market supply of a commodity is more than market demand.
    2. quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. 
    3. marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue. 

1.1.2 A cause for imperfect competition is … 

    1. freedom of entry. 
    2. advertising. 
    3. selling identical products. 

1.1.3 Social benefits exceeding private benefits is a feature of … goods. 

    1. public 
    2. demerit 
    3. primary 

1.1.4 Tourism has the biggest impact on the … industry. 

    1. manufacturing 
    2. construction 
    3. service 

1.1.5 A type of inflation that excludes commodities with volatile prices is  known as … 

    1. stagflation. 
    2. deflation. 
    3. core-inflation. 

1.1.6 Monopolistic competitive markets make … in the short run only. 

    1. economic profit 
    2. normal profit 
    3. economic loss 

1.1.7 An increase in the price of petrol has … influence on tourism. 

    1. a positive
    2. a negative 
    3. no

1.1.8 Sewerage dumping can be cited as an example of … pollution. 

    1. water 
    2. land
    3. air (8 x 2) (16) 

1.2 Choose a description in COLUMN B that matches an item in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A to I) next to the question number (1.2.1 to 1.2.8) in  the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.2.9 J. 

COLUMN A 

COLUMN B

1.2.1 Externality 

A measure of the changes in prices of all final  goods and services produced in a particular  year

1.2.2 Profit  maximisation

B introduce waste matter into the environment

1.2.3 Competition  Tribunal

C foreigners visiting South Africa

1.2.4 SABC 

D activities of tourists who visit art galleries,  museums, and also attend festivals

1.2.5 All inclusive  inflation

E average costs of business are greater than  market price

1.2.6 Inbound  tourism

F occurs where marginal costs intersect with  marginal revenue

1.2.7 Pollution 

G costs or benefits that affect a party that was  not involved in an economic activity

1.2.8 Cultural  tourism

H entry is restricted through licensing

 

I authorise or prohibit large mergers

(8 x 1) (8) 

1.3 Give ONE term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the term  next to the question number (1.3.1 to 1.3.6) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3.1 Natural resources that can be replaced or regenerated 
1.3.2 South Africans travelling within South Africa 
1.3.3 A continuous fall in the general price level 
1.3.4 A situation where resources cannot be relocated to make one  person/group better off without making another person/group  worse off  
1.3.5 A seller that has enough market power to influence the price of a  product  
1.3.6 Products that are exactly the same in type, quality and  appearance (6 x 1) (6)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B
Answer any TWO of the three questions from this section in the ANSWER BOOK. QUESTION 2: MICROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 20 MINUTES 2.1 Answer the following questions. 
2.1.1 List any TWO types of subsidies on goods. (2 x 1) (2) 
2.1.2 What is the implication of a horizontal demand curve of an  individual firm in a perfect market on the price? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.2 Study the graph below and answer questions that follow. 
ECON P2 2.2

2.2.1 Identify the maximum price from the graph. (1) 
2.2.2 Which quantity will be supplied when the maximum price is  enforced? (1) 
2.2.3 Which role does the government play in redistribution of wealth? (4)
2.2.4 How will the maximum price affect the economy? (4) 

2.3 Study the extract below and answer questions that follow.  

 COST BENEFIT ANALYSIS OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY IN LOW COST  HOUSING 

The CBA was conducted by the Energy and Development Research  Centre (EDRC), as part of a larger study on environmentally sound energy  efficient low cost housing. 
The study considered five fuels, (electricity, paraffin, wood, coal and gas);  income groups between R500 and R3000 per month and three end uses  (space heating, water heating and lighting). 
To analyse the costs and benefits, data sets were needed, e.g. fuel use  patterns, fuel prices, solar water heater and capital costs. 

[Adapted from: energy and development centre website] 

2.3.1 Identify a cost and a benefit from the above extract. (2 x 1) (2)
2.3.2 Explain the concept cost benefit analysis. (2)
2.3.3 Give ONE purpose of a CBA. (2)
2.3.4 How is CBA related to market failure? (4) 

2.4 Explain in detail TWO forms of collusion. (2 x 4) (8) 
2.5 How successful are the market forces in influencing monopolies? (8)

[40]

QUESTION 3: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 40 MARKS – 25 MINUTES 
3.1 Answer the following questions. 

3.1.1 List TWO reasons for growth in the tourism sector. (2 x 1) (2) 3.1.2 How will key inputs contribute to cost push inflation? (1 x 2) (2)

3.2 Study the table below and answer the questions that follow. 

Year 

Average Price of a Basket of Goods 

CPI 

Inflation Rate

2010 

R200 

100 

-----

2011 

R214,29 

107,1 

7,1

2012 

R223,41 

111,7 

4,3

2013 

R234,58 

117,3 

5,0

2014 

R248,10 

6,8

[Source: Stats SA 2015] 

3.2.1 Which year is considered the base year from the table? (1) 
3.2.2 What tendency did the inflation rate show over the last three  years? (1) 
3.2.3 Explain the concept CPI. (2) 
3.2.4 Why do people lose confidence in their currency during  hyperinflation? (2) 
3.2.5 Calculate the CPI as indicated by the letter A. Show all  calculations. (4)

3.3 Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

South African Tourism (SAT) 

Business tourism has increased, especially since the establishment of the  country’s first South African National Convention Bureau (SANCB) as a  business unit under South Africa Tourism (SAT). Given the strong growth  potential in Africa, SAT was allocated R300 million to expand its marketing  in Africa. 
SAT’s Sho’t Left marketing campaign for domestic tourists is already  delivering results. It challenges South Africans to see their country  differently and promotes a culture of local holiday travelling. 
The “It’s Here, Vaya Mzansi” campaign is an industry-wide project that  relies on collaboration and partnership from the wider industry for success  and to grow domestic leisure travel to meet targets. 

[Adapted from: tourism- www.gov.za]

3.3.1 Identify TWO campaigns from the extract that are used to promote  domestic tourism. (2 x 1) (2) 
3.3.2 Explain the concept tourism. (2)
3.3.3 What marketing strategy can South Africa use to improve tourism? (2) 
3.3.4 How will tourism benefit the business sector in your local community? (4)

3.4 Explain any TWO causes of demand pull inflation. (2 x 4) (8) 
3.5 How can indigenous knowledge systems be used to increase tourism in  South Africa? (4 x 2) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 4: MICROECONOMICS AND CONTEMPORARY ECONOMICS ISSUES 40 MARKS – 20 MINUTES 
4.1 Answer the following questions. 

4.1.1 List any TWO characteristics of monopolistic competition. (2 x 1) (2) 
4.1.2 Why is it important for tourist policies to promote and encourage  eco-friendly tourism? (2) 

4.2 Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow. 
ECON P2 4.2

4.2.1 Identify the part that refers to ecotourism in the cartoon. (2) 
4.2.2 Why is the growth in tourism industry problematic to the  environment? (2) 
4.2.3 How will tourists benefit from a poor country as holiday  destination? (2) 
4.2.4 How can South Africa as a developing country benefit more from  international tourism? (4) 

4.3 Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow. 
ECON P2 4.3

4.3.1 Identify the market structure represented by the above graph. (1)
4.3.2 At what price will the firm sell its products? (1)
4.3.3 Briefly explain with reason the shape of the above demand curve. (4) 
4.3.4 How do firms successfully use product differentiation as a form of  non-price competition? (4) 

4.4 Discuss any TWO consequences of inflation. (2 x 4) (8) 
4.5 How does the government discourage and encourage externalities? (8)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C
Answer any ONE of the two questions from this section in the ANSWER BOOK.
Your answer will be assessed as follows:

STRUCTURE OF THE ESSAY 

MARK ALLOCATION

Introduction 

  • A good starting point would be to define a concept or  key word that appears in the question.
  • Include other sentences to support the topic.
  • Do not include in your introduction any part of the  question. 
  • Do not repeat any part of the introduction in the body.
  • Avoid saying in the introduction what you are going to  discuss in the body 

Max. 2

Body 
Main part:
Discuss in detail/In-depth discussion/  Examine/Critically discuss/Analyse/Compare/ Evaluate/Distinguish/ Explain/Assess/Debate 

Max. 26

Additional part: Give own opinion/Critically discuss/Evaluate/Critically evaluate/Draw a graph and  explain/Use the graph given and explain/Complete the  given graph/Calculate/Deduce/Compare/Explain/  Distinguish/Interpret/Briefly debate 

Max. 10

Conclusion 
Any relevant higher order conclusion that should include: ∙ A brief summary of what has been discussed/analysed without repeating facts already  mentioned in the body 

  • An opinion or valued judgement on the facts  discussed 
  • Additional support information to strengthen the  discussion/analysis 
  • A contradictory viewpoint with motivation, if so  required 
  • Recommendations 

Max. 2

TOTAL 

40

QUESTION 5: MICROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 35 MINUTES 

Markets are one of the crucial elements of our economy. Economics ensures that  our scarce resources are used efficiently to produce goods and services and sell  through the markets. 
Discuss the three equilibrium positions in the short run under perfect markets with  the aid of well labelled graphs. (26) 
Why are equilibrium positions in the short-term not sustainable in the long-run? (10)

[40] 

QUESTION 6: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 35 MINUTES 

Issues of the environment in this day and age are extremely important. It  becomes important for all stakeholders in the economy to come on board and  make a mark in trying to sustain the environment. 
Discuss public sector control as measures to ensure environmental sustainability. (26) 
How effective are the South African government’s interventions with regard to  environmental sustainability? (10)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER ONE (P1)
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

  1.  Answer FOUR questions as follows in the ANSWER BOOK:  
    • SECTION A: COMPULSORY 
    • SECTION B: Answer TWO of the three questions. 
    • SECTION C: Answer ONE of the two questions.
  1. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used  in this question paper.
  2. Write the number of the question above each answer. 
  3. Read the questions carefully and start each question on a NEW page.
  4. Leave 2–3 lines between subsections of questions.
  5. Answer the questions in full sentences and ensure that the format,  content and context of your responses comply with the cognitive  requirements of the questions.
  6. Answer only the required number of questions. Answers in excess of  the required number will NOT be marked.
  7. Use only black or blue ink. 
  8.  A non-programmable pocket calculator may be used.
  9. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1 30 MARKS – 20 MINUTES 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following  questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–C) next to the  question number (1.1.1–1.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example  1.1.9 D. 

1.1.1 Taxes that relate to individual goods, are called taxes on ... 

    1. production. 
    2. products. 
    3. income. 

1.1.2 Trends are measured through ... in the economy. 

    1. extrapolation 
    2. moving averages 
    3. economic indicators 

1.1.3 Putting laws in place to regulate activities is known as ... 

    1. deregulation.
    2. regulation. 
    3. nationalisation. 

1.1.4 A transaction relating to investment in businesses is called ...  investment. 

    1. portfolio 
    2. other 
    3. direct  

1.1.5 Regional cooperation and integration among African states is  provided by ... 

    1. Nepad. 
    2. SADC.
    3. WTO. 

1.1.6 Cash incentives to assist foreign investors who want to invest in  new manufacturing businesses in South Africa is offered by the ... 

    1. Foreign Investment Incentive.
    2. Small and Medium Enterprise Development Programme.
    3. Black Business Supplier Development.

1.1.7 The initiative to enhance economic growth and create employment is known as ... 

    1. The New Growth Path.
    2. Black Economic Empowerment. 
    3. The Development Bank of South Africa. 

1.1.8 According to the UN classification, South Africa falls in the …  human development group of countries.  

    1. lower
    2. middle
    3. higher (8 x 2)

(16) 

1.2 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches an item in  COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–I) next to the question number  (1.2.1–1.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK.  

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

1.2.1 Leakages 
1.2.2 Monetarist 
1.2.3 Budget 
1.2.4 Balance of payments 
1.2.5 Free floating  exchange rate
1.2.6 Quota 
1.2.7 Economic growth  policy 
1.2.8 Social indicator 

A is calculated by multiplying the  volume of final goods and services  by their prices
B a systematic record of all  transactions between one country  and other countries 
C money withdrawn from the circular  flow  
D markets are inherently stable 
E they monitor issues related to  human well-being over a period of  time 
F helps to increase the annual total  production or income in the economy 
G limits are put on the supply of goods  and services 
H the value of a currency is determined by market forces 
I a document that details expected  revenue and projected expenditure

(8 x 1) (8)

1.3 Give ONE term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the term  next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.6) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3.1 The effect of spending on national income 
1.3.2 Cycles that last for the period of 3–5 years caused by adapting  inventory levels in businesses 
1.3.3 A record of export and import merchandise 
1.3.4 A penalty applied by one or more countries on another country 1.3.5 Policies aimed at increasing the aggregate supply 
1.3.6 Indicators concerned with inflation rates and the supply of money  (6 x 1) (6) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B
Answer any TWO of the three questions from this section in the ANSWER  BOOK. 
QUESTION 2: MACROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES 2.1 Answer the following questions. 
2.1.1 Name TWO types of financial markets. (2 x 1) (2) 
2.1.2 How can the government use the fiscal policy if the economy is  expanding too slowly? (1 x 2) (2) 
2.2 Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow.
13 real business cycle
2.2.1 Which dotted line on the graph represents the length? (1)
2.2.2 When did the economy reach its highest peak? (1)
2.2.3 Briefly explain what the amplitude demonstrates. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.2.4 How will a large amplitude during an upswing affect workers in  general? (2 x 2) (4)

2.3 Study the picture below and answer the questions that follow. 

 14 tolls on the roads in sa

The tolls collected on a specific road are used to, inter alia; repay the  loans obtained to finance the building, upgrading or improvement of the  road. In addition, it provided a dedicated ongoing revenue stream,  which enables the road to be adequately maintained and improved,  independent of tax-based revenue. 

[Source: Adapted from www.sanral.co.za/e toll] 

2.3.1 What are tolls used for? (2 x 1) (2) 
2.3.2 Discuss briefly collective goods as one of the pricing options.  (2 x 2) (4) 
2.3.3 How successful is the public sector in delivering public goods in  South Africa? (4) 

2.4 Explain the interaction between households and firms in a circular flow.  (4 x 2) (8) 
2.5 How successful is the supply side policy in South Africa to stimulate  economic activity in the smoothing of business cycle? (4 x 2) (8) [40]

QUESTION 3: ECONOMIC PURSUITS 40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES
3.1 Answer the following questions. 

3.1.1 Name TWO of South Africa’s industrial development strategies.  (2 x 1) (2) 
3.1.2 Which specifications will be considered when the GDP is calculated  in assessing the performance of the South African economy? (1 x 2) (2) 

3.2 Study the information below and answer the questions that follow. 

EXPANDED PUBLIC WORKS PROGRAMME 

15 men in orange jumsuits

The EPWP is a key government initiative, which contributes to Government  Policy Priorities in terms of decent work and sustainable livelihood,  education, health, rural development, food securities and land reforms and  the fight against crime and corruption. EPWP subscribes to the outcome  which states, “Decent employment through inclusive economic growth”. 

[Source: Adapted from www.epwp.gov.za]

 3.2.1 What is the main objective of Expanded Public Works Programme  (EPWP)? (2) 
3.2.2 Identify any TWO sectors by which the EPWP create jobs. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.2.3 How successful has the Expanded Public Works Programme been  in achieving growth and development in South Africa? (4)

3.3 Study the table below and answer the questions that follow. 
Births and deaths in SA for period 2013–2015 

Year 

Total number  of births

Total number  of deaths

Total number  of Aids related  deaths

% of Aids  

deaths

2013 

1 232 668 

539 880 

177 624 

32,9

2014 

1 242 070 

516 929 

151 040 

29,2

2015 

1 782 250 

531 965 

122 445 

28,5

                             [Source: Stats SA, July 2015] 

3.3.1 Name the social indicator used in the above table. (1) 
3.3.2 What is the trend of the percentage Aids deaths from 2013 to  2015? (1) 
3.3.3 Define the term life expectancy. (2) 
3.3.4 Why is the above information important for the South African  government? (2) 
3.3.5 What positive role can the government play to increase health  care in South Africa? (4) 
3.4 Explain the negative environmental effects caused by activities in the  North. . (4 x 2) (8) 

3.5 What can the government/businesses sector do to increase the current  low economic growth rate substantially? (4 x 2) (8)

[40]

QUESTION 4: MACROECONOMICS AND ECONOMIC PURSUITS   40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES 
4.1 Answer the following questions. 

4.1.1 Name TWO factors that will influence the demand for foreign  exchange. (2 x 1) (2)
4.1.2 Why is GDP at market prices more than the GNI at market prices?   (1 x 2) (2) 

4.2 Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

REAPING THE BENEFITS OF REGIONAL INTEGRATION 

According to the Southern African Development Community (SADC) the  benefits of belonging to a shared community in Southern Africa are  reaching the lives of many people in the region. The SADC reveals that  the regional integration has contributed to reduce poverty and enhance  quality of life.  
For example the establishment of Maputo Development Corridor by  Mozambique and South Africa in 1996 has improved trade between the  countries and improve the lifestyles of SADC citizens. 

[Source: Adapted from Southern African News, September 2015]  

4.2.1 What is the main benefit of regional integration for the people of  Southern Africa? (1) 
4.2.2 What role has the establishment of the Maputo Development  Corridor played in the SADC? (1) 
4.2.3 Discuss the main objectives of the National Development Plan. (4) 
4.2.4 How successful has South Africa been with regional development  compared to international best practices on good governance? (4)

4.3 Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

GOVERNMENT DECLARES 2015 THE YEAR OF SPECIAL ECONOMIC  ZONES DELIVERY 
16 industralization plattform

 Out of South Africa’s ten prospective special economic zones, three are on  the verge of implementation and, before the end of this year, one of them  will be completed and implemented, says the Department of Trade and  Industry. The DTI also established the SEZ programme to address  weaknesses identified with the development zone (IDZ) programme. Two  zones have been identified in Limpopo, including one in Musina,  (petrochemicals, agro processing and logistics) one in Tubatse (platinum  group metals) and one in Nkomazi, in Mpumalanga (agro processing). 

[Source: Adapted from m.engineeringnews.co.za/ article/] 

4.3.1 Mention any ONE zone that has been identified in the extract. (1) 
4.3.2 What is the purpose of the DTI in establishing the SEZ  programme? (1)
4.3.3 Explain the key difference between the IDZ and SEZ. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.4 Why is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) regarded as the most  desired kind of investment in South Africa? (2 x 2) (4) 

4.4 Explain methods used to support export promotion. (4 x 2) (8) 
4.5 Why is education so important as a key social indicator in South Africa?  (4 x 2) (8)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
Answer ONE of the two questions from this section in the ANSWER BOOK. 

STRUCTURE OF ESSAY 

MARK  ALLOCATION:

Introduction 

Max. 2

Body: 

  • Main part: Discuss in detail/In-depth discussion/Examine/ Criticallydiscuss/Analyse/Compare/Evaluate/Distinguish/Differentiate/Explain/Assess/Debate
  • Additional part: Give own opinion/Critically discuss/Evaluate Critically evaluate/Draw a graph and explain/Use the graph  given and explain/ Complete the given graph/Calculate/ Deduce/Compare/Explain/Distinguish/Interpret/Briefly debate/ How?/Suggest

Max. 26 

Max. 10

Conclusion 

Any relevant higher order conclusion that should include: 

  • A brief summary of what has been discussed/analysed  without repeating facts already mentioned in the body
  • An opinion or valued judgment on the facts discussed
  • Additional support information to strengthen the discussion/  analysis
  • A contradictory viewpoint with motivation, if so required
  • Recommendations

Max. 2

TOTAL 

40

QUESTION 5: MACROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES 
Foreign trade is becoming increasingly important for the economic well-being of a  country. The more open and integrated a country is with the rest of the world the  better its chances of improving the economic welfare of its citizens. 

  • Discuss the main supply reasons of international trade. (26 marks)
  • How effective is international trade for South Africa? (10 marks) [40] 

QUESTION 6: ECONOMIC PURSUITS 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES 
The purpose of fiscal policy is to stimulate economic growth and employment and to  ensure redistribution of income. 

  • Discuss this statement by focusing on the instruments of fiscal policy in the  South African context and how it ensures the desirable redistribution of income.   (26 marks)
  • In your opinion, how successful is the South African government in providing  the basic needs for disadvantaged people? (10 marks)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

DRAMATIC ARTS PAPER
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR sections.

SECTION A: 20th Century Theatre Movements 30 marks
SECTION B: South African Theatre: 1960–1994 40 marks
SECTION C: South African Theatre: Post 1994 40 marks
SECTION D: Theatre History, Practical Concepts, Content and Skills 40 marks 

QUESTIONS

2. SECTION A 
All candidates must answer the questions by referring to the play text they have  studied and its relevant 20th century theatre movement. 
Epic Theatre 

  •  Caucasian Chalk Circle
 Bertolt Brecht 
  •  Kaukasiese Krytsirkel
 Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
  •  Mother Courage
 Bertolt Brecht
  •  Moeder Moed
 Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
  •  The Good Person of Szechwan
 Bertolt Brecht 
  •  Kanna Hy Kô Hystoe
 Adam Small

THEATRE OF THE ABSURD 

  • Waiting For Godot
Samuel Beckett 
  • Afspraak met Godot 
Translation of Samuel Beckett play text
  • Bagasie
André P Brink 
  • The Bald Prima Donna 
Eugeni Ionesco 
  • Die Kaalkop Prima Donna
Translation of Eugene Ionesco play text 

POSTMODERN THEATRE 

  • Skrapnel  
Willem Anker  
  •  Top Girls 
 Carol Churchill 
  •  Popcorn
 Ben Elton 
  •  Buried Child 
 Sam Shepard

3. SECTION B: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE (1960–1994) 
This section consists of THREE questions. Candidates must answer only ONE  question from this section. 

QUESTION 2: Woza Albert! Percy Mtwa, Mbongeni Ngema and Barney Simon
QUESTION 3: Sophiatown Junction Avenue Theatre Company
QUESTION 4: Siener in die Suburbs P.G. du Plessis

4. SECTION C: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE (POST 1994) 
This section consists of TWO questions. Candidates must answer only ONE  question from this section. 

QUESTION 5: Nothing but the Truth John Kani 
QUESTION 6: Missing Reza de Wet 

5. SECTION D: THEATRE HISTORY, PRACTICAL CONCEPTS, CONTENT AND  SKILLS 
This section consists of FOUR questions. QUESTION 7 is COMPULSORY. QUESTION 7: The History of Theatre (COMPULSORY) 

Answer ONLY ONE of the following questions: 

QUESTION 8: VOCAL AND PHYSICAL WORK OR 
QUESTION 9: LIVE PERFORMANCE OR 
QUESTION 10: CULTURAL PERFORMANCES AND RITUALS 

NOTE TO TEACHERS 
SECTION D may contain a different number of questions each year depending on the  aspects that are tested and the source material used.

SECTION A: TWENTIETH CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
QUESTION 1: 20TH CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
Refer to the 20th century “ism” that you studied this year to answer this question. Study the following quote and answer the question that follows. 

Being able to act in various acting styles gives you a better chance to become a successful  actor. But of course you have to know one acting style from another.

www.acting-classes-online-tips.com 

Consider the theatrical techniques of the play that you have studied and evaluate how these  techniques influence the performance of the main character(s). 
Refer to the following in your essay: 

  • Research 
  • Text analysis 
  • Creating a character 

Your essay should be approximately THREE pages in length. 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE [1960–1994] 
Answer ONLY ONE question from this section. 
QUESTION 2: WOZA ALBERT! BY PRECY MTWA, MBONGENI NGEMA AND  BARNEY SIMON 
2.1 Identify TWO biblical references evident in the play Woza Albert!. (2) 
2.2 Discuss the concept of archetypes/stereotype characters and give examples from the  play. (6) 
2.3 Does Woza Albert! fit under the term ‘agitprop’? 

Support your answer by referring to an issue addressed in the play. (5) 

2.4 Comment on the use of costumes as a form of character transformations in the play  Woza Albert! (5) 
2.5 Explain the term ‘satire’ in terms of Woza Albert! Give an example from the play. (4) 
2.6 How can an actor use vocal and physical skills to perform in a production like Woza  Albert!? (8) 
2.7 What evidence do we find in the play that justifies the application of Poor Theatre  techniques? 
Refer to Poor Theatre conventions and examples from the play to support your answer. (10)

[40] 

OR

QUESTION 3: SOPHIATOWN BY JUNCTION AVENUE THEATRE COMPANY
3.1 Name THREE reasons why people make community theatre. (3)
3.2 Can Sophiatown be labelled as a community theatre production? 
      Provide TWO reasons for your answer. (4) 
3.3 Read the following extract from the University of Johannesburg written by Natasha  Erlank and Karie L Morgan, Sophiatown.2015, and answer the questions that follow. 

Sophiatown was established as a freehold area in the early 20th century, as one of  two spaces in Johannesburg where Africans could own land. During the 1940s and  1950s Sophiatown was both fractured by poverty and functioned as a site of political  activism and cultural production.

3.3.1 Which political activities do you think were practised in the suburb of  Sophiatown during the above suggested era? Discuss at least TWO events. (5) 
3.3.2 Discuss the reasons why Sophiatown’s lifestyle is labelled as multi-cultured. (6) 
3.3.3 Explain how the political situation of that time played a role in the dismantling  of this multi-cultural environment. (5) 
3.3.4 Mention any TWO writers who lived during the era of Sophiatown. (2)

3.4 Consider the following extract and answer the questions that follow: 

Tsotsis take their name from the U.S. Zoot-suitor of a generation ago, and they act  the part. They are street-corner dandies, lounging in the doorways of vacant stores,  idling in the train stations and bus terminals, giving passers-by the hard eye.

[House of Bondage, Cole (1968:123)] 

How do the activities done by the characters of Mingus and Charlie verify the above  quote? (6) 

3.5 Consider the society of Sophiatown and the cultural vibrancy thereof and answer the  following question. 

Write brief notes suggesting how Sophiatown may be seen as the South Africa that  we all wish for, especially culturally. (10)

[40] 

OR

QUESTION 4: SIENER IN DIE SUBURBS BY P.G. DU PLESSIS 
4.1 What are the socio-political conditions that are contained in the text of Siener in die  Suburbs? Name at least TWO. (5) 
4.2 Comment on the use of stock characters in the play Siener in die Suburbs. Use  examples from the play. (5) 
4.3 Think about the objectives of the protagonist in Siener in die Suburbs and discuss the  following: 

How does the character of Jakes appear to be the antagonist in the play Siener in die  Suburbs? Consider his role in the plot of the play. (10) 

4.4 How would you dress the character of Tiemie to reflect her role and socio-economic  status in the play? (5) 
4.5 How would you use setting to effectively stage a scene from Siener in die Suburbs at  your school? (10) 
4.6 Is it still necessary for the current South African audiences to see a production of  Siener in die Suburbs? Give reasons for your answer. (5)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 40

SECTION C: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE [POST 1994] 
This section consists of TWO questions. Candidates must answer only ONE question  from this section. 
QUESTION 5: NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH BY JOHN KANI 
5.1 Consider the following excerpt from Portal Studios and answer the question that  follows: 

“Trigger events are things that happen that force dramatic movement. Trigger events  trigger characters, institutions, societies and communities to be in action and respond.  At the start of a story they are often referred to as inciting incidents, but trigger events  can happen all through multi-stranded plot and the effect of the Trigger event may  impact upon multiple plot lines or even multiple platforms”.

What is the triggering event in Nothing but the Truth? Use the play as reference to  support your answer. (4) 

5.2 Discuss the cultural conflict found in the play Nothing but the Truth. 

Use ONE character from the play as an example. (6)

5.3 Can Nothing but the Truth be set on a traverse stage? 

Give at least THREE reasons for your answer. (6) 

5.4 Identify reasons from the plot of Nothing but the Truth that make it suitable under the  term ‘narrative’. (6) 
5.5 Is melodrama an appropriate performance style for a play like Nothing but the Truth? Support your answer by using the play as a reference. (8) 
5.6 Discuss the theme of reconciliation as evident in the play Nothing but the Truth. (10)

[40] 

OR

QUESTION 6: MISSING BY REZA DE WET 
6.1 What does it mean if a character is said to be ‘multi-dimensional’? 

Give an example from the play Missing. (4) 

6.2 Determine the reasons why some playwrights tend to use nameless characters in  their plays. Refer to the character of Constable in your answer. (6)
6.3 Mention the sound effects and what they suggest about the world outside the house  of Miem in the play Missing. (5) 
6.4 The playwright uses deliberate repetition of character actions in the play. Meisie  repeatedly goes to the window to peep and Miem always objects to that. 

Consider this and write a brief paragraph in which you discuss how an actor can  demonstrate the relationship between Miem and Meisie by using actions. (5) 

6.5 Consider the following extract and answer the question that follows: 

Another Jungian idea is that the suppression of deep-seated forces and passions  within the human psyche has a destructive effect on the individual.

Validate the above quote with reference to the character of Meisie. Use the play as a  source to support your answer. (10) 

6.6 Discuss the different levels at which the theme of blindness has been addressed in  the play Missing. (10)

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION C: 40

SECTION D: THEATRE HISTORY, PRACTICAL CONCEPTS, CONTENT AND SKILLS 
This section consists of FOUR questions. 
QUESTION 7 is COMPULSORY. 
QUESTION 7: THEATRE HISTORY (COMPULSORY) 
7.1 Refer to the image below (SOURCE A) and answer the questions that follow: 
12 theater black well

7.1.1 What type of stage is displayed in SOURCE A? (2) 
7.1.2 List TWO types of skills a performer would need to perform on this type of  stage. (2) 
7.1.3 Identify the strongest focal point in SOURCE A. Provide a motivation for your  answer. (2) 

7.2 Explain the term Existentialism. (2)
7.3 Who was the founder of Theatre of Cruelty? (2)
7.4 What was the main aim of Theatre of Cruelty? (2)
7.5 It is said that the world is currently in a postmodern state. 

What does the term Postmodernism mean? (2) 

7.6 Explain some reasons that served as impulse for the origin of the 20th century isms and provide some examples of theories and or events to motivate your response. You  may select examples from the isms that relate to the plays that you have studied. (6)

[20]

Answer ONLY ONE of the following questions. 
QUESTION 8: VOICE AND PHYSICAL WORK 
8.1 Warm-ups, both vocal and physical, are vital components of Dramatic Arts. 

Design a vocal warm-up, incorporating the use of consonants, intonation and  articulation. (9) 

8.2 When preparing for a character role, physically ‘getting into character’ can be  challenging. 

Discuss the process that you would follow when preparing for one of the characters  from a South African play that you have studied in Dramatic Arts. 
State the name of the play and, importantly, the name of the character to which you  will be referring. (8) 

8.3 Referring to physical and vocal characterisation, a performer must be able to  internalise a character.  

What does it mean to internalise a character? (3)

[20] 

OR 

QUESTION 9: LIVE PERFORMANCE 

9.1 You have been working towards your theme programme as your final practical  assessment. 

Write notes on your theme, the message you want to leave the audience with, and  why it is relevant to explore this theme today. (6) 

9.2 Study the following elements you need to consider when putting together a theme  programme: 

  • Choosing your theme 
  • Having a catchy title 
  • Constructing the programme 
  • Creating links 
  • Blocking the programme 
  • Exploring your space 
  • Exploring your energies 

In a short essay, discuss how you put your programme together. Refer to at least  THREE elements stated above and explain how you worked through that specific  element. (8)

9.3 When preparing for a monologue, there are also a number of elements you need to  consider, such as: 

  • Relationships 
  • Conflict 
  • The moment before 
  • Humour 
  • Communication 
  • Discoveries 

Choose TWO elements that you used in preparation for your individual spoken piece.  Write a paragraph explaining each element, as well as how you used this element to  prepare for your individual spoken piece. (6)

[20]

OR 

QUESTION 10: CULTURAL PERFORMANCE AND RITUAL 
The following is a list of some of the elements of drama: 

  • Focus 
  • Rhythm 
  • Contrast 
  • Mood 
  • Space 
  • Sound 
  • Symbol 
  • Conflict
  • Climax 

Theatre or drama has been seen as originating from ritual in many studies. Many critics  belief that there’s a vivid similarity in the manner theatre or drama structures its narratives  and even the ‘theatre experience’ itself. 
Choose FOUR elements from the list provided above and write a paragraph for each in  which you explain the reasons why a ritual may be seen as closely related to a theatre or  drama performance. [20]

TOTAL SECTION D: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

CONSUMER STUDIES PAPER
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

MEMORANDUM

QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS 

1.1

1.1.1 D decrease of consumers’ disposable income. Understanding Easy (1) 
1.1.2 B Samp Understanding Moderate (1)
1.1.3 D legal stokvel. Understanding Difficult (1)
1.1.4 D Anaemia Understanding Easy (1)
1.1.5 D Tuberculosis Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.6 C starvation out of choice. Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.7 A Fudge, chocolate Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.8 C Retrospective fashion Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.9 B are grown without pesticides and are dyed with natural dyes. Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.10 D body corporate Understanding Easy (1)
1.1.11 D Home owners insurance Understanding Easy (1)
1.1.12 C Elton earns R3500 per month. Applying Easy (1)
1.1.13 A Front loader Understanding Moderate (1)
1.1.14 C mortgage bond. Understanding Moderate (1)
1.1.15 A Pay for water and electricity consumption Understanding Moderate (1)
1.1.16 D Five Remembering Easy (1)
1.1.17 C inspecting products to ensure that it meets the required standard set. Understanding Easy (1) 
1.1.18 C ensure that there is enough stock in the storeroom.  Understanding Easy (1) 
1.1.19 B colourful see-through plastic. Understanding Easy (1)
1.1.20 A cash flow projection. Understanding Easy (1) 

1.2

1.2.1 Air passenger tax (1)
1.2.2 Value Added Tax (VAT) (1)
1.2.3 Pay as you earn (PAYE) (1)
1.2.4 Capital gain tax (1)
1.2.5 Estate duty (1)
Remembering, Easy 

1.3

1.3.1 Brand pirated (1)
1.3.2 classic (1)
1.3.3 technological (1)
1.3.4 contemporary (1)
1.3.5 fads (1)
Remembering, Difficult 

1.4 

1.4.1 

     B      

Maintain a steady level of production and sales

1.4.2 

Predicting future available cash

1.4.3 

Ability to maintain a steady level of production and sales without  exhausting available cash

1.4.4 

Predicting number of products for future sales

1.4.5 

Operating costs

Understanding, Difficult (5 x 1) (5)
1.5 From the list below, identify FIVE requirements for a bank to grant a home loan.  Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question number (1.5) in the ANSWER  BOOK. 

B Proof of income 
D Copy of the offer to purchase 
E Evaluation of spending and payment habit 
F Proof of South African Identity Document 
H A credit check (5)
Understanding, Difficult 

[40] 

QUESTION 2: THE CONSUMER 
2.1

2.1.1 A contract is an agreement that is intended to create legal rights ✔ and duties  between parties. ✔(2) 
         Remembering, Easy Successful 169, Focus 155 
2.1.2 Cooling off period is the amount of time the law gives a consumer who has  signed a contract, to cancel  without reason or financial  implications/transactions that resulted from direct marketing/transactions that  the consumer did not start.✔(2) 
Remembering, Easy Successful 173, Focus 157 
2.1.3 Exemption clauses are included in a contract that exonerate/clear a party  from any liability✔should he or she fail to honour the agreement/when the  agreed product does not serve the purpose for which it was acquired. ✔(2) 
Remembering, Easy Successful 173, Focus 156 

2.2 Explain how South African families can use water more responsibly in the  garden. 

  • Plant water wise plants and indigenous plants that require less water. 
  • Use grey water from washing machines/basins/shows/baths to water the garden. ∙ Use mulches to retain water in the soil. 
  • Do not water the garden during the hottest part of the day as most of it will evaporate. 
  • Water plants with a bucket and not a hose/sprinklers.(2) 
    Understanding, Easy Successful 199, Focus 181 

2.3

2.3.1 Identity the type of club referred to in this case study. 

    • Stokvel ✔(1)
      Understanding, Easy Successful 177-178, Focus 161 

2.3.2 Explain how this club operates 

    • Every member contributes R1 000 per month. ✔
    • This money will be saved in a bank at compound interest ✔
    • All members will receive their contributions and interest at the end of  October ✔ (Any 3 x 1) (3)
      Applying, Easy Successful 177-178, Focus 161 

2.4 Compound interest 

  • With compound interest the members will receive interest on the original amount plus the interest to date✔ With simple interest the members will only receive interest on the original amount. (Any 4 x 1) (4)
    Understanding Successful 185, Focus 167-168) 

2.5 Discuss how inflation has a negative impact on Heather’s disposable income

  • Heather’s disposable income will be less due to inflation ✔
  • Prices of goods and services increase 
  •  She will buy less goods ✔
  • She spends more on petrol✔ which reduces her disposable income even more ✔ (Any 4 x 1) (4)
    Applying, Moderate Successful 185, Focus 167-168 [20] 

QUESTION 3: FOOD AND NUTRITION 
3.1

3.1.1  E-coli infection ✔ 
          Remembering, Easy Successful 106, Focus 90 (1) 

3.1.2

    • Underdone/half-cooked patty 
    • Water in which lettuce and tomato was rinsed could have been  contaminated. ✔ 
    • Lettuce could have been contaminated by the faeces of domestic animals  where it was growing ✔ (Any 2 x 1)  (2)
      Applying, Moderate Successful 106, Focus 90 

3.1.3 Three symptoms 

  • Abdominal pain/cramps✔ 
  • Diarrhoea/bloody diarrhoea/bloody stools✔ 
  • Tiredness✔ 
  • Nausea✔ 
  • Vomiting✔ 
  • Fever ✔ (Any 3 x 1) (3)
    Remembering, Easy Successful 106, Focus 90. 

3.2

3.2.1 Explain FOUR reasons why South African farmers may not be  economically eager to produce organic fruit. 

    • Organic farming is more expensive than conventional farming✔ 
    • The start-up cost is higher✔ 
    • Labour is more intensive✔ 
    • Yields are lower and the risk higher✔ 
    • Fruit often have more blemishes which could impact the number of fruit  suitable for selling negatively✔ decreasing profit✔ 
    • The shelve life is shorter therefore fresh produce should sell quicker to  prevent losses✔ (Any 4 x 1) (4)
      Understanding, Difficult Successful 126, Focus 104 

3.2.2 Negative impact  

    • Exported organic food is transported by aeroplane which contributes to air  pollution✔ and global warming. ✔
    • Copper sulphate is a permitted organic pesticide, but is toxic to earth  worms✔ fertilizing the soil and to fish. 
    •  Controlling weeds can lead to greater energy consumption. ✔ (Any 4 x 2) (4) 

3.3

3.3.1 Explain how gastroenteritis was transmitted to Bruce 

    • The baker who prepared the cheesecake had gastroenteritis 
    • The baker did not wash his/her hands before she started to work with the  ingredients 
    • The ingredients was contaminated 
    • The water might have been contaminated
    • ∙ Dirty equipment was used. (Any 3 x 1) (3)
      Application               S 91 

3.3.2 Treatment 

    • Replace fluids and electrolytes (body salts) lost in loose stools. 
    • Drink bottled or boiled water, fruit juices and sport drinks. Avoid water of  uncertain quality and dairy products 
    • Easily digested food such as rice, bananas and dry toast will help with  rehydration because they will reduce fluid loss through faeces 
    •  Consult a doctor rather than attempt self-medication if the diarrhoea is  severe or it does not improve within several days. (Any 3 x 1) (3)
      Application S 91 

3.4
3.4.1       (4) 

Milk allergy 

Lactose intolerance

When the immune system wrongly thinks  that the milk protein is harmful  and react  against it/build antibodies against it. ✔

When the body has too little or no  lactase (enzyme) ✔ to digest  lactose into glucose. ✔

*Not in Table form: -1 mark 

3.4.2 Explain why the starter will be suitable for a person suffering from  anaemia. 

    • The starter contains liver/lettuce and whole-wheat bread that are sources of  iron ✔ which assists in the formation of red blood cells. ✔
    • Liver contains vitamin B12 that assists with the formation of red blood cells. ✔ ∙ Folic acid  is also found in liver, lettuce and whole-wheat bread. ✔ ∙ Lettuce is a source of vitamin C✔ which promotes the absorption of  iron. ✔ (Any 3 x 1) (3)
      Applying, Moderate Successful 91, Focus 79 

3.4.3 Discuss the suitability of the cheese cake for a person with diabetes

    • The cheese cake is not suitable for a diabetic. The sugar ✔ and starch ✔in  the tennis biscuits will increase the blood glucose level. 
    • Too much fat in the cream✔ creamed cheese/margarine✔ which should be  restricted ✔ as a person with diabetes is prone to heart disease. ✔
      Applying, Difficult Successful 80-88, Focus 72-73(5)

3.4.4 Analyse the cheese cake for a person suffering from osteoporosis.
This cheese cake is suitable for a person with osteoporosis. ✔ It consists of  food rich in calcium such as cream cheese/condensed milk that will strengthen  the bones. ✔ Margarine is a good source vitamin D and phosphorus that assist  the absorption of calcium. ✔ Water could be fluoridated that makes the bones  strong. ✔ Too much protein in the cheese cake/cream/cream  cheese/condensed milk. ✔ The body releases aids into the bloodstream when  digesting proteins✔ and draws calcium from the bones to neutralise the acids ✔ which makes the bones weak. ✔
Analysing, Difficult Successful 89-90, Focus 75-76 (8)

[40] 

QUESTION 4: CLOTHING 
4.1

4.1.1 Style: is the specific characteristic that makes one product or item different  from another product of the same type. (2) 
4.1.2 Fashion trends: The direction in which fashion moves. (2)
Remembering, Easy Focus 48 

4.2 Clothing – purchasing patterns 

Inflation 
When inflation ✔ rises, the price ✔ of goods and services also rises. ✔ The consumer has less to spend on clothing. (4) 
Remembering, Moderate Successful 53, Focus 49 

4.3 Brand piracy has a definitive impact on the sales of legally protected brand  names. Justify this statement. 

  • The image of this brand name could be harmed and it could lead to less sales.
  • Consumers may lose faith in brands. 
  • The original manufacturers lose income.
  • It prevents the registered trademark owners. (4)
    Remembering, Moderate 

4.4 Cotton is a very popular fabric for clothing, but it is not eco-friendly. Discuss the  impact that cotton production have on the natural environment. 
Cotton are produced from crops that require pesticides ✔ or chemicals to grow. The  use more energy ✔ and more water to be produced and creates more waste.✔ Cotton  also has a high carbon footprint.✔(4) 
Application, easy Focus 59 
4.5 Evaluate the suitability of this outfit for a formal occasion. 

  • Not suitable
  • It is suitable for an informal occasion 
  • The outfit is too open (4)

[20]

QUESTION 5: HOUSING 
5.1

5.1.1 Initiation fee: the once-off fee the bank charges✔ for preparing and  processing the loan application.✔ (2) 
Remembering, Easy Successful 145, Oxford 
5.1.2 Occupational rent is paid to the seller, when the buyer occupies the  property ✔ before the bond is registered. ✔ (2) 
Remembering, Moderate Successful 146, Focus 120 

5.2 (4) 

Full-title ownership 

is a form of tenure in which the buyer is  legal owner of the entire property✔ consisting of the land and the structure  built on it✔

Sectional-title ownership 

is a form of tenure in which the buyer is  legal owner of section of a housing  complex✔ and have shares in the  undivided plot on which it stand✔

*Not in Table form: -1 mark Remembering, Easy 

5.3

5.3.1 Full-title ownership 
         Remembering, Easy Successful 139-140, Focus 121-122 (1) 
5.3.2 Advantages 

    • The buyer is the legal owner of the entire property. ✔
    • The property can be left in the will for your children. 
    • Changes can be made to his or her property. ✔
    • The owner has a sense of security and independence✔
    • The property can be used as security and independence. ✔
    • The property can be used as security for a bank loan. ✔
    • It is a sound investment because the value of the property increases over  time.✔
    • You can see the furnished house before you buy. ✔
    • The property can be sold to make a profit. ✔
    • A business can be run from the home. ✔ (Any 5 x 1) (5) 

5.4 Bond/mortgage protection/home owner’s comprehensive insurance (2) 
      Understanding, Easy Successful 145, Focus 128 

5.5

5.5.1 Lease contract ✔ (2) 
5.5.2

A lease is a written document that states the rental conditions✔ and the rights  and responsibilities of both the tenant and landlord✔
A lease is a rent agreement between the property owner and the tenant in  which the tenant✔ commits him-or-herself to renting the property for a minimum period at a fixed rental amount ✔ (Any 2 x 1) 
Understanding, Easy Successful 137, Focus 118 (2)

5.6 Freezer 

5.6.1 Height, adjustable racks✔ (2) 
         Applying, Moderate Successful 159, Focus 145 
5.6.2

    • Energy rating A ✔
    • Sound warning when door is open✔
    • Even distribution of air and electricity ✔
    • Optimal temperature control ✔
    • Automatic door close function ✔
      Applying, Difficult Successful 159, Focus 145(5) 

5.6.3 Self-defrost/No frost option (1) 
         Applying, Difficult Successful 159, Focus 145 

5.7

  • Ralton will pay a deposit. ✔
  • The remaining balance is paid in instalments. ✔
  • Ralton can use the freezer while paying instalments✔
  • Ralton gets a guarantee. If the freezer breaks within the guarantee period the  seller will repair the freezer.✔
    Applying, Moderate Successful 162, Focus 148 (4) 

5.8

  • Ralton will pay fixed rental amount monthly. ✔
  • The property has a braai area/swimming pool to entertain friends and family. ✔
  • It’s a three-bedroomed house/enough space for friends and family to sleep over. ✔
  • Ralton can run his taxi business from the property with the landlord’s  permission.✔
  • The property has a big backyard to extent the house later if Ralton decide to buy.
  • The property has electric fencing/alarm system✔ for the safety of Ralton and his  taxis. ✔
  • The landlord is responsible for security and paying the rates and taxes (Any 8 x 1) (8)
    Evaluation, Moderate. Successful 137, Focus 118

[40] 

QUESTION 6: ENTREPRENEURSHIP 
6.1 

6.1.1 Target Market  

A target market is a specific group of people ✔ with common needs and  interest who may want to purchase a product. ✔ (2) 

6.1.2 Target market 

    • Community ✔ 
    • Married couples ✔ 
    • Teenagers ✔ (Any 2 x 1) (2)
      Understanding, Easy Scenario 

6.2 Stock control 

  • Stock control helps to minimise the cost of storing the final product. ✔ 
  • Ensures that enough raw materials are available for production. ✔ 
  • Ensures that the right quality raw materials are purchased ✔ for the product.
  • Wastage of raw materials/final product is reduced. ✔ 
  • Money invested in stock is limited. ✔ (Any 4 x 1) (4)
    Remembering, Moderate Successful 23, Focus 19 

6.3 Product specifications (advantages) 

  • Product specifications ensures that customers’ needs are met. ✔ 
  • The product will always be the same in quality/appearance, size, and  weight/colour/style. ✔
  • ∙ Zelda will not lose profit because of failure. ✔ (Any 4 x 1) (4)
    Remember, Moderate Successful 21, Focus 16 

6.4 Training of workers 

  • Training of workers will improve the quality of work 
  • Lead to reduced wastage of atchar/ingredients 
  • Improve the workers’ morale/feel more confident/job satisfaction 
  • Help to reduce maintenance and repair costs of sewing machine/food  processor. (Any 2 x 1) (2)
    Understanding, Moderate Successful 26, Focus 25 

6.5

  • Zelda will not have to purchase unnecessary stock that cannot be found. ✔ (thread/fabric/ingredients) because she has effective storage procedures 
  • Fish moths/ mildew will not destroy the fabric. ✔ 
  • Zelda will not lose any money/profit✔ due to ineffective storage procedures.
  • There will be no wastage/spoilage of raw atchar ingredients/raw materials. ✔ 
  • Atchar ingredients can be preserved. ✔ (Any 2 x 1) (2)
    Applying, Difficult Successful 27, Focus 22 

6.6

6.6.1

    • Through flyers ✔ 
    • Telling friends and family ✔ (2)
      Applying, Moderate Scenario 

6.6.2

    • Zelda only uses coloured, recycled paper for the flyers. ✔ 
    • She uses peanut butter bottles✔ collected from family and friends. 
    • She applies the reuse✔, recycle✔ and reduce principle of sustainable production and consumption effectively. ✔ 
    • She creates less waste to dispose of ✔ therefore helps to reduce the  negative impact on the environment/carbon footprint.  (4)
      Applying, Difficult Successful 26, Focus 26-27 

6.7

  • Zelda makes sure that her customers’ needs are met. ✔ 
  • Zelda makes them feel important. She gets regular feedback✔on the atchar and  repaired clothes and use this to improve her atchar and services. ✔ 
  • She gives them clear information about the products and services. ✔ 
  • Listen to customer complaints and try to solve them. ✔ 
  • Return calls if she promised to do so. ✔ 
  • She trains her family and friends that come into contact with her customers on  good customer relations. ✔ (8)
    Applying, Moderate Successful 25, Focus 25 

6.8

6.8.1 Selling price per bottle atchar 

R12,40 + R7,36 = R19,76✔ 
R19,76 x 65/100  = R12,84✔ 
R19,76 + R12,19 = R32,60✔ 
=R32,00/R33 (4) 

6.8.2

R32,60 x 15 = R489 ✔
-R19,76 x15 = R296,40 ✔
= R192,60 ✔
OR 
R32 x 15 ✔ = R480 
-R19,76 x 15 = R296,40 
= R184,80                                     (6) 
Applying, Difficult Successful 38-39, Focus 36-37

[40] 
TOTAL: 200

CONSUMER STUDIES PAPER
GRADE 12
NSC PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
SEPTEMBER 2016

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

  1. This question paper consists of SIX questions. 

SECTION 

MARKS 

TIME (mins)

QUESTION 1: Short questions (All topics) 

40 

20

QUESTION 2: The Consumer 

20 

20

QUESTION 3: Food and Nutrition 

40 

40

QUESTION 4: Clothing 

20 

20

QUESTION 5: Housing 

40 

40

QUESTION 6: Entrepreneurship 

40 

40

TOTAL 

200 

180

  1. ALL the questions are compulsory and must be answered in the ANSWER BOOK. 
  2. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question  paper.
  3. Start each question on a NEW page. 
  4. You may use a calculator. 
  5. Write in black or blue ink only. 
  6. Pay attention to spelling and sentence construction. 
  7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose  the answer and write the letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.20) in  the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.1.1 Inflation results in … 

    1. an increase in consumer disposable income.
    2. increase in the petrol price. 
    3. decrease in prices of goods and service.
    4. decrease of consumers’ disposable income. (1)

1.1.2 These food items are exempted from VAT: 

    1. Chicken 
    2. Samp
    3. Cake flour 
    4. Canned fish (1) 

1.1.3 A scheme in which members are compensated for the amount of new  members they recruit is … 

    1. illegal stokvel.
    2. pyramid. 
    3. scam.
    4. legal stokvel. (1)

1.1.4 The disease that reduces the iron levels in blood: 

    1. Hypoglycaemia
    2. Hypertension 
    3. Osteoporosis 
    4. Anaemia (1) 

1.1.5 The disease that can be spread through breathing in the air when an infected  person sneeze, cough or spit: 

    1. Dysentery
    2. Hepatitis A 
    3. E.coli infection
    4. Tuberculosis (1)

1.1.6 Typical behaviour of a person suffering from anorexia is … 

    1. self-induced vomiting.
    2. losing excessive weight. 
    3. starvation out of choice. 
    4. binge eating, followed by exercise. (1)

1.1.7 The following food should be avoided by a diabetic person: 

    1. Fudge, chocolate
    2. Whole-wheat roll, butter beans 
    3. Low fat milk, vegetables
    4. Brown rice, fatty meats (1)

1.1.8 A clothing style that indicates clothing from a previous era: 

    1. Classic style
    2. Standard trend 
    3. Retrospective fashion 
    4. Contemporary fashion (1)

1.1.9 Eco-friendly textiles … 

    1. are grown to improve soil conditions.
    2. are grown without pesticides and are dyed with natural dyes. 
    3. produce crops over a few seasons.
    4. are grown without herbicides and made into beautiful fabrics by using  chemical dyes. (1) 

1.1.10 In a sectional flat complex the … is responsible for fixing lights on stairs,  gardens and waste disposal. 

    1. tenant
    2. builders’ council
    3. landlord 
    4. body corporate (1)

1.1.11 … is taken out to cover the structure of the home. 

    1. Life insurance
    2. Bond protection insurance 
    3. Household contents
    4. Home owners insurance (1)

1.1.12 Select the person that will best qualify for a government housing subsidy: 

    1. Jamie’s wife received a government subsidy eleven years ago.
    2. Beulah immigrated from Somalia two months ago and started a spaza  shop.
    3. Elton earns R3500 per month.
    4. Caren wants to buy her second home. (1) 

1.1.13 Wendy lives in a flat that has under counter space for a washing machine.  She wants to save on her water consumption even if she uses a washing  machine. Choose the washing machine that would be most suitable: 

    1. Front loader
    2. Twin-tub
    3. Top loader 
    4. Automatic (1) 

1.1.14 The document in which a home buyer promises to repay a home loan is  called a … 

    1. lease.
    2. contract.
    3. mortgage bond.
    4. home bond. (1)

1.1.15 Sammy is renting a property. Identify his financial responsibility while renting: 

    1. Pay for water and electricity consumption
    2. Pay the levy and rates of the property
    3. Pay for any maintenance required
    4. Pay for any changes he makes in the structure (1)

1.1.16 The cooling off period for a direct marketing transaction is … workdays. 

    1. two
    2. three 
    3. four 
    4. five (1)

1.1.17 Good quality control refers to … 

    1. monitoring the quality of raw material.
    2. controlling the amount of stock at hand. 
    3. inspecting products to ensure that it meets the required standard set.
    4. ensuring that workers maintain a tidy workplace. (1)

1.1.18 Good financial control in a business will … 

    1. increase sales.
    2. ensure that there is enough money for raw material. 
    3. ensure that there is enough stock in the storeroom. 
    4. ensure that enough profit is generated for the owner to get a good  salary. (1) 

1.1.19 Identify the packaging that will have the biggest customer appeal. 
The product is wrapped in … 

    1. brown paper.
    2. colourful see-through plastic. 
    3. newspaper. 
    4. white paper. (1) 

1.1.20 The document that shows the movement of money over a future period is  called … 

    1. cash flow projection.
    2. best sales scenario. 
    3. financial feasibility.
    4. worst sales scenario. (1) 

1.2 Give the name of each of the following taxes described below. Write the type of tax next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.2.1 Tax paid by South African passengers to fly to a foreign country. (1)
1.2.2 Tax that some basic food items such as brown bread are exempted from. (1)
1.2.3 Tax paid by employees as soon as their income is earned. (1)
1.2.4 Tax charged on any proceeds obtained from selling an asset. (1) 
1.2.5 Tax charged on the value of all property owned by a South African citizen at  the date of his or her death. (1)

1.3 Choose the correct word(s) in brackets to complete each statement. Write the word(s)  next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3.1 (Brand name/brand pirated) clothes are often sold at organised flea markets. (1)
1.3.2 Fashion that is timeless is (fads/classic) styles. (1) 
1.3.3 Computerised pattern design methods, improved knitting and sewing  machines are (economical/technological) factors influencing fashion change. (1) 
1.3.4 Current fashion trends are called (contemporary/vintage). (1)
1.3.5 Fashion with a very short life cycle is (fads/standard trends). (1) 

1.4 Match the description in Column B that suits the entrepreneurial term in Column A.  Write the letter (A–G) next to the question number (1.4.1–1.4.5) in the ANSWER  BOOK.  

COLUMN A 

Entrepreneurial Term

COLUMN B 

Description

1.4.1 

Cash flow projection 

       A        

Predicting number of products for future sales

1.4.2 

Financial feasibility 

Maintain a steady level of production and sales

1.4.3 

Sustainable profitability 

Profit margin

1.4.4 

Sales scenario 

Ability to maintain a steady level of production  and sales without exhausting available cash

1.4.5 

Start-up cost 

Possibility of success

   

Predicting future available cash

   

Operating costs

(5 x 1) (5) 

1.5 From the list below, identify FIVE requirements for a bank to grant a home loan. Write  only the letter (A–H) next to the question number (1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

  1. Marriage certificate 
  2. Proof of income 
  3. Proof of property rates and taxes 
  4. Copy of the offer to purchase 
  5. Evaluation of spending and payment habit 
  6. Proof of South African Identity Document 
  7. Moving and travelling expenses 
  8. A credit check (5)

[40]

QUESTION 2: THE CONSUMER 
2.1 Explain the following terms: 

2.1.1 A contract (2)
2.1.2 Cooling off period (2)
2.1.3 Exemption clauses (2) 

2.2 Explain how South African families can use water more responsibly in the garden. (2)
2.3 Read the case study below and answer the questions that follow: 

Heather a teacher and nine of her colleagues started a club whereby every member  contributes R1 000,00 per month. This money is saved in a bank with compound  interest. They decided that all members will receive their contributions plus the  interest only at the end of October. 
Heather had long wanted to take her family on holiday, but could never save enough  money. The tax deducted from her salary was high and she had to spend more on  transport to work due to constant increase in the petrol price. Inflation further  contributed to her reduced disposable income.

2.3.1 Identity the type of club referred to in this case study. (1)
2.3.2 Explain how this club operates. (3) 

2.4 Describe how the club members will benefit more from compound interest than simple  interest. (4) 
2.5 Discuss how inflation has a negative impact on Heather’s disposable income. (4)

[20]

QUESTION 3: FOOD AND NUTRITION 
3.1 Study the scenario below and answer the questions that follow: 

Elton bought a burger from a caravan which sells takeaway foods. He specifically  asked for the beef patty to be underdone. The chef put lettuce and a slice of tomato  on the roll after rinsing it in a bucket of water. He also spread mayonnaise over the  patty, packaged the burger and gave it to Elton. Elton started feeling sick a few days  thereafter.

3.1.1 Identify the foodborne disease that Elton was suffering of. (1)
3.1.2 Explain how this disease was transmitted to Elton. (2)
3.1.3 Name THREE symptoms that Elton could have had. (3) 

3.2 Organic food is very popular and local farmers cannot supply enough to supermarkets  abroad. 

3.2.1 Explain FOUR reasons why South African farmers may not be economically  eager to produce organic fruit. (4) 
3.2.2 Describe the negative impact that organically-grown foods have on the natural  environment. (4) 

3.3 Read the case study below and answer the questions that follow: 

Bruce suffers from hypertension and coronary heart disease. Bruce ate some of the  cheesecake and started having gastroenteritis symptoms.

3.3.1 Explain how gastroenteritis was transmitted to Bruce. (3)
3.3.2 Suggest ways to treat Bruce’s condition. (3)

3.4 Study the light meal menu below and answer the questions that follow: 

MENU 
LIGHT MEAL 
Starter 
Spicy liver on Lettuce 
served with toasted whole-wheat bread 
Dessert: Cheesecake 
Ingredients for the cheese cake: 
Tennis biscuits, melted margarine, condensed milk, lemon juice, cream  cheese, cream, gelatine and water

3.4.1 Differentiate between milk allergy and lactose intolerance. Tabulate your  answer as follows: (4)

Milk allergy                    (2)

Lactose intolerance     (2) 

3.4.2 Explain why the starter will be suitable for a person suffering from anaemia. (3) 
3.4.3 Discuss the suitability of the cheese cake for a person with diabetes in  paragraph from. (5) 
3.4.4 Analyse the cheese cake for a person suffering from osteoporosis. (8)

[40]

QUESTION 4: CLOTHING 
4.1 Explain the following terms: 

4.1.1 Style (2)
4.1.2 Fashion trends (2)

4.2 Explain how inflation influences clothing purchasing patterns. (4)
4.3 Brand piracy has a definitive impact on the sales of legally protected brand names.  Justify this statement. (4) 
4.4 Cotton is a very popular fabric for clothing, but it is not a eco-friendly. Discuss the  impact that cotton production have on the natural environment. (4) 
4.5 Study the outfit below and answer the question that follows:
CONSUMER BEHA 
Evaluate the suitability of this outfit for a formal occasion. (4)

[20]

QUESTION 5: HOUSING
5.1 Explain the following terms: 

5.1.1 Initiation fee (2)
5.1.2 Occupational rent (2) 

5.2 Differentiate between full-title and sectional-title ownership. Tabulate your answer as  follows: (4) 

Full-title ownership         (2)

Sectional-title ownership        (2) 

5.3 Read the advertisement below and answer the questions that follow: 

Three bedrooms, separate bathroom and toilet, open-plan kitchen. Swimming pool,  built-in braai area, big backyard.
Enclosed double garage, electric fencing, alarm system. 
Renting period: 12 months 
Option to buy after renting contract ends.

5.3.1 Name the type of ownership for this house. (1)
5.3.2 Describe the advantages of this type of ownership. (5) 

5.4 An insurance that the homeowner had to take out when receiving a home loan from  the bank. 
Explain this type of insurance. (2)
5.5 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow:  

Ralton, a young taxi owner decides to rent this property. He enjoys entertaining his  friends and family over weekends. He wants to buy an upright freezer using an  instalment sale.

5.5.1 Identify the contract that Ralton should sign before he moves into the house. (2)
5.5.2 Explain the contract in QUESTION 5.5.1. (2)

5.6 Select from the list below, freezer features that will assist Ralton in each of the  following cases: 

  • Height adjustable racks 
  • Automatic door close function 
  • Self-defrost 
  • Energy rating A 
  • Optional temperature control 
  • No frost option 
  • Sound warning when the door is open 
  • Even distribution of air and electricity 

5.6.1 Make it easier to clean (2)
5.6.2 Saves electricity (5)
5.6.3 Store more food and reach food easily (1) 

5.7 Describe what advantages an instalment sale would have for Ralton. (4) 
5.8 Evaluate the benefits of this property that Ralton is renting. (8)

[40] 

QUESTION 6: ENTREPRENEURSHIP 
6.1 Read the scenario below and answer the questions that follow: 

Zelda lives in a community with many married couples that has teenage children. She  recognised a need for a place where people can have their clothes repaired. She  then decided to start a clothing repair business, putting in new zips, mending hems  and seams and adjusting clothing items. Customers did not always collect their  clothes in time and Zelda needed the money. 
She has a vegetable garden and started producing vegetable atchar. Zelda handed  out flyers about her business and the business grew quickly thereafter. She  employed an unskilled worker and trained her on both products. 
She only uses coloured recycled paper for the flyers, peanut bottles that she collects  from family and friends to package the atchar and her old shopping bags for the  collection of altered clothes.

6.1.1 Explain the term target market. (2)
6.1.2 Identify Zelda’s target market when her business was established. (2) 

6.2 Zelda has good control of her raw materials. Describe the main purpose of proper  stock control of the atchar ingredients. (4)
6.3 Explain the importance of product specifications. (4)
6.4 How does training of the worker benefitted Zelda’s business? (2)
6.5 Describe how Zelda’s effective storage procedures benefited her business. (2)
6.6 Marketing contributed to the success of this business. 

6.6.1 Name TWO ways that Zelda use to market her products. (2)
6.6.2 Discuss how Zelda keeps creating sustainable customer relations. (4)

6.7 Analyse how Zelda uses FOUR of the marketing strategies to sell her products. (8) 
6.8 

Zelda sells 15 bottles of atchar on her worst business day. The raw material per  bottle is R12,40 and overheads are R7,36. She adds 65% for profit.

6.8.1 Calculate the selling price per bottle. Round off the selling price to the  nearest rand. Show all calculations. (4) 
6.8.2 Calculate Zelda’s profit on her worst business day. Show ALL calculations. (6)

[40] 
TOTAL: 200