Adele

Adele

ANNEXURE

FIGURE 1.2: TROPICAL CYCLONE
1.2 auygduyad
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 1.3: SYNOPTIC WEATHER MAP
1.3 aughduyahd
[Source: www.weathersa.co.za]
FIGURE 1.4: DEVELOPMENT OF BERGWINDS
1.4 aigduyad
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 1.5: POLLUTION DOME
1.5 aiyygduyagd
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 2.2: DRAINAGE PATTERNS
2.2 augduyad
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 2.3: RIVER REJUVENATION
2.3 aihduiad
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 2.4: FLOODPLAINS
2.4 akhdiuad
[Source: bing.com]
FIGURE 2.5: RIVER MANAGEMENT

Gauteng says it is working to fix Vaal River ecosystem

The Vaal River, which about 19 million people depend on for drinking, domestic and commercial use, is polluted beyond acceptable standards. The cause is the kiloliters of untreated sewage entering the Vaal because of inoperative and dilapidated wastewater treatment plants.
These treatment plants have been unable to properly process the sewage and other wastewater produced in Emfuleni, as well as the sewage and other wastewater from the City of Johannesburg and the Mid-vaal Municipality.
The consequence is that the pollution is affecting natural ecosystems directly dependent on the water in and from the Vaal. The population of Yellowfish – peculiar to a few SA rivers such as the Vaal – are under threat of extinction on account of the change to the balance of river flora and other competing species in the river caused by pollution of the Vaal. Livestock that consume water from the Vaal have reportedly died.
Apart from the long-term effects of pollution of the water source on life, there are concerns relating to the negative effects the pollution has had on the economy. There has been a decrease in tourist and recreational activities on the river due to the severity of the pollution on the river.

[Source: Timeslive.co.za] 

SECTION B: GENERAL INFORMATION ON LOUIS TRICHARDT

section b 1 auygdyua

[Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Louis_Trichardt]

Coordinates: 23° 3′ 0″ S, 29° 54′ 0″ E Louis Trichardt has a subtropical climate.
The winters are characterised by mild afternoons and cool evenings.
Winters usually last from June to August.
Summers experience warm and often humid temperatures with the occasional afternoon thunderstorm.
Most of Louis Trichardt's rainfall occurs in the summer months, from November to March.
The last few years have seen some water restrictions put in place by the municipality mainly due to drought in the area and lack of maintenance of the town's water supply system by the municipality.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A:
RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY OF SOUTH AFRICA
QUESTION 1

1.1
1.1.1 B (1)
1.1.2 C (1)
1.1.3 D (1)
1.1.4 A (1)
1.1.5 C (1)
1.1.6 A (1)
1.1.7 C (1)
1.1.8 C (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.2
1.2.1 City (1)
1.2.2 Town (1)
1.2.3 Village (1)
1.2.4 Town (1)
1.2.5 Town (1)
1.2.6 City (1)
1.2.7 City (1) (7 x 1) (7)
1.3
1.3.1 People, especially the young, leave for more opportunities in rural areas (1) (1 x 1) (1)
1.3.2

  • Poor quality of housing (1)
  • Lack of basic services e.g. water, electricity (1)
  • Increase living costs because goods and services are more expensive (1)
    [ANY TWO]  (2 x 1)  (2)

1.3.3

  • There are only elderly people left behind in the rural areas who are vulnerable to crime (2)
  • Family units are broken down as parents leave their young children behind (2)
  • The elderly has to take the responsibility of rearing young children (2)
  • It is mostly young men who leave, and that results in an imbalance of the gender structure (2)
  • There is a brain drain as the young adults who are educated and have leadership skills, leave the rural areas (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

1.3.4

  • Rural economies contribute to the GDP of a country (2)
  • They create employment which results in the multiplier effect (2)
  • Rural economies are based on primary economic activities that provide raw materials for secondary industries (2)
  • The production of most food is based on agricultural economies of rural areas
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

1.3.5

  • It would increase the number of small scale and large-scale farmers thus increasing production (2)
  • More income could be earned on local and foreign markets by selling the extra produce (2)
  • More skilled and unskilled jobs would be created enabling a multiplier effect (2)
  • It would counteract rural-urban migration, thus preventing a cycle of economic decline (2)
  • It would alleviate poverty and expand the pool of labour in rural areas (2)
  • It would expand the economy by making it more inclusive of other race groups (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)   (4)

1.4
1.4.1 An area in an urban settlement that has one dominant function (1)
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.2

  • Tall buildings (1)
  • High density of buildings (1) Grid iron street pattern (1)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2)  (2)

1.4.3

  • Functional convenience/high degree of accessibility for consumers/customers (2)
  • Functional prestige /land values would be high to promote certain commercial activities and discourage other functions (2)
  • Functional magnetism/certain commercial functions attract and benefit from each other (accept examples) (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

1.4.4

  • Land in the CBD begins to lose value as demand decreases (2)
  • The CBD becomes a haven for immigrants to operate illegal businesses and activities as space to rent becomes available (2)
  • The CBD will have an increase in different criminal activities as because of illegal businesses (2)
  • Urban decay sets in as buildings become dilapidated and left vacant (2)
  • Informal trading increases as authorities lose control or are subjected to bribes (2)
  • There is an increase in noise and land pollution as the CBD loses its prestige (2)
  • The CBD loses its aesthetic appeal and discourages tourists from entering this land-use zone (2)
  • Less formal employment opportunities become available as businesses relocate (2)
  • The CBD loses revenue/income as consumers are discouraged from entering the CBD (2)
  • The CBD becomes multi-functional (e.g. residential) as landlords seek other ways of generating income (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

1.4.5

  • Urban renewal projects that improve the physical environment by renovating buildings (2)
  • Encourage a variety of entertainment facilities (e.g. restaurants) to attract tourists (2)
  • Greater policing and surveillance to make the CBD’s a safe place (2)
  • Reduction in cost of services/more effective service delivery (2)
  • Safer more modern public transport system to make shopping convenient and accessible (2)
  • More parks/open spaces to make the CBD more aesthetically pleasing (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

1.5
1.5.1 211 (1) ( 1 x 1) (1)
1.5.2

  • Housing (formal) (1)
  • Power/electricity (1) (2 x 1) (2)

1.5.3

  • Municipalities do not have the budgets to plan for rapid urbanisation (2)
  • Corruption among municipal employees has affected service provision / service delivery protests (2)
  • Nepotism among officials has led to a shortage of skilled officials/personnel in key positions (2)
  • Municipalities persistently struggle with water shortages and electricity blackouts (2)
  • Financial viability problems (2)
  • Poor planning, monitoring and evaluating problems (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

1.5.4

  • It would lead to protest action that could result in damage to property (2)
  • Protest action would affect businesses, as employees would not be able to report to work on time (2)
  • Companies would lose production hours and hence profits would decrease (2)
  • It would create tension between local authorities and communities and encourage crime (2)
  • Criminal activity would affect formal businesses and discourage local investment in the area (2)
  • Overseas investors would lose confidence in the area and take investments elsewhere (2)
  • There would be retrenchments and more unemployment in the city (2)
  • Tourists would be reluctant to visit the city and cause job losses in the hospitality industry (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2)  (8)

[60]

QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1 C (1)
2.1.2 C (1)
2.1.3 B (1)
2.1.4 D (1)
2.1.5 B (1)
2.1.6 C (1)
2.1.7 A (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.2
2.2.1 Secondary (1)
2.2.2 Quaternary (1)
2.2.3 Secondary (1)
2.2.4 Primary (1)
2.2.5 Tertiary (1)
2.2.6 Tertiary (1)
2.2.7 Quaternary (1)
2.2.8 Primary (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.3
2.3.1 Mpumalanga (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2 Eskom (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.3 “... arrays of solar panels line the main access road” (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.4

  • Coal deposits are close to the surface (1)
  • It is cheaper to practice open pit mining (1)
  • There are large amounts of good quality coal (1)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 1)  (2)

2.3.5 Power is transmitted over a short distance that makes electricity cheaper for industries (2) (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.6 NEGATIVE

  • HIV/Aids has resulted in many skilled and unskilled workers being lost to the mines (2)
  • HIV/Aids decreases production as workers frequently stay away or are too sick to work (2)
  • Strike action for better wages and benefits (accept examples) have made mines unprofitable and forced to shut down (2)
  • Faction fighting among miners of different nationalities causes absenteeism and production to stop (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)   (4)

2.3.7

  • Embracing renewable sources of energy would result in mass job losses in the coal mining industry (2)
  • This would affect employment in other sectors (secondary/tertiary) of the economy (2)
  • Disinvestment in coal mines by foreign owners would reduce the income generated by taxes (2)
  • South Africa would lose income earned by foreign exchange as production in mines decreases (2)
  • Costly infrastructure purposely built for processing (power stations) and exporting (Richards Bay terminal) would be rendered obsolete (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)   (4)

2.4
2.4.1

  • Creating jobs (1)
  • Promoting exports (1)
    [ANY ONE]  (1 x 1) (1)

2.4.2

  • Natural harbour (1)
  • Flat land (1)
    [ANY ONE]   (1 x 1)  (1)

2.4.3

  • Maritime (1)
  • Oil (1)
  • Gas (1)
    [ANY ONE]  (1 x 1)  (1)

2.4.4

  • Locals may not have the necessary skills/qualifications to qualify for these jobs (2)
  • Skilled workers from other areas would be eligible for these employment opportunities (2)
  • May result in nepotism, bribery and corruption to secure jobs (2)
  • Foreign investment is susceptible to changes in world markets that may cause shutting down of these companies (2)
  • Job losses may result from smaller businesses closing because of competition with these big businesses (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

2.4.5

  • Contribute to infrastructural development (roads, railway lines etc.) linking the region (2)
  • Oil and gas industry has the potential to expand to the West Coast SDI (2)
  • Wind farms in the area has contributed to the amount of renewable energy available in the region (2)
  • Reduced unemployment by increasing the number of jobs available for the entire region (2)
  • Contributed to the upskilling of the labour pool that are available now for jobs in the region (2)
  • Attracted skilled labour from other parts of the country and world to the region (2)
  • It has attracted international investment who may look to expand business opportunities in the entire region (2)
  • Increased exports from the region that adds to the Gross Geographical Product (GGP) (2)
    [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2)  (8)

2.5
2.5.1 Exchange of goods and service between countries (1)
[CONCEPT]  (1 x 1)  (1)
2.5.2 China (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.3 The whole map of Africa is depicted (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.4

  • We have access to foreign income from exports (1)
  • Stimulates our secondary industry which creates more jobs (1)
    [ANY ONE]  (1 x 2) (2)

2.5.5

  • Trade deal between the African countries and China is mostly beneficial towards China (2)
  • China is literally taking ownership of African resources (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

2.5.6 We mostly export raw materials as opposed to manufactured goods (2) China exports manufactured goods to our country (2) (2 x 2)  (4)
2.5.7

  • We would have to make more loans from the World Bank and other developed countries (2)
  • This would make us more vulnerable to rich countries meddling in our economic matters (2)
  • Local businesses/industries would close (2)
  • Less foreign investment would take place in the country (2) There would-be large-scale job losses (2)
    [ANY TWO] (All concepts for 2 marks) (2 x 2) (4)

[60]

SECTION B: GEOGRAPHICAL SKILLS AND TECHNIQUES QUESTION 3
MAPWORK SKILLS AND CALCULATIONS
3.1
3.1.1 Larger / Bigger / Increasing (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.1.2

  • Mean annual change for Louis Trichardt is West/Westwards (1) (1 x 1) (1)

3.2
3.2.1

  • Length = 4,1 cm x 500 [4,0 – 4,2]
    Breadth = 3,8  cm x 500 [3,7 cm – 3,9 cm]

    Area = 2 050 m  x 1 900 m
    = 3 8950 000 m2 
    (Range: 370 000 m2 – 4 095 000 m2]
    [Accept other calculation method] (5 x 1) (5)

3.2.2

  • The scale of the orthophoto map is larger (2) The scale of the topographic map is smaller (2)
  • Orthophoto map scale is 1 : 10 000 and topographic map scale is 1 : 50 000 (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.3

  • There no obstruction between 5 and 6 (1)
  • The valley forms no obstruction between 5 and 6 (1)
  • The slope is concave (1)
  • Gentle gradient between 5 and 6 (1)
  • Intervisibility between 5 and 6 (1)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

MAP INTERPRETATION
3.4 C (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.5

  • Large stands (2)
  • Planned irregular street pattern (2)
  • Presence of trees and gardens (2)
  • Proximity to recreational areas (2)
  • Houses of different architectural design (2)
  • Views / elevation (2)
    [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.6
3.6.1Answer: Dry-point settlement (1)

  • Reason: Settlement is built on higher ground to avoid flooding (2)
  • Settlement is built away from the river to avoid flooding (2)
  • Built above flood line/flood contour (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 + 2)  (3)

3.6.2 It is situated close to the road for transportation of crops/increased accessibility to the farmstead (2)  (1 x 2)  (2)
3.7

  • N: Nucleated / Clustered (1)
  • S: Isolated / Dispersed (1) (2 x 1) (2)

GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
3.8
3.8.1 Attribute data: Refers to the description/characteristics (further information) of the location (and shape) of a feature (spatial data) (2) [CONCEPT] (1 x 2) (2)
3.8.2 Attribute data (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.8.3

  • It gives descriptions/characteristics (further information) regarding the type of road (2)
  • It gives the description/characteristic (further information) about the road being tarred (2)
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2)  (2)

3.9
3.9.1 Creating an area of specific width or distance from an object (2) [CONCEPT]  (1 x 2) (2)
3.9.2 Avoid flooding along the rivers (1) Minimise loss of crops (1) Prevent any development (1) Ensure river management (1) [ANY ONE]  (1 x 1) (1)

[30]
TOTAL: 150

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

  1. The question paper consists of THREE questions.
  2. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE.
  3. Where possible, illustrate your answers with labelled diagrams.
  4. Leave a line between subsections of questions answered.
  5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page.
  6. Number the questions correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
  7. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK.
  8. In SECTION B you are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (2529 BB LOUIS TRICHARDT) and an orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.
  9. Show ALL calculations and formulas provided, where applicable. Marks will be provided for these.
  10. The unit of measurement must be given in the final answer where applicable, for example 10 km, 4 °C, east.
  11. You may use a non-programmable calculator and a magnifying glass.
  12. The area demarcated in RED and BLACK on the topographical map represents the area covered by the orthophoto map.
  13. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A:
RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY OF SOUTH AFRICA
QUESTION 1

1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to question numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.9 A.
1.1.1 … influence(s) the site of a rural settlement.

  1. People
  2. Water
  3. Oil
  4. Services

1.1.2 The shape of a linear settlement is usually determined by …

  1. accessibility.
  2. tradition.
  3. canals.
  4. security.

1.1.3 Land … is a process of compensating people for land that they lost.

  1. reform
  2. expropriation
  3. tenure
  4. restitution

1.1.4 … rural settlement patterns make larger profits.

  1. Dispersed
  2. Square
  3. Crossroad
  4. Nucleated

1.1.5 According to size and complexity, ... rank the second lowest in the hierarchy of settlements.

  1. farmsteads
  2. villages
  3. hamlets
  4. towns

1.1.6 … settlements are located on high lying areas because of the threat of flooding.

  1. Dry point
  2. Wet point
  3. Semi-circular
  4. T-shaped

1.1.7 Ghost towns/settlements describe rural areas where the ...

  1. least educated people are left behind.
  2. number of HIV/Aids people have increased.
  3. buildings and farms are abandoned.
  4. water and fertile land are scarce.

1.1.8 … is one of the challenges associated with land reform.

  1. Expropriation
  2. Social justice
  3. Willing buyer/seller clause
  4. Social injustice (8 x 1) (8)

1.2 Match the statements below with the terms City, Town or Village. Write only the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.7) and your answer.eg. 1.2.8 Town.
1.2.1 Offers a wide variety of high order functions e.g., specialist doctors
1.2.2 Has a smaller sphere of influence
1.2.3 This settlement is not an example of a central place
1.2.4 Offers only low order services and functions
1.2.5 This settlement has the lowest threshold population
1.2.6 Has a higher rank on the urban hierarchy
1.2.7 Settlement that has the largest range (7 x 1) (7)
1.3 Refer to FIGURE 1.3 showing the consequences of rural depopulation.
1.3.1 Quote evidence from FIGURE 1.3 that suggests that the age structure is affected by depopulation in rural settlements. (1 x 1) (1)
1.3.2 Give TWO factors that cause rural depopulation. (2 x 1) (2)
1.3.3 Explain the negative social impact of rural depopulation on rural settlements. (2 x 2) (4)
1.3.4 Why is it so important to grow the economy of rural settlements? (2 x 2) (4)
1.3.5 Explain how the process of land redistribution would improve the economy of rural settlements in South Africa. (2 x 2) (4)
1.4 FIGURE 1.4 is a photograph of a CBD which is an urban land-use zone.
1.4.1 Give evidence from the photograph to support the statement that this is a Central Business District (CBD). (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.2 Why is the CBD classified as an urban land-use zone? (1 x 2) (2)
1.4.3 Describe TWO factors that would have determined the concentration of commercial functions in the CBD. (2 x 2) (4)
1.4.4 Explain why commercial decentralisation has impacted negatively on the CBD. (2 x 2) (4)
1.4.5 Suggest TWO strategies that could be implemented to make the CBD more attractive to businesses. (2 x 2) (4)
1.5 Read the case study in FIGURE 1.5 that highlights the urban settlement issue of a lack of service delivery.
1.5.1 According to the extract, how many informal settlements are stealing electricity? (1 x 1) (1)
1.5.2 Quote TWO basic services that are lacking in informal settlements. (2 x 1) (2)
1.5.3 Explain why municipalities struggle to provide basic services. (2 x 2) (4)
1.5.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, explain the economic impact that a lack of basic services will have on the city of Johannesburg. (4 x 2) (8)
[60]

QUESTION 2
2.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to question numbers (2.1.1 to 2.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 2.1.8 A.
2.1.1 The … sector refers to businesses that are not registered and do not pay taxes.

  1. formal
  2. economic
  3. informal
  4. tertiary

2.1.2 A social factor that favoured the development of the Gauteng industrial region:

  1. Raw materials
  2. Flat land
  3. Dense population
  4. Cheap power

2.1.3 ... farming in South Africa is hindered by a variable price and overgrazing.

  1. Maize
  2. Beef
  3. Sugar cane
  4. Subsistence

2.1.4 Food security is when people in a country have …

  1. no access to nutritious food.
  2. access to land.
  3. no access to genetically modified crops.
  4. access to nutritious food.

2.1.5 … industries produce perishable goods.

  1. Raw material orientated
  2. Market orientated
  3. Heavy
  4. Bridge

2.1.6 Large tracts of cheap and flat land on the outskirts is a specialised requirement for … industries.

  1. footloose
  2. light
  3. heavy
  4. ubiquitous

2.1.7 ... is the difference between a country’s exports and imports over a given period.

  1. Balance of trade
  2. Negative balance of trade
  3. Positive balance of trade
  4. Balance of payments (7 x 1) (7)

2.2 Refer to FIGURE 2.2 (A) and (B) showing examples of different economic sectors. Match the descriptions below with one of the economic sectors. Write only the economic sector next to the question numbers (2.2.1 to 2.2.8) for example 2.2.9 primary.
2.2.1 This sector is associated with high levels of pollution
2.2.2 Genetically modified crops are a product of this sector
2.2.3 SDI’s and IDZ’s are strategies used to grow this sector
2.2.4 Extraction of raw materials from the environment
2.2.5 The sector that contributes the most to the GDP of South Africa
2.2.6 Transport is an example of an activity in this sector
2.2.7 The sector coronavirus is concerned with developing vaccines for the
2.2.8 The sector that makes the least contribution to the GNP (8 x 1) (8)
2.3 Refer to FIGURE 2.3 and study the information on coal mining in South Africa.
2.3.1 According to FIGURE 2.3, which province accounts for the highest coal production? (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2 Name the power utility that produces electricity in South Africa. (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.3 Quote evidence from FIGURE 2.3 that suggests that coal mining may be replaced by alternative sources of energy. (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.4 State TWO physical factors that may have reduced production costs of coal mining in this province (your answer to QUESTION 2.3.1). (2 x 1) (2)
2.3.5 How has the proximity (distance) of the coal mines favoured the development of the Gauteng industrial region? (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.6 Discuss the negative impact that labour has on the coal mining industry. (2 x 2) (4)
2.3.7 Explain how the environmental advantage of reaching a net-zero carbon emission by 2050 would have a negative economic impact on South Africa. (2 x 2)
(4)
2.4 FIGURE 2.4 is based on strategies for industrial development, the Saldanha Bay Industrial Development Zone (SBIDZ).
2.4.1 State ONE aim of an Industrial Development Zone (IDZ). (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Give evidence of ONE physical (natural) factor that would make Saldanha Bay an ideal location for industrial development. (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.3 Identify ONE sector from FIGURE 2.4 where new investment agreements have been signed. (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.4 Discuss the negative impact that these new investment agreements could have on the people of Saldanha Bay. (2 x 2) (4)
2.4.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explain ways in which the Saldanha Bay Industrial Development Zone has contributed positively to the South Western Cape industrial region. (4 x 2) (8)
2.5 FIGURE 2.5 is a cartoon on international trade.
2.5.1 What evidence shows that the cartoon is based on international trade and not domestic trade? (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 Identify South Africa’s trading partner from the cartoon. (1 x 1) (1)
2.5 3 What evidence on the cartoon shows that South Africa is not China’s only trading partner? (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.4 What is the significance of the caption ‘Chinese takeaway’ in the cartoon? (1 x 2) (2)
2.5.5 How does international trade benefit from the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of South Africa? (1 x 2) (2)
2.5.6 Why does South Africa have a negative trade balance with China? (2 x 2) (4)
2.5.7 Explain the impact that a negative trade balance would have on the economy of South Africa. (2 x 2) (4)
[60]

SECTION B: GEOGRAPHICAL SKILLS AND TECHNIQUES
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographical map 2329 BB LOUIS TRICHARDT, as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.
QUESTION 3
MAPWORK SKILLS AND CALCULATIONS
3.1 The magnetic bearing for 2012 between two points on the topographical map was 14°23’ W of True North.
3.1.1 Would the magnetic bearing in 2021 between two points be larger or smaller? (1 x 1) (1)
3.1.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.1.1. (1 x 1) (1)
3.2 Refer to the demarcated area in RED and BLACK on the topographical map which represents the orthophoto map.
3.2.1 Use the topographical map to calculate the area covered by the orthophoto map in metres squared (m²). Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.

  • Formula: Area = Length x Breadth (5 x 1) (5)

3.2.2 Explain why the area covered by the orthophoto map looks smaller on the topographical map. (1 x 2) (2)
3.3 Give ONE reason why a person standing at 5 will be visible to a person standing at 6. (1 x 1) (1)
MAP INTERPRETATION
3.4 The economic activity at O in block C2 on the topographical belongs to the … sector.

  1. secondary
  2. tertiary
  3. primary
  4. quaternary (1 x 1) (1)

3.5 The area located north and north-east of the hospital (block B5) on the topographical map shows characteristics of a high-income residential area. Give TWO pieces of evidence to support this statement. (2 x 2) (4)
3.6 Refer to the farmstead at M in block C3.
3.6.1 Is the farmstead a wet-point or a dry-point settlement? Give a reason for your answer. (1 + 2) (3)
3.6.2 Explain ONE human-made factor that influenced the choice of site M for the farmstead. (1 x 2) (2)
3.7 State ONE difference between the settlement pattern at N in block C1 and the settlement pattern at S in block B1. (2 x 1) (2)

GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
3.8 Refer to the orthophoto map.
3.8.1 Define the term attribute data. (1 x 2) (2)
3.8.2 The 522 main road into Louis Trichardt is a tarred road. Would you consider this information to be spatial or attribute data? (1 x 1) (1)
3.8.3 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 3.8.2. (1 x 2) (2)
3.9 Refer to ANNEXURE 3.9 showing an extract of the Dorp River in blocks E2/3 on the topographical map, where farmers have created a buffer.
3.9.1 Define the term buffering. (1 x 2) (2)
3.9.2 Give ONE reason for creating a buffer zone along the Dorp River. (1 x 1) (1)

[30]
TOTAL: 150

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: CLIMATOLOGY AND GEOMORPHOLOGY
QUESTION 1

1.1
1.1.1 D (1)
1.1.2 G (1)
1.1.3 C (1)
1.1.4 F (1)
1.1.5 H (1)
1.1.6 B (1)
1.1.7 E (1) (7 x 1) (7)
1.2
1.2.1 B (1)
1.2.2 B (1)
1.2.3 A (1)
1.2.4 C (1)
1.2.5 B (1)
1.2.6 C (1)
1.2.7 A (1)
1.2.8 C (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.3
1.3.1 4 hPa/mb (1) (1 x 1) (1)
1.3.2 They are further north/migrating northwards (2) They are closer to the land (2) [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
1.3.3

  • On-shore winds from the South Indian high have a shorter fetch (distance to travel) hence they pick up less moisture over the ocean reducing the amount of rainfall in winter (2)
  • Interior dominated by high pressure/winter descending air (2) Warm sector of the mid-latitude cyclone (2)
  • Cool air diverging toward the country with low moisture levels (2) Inversion below the escarpment restricting moist air to reach the interior (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.3.4

  1. Eastwards (1)
    West to east (1)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
  2. Warm front occlusion (1) (1 x 1) (1)
  3. The coldest air is found in front of the cold front (2)
    Cool air behind the cold front glides over the cold air in front of it (2) (2 x 2) (4)
  4. Wind direction
    Clockwise spiralling of air (2) Backing of the wind will occur (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
    Precipitation
    Light to moderate rainfall due to Cirrus and Cirrostratus clouds (2)
    Heavy continuous rainfall due to Nimbostratus clouds (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.4
1.4.1

  • Directional arrow (1)
  • High pressure (1020 hPa) in the interior (1)
  • Coastal low at the coast (1)
    [Any ONE]  (1 x 1)  (1)

1.4.2 The Kalahari (continental) high is only dominant in winter (2) (1 x 2) (2)
1.4.3

  • Air diverges from the Kalahari high pressure to the coastal low (2)
  • Coastal low caused offshore movement of air (2) (2 x 2) (4)

1.4.4

  • High temperatures can reduce the soil moisture content (2)
  • High temperatures cause evaporation of water bodies (rivers, lakes, dams etc.) (2)
  • Fires can destroy or compromise habitats/ecosystems (2) Fires can reduce biodiversity (2)
  • Fires destroy natural vegetation increasing levels of soil erosion (2) Removal of natural vegetation can affect microclimate of the area (2) Strong, gusty winds increase soil erosion (2)
  • Windy conditions increase silt content in dams and rivers (2) Aesthetic beauty of the area is diminished (2)
    [Any FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

1.5
1.5.1

  • High amounts of air pollution due to heat-generating activities (accept examples) (1)
  • Influx of motor vehicles in the city (1)
  • Industrial activity in cities emit large amounts of air pollution (1)
  • Deforestation decrease photosynthesis and increase CO2 (1)
  • Construction activities causes dust particles (1)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 1)  (2)

1.5.2

  • It is compressed (1)
  • Well defined/dome shaped over the city (1)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

1.5.3

  • There are no convection streams to disperse the pollutants vertically (2)
  • Descending air is stronger at night (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.5.4

  • Greenhouse effect is generated by pollutants that are trapped (2)
  • Pollutants in the city forms artificial clouds and traps the terrestrial radiation causing a greenhouse effect (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2)  (2)

1.5.5

  • It is more dominant in winter due to subsiding colder air that produces inversion conditions (2)
  • Pollutants trapped over the city affects air quality that is in direct contact with people (2)
  • Less convection streams that remove pollutants into the upper atmosphere (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

1.5.6

  • Reduce carbon emissions by the use of alternate sources of energy (accept examples) (2)
  • Reduces the number of private vehicles on our roads (accept examples) (2)
  • Decentralisation of industries from the city to the surrounding countryside (2)
  • Create more parks/greenbelts in the city/plant more trees to absorb more carbon dioxide (2)
  • Green policy to be included in all legislation (2)
  • Awareness/education campaigns on green policies (2)
  • Households (accept examples) (2)
  • Roof top gardens (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

[60]

QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1 B (1)
2.1.2 F (1)
2.1.3 E (1)
2.1.4 H (1)
2.1.5 D (1)
2.1.6 G (1)
2.1.7 C (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.2
2.2.1 A (1)
2.2.2 D (1)
2.2.3 B (1)
2.2.4 C (1)
2.2.5 C (1)
2.2.6 D (1)
2.2.7 B (1)
2.2.8 A (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.3
2.3.1

  • Uplift of the land (isostatic uplift) (1)
  • Sea level drops (1)
  • Increase in volume of water (river capture) (1)
  • Higher rainfall (1)
    [Any ONE]    (1 x 1)  (1)

2.3.2 Due to the lowering of the base level the river gains energy and starts to erode vertically (2) (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.3

  1. The meander changes into an entrenched/incised meander (2) (1 x 2) (2)
  2. It will be expensive to construct a bridge at this point (2)
    It will be difficult to construct a bridge due to the instability of the rock structure (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2)   (2)

2.3.4 

  • River will now show a multi-concave profile (2)
  • River becomes ungraded (2)
    [Any ONE]  (1 x 2) (2)

2.3.5

  • It indicates the point where rejuvenation has taken place (2)
  • The point where the old erosion level meets with the new (2)
    [Any ONE]  (1 x 2) (2)

2.3.5

  • The knickpoint can retreat upstream because of headward erosion (2)
  • Waterfalls can form at the knickpoint due to the break/lowering along the course of the river (2) (2 x 2)  (4)

2.4
2.4.1 Lower (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Wider channel (2) Floodplain is indicated (2) [Any ONE]  (1 x 2) (2)
2.4.3

  • Deposits of silt accumulate on the floodplain (2)
  • This silt deposits enrich/replenish the soil and increases its fertility (2)
    (2 x 2)  (4)

2.4.4

  • It is effective in flood control as it acts as a buffer that can protect surrounding land (2)
  • Floodplains ensures soil fertility/conservation as silt is continually deposited (2)
  • It provides a habitat for ecosystems that can thrive on natural vegetation (2)
  • It works in tandem with the river to ensure biodiversity (2)
  • It contributes to the aesthetic beauty of the drainage basin (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

2.4.5

  • Heavy rainfall will destroy agricultural crops/livestock (2)
  • Run-off would wash away fertile soil (2)
  • Homes destroyed on floodplain (2)
  • Infrastructure would be damaged (2)
  • Lead to loss of lives (2)
    [Any TWO]   (2 x 2)  (4)

2.5
2.5.1 19 million (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 ‘... inoperative and dilapidated wastewater treatment plants.’ (1)  (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.3 Reduces the amount of oxygen available to plants and animals in a river (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.4

  • To protect water resources and make water use sustainable (2)
  • Manage water for irrigation in agricultural production (2)
  • Increased human activities are causing more water pollution and this must be management and prevented (2)
  • Building of dams ensure permanent water supply for human activities (2)
  • Controlling flood damage (2)
  • Making sure that water recreational activities and sport are being practiced so that water resources are not polluted or exploited (2)
  • To make water available in a responsible manner for manufacturing (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

2.5.5

  • Fines to be imposed on municipalities (2)
  • Legislation preventing raw sewage from being dumped in rivers (2)
  • Allocation of sufficient budgets to fix wastewater treatment plants (2)
  • Provision of suitably qualified technicians to attend to the maintenance of wastewater treatment plants (2)
  • Encourage recycling of sewage (2)
  • Frequent testing of water quality to monitor impurities (2)
    [Any FOUR] (4 x 2)   (8)

[60]

SECTION B: GEOGRAPHICAL SKILLS AND TECHNIQUES QUESTION 3
MAPWORK SKILLS AND CALCULATIONS
3.1
3.1.1 D (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.1.2
3.1.2 ajfgdad (4 x 1) (4)
3.2

  • VI = 1 600 m – 1 235 m               VI = 1 600 m – 1 235 m
           = 365 m (1)                                = 365 m (1)
    HE = 1,6 (1) cm x 500 m          HE = 16 (1) cm x 100 000
                                                                           500
    Range for measurement [1,59 cm to 1,61 cm]
    = 800 m (1)                   OR              = 800 m (1)
    Range for HE [795 m – 805 m]
    G =365/800 (1) (One mark for correct substitution) G =  365/800 (1) 
    = 1 : 2,19 / 1 in 2,19 / 1/2,19 (1)                     = 1 : 2,19 / 1 in 2,19 / 1/2,19
    Range for final answer [1 : 2,18 – 1 : 2,21]   (5 x 1) (5)

MAP INTERPRETATION
3.3
3.3.1 D (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.3.2 A (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.4
3.4.1 Katabatic (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2

  • There is more subsiding air during the night which pushes the inversion layer/thermal belt/pollution dome lower (2)
  • A lower inversion layer/thermal belt/pollution dome will result in a high pollution concentration (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2)  (2)

3.4.3

  • The vegetation/trees in the area/green parks (REC)/green belts (increase afforestation) (2)
  • Outskirts of Louis Trichardt – open space (2)
    [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.5
3.5.1 Southerly (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.5.2

  • Dam wall is on the southern section of the dam (2)
  • Contour lines show decrease in height in a southerly direction (2)
  • Spot heights show decrease in height in a southerly direction (2)
  • The bend of the contour lines in the river valley point to increasing height/V-shape points upstream (2)
  • The water accumulates north of the dam wall (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2)  (4)

GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
3.6
3.6.1 It is facts or figures, or  information that is stored in or used by a computer. (2) [CONCEPT] (1 x 2) (2)
3.6.2 Primary data (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.6.3 Woodland (1) (1 x 1) (1)
3.6.4

  • Deforestation has increased silt in the dam and reduced dam volumes (2)
  • The sluices will be blocked due to silting and will cause damage (2)
  • Repairing the damage to the sluices will be costly (2)
  • The blockage will increase dam levels much quicker and can cause flooding (2)
    [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

[30]
GRAND TOTAL: 150

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

  1. This question paper consists of THREE questions.
  2. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE.
  3. Where required, illustrate your answers with labelled diagrams.
  4. Leave a line between subsections of questions answered.
  5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page.
  6. Number the questions correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
  7. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK.
  8. In SECTION B you are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (2329 BB LOUIS TRICHARDT) and an orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.
  9. Show ALL calculations, marks will be allocated for these.
  10. The unit of measurement must be given in the final answer where applicable, for example 10 km, 4 °C, east.
  11. You may make use of a non-programmable calculator and a magnifying glass.
  12. The area demarcated in RED/BLACK on the topographical map represents the area covered by the orthophoto map.
  13. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: CLIMATOLOGY AND GEOMORPHOLOGY QUESTION 1
1.1 Choose a term in COLUMN B that matches a description in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example.1.1.8 I.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

1.1.1

Angle at which the sun’s rays strikes the earth

A

heat island

1.1.2

Air rises up the valley slopes during the day

B

katabatic

1.1.3

Cold air from the easterly winds meet warm air from the westerly winds

C

polar front

1.1.4

High humidity and cloudless nights promotes the formation of this form of precipitation

D

aspect

1.1.5

Forms when a trough of low pressure develops over the interior

E

frost pocket

1.1.6

This wind forms at night due to the cooling of the earth’s surface

F

radiation fog

1.1.7

May form on the valley floor if dew point temperature drops below 0 °C

G

anabatic

   

H

moisture front

(7 x 1) (7)
1.2 Refer to FIGURE 1.2 showing the formation and characteristics of a tropical cyclone. Match the descriptions below with sketches A, B and C. Write only the letter A, B or C next to question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example, 1.2.9 B.
1.2.1 Cirrus and cumulus clouds produce light rain
1.2.2 Column of low pressure develops in the centre
1.2.3 Latent heat is released from the cooling air
1.2.4 Towering cumulonimbus clouds are evident around the eye
1.2.5 Tropical cyclone reaches up to 100 km in diameter
1.2.6 Pressure in the eye drops to below 1 000 hPa
1.2.7 Water evaporates from warm tropical oceans
1.2.8 Diameter of tropical cyclone extends up to 500 km (8 x 1) (8)
1.3 FIGURE 1.3 shows a synoptic weather map of Southern Africa.
1.3.1 State the isobaric interval on the synoptic weather map. (1 x 1) (1)
1.3.2 How does the location of anticyclones A and B suggest that this synoptic weather map is depicting winter? (1 x 2) (2)
1.3.3 Account for the lack of precipitation on the eastern half of this synoptic weather map during winter. (1 x 2) (2)
1.3.4 Weather system C is a mid-latitude cyclone in the occlusion stage.

  1. In which direction is the mid-latitude cyclone moving? (1 x 1) (1)
  2. Name the type of occlusion evident on this synoptic weather map. (1 x 1) (1)
  3. Discuss the formation of this type of occlusion (answer to QUESTION 1.3.4 (b)). (2 x 2) (4)
  4. Explain why the wind direction and precipitation will change, when the occlusion reaches Cape Town in the next 48 hours. (2 x 2) (4)

1.4 FIGURE 1.4 shows the development of berg winds.
1.4.1 Give evidence from the diagram that suggests that the berg wind blows from the interior to the coast. (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.2 Why do berg winds mostly affect the coast of South Africa in winter? (1 x 2) (2)
1.4.3 Describe the role that the coastal low plays in the formation of berg winds. (2 x 2) (4)
1.4.4 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, explain the negative impact of berg winds on the environment. (4 x 2) (8)
1.5 FIGURE 1.5 shows a pollution dome.
1.5.1 Give TWO reasons why pollution domes are common in most cities. (2 x 1) (2)
1.5.2 Give evidence from the diagram that suggests that this pollution dome is occurring at night. (1 x 1) (1)
1.5.3 Suggest a reason why pollution domes are more concentrated at night. (1 x 2) (2)
1.5.4 How do pollution domes increase temperature in a city? (1 x 2) (2)
1.5.5 Explain why the negative impact of pollution domes on people are greater in winter. (2 x 2) (4)
1.5.6 Provide sustainable strategies that can reduce the occurrence of pollution domes in our cities. (2 x 2) (4)
[60]

QUESTION 2
2.1 Choose a term in COLUMN B that matches the description in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question numbers (2.1.1–2.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 2.1.8 I.

COLUMN A

COLUMN B

2.1.1

A river that is characteristic of arid areas

A

groundwater

2.1.2

Forms a gentle convex shaped slope

B

episodic

2.1.3

High levels of erosion on the outer bend of the meander

C

stream order

2.1.4

Process of a watershed lowering its position

D

misfit

2.1.5

A stream that is too small for the valley within which it flows

E

undercut

2.1.6

The water table is always high in this type of river

F

slip-off

2.1.7

Method    of    classifying   the    size    of drainage basins

G

permanent

   

H

abstraction

(7 x 1) (7)
2.2 Refer to FIGURE 2.2 showing types of drainage patterns. Match the descriptions below with sketches A, B, C and D. Write only the letter A, B, C or D next to question numbers (2.2.1 to 2.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 2.2.9 B.
2.2.1 Tributaries join at acute angles
2.2.2 Found in areas where volcanoes and domes occur
2.2.3 Main streams are parallel to each other
2.2.4 Forms on igneous rocks that have many joints
2.2.5 Main streams have 90° bends along its course
2.2.6 Rivers flow away from a central point
2.2.7 Forms in areas of alternate layers of hard rock and soft rock
2.2.8 Occurs in rocks that have a uniform resistance to erosion (8 x 1) (8)
2.3 Study FIGURE 2.3 which illustrates river rejuvenation.
2.3.1 State ONE cause of river rejuvenation. (1 x 1) (1)
2.3.2 Describe the process of river rejuvenation. (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.3 Refer to landform feature A.

  1. How does rejuvenation change the physical characteristics of feature A? (1 x 2) (2)
  2. Explain how the changed characteristics of feature A will influence the construction of a bridge at this point of the river. (1 x 2) (2)

2.3.4 Describe how rejuvenation changed the grade of the river. (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.5 What is the significance of the knickpoint on the sketch? (1 x 2) (2)
2.3.6 Explain how the knickpoint can change due to river rejuvenation. (2 x 2) (4)
2.4 FIGURE 2.4 shows a floodplain.
2.4.1 In which course of the river is the floodplain likely to have formed? (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Give evidence from FIGURE 2.4 to support your answer to QUESTION 2.4.1. (1 x 2) (2)
2.4.3 How does repeated flooding of the river contribute to increased levels of soil fertility on the floodplain? (2 x 2) (4)
2.4.4 Discuss TWO environmental benefits of a floodplain. (2 x 2) (4)
2.4.5 Explain the negative impact that heavy rainfall (flooding) can have on human activities on the floodplain. (2 x 2) (4)
2.5 FIGURE 2.5 is an extract on river management.
2.5.1 How many people depend on the Vaal River as indicated in the extract? (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.2 According to the extract, what is the cause of the untreated sewage entering the Vaal River? (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.3 What is the negative impact of untreated sewage on a river? (1 x 1) (1)
2.5.4 Discuss the importance of river management along a river catchment area. (2 x 2) (4)
2.5.5 In a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines, suggest strategies that can be implemented to protect drainage basins from untreated sewage. (4 x 2) (8)
[60]

SECTION B: GEOGRAPHICAL SKILLS AND TECHNIQUES
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographical map 2329 BB LOUIS TRICHARDT, as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area.
QUESTION 3
MAPWORK SKILLS AND CALCULATIONS
3.1 Co-ordinates for Louis Trichardt are 2329BB.
3.1.1 In the map index of 2329BB, the 29 represents …

  1. 29° south of the equator.
  2. 29° west of the Greenwich Meridian.
  3. 29° north of the equator.
  4. 29° east of the Greenwich Meridian. (1 x 1) (1)

3.1.2 Redraw the grid below in your ANSWER BOOK and indicate the following on the grid:

  1. The map index position of Louis Trichardt (shade the area) (1 + 1) (2)
  2. The co-ordinates for the map (1 + 1) (2)
    3.1.2 uiughduiyad

3.2 Refer to blocks E4 and G4 on the topographical map.
Calculate the average gradient between trigonometrical beacon 96 (block E4) and spot height 932 (block G4). Show ALL calculations. Marks
will be awarded for calculations. (5 x 1) (5)

MAP INTERPRETATION
3.3 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (3.3.1 to 3.3.2) in your ANSWER BOOK, for example 3.3.3 C.
3.3.1 The slope between 2 and 3 on the orthophoto map is a … slope.

  1. convex
  2. terrace
  3. gentle
  4. concave (1)

3.3.2 The area at 5 on the orthophoto map has a lower temperature than area 4 on the orthophoto map due to the …

  1. aspect of slope.
  2. artificial surfaces.
  3. thermal belt.
  4. river’s influence. (1)

3.4 Refer to the suburb Tshikota, situated in block F5 on the valley floor, on the topographical map.
3.4.1 Is the local wind responsible for the cool conditions experienced in Tshikota at night-time, an anabatic or katabatic wind? (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2 Why does this local wind, named in QUESTION 3.4.1, result in a high concentration of pollution in Tshikota at night? (1 x 2) (2)
3.4.3 With specific reference to the topographical map, what has helped the Tshikota local government (municipality) to reduce the high concentration of pollution in the area? (1 x 2) (2)
3.5 Refer to the non-perennial river 7 in block A3 on the orthophoto map.
3.5.1 In which direction does this non-perennial river, at 7, flow? (1 x 1) (1)
3.5.2 Explain TWO reasons for your answer to QUESTION 3.5.1 by providing both orthophoto and topographical map evidence. (2 x 2) (4)

GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
3.6 Louis Trichardt is in the Soutpansberg area where geologists are conducting research and collecting data regarding the impact of deforestation on an on- going basis.
3.6.1 Define the term data in GIS. (1 x 2) (2)
3.6.2 Is the data that is collected by geologists considered to be primary or secondary data? (1 x 1) (1)
3.6.3 Provide the topographic map data layer that will inform geologists regarding deforestation. (1 x 1) (1)
3.6.4 Refer to the dam at 8 on the orthophoto map. What information can geologists gather from this layer, regarding the influence of deforestation on the dam. (2 x 2) (4)

[30]
GRAND TOTAL: 150

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER

In assessing a candidate’s work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the assessment rubric, must be borne in mind:

  • The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on the final text produced.
  • Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B
  • Grammar, spelling and punctuation.
  • Language structures, including an awareness of critical language.
  • Choice of words and idiomatic language.
  • Sentence construction.
  • Paragraphing.
  • Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the introduction, development of ideas and the conclusion.

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING

SECTION A: ESSAY

Refer to SECTION A: Rubric for Assessing an Essay found on page 8–9 of these marking guidelines.

CRITERIA USED FOR ASSESSMENT

CRITERIA

MARKS

CONTENT AND PLANNING (60%)

30

LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING (30%)

15

STRUCTURE (10%)

5

TOTAL

50

  1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND PLANNING.
  2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING.
  3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE.

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS

Refer to SECTION B: Rubric for Assessing Transactional Texts found on page 10 of these marking guidelines.

CRITERIA USED FOR ASSESSMENT

CRITERIA

MARKS

CONTENT, PLANNING AND FORMAT (60%)

15

LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING (40%)

10

TOTAL

25

  1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING AND FORMAT.
  2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING.

NOTE:

  • Various formats of transactional/referential/informational texts have been taught/are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the format.
  • Give credit for appropriateness of format.
  • Look for a logical approach in all writing.

MEMORANDUM

NOTE:

  • The points given below each topic in these marking guidelines serve only as a guide to markers.
  •  Allowance must be made for a candidate’s own interpretation of the topic, even if it differs from the given points or a marker’s own views or interpretations.

SECTION A: ESSAY

QUESTION 1

Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive, reflective, discursive, argumentative, or any combination of these.

1.1

‘Every word has consequences. Every silence, too.’       [Jean-Paul Sartre]

 
 
  • Reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive/narrative.
  • Candidates could reflect on the responsibility to voice concerns or opinions.
  • Focus on the impact or repercussions of remaining speechless/silent.

[5o]

1.2

Adidas, Billabong, Levis: stylish – yes, but are we supporting child labour and sweatshops in Indonesia, Mexico and other Third World countries?

 
 
  • Argumentative/discursive could lend itself to narrative/reflective/descriptive.
  • Candidates should demonstrate an understanding of what a sweatshop is, the implications of child labour, the exploitation and poor working conditions and infringement on human rights/labour laws that should govern and protect.
  • Could focus on the blissfully ignorant of where our brand-name clothes come from or are made.
  • Unfair trade and labour practices of big corporates.

[50]

1.3

‘Here’s to the kids who are different ...’                                           [Digby Wolfe]

 
 
  • Narrative/argumentative/discursive/reflective/descriptive.
  • Candidates may focus on one element of the poem which depicts how they are unique or different.
  • Poem is positively highlighting that difference should be embraced and worn as a badge of honour – that ‘different’ people can be happy and successful too despite their not fitting in with the norm and conforming.
 
   

[50]

1.4

‘A good companion shortens the longest road.’                 [Turkish proverb]

 
 
  • Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive.
  • May agree or disagree with statement.
  • Candidates may reference literal or metaphoric road in a journey or struggle that they have overcome owing to support of a friend/companion/family member/mentor.

[50]

1.5

‘If you want to leave a footprint, don’t drag your feet.’              [Abdul Kalam]

 
 
  • Narrative/reflective/argumentative/discursive.
  • Candidate’s response should allude to: Grab opportunities when they present themselves.
  • Being proactive, making one’s mark on the world.

[50]

1.6

1.6.1

Love sculpture

 
   
  • Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive.
  • Image depicts adults in an argument/turning away from each other but the inner child reaching out to the other for support and comfort.
  • Could present the inner part of us/our spirit/soul trying to make a connection particularly when feeling isolated or alienated.

[50]

 

1.6.2

Child with toy gun

 
   
  • Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive.
  • Focus could be on gun-control, children who are exposed to violent toys/violent play.
  • Could focus on inciting violence from a young age or even being desensitised to violence from young as it is so prevalent.

[50]

 

1.6.3

Apple

 
   
  • Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive.
  • The appearance of perfection. Could allude to use of social media and the ‘perfect’ life being on display for others to see whilst hiding or ignoring the truth of reality.

[50]

   

TOTAL SECTION A:

50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS

QUESTION 2

Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of each response should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register, style and tone must be appropriate to the context.

2.1

DIALOGUE

 
 
  • Correct dialogue format should be used.
  • The ‘fake’ news or gossip should be evident in the conversation, where one believes it to be true, the other speaker should highlight its deceit.
 
   

[25]

2.2

MAGAZINE ARTICLE

 
 
  • ·Response should follow format conventions: headline, byline, (optional), date and author.
  • Target audience – should be addressed to parents.
  • Formal register, tone and diction appropriate to suit target audience.
  • Advice and suggestions could be offered.
  • Focus should be on why parents need to perform a strong parental role – what is a good parent, why children need parental figures to guide them.

[25]

2.3

REVIEW

 
 
  • Candidate should focus on a book that delivers a strong message of inspiration. Should be persuasive and meaningful in content, this should be alluded to in the reviewing of it.
  • Conventions of book review writing should be evident: Title and author of book, outline of plot without giving away too much, rating etcetera.

[25]

2.4

FORMAL LETTER

  • Candidate’s focus should be on requesting permission to tackle a dilapidated facility. Explanation of work to be done should be explored as well as the reasoning for it.
  • Formal letter format to be followed – formal register, tone and style.
 
 

[25]

2.5

CURRICULUM VITEA AND COVERING LETTER

 
 
  • Letter: correct, formal letter.
  • Formal in register, tone, purpose. Must include writer’s and recipient’s addresses, formal greeting, state purpose of letter and formal salutation.
  • Should state purpose for which candidate is writing – to show interest in applying for gap year work as a Camp Counsellor – as a responsible hard- worker.
  • CV: contain details of personal information such as contact details, schooling and qualifications, hobbies and interests, special skills (relevant to do job) and references.

[25]

2.6

INFORMAL SPEECH

 
 
  • Informal speech should follow a logical structure, beginning with greeting of the audience as acknowledgement.
  • Tattooing to be focal point of discussion.
  • Candidate should focus on the negatives of acquiring a tattoo – repercussions and permanence of the choice made. Regret of such a choice later in life.

[25]

 

TOTAL SECTION B:

50

 

GRAND TOTAL:

100

SECTION A: ASSESSEMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS]
NOTE:

  • Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A).
  • Marks from 0–50 have been divided into FIVE major level
  • In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper-level and a lower-level subcategory with the applicable mark range and
  • Structure is not affected by the upper-level and lower-level

Criteria

 

Exceptional

Skilful

Moderate

Elementary

Inadequate

CONTENT AND PLANNING

(Response and ideas) Organisation of ideas for planning Awareness of purpose, audience and context

30 MARKS

Upper level

28–30

22–24

16–18

10–12

4–6

  • Outstanding/Striking response beyond normal expectations.
  • Intelligent, thought-provoking and mature ideas
  • Exceptionally well organised and coherent (connected) including introduction, body and conclusion/ending.
  • Very well-crafted response.
  • Fully relevant and interesting.
  • Ideas with evidence of maturity
  • Very well organised and coherent (connected) including introduction, body and conclusion/ending.
  • Satisfactory response
  • Ideas are reasonably coherent and convincing.
  • Reasonably organised and coherent including introduction, body and conclusion/ending.
  • Inconsistently coherent response
  • Unclear ideas and unoriginal
  • Little evidence of organisation and coherence.
  • Totally irrelevant response
  • Confused and unfocused ideas
  • Vague and repetitive
  • Unorganised and incoherent

Lower level

25–27

19–21

13–15

7–9

0–3

  • Excellent response but lacks the exceptionally striking qualities of the outstanding essay
  • Mature and intelligent ideas
  • Skilfully organised and coherent (connected) including introduction, body and conclusion/ending.
  • Well-crafted response.
  • Relevant and interesting ideas.
  • Well organised and coherent (connected) including introduction, body and conclusion.
  • Satisfactory response but some lapses in clarity.
  • Ideas are fairly coherent and convincing.
  • Some degree of organisation and coherence including introduction, body and conclusion.
  • Largely irrelevant response.
  • Ideas tend to be disconnected and confusing.
  • Hardly any evidence of organisation and coherence.
  •  No attempt to respond to the topic.
  • Completely irrelevant and inappropriate.
  • Unfocused and muddled.

LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING

Tone, register, style, vocabulary appropriate to purpose/effect and context

Word choice Language use and conventions, punctuation, grammar, spelling

15 MARKS

Upper level

14–15

11–12

8–9

5–6

0–3

  • Tone, register, style, vocabulary highly appropriate to purpose, audience and context
  • Language confident, exceptionally impressive – compelling and rhetorically effective in tone.
  • Virtually error-free in grammar and spelling.
  • Highly skilfully crafted.
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary very appropriate to purpose, audience and context.
  • Language is effective and a consistently appropriate tone is used.
  • Largely error-free in grammar and spelling.
  • Very well crafted.
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary appropriate to purpose, audience and context.
  •  Appropriate use of language to convey meaning.
  • Tone is appropriate.
  • Rhetorical devices used to enhance content.
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary less appropriate to purpose, audience and context.
  • Very basic use of language.
  • Diction is inappropriate.
  • Very limited vocabulary.
  • Language incomprehensible
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary not appropriate to purpose, audience and context.
  • Vocabulary limitations so extreme as to make comprehension impossible.

Lower level

13

10

7

4

  • Language excellent and rhetorically effective in tone.

-   Virtually error-free in grammar and spelling.

-   Skilfully crafted.

  • Language engaging and generally effective

-   Appropriate and effective tone.

-   Few errors in grammar and spelling.

-   Well-crafted

  • Adequate use of language with some inconsistencies.

-   Tone generally appropriate and limited use of rhetorical devices.

  • Inadequate use of language.

-   Little or no variety in sentence.

-   Exceptionally limited vocabulary.

STRUCTURE

Features of text Paragraph development and sentence construction

5 MARKS

 

5

4

3

2

0–1

  • Excellent development of topic
  • Exceptional detail
  • Sentences, paragraphs exceptionally well-constructed
  • Logical development of details.
  • Coherent
  • Sentences, paragraphs logical, varied.
  • Relevant details developed.
  • Sentences, paragraphs well- constructed.
  • Essay still makes sense.
  • Some valid points
  • Sentences and paragraphs faulty
  • Essay still makes sense despite flaws.
  • Necessary points lacking.
  • Sentences and paragraphs faulty.

MARKS RANGE

 

40–50

30–39

20–29

10–19

0–9

SECTION B: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – HOME LANGUAGE [25 MARKS] 

Criteria

Exceptional

Skilful

Moderate

Elementary

Inadequate

CONTENT PLANNING AND FORMAT

Response and ideas, Organisation of ideas for planning Purpose, audience and features/ conventions and context

15 MARKS

13–15

10–12

7–9

4–6

0–3

  • Outstanding response beyond normal expectations
  • Intelligent and mature ideas
  • Extensive knowledge of features of the type of text
  • Writing maintains focus
  • Coherence in content and ideas.
  • Highly elaborated and all details support the topic
  • Appropriate and accurate format.
  • Very good response demonstrating good knowledge of features of the type of text.
  • Maintains focus – no digressions.
  • Coherent in content and ideas, very well elaborated and details support topic.
  • Appropriate format with minor inaccuracies.
  • Adequate response demonstrating knowledge of features of the type of text.
  • Not completely focused – some digressions.
  • Reasonably coherent in content and ideas
  • Some details support the topic
  • Generally appropriate format but with some inaccuracies.
  • Basic response demonstrating some knowledge of features of the type of text.
  • Some focus but writing digresses.
  • Not always coherent in content and ideas.
  • Few details support the topic.
  • Has vaguely applied necessary rules of format
  • Some critical oversights.
  • Response reveals no knowledge of features of the type of text
  • Meaning is obscured with major digressions.
  • Not coherent in content and ideas. Very few details support the topic.
  • Has not applied necessary rules of format.

LANGUAGE, STYLE AND EDITING

Tone, register, style, purpose/ effect, audience and context Language use and conventions.

Word choice, Punctuation, spelling

10 MARKS

9–10

7–8

5–6

3–4

0–2

  • Tone, register, style, vocabulary highly appropriate to purpose, audience and context
  • Grammatically accurate and well-constructed
  • Virtually error-free.
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary very appropriate to purpose, audience and context
  • Generally grammatically accurate and well-constructed
  • Very good vocabulary
  • Mostly free of errors
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary appropriate to purpose, audience and context.
  • Some grammatical errors
  • Adequate vocabulary
  • Errors do not impede meaning
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary less appropriate to purpose, audience and context
  • Inaccurate grammar with numerous errors
  • Limited vocabulary
  • Meaning is obscured.
  • Tone, register, style and vocabulary do not correspond to purpose, audience and context.
  • Error-ridden and confused
  • Vocabulary not suitable for purpose.
  • Meaning seriously obscured.

MARKS RANGE

20–25

15–19

10–14

5–9

0–4

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

  1. This question paper consists of TWO sections:
    SECTION A: Essay (50)
    SECTION B: Transactional texts (2 x 25) (50)
  2. Answer ONE question from SECTION A and TWO questions from SECTION B.
  3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed.
  4. Start EACH section on a NEW page.
  5. You must plan (e.g. use a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words, etc.), edit and proofread your work. The planning must appear BEFORE the answer.
  6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line across all planning.
  7. You are strongly advised to spend approximately:
    • 100 minutes on SECTION A
    • 80 minutes on SECTION B (2 x 40 minutes)
  8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
  9. Give each response a suitable title/heading, as indicated by the question.
    NOTE: The title/heading must NOT be considered when doing a word count.
  10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1

  • Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics.
  • Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay.

1.1 ‘Every word has consequences. Every silence, too.’
[Jean-Paul Sartre] [50]
1.2 Adidas, Billabong, Levis: stylish – yes, but are we supporting child labour and sweatshops in Indonesia, Mexico and other Third World countries? [50]
1.3

Here’s to kids who are different
Kids who don’t always get As
Kids who have ears
Twice the size of their peers.

Here’s to the kids who are different,
Kids they call crazy or dumb,
Who dance to a different drum.

Here’s to the kids who are different,
Kids with a mischievous streak.
For when they have grown,
As history has shown,
It’s their difference that makes them unique.’

(edited)
[Digby Wolfe]          [50]
1.4 ‘A good companion shortens the longest road.’ [Turkish proverb] [50]
1.5 If you want to leave a footprint, don’t drag your feet. [Abdul Kalam] [50]
1.6 The pictures reproduced below and on page 5 may evoke some reaction or feeling in you, or stir your imagination.

  • Select ONE picture and write an essay in response.
  • Provide your essay with a suitable title.
  • Write the correct topic number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3).

NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you have chosen.
1.6.1 
1.6.1 aihdiua
‘Love’: sculpture by Alexandr Milov, 2015 Burning Man Festival
[Source: https://www.widewalls.ch/magazine/10-burning-man-festival-art-installations]   [50]
1.6.2
1.6.2 ahgdiuad
[Source: www.bloomberg.com]   [50]
1.6.3
1.6.3 ahuduihad
[Source: www.pinterest.com]  [50]
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS
QUESTION 2

  • Respond to TWO of the following topics.
  • The body of EACH answer should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length.
  • Pay careful attention to the following:
    • Content and planning
    • Audience, register, tone and style
    • Choice of words and language structure
    • Format, structure and editing
  • Write down the NUMBER and the TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen, for example 2.1 Dialogue

2.1 DIALOGUE

Write the dialogue you have with a friend in which you debunk some gossip or fake news that he/she believes whole-heartedly and is spreading.
It must be clear in the conversation what the piece of information/fake news or gossip is.

21 ajgda

[Source: dictionary.com]

[25]
2.2  MAGAZINE ARTICLE
Write a feature article suitable for a national or digital magazine publication titled, ‘Why we can’t be friends with our kids’. [25]
2.3 REVIEW
Write a book review on a book that you feel has greatly changed your attitude about something you find meaningful. Your review should evaluate why it is a source of inspiration.
2.4 FORMAL LETTER
Write a formal letter to your ward councillor in which you request permission for you and a group of friends to go and clean up a municipal area / beach / bus or train station that is littered and showing neglect. [25]
2.5 CURRICULUM VITAE AND COVERING LETTER
2.5 auhdiua
As you are unsure of your field of study post-matric, you have decided to take a gap-year and work as a camp counsellor in the United States instead.
Write a covering letter and your curriculum vitae to apply for this opportunity. Your covering letter should use the address: 901 E Street, Suite 300, San Rafael, CA 94901, USA, to reach the recipient.   [25]
2.6 INFORMAL SPEECH

‘Inking’ oneself is not a new form of self-expression. Dating back to early 3100BC, tattooing is an ancient art-form.

2.6 aiuhiuda

[Source: odditymall.com]

Mostly irreversible, tattoos often leave the ‘inked’ with regrets of their choices later in life.
Write an informal speech that you would deliver to a group of school learners in which you discourage them from getting tattoos.

[25]

TOTAL SECTION B: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 100

NOTE TO MARKERS

  • These marking guidelines are intended as a guide for markers.
  • Candidates’ responses must be considered on their merits.

MARKING GUIDELINES

  • Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of questions, mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may not answer the essay and the contextual question on the same genre.)
  • In SECTION A, if a candidate has answered all four questions on seen poems, mark only the first two.
  • In SECTIONS B and C, if a candidate has answered two contextual or two essay questions, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has answered all four questions, mark only the first answer in each section, provided that one contextual and one essay has been answered.
  • If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next one is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next.
  • If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guideline.
  • If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the meaning, mark correct.
  • Essay question: If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not penalise because the candidate has already penalised him/herself. If the essay is too long, consider and assess a maximum of 50 words beyond the required word count and ignore the rest of the essay.
  • Contextual questions: If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not penalise.
  • Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically. Part marks should be awarded in proportion to the fullness of the response to each question.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: POETRY

PRESCRIBED POETRY

QUESTION 1: ESSAY QUESTION

‘FELIX RANDAL’ – Gerard Manley Hopkins

  • Use the following, among other points, as a guide to marking this question.
  • Responses might differ, depending on the candidate’s sensitivity to and understanding of the poem.
  • Refer to page 32 for the rubric to assess this question.

In ‘Felix Randal’ the speaker’s relationship with the dying man develops significantly.

By close reference to structure, tone and diction discuss to what extent you agree with the above statement.

Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words (about ONE page).

The spiritual guidance given to the dying man lays the foundation for a more substantial relationship to develop between the priest and the man he is counselling.

STRUCTURE

  • The Italian sonnet format helps to structure the reader’s understanding of the developing relationship.
  • The octave focuses on describing the background and the illness of Felix Randal. The speaker seems unaffected and his response to the death of Felix Randal is generated from his sense of duty (spiritual counselling).
  • The sestet reveals the emotional state of the speaker as his sense of loss and sorrow is shown. This is indicative of the bond that has formed between the two men during their time together. The personal account given in the sestet shows how their relationship has moved beyond that of professional duty.

TONE

  • There is a clear shift (Volta) in the sonnet’s tone that is reinforced by the sonnet’s structure.
  • The tone in the octave (lines 1–8) is matter-of-fact/detached as the speaker describes the deceased in terms of his occupation and fatal illness.
  • The tone, however, shifts in the sestet (lines 9–14) when the speaker recounts how his own feelings were transformed through the counselling of Felix Randal.
  • The tone becomes endearing in sincerely relating the affectionate bond/his sympathy as he fondly shares the memory of the man.

DICTION

  • In the octave words like ‘my duty’/ ‘anointed’/ ‘reprieve and ransom’/ ‘heavenlier Heart’/ ‘Tendered to’ indicate the duty/function of the speaker during Felix Randal’s illness.
  • In the sestet softer/warmer/sincere diction indicates how the relationship has grown into a close relationship. ‘endears’ / ‘comfort’/ ‘quenched thy tears’/ ‘touched my heart’.

The change from the initial pronouns ‘his’/ ‘him’/ ‘he’ to a more personal and direct ‘thy’ and ‘poor Felix’ also indicates the close friendship that has been forged.
[Credit valid alternative responses.]

[10]

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

‘THE ZULU GIRL’ – Roy Campbell

2.1

What does the word ‘flings’ (line 3) convey about the girl’s attitude?

  • Forcefully throwing/hurling/tossing down her implement reveals a rebellious/defiant attitude.
 
 

[Award 2 marks only if there is a reference to both attitude and the word, ‘flings’.]

(2)

2.2

Discuss the appropriateness of the image in lines 5–6: ‘She takes him … thorn-trees’ in the context of the poem.

  • The metaphor compares the shadow of the tree to a water image. It is appropriate in relating the cool relief that the shadow brings after arduously working in the extreme heat.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if the image is well discussed.]

(3)

2.3

What mood is created in lines 11–12? Substantiate your response by referring directly to the diction used.

  • A calm/peaceful/tranquil mood is created as the mother relaxes and nourishes her child. The word choice ‘deep languor’ / ‘sighing’ / ‘ripple’ contributes to this mood.
 
 

[Award 2 marks only if the mood is substantiated.]

(2)

2.4

Critically comment on how the imagery used to describe the mother in stanza 5 could be viewed as contradictory.

  • The mother’s body is firstly compared to ‘a hill’ that shields a village against the elements. The imagery creates a protective/nurturing description of the mother.
  • The menacing/threatening imagery of the mother being compared to the ‘first cloud’ of a violent storm suggests her part in a pending violent struggle against oppression.
  • Therefore, the mother could be perceived as a nurturer or alternatively an aggressive force.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if contrasting imagery is discussed.]

(3)

   

[10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

‘THE GARDEN OF LOVE’ – William Blake

3.1

What impression of the speaker’s youth is created in line 4?

  • The speaker’s youth was a time of joy/imagination/freedom/innocence. The line suggests the unrestricted/unlimited exuberance of childhood pleasure.
 
 

[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.]

(2)

3.2

Consider lines 7–10. Comment on the effectiveness of the contrasting symbols within the context of the poem.

  • The symbolism of flowers: It strongly links to the natural world and its beauty. The symbolism of graves/tombstones: It represents death and the church’s fixation on the afterlife/judgement.
  • The contrasting symbols thus indicates the church’s rejection of natural beauty/joyfulness.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if a contrast is shown.]

(3)

3.3

What does the repetition of ‘And’ reveal about the speaker’s response to the changes in the garden?

  • The speaker is listing his sudden discovery of the many unpleasant changes in his once beloved garden. He is overwhelmed and devastated.
    [Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.]
 
 

(2)

3.4

Critically comment on how the description of the Chapel in lines 5 and 6 reveals the speaker’s attitude to organised religion?

  • ‘gates ... were shut’ – describes the chapel as a restricted /limited place where access cannot be gained freely.
  • ‘Thou shalt not’ inscribed above the door is a biblical allusion to the rigid and restrictive Old Testament commandments. This suggests that the chapel is an inflexible and judgmental place.
  • The description reflects the speaker’s attitude to organised religion as a controlling/restrictive and judgemental institution that confines and shames.
    [Award 3 marks only if attitude is linked to description.]
 
 

(3)

   

[10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

‘MOTHO KE MOTHO KA BATHO BABANG (A Person is a Person Because of Other People)’ – Jeremy Cronin

4.1

How does the repetition of ‘in the mirror’ in line 5 and 6 emphasise the speaker’s situation?

  • The speaker is a political prisoner who is punished by being placed in isolation. He is devoid of any contact with others. His only means of contact is the mirror, which he uses to see and communicate with a fellow prisoner.
 

[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.]

(2)

4.2

Discuss how the use of brackets draws the reader into the narrative of the speaker.

  • The use of brackets serves to provide a translation that includes the reader in the secret conversation taking place between the two prisoners. In the latter part of the poem the brackets no longer feature which suggests that the reader now understands the secret language of the prisoners. As the brackets include the reader, it also serves to exclude the warder. This allies the reader with the secret communication established between the prisoners.
 

[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.]

(3)

4.3

Refer to line 24. Explain the irony of the speaker’s reference to the prisoner’s hand as ‘the talkative one’.

  • A hand cannot talk but the prisoner uses his hand to create hand gestures and signals that communicate a message/enables a conversation.
 

[Award 2 marks only if irony is shown.]

(2)

4.4

Critically comment on how lines 26–28 link to the title of the poem.

  • The title links to the Ubuntu philosophy, which states that we can only truly live a human life if we are connected/interacting with others.
  • In lines 26–28 the final message conveyed by the prisoner, ‘strength brother’, is communicated by a ‘black fist’ which is symbolic of solidarity/unity.
  • This message relates to the title as it draws on the bond of humanity/Ubuntu through the show of support/encouragement.
 

[Award 3 marks only if a link between the lines and the title is discussed.]

(3)

   

[10]

UNSEEN POETRY (COMPULSORY)

QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

‘A WINTER SOLSTICE PRAYER’ – Edward Hays

5.1

What does the personification in line 1 suggest about the dark shadow?

  • The shadow is shown as a person looming over mankind. It suggests that the shadow is a greater force/intimidating/threatening.
 
 

[Award 2 marks only if the comparison is shown.]

(2)

5.2

Comment on the impact of the metaphor in lines 2–3.

  • Human evils are compared to a lengthening shadow. The lengthening shadow suggests that the evil behaviour of humankind is increasing/will spread/span its influence over the Earth. This establishes how vulnerable Earth can be to this potential threat.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if the comparison and impact are discussed.]

(3)

5.3

Refer to lines 4–6. How do the fears of the ancestors offer a contrast to the fears of the modern world?

  • Ancestors feared the physical effects of winter. As a cold season it is destructive/harsh/merciless.
  • The modern world fears the nature of humanity which is destructive and lacking in any compassion.
 
 

[Award 2 marks only if a contrast is shown.]

(2)

5.4

Discuss the change in the mood from stanza 2 to stanza 4 by closely referring to the diction used.

  • Stanza 2: The mood is fearful/intimidating/ominous.
    ‘the darkness of greed, exploitation, and hatred’/ ‘lengthens its shadow’/ ‘feared death and evil’/ ‘the dark powers of winter’/ ‘darkness of war, discrimination, and selfishness’/ ‘doom us’/ ‘an eternal winter’.
  • Stanza 4: The mood is hopeful/optimistic.
    ‘the light and the love’/ ‘the spark of luminous goodness’/ ‘prayers of love’/ ‘in no heart is there total darkness’/ ‘love … hidden in every heart’.Therefore, there is a shift from a fatalistic mood to an inviting/positive one.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if a contrast in mood is shown and supported.]

(3)

   

[10]

 

TOTAL SECTION A:

30

SECTION B: NOVEL

 

THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde

 

QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION

 

Dorian Gray is drawn to Lord Henry’s philosophies. This is what ruins Dorian. Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement. Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).

 
  • Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
  • A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
  • Refer to page 33 for the rubric to assess this question.
 
  • Initially, the young Dorian is presented as an innocent and naïve man.
  • The painter, Basil Hallward, is aware of the toxic influence Lord Henry may have over Dorian and tries to keep them apart.
  • When they eventually meet, Lord Henry imagines fashioning the impressionable Dorian into an unremitting pleasure-seeker.
  • It is clear from the outset that Dorian is intrigued by Lord Henry’s ‘wrong, fascinating, poisonous and delightful theories’.
  • Lord Henry encourages Dorian to lead a life of sensual pleasures and convinces him of the transient nature of youth and beauty.
  • Dorian becomes obsessed with retaining his youthful appearance and longs to be as youthful and lovely as the masterpiece that Basil had painted of him.
  • In these vulnerable moments, Dorian provides Lord Henry with the perfect disciple that he can mould with his flawed philosophical theories. Lord Henry views him as a social experiment; he deliberately wants to play upon him like a ‘violin’ and declares that ‘There was nothing that one could not do with him. He knows the potential his influence holds and he says himself, ‘There is no such thing as a good influence, Mr Gray’.
  • Lord Henry believes that one should yield to temptation and not deny oneself any desires, regardless of the moral implications. He awakens in Dorian the impulse to seek pleasure, indulge in vice and yield to temptation.
  • The poisonous yellow book that Lord Henry gives to him is used as a template for his own life. Dorian is happy to be Lord Henry’s protégé and asserts that ‘No one has ever understood me as you have’.
  • However, despite Lord Henry’s poisonous theories, he is more talk than action and does not indulge in it himself. Even though he claims that Dorian Gray ‘was his own creation’ it is Dorian that makes the decisive wish that changes his life. He makes the choice to live a life of excessive self-indulgence.
  • Dorian is convinced and even delights in the fact that he can escape from the consequences of his immoral life because the portrait will absorb and absolve him of all sin.
  • Lord Henry does have a significant influence over Dorian but he does make his own choices. Dorian admits, ‘I have done too many terrible things in my life.’ And much of his immoral behaviour happens when he is not in the company of Lord Henry. Lord Henry becomes increasingly unaware of the true nature of the monster he has helped to create.
  • Dorian consistently refuses to take responsibility for his cruel and murderous actions.
  • Dorian has opportunities to repent but he refuses to renounce his depraved lifestyle.
  • It could be argued that it is Basil that feeds Dorian’s vanity. He believes that Dorian has inspired his art. The language Basil uses when talking to Dorian is often that of intense infatuation and worship. He idolises Dorian but he has always expressed a concern for Dorian’s well-being. Basil has the best intentions for Dorian but when he murders the one person who genuinely cared for him, it is clear that Dorian has reached a point of no return.
 
[Consider other valid alternative/mixed responses.] [25]
OR  

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

7.1

What impression of Lord Henry is created in this extract?

  • Lord Henry views Dorian’s tragic circumstances as romantic. He attempts to distort the ugly realities of life by viewing it through the lens of art. He recognises the vulnerability in Dorian and instead of being sympathetic, he sees it as an opportunity to manipulate him and fashion Dorian into the creation of an ideal human being. He is manipulative, self-indulgent and egotistical.

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.]

 
 

(3)

7.2

Refer to line 1–4: To what extent do the details of Dorian’s heritage reflect his own romantic experience with Sibyl Vane later in the novel?

  • Dorian’s brief romance with Sibyl Vane could also be considered a brief and ‘mad passion’ that ends in tragedy. Sibyl, too, is not of Dorian’s class and it would appear to be inevitable that the romance would be fleeting/doomed. Both Sibyl and Dorian’s father die tragically. The romance/relationship of both is short-lived and has devastating consequences.

[Award 3 marks if a comparison is shown.]

 
 

(3)

7.3

Refer to line 7: ‘It posed the lad, made him more perfect as it were’. Critically evaluate how this declaration contributes to the central theme of Art and Life in the novel.

  • Lord Henry’s assertion is an echo of the image in Basil’s portrait. In the same way that Basil creates what he views as his masterpiece, Lord Henry prepares to shape Dorian’s life. Beneath Dorian’s mask of goodness and purity is a furtive dark reality of crime and sin which the portrait ultimately absorbs. The pose Dorian assumes in his life hides the grim reality of his depraved soul.

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

 
 

(3)

7.4

Critically discuss the ironic foreshadowing evident in lines 24–25: ‘What a pity it was that such beauty was destined to fade! ... ’.

  • Dorian’s external beauty never fades. It is the portrait that becomes tainted and grotesque as it absorbs all his debauchery/sin.

[Award full marks only if irony is shown.]

 
 

(3)

7.5

Refer to lines 6–7: ‘I want to be better. I am going to be better’. Using the incident with Hetty as a starting point, comment on whether Dorian is sincere in changing his behaviour.

  • Dorian’s is not sincere but self-indulgent. His ‘good action’ is motivated by egotism and the hope of redemption. He uses Hetty as a scapegoat for his conscience. Even as he resolves to ‘be better’ he casually dismisses Lord Henry’s references to rumours of Alan Campbell and Basil who are victims of his ruthlessness. The portrait reflects his cunning/hypocrisy and lack of sincerity. He is not prepared to suffer the shame of a public confession for his evil and murderous acts.

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

 
 

(3)

7.6

Lord Henry is very flippant about the attitudes of the British public (lines 12–16). However, it contributes to the darkening mood of the novel. Critically comment on how it is achieved in this extract.

  • The ending of Dorian’s affair with Hetty and Lord Henry’s own divorce shows the disintegration of relationships as the novel draws to a fatal close. The violent deaths of Alan Campbell and Basil Hallward serve as a precursor to Dorian’s own violent and tragic end. Lord Henry’s flippant attitude conceals the ominous mood leading to Dorian’s final attempt to break free from his tortured soul. This ultimately leads to his death.

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

 
 

(3)

7.7

Account for Dorian’s ‘calm’ response to the discussion of Basil’s disappearance (lines 23–25).

  • Dorian assumes no accountability for his degenerate/perverted actions. His soul has become so corrupt that he has lost all sense of morality. His lack of sensitivity and conscience is evidence of how truly depraved he has become. He has become a spectator of his own life and seems to delight in the fact that he is able to escape punishment.

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

 
 

(3)

7.8

Refer to both Extracts A and B. Critically discuss the extent to which the hypocrisy of Victorian society is exposed.

  • The strongest criticism is through the symbolic Gothic device of the beautiful Dorian Gray and the loathsome decaying portrait that is hidden. This shows that private ‘carnal pleasures’ and sins are hidden beneath an acceptable public veneer. Superficial beauty is celebrated at all cost. This is further shown in Extract B where the British public is exposed as fickle and capricious. The indolent Aristocratic lifestyles show a heartless disregard for human tragedy.

[Accept valid alternative/mixed responses.]

 
 

(4)

   

[25]

 

OR

 

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel

QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION

In Life of Pi, the will to survive manifests itself differently in both stories.

Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.

Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).

  • Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
  • A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
  • Refer to page 33 for the rubric to assess this question.

PI

  • His will to survive manifests itself in the emergence of the alter ego, Richard Parker, in the factual story. The alter ego’s violence/aggression is the part of Pi’s own soul that will do anything to survive.
  • After the horrific death of his mother, Gita, at the hands of the French cook, the alter ego emerges. Pi’s will to survive shows itself when he kills the French cook.
  • He also kills and eats various fish and turtles. He admits to cannibalism after he killed the French cook. The challenge to survive fundamentally changes Pi as he gives up his lifelong pacifism and vegetarianism. This shows how Pi is willing to adapt to survive.
  • The will to survive also brings out Pi’s resourceful and practical skills, which, along with his religion, keep him grounded in his humanity. Even though Pi’s humanity does descend into savagery during his time at sea, he is able to hold onto it due to his unwavering religious devotion and the consciousness to preserve himself by training the alter ego. In doing so, Pi is able to control his fierce will to survive.

RICHARD PARKER/ THE TIGER

  • The tiger, initially out of sight, becomes an integral part of the animal story/‘better story’. After killing the hyena, the tiger becomes Pi’s only companion on the lifeboat. As a wild animal killing/violence comes naturally to the tiger, but it is in his submission to Pi, through training, that he shows his own will to survive. Once food is scarce, the tiger becomes reliant on Pi for food. Again, it is shown that the will to survive can change a character fundamentally in its resolve to survive.

GITA PATEL/ ORANGE JUICE

  • Naturally caring, gentle, nurturing and protective, both Gita Patel and Orange Juice are unselfish in their survival on the life-boat. Gita shows an unwavering moral compass and her presence very much keeps Pi’s morals in check. She is heroic and protective of both Pi and the sailor, placing their safety above her own when opposing the French cook’s selfish behaviour.
  • Similarly, in the ‘better story’, Orange Juice opposes the hyena physically by hitting it and baring its teeth.
  • These gentle characters become fierce protectors of others and in doing so inhibit their own survival. Their own will to survive becomes secondary to the survival of others.
  • The sad loss of Gita’s life seems essential to spark Pi’s own will to survive.

THE FRENCH COOK/ HYENA

  • The will to survive in these characters brings forth a selfish, irrational, and violent struggle to preserve themselves.
  • The French cook sinks to murder and cannibalism in his quest to survive. He is cunning in orchestrating the amputation of the sailor’s leg (who endures great suffering), to then use the leg for bait. Once the sailor passes, he butchers his body and eats most of his remains. He also gobbles up most of the supply rations on the lifeboat, disregarding the needs of others on board.
  • The hyena, similarly, resorts to violence and a near frantic quest to survive. It is responsible for the torturous death of the zebra and the senseless death of Orange Juice.
  • There is mention of the French cook catching and sharing fish with Pi and Gita; however, he is merciless when his survival is challenged.
  • The violent killing of Gita/Orange Juice and the suffering caused to the sailor/zebra truly indicates how the will to survive can manifest itself in an evil and self-serving way.

THE CHINESE SAILOR/ THE ZEBRA

  • These passive and gentle characters do not put up a fight to survive and take on the roles of tragic victims to the savagery of the French cook/hyena.
  • Both serve only as an example of the devastating effects of others’ selfish will to survive.

[Consider valid alternative/mixed responses.]

[25]

OR

 

QUESTION 9:  LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

9.1

Account for the presence of the castaway at this stage of the novel.

  • Pi is using the dream rag which helps him to escape the physical suffering of his reality (dehydrated and starving). He therefore experiences dreams/ hallucinations. The castaway is a reminder of the French cook who Pi killed earlier during his journey. Pi’s guilty conscience revisits him during his subconscious state under the dream rag.
 

[Award 3 marks only if the French cook is mentioned.]

(3)

9.2

How is Pi’s interaction with the castaway typical of his character? Refer only to the extract in your response.

  • Pi is polite/loving/peaceful. He interacts with the castaway in a concerned and friendly way (‘sweet brother’/ ‘my heart is with you’), even warning him of the tiger’s presence before he attacks (‘No, no, my brother! Don’t! We’re not –‘).

He is passive/timid: Pi does not fight or show serious resistance against the castaway’s attack, as he tries to ‘hold him back’ rather than harm the castaway.

 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.]

(3)

9.3

Critically comment on the ‘growl’ (line 11) heard by Pi in the extract. Refer to your knowledge of the novel, as a whole, in your response.

  • A growl is threatening/aggressive/menacing. The growl belongs to Richard Parker/ the tiger on board the lifeboat. He is Pi’s alter ego who represents Pi’s will to survive. He is the animalistic/aggressive side to Pi’s character that enables him to act when survival is at stake. The alter ego is also a character onto whom Pi can transfer his own feelings of guilt.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

9.4

Refer to line 18. Discuss the significance of the tarpaulin as an important aspect of Pi’s survival at sea with a Bengal tiger.

  • The tarpaulin is important when Pi establishes physical boundaries between himself and Richard Parker on the lifeboat. As a wild animal Richard Parker responds to the territory/boundaries created by Pi. Creating boundaries and establishing his own domain is crucial to Pi’s survival and the peaceful co- existence with Richard Parker. The tiger’s domain is under the tarpaulin, whereas Pi’s domain is on top of the tarpaulin.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

9.5

Place the extract in context.

  • Pi has reached the shore of Mexico and is in a hospital receiving treatment. The two Japanese officials arrive to interview Pi about the sinking of the Tsimtsum. They require facts for a report due to the Japanese Department of Transport and for the purpose of an insurance claim. Pi has related the story containing animals to the two officials.

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct points.]

 
 

(3)

9.6

Consider lines 8–13. In response to Okamoto’s question, Pi is able to provide a convincing argument.
How has Pi’s childhood in India contributed to his ability to provide such a response?

  • Pi spent many years of his childhood in his father’s zoo in Pondicherry. During this time his father and zookeepers helped Pi to acquire knowledge of the behaviour of wild animals. Pi’s love of Biology and Mr Kumar, the Biology teacher, instilled in Pi a sound knowledge base and passion for animals.
  • These central figures of his youth enable Pi to respond convincingly about the behaviour of animals, making his story seem credible.

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

 
 

(3)

9.7

Refer to line 9: ‘We fill them with fear.’
Discuss the irony of Pi’s statement, when considering the initial stages of Pi’s ordeal at sea.

  • Pi states that wild animals are scared of human beings and avoid them where possible. However, during the initial stages of Pi’s ordeal, he was petrified of Richard Parker and avoided him at all cost. He even tried to keep the tiger from boarding the lifeboat out of fear for his life. He would often refer to or fear that the tiger would kill him. Pi went as far as creating a list of different ways to kill the tiger out of his own fear. Therefore, Pi was the one filled by fear initially because of the presence of Richard Parker.

[Award 3 marks only if irony is shown.]

 
 

(3)

9.8

Refer to lines 1–3.
Pi’s animal story, that necessitates the existence of Richard Parker, is essential if Pi is to lead a normal existence after his 227-day experience at sea.
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the statement. Refer to the novel, as a whole, in your response.

AGREE

  • After experiencing all the gruesome and traumatic acts of others and himself, Pi needs to create an acceptable version of events that will provide him with a sense of peace. The animal story/‘better story’ is the version of Pi’s experience at sea that he is capable of living with.
  • The animal story/‘better story’ absolves Pi from the responsibility of some of the gruesome acts Pi had to commit in his struggle to survive. The killing of the French cook is such an example. Pi transfers this traumatic act onto Richard Parker through the creation of the animal story/‘better story’. Therefore, Pi is able, to some extent, to remove himself from the act of killing and the guilt that will inevitably haunt him.
  • Seeing his mother murdered before his eyes or the Taiwanese sailor suffer a horrible death, can inflict a lasting impression on Pi’s life. In the animal story/‘better story’ these acts are performed by animals and not humans (Anthropomorphism). The hyena kills Orange Juice and is responsible for the slow and horrible death of the zebra. It is also the hyena that eats the flesh of the orang-utan and the zebra. The horrors are made more acceptable through the animal story.
  • Although the reader can note some remnants of Pi’s experience in his adult life, he is still able to lead a life that removes him psychologically from some of the horrors he endured and committed to survive.

[Award full marks only if the value of the animal story is discussed convincingly.]

 
 

(4)

   

[25]

 

TOTAL SECTION B:

25

SECTION C: DRAMA

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare

QUESTION 10: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION

The weaknesses of men lead to the misfortune of women in this drama.
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).

  • Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
  • A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
  • Refer to page 33 for the rubric to assess this question.

OTHELLO

  • His insecurities about his ‘otherness’ (race/age/cultural differences) cause a great internal struggle for Othello. His inability to understand that Desdemona could be in love with him is a key factor that makes Iago’s suggestions about her affair with Cassio more believable.
  • His jealousy as a newly-wed husband is destructive. His emotions override his rational thought, leading him into a downward spiral of mistrust and suspicion. His jealousy leads him to misinterpret the innocent behaviour of Desdemona, as she tries to mend the relationship between Othello and Cassio.
  • Othello’s lack of judgement in trusting Iago and not trusting Desdemona is a critical error. His gullibility/naïveté believing in Iago’s lies and giving credit to his ‘evidence’ is detrimental to himself and others. He is easily led to believe that he has been cuckolded.
  • → Othello’s weaknesses lead to the death of Desdemona.

IAGO

  • His own jealousy/vengeful feelings over the lieutenancy and his paranoia that Othello and Cassio have had an affair with his wife, Emilia, leads him on a course of destruction.
  • His racism fuels his hatred and evil plot against Othello.
  • Iago is sexist and has a preconceived idea of women as unfaithful. He also shows little regard/respect towards women. He is over-confident and underestimates Emelia throughout the play. He regards her as a fool and does not see the threat she represents. In the final act when Emilia has discovered Iago’s evil plot, he is confident that he can quieten his wife. She, however, refuses to be silenced and is killed by Iago.
  • Iago is disloyal/dishonest as he pretends to aid Othello in determining Desdemona’s loyalty. He pretends to comfort Desdemona after Othello has called her a whore by reassuring her that he is preoccupied with matters of the state.
  • → Iago’s weaknesses lead to Desdemona and Emilia’s death.

CASSIO

  • He lacks self-discipline and his weakness for alcohol leads him to neglect his duty by drinking and engaging in a brawl with Montano. After seeking advice from Iago, he then asks Desdemona to plead his case with Othello in an attempt to regain his lieutenancy.
  • This ultimately helps lead to the suspicion that Desdemona is pleading for her lover, allowing Othello to believe Iago’s suggestions about her unfaithfulness.
  • Cassio’s classism leads to his mistreatment of Bianca, whom he disrespects as a prostitute. His verbal scorn (‘bauble’) and comparisons (‘fitchew’) are derived from his disregard for her. He also chases her away as he does not want to be seen as ‘womaned’.
  • → Cassio’s weaknesses can be seen to aid the death of Desdemona and the mistreatment of Bianca.

BRABANTIO

  • He is misogynistic in viewing his daughter’s marriage as a potential business transaction. He views her as his property. He also believes that Desdemona has been charmed/bewitched by Othello, which suggest a racist attitude as well.
  • → Brabantio’s inability to accept his daughter’s marriage leads to him disowning her.

Candidates could argue that the women in the play also had weaknesses that were easily exploited or led to their misfortune.

[Consider valid alternative/mixed responses.]

[25]

OR

 

QUESTION 11: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

11.1

Consider lines 10–17.     How is Iago’s retelling of Cassio’s dream a deliberate attempt to provoke Othello?

  • The sexual nature of the supposed dream is meant to inspire sexual jealousy in the recently married Othello. Imagining his new bride with another man, will spur Othello into action. A scorned husband will seek vengeance/justice. Othello’s pre-existing insecurities centering around his ‘otherness’, makes him an easy target/susceptible to Iago’s insinuation of an affair between Cassio and Desdemona.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

11.2

Refer to line 25 where Iago advises Othello to ‘be wise’. Discuss the irony of Iago’s advice.

  • Iago is asking Othello to remain ‘wise’ or rational/sensible about not blaming Desdemona of an affair so quickly. However, this is exactly what Iago wants. He wants Othello to slip into a jealous rage and lose his composure/wits. Iago is purposefully trying to have Othello act irrationally.
 

[Award 3 marks only if irony is shown.]

(3)

11.3

Othello’s threat, ‘I’ll tear her all to pieces’ (line 24) shows a significant change in Othello’s character. Contrast the character presented in this line with the character seen earlier in the play.

  • Earlier: Othello is shown to be calm, rational and honourable. He is a man who is not ruled by emotion, but by reason and duty. When questioned by the Duke and Brabantio, he remained in control of his emotions, addressing them and defending himself civilly and with comportment. He is also a man who is deeply in love with his new wife and who trusts her to the extent that he stakes his life upon her honesty.
  • Presently: Othello is clearly overwhelmed by Iago recounting his dream, immediately becoming enraged by his jealousy. He shows no control over his emotions here. His jealousy governs his violent/irrational/ uncivilised/ barbaric thoughts of seeking justice/vengeance.
 

[Award 3 marks only if a clear contrast is shown.]

(3)

11.4

Explain why Iago intentionally uses the handkerchief as part of his plot to destroy Othello.

  • The handkerchief holds great sentimental value to Othello. It once belonged to his mother, who gave it to Othello. Therefore, the handkerchief is more than a mere trinket. Othello gifted Desdemona with the handkerchief as a token of his love for her. Desdemona constantly has the handkerchief with her wherever she goes. The handkerchief will serve as ocular proof later on to support Iago’s suggestions.
  • Therefore, Iago’s choice of using the handkerchief is clever as it shows his awareness and astute understanding of the handkerchief’s importance to Othello. Iago is also very observant to have noticed Desdemona’s habit of carrying the handkerchief with her at all times.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

11.5

Place this extract in context.

  • Othello has killed Desdemona. Iago and Roderigo’s plan to kill Cassio has failed, resulting in Iago killing Roderigo and maiming Cassio. Othello has realised that he has been duped by Iago. Emilia revealed Iago’s involvement in claiming the handkerchief and is also killed by Iago.
 
 

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct points.]

(3)

11.6

Comment on Othello’s conviction that he is an ‘honourable murderer’ (line 5).

  • Killing Desdemona was an act of justice in the eyes of Othello. As a military man, punishment should be administered by the superior officer. He acts as the executioner of justice. Desdemona was brought to justice for her offence/betrayal. Othello also believes he has saved her from betraying other men. Othello justifies his action as honourable and a necessary action to bring Desdemona to justice.

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

 
 

(3)

11.7

Refer to lines 14–15: ‘Demand me nothing. What you know, you know. From this time forth I never will speak word.’
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.

  • Body language: Iago turns away from Othello/ waves his hand dismissively at Othello/ crosses his arms on his chest/tilts his chin upward.
  • Tone: Defiant/curt/blunt/confident
  • Justification: Iago refuses to provide a reason for his plot against Othello. He still wants to hold on to a measure of control. He does not want to engage with Othello and so relate his motives.

[Accept valid alternative responses]
[The candidate’s response should be convincing in context.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and includes a justification.]

 
 

(3)

11.8

Iago exploits the relationships he has with others to fulfil his evil plans.
Using this extract as a starting point, discuss to what extent you agree with the statement.

 
 

AGREE

  • Roderigo: EXTRACT F indicates how Iago exploited his relationship with Roderigo to accomplish his evil plans. He was used as a henchman, although unsuccessfully, to kill Cassio. Iago’s relationship with Roderigo centres around Roderigo’s obsession with Desdemona and Iago’s promise to help win her affection. This is the sole reason why Roderigo acquiesces to Iago’s instruction. It is clear that Iago does not see Roderigo as a friend, but a tool in his plot to destroy Othello.
  • Othello: The relationship is built on the trust and camaraderie/brotherhood stemming from their military background. Othello therefore places great confidence and trust in Iago as the bonds between soldiers require such faith. Iago’s relationship is strengthened by his position as Othello’s ensign, which allows Iago to grow closer to Othello. Iago uses this relationship to poison Othello’s mind with suggestions and falsities.
  • Emilia: Iago uses his wife to gain access to the handkerchief, when he requests that she steals it from Desdemona. Eager to please and to gain the favour of her husband, Emilia does as Iago requested.
  • Cassio: The tentative friendship and military camaraderie creates the suggestion that Cassio celebrate (drink) with the rest of men the destruction of the Turkish fleet and Othello’s marriage. After the brawl and Cassio’s dismissal as Othello’s Lieutenant, Cassio turns to Iago to seek advice on how to mend his relationship with Othello and regain his position. As confidant, Iago uses his relationship with Cassio to suggest Cassio implore Desdemona to do his bidding with Othello. This places Cassio and Desdemona in each other’s company to fuel Othello’s jealousy that Iago will further provoke.
 
 

[Award full marks only if relationships with at least two characters are discussed.]

(4)

   

[25]

HAMLET – William Shakespeare

QUESTION 12: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

Hamlet is a character of many contradictions.

Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.

Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).

  • Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
  • A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
  • Refer to page 33 for the rubric to assess this question.
  • When Hamlet first learns of his father’s murder, his immediate thoughts are of violent revenge upon Claudius. However, his subsequent actions do not live up to these resolutions.
  • Initially he is grief-stricken, bitter and despairing at his ‘father’s death’ and his mother’s ‘o’er hasty marriage’. He feels he has to do something but he does not know precisely what. He sees a terrible situation which he has no power to change.
  • The ghost’s command to ‘revenge his foul and most unnatural murder’ gives Hamlet purpose. Hamlet is clear about his duty and his enemy. He is resolved to act ‘with wings as swift as meditation’.
  • His feigned madness does not seem to advance his cause in any way. The ‘antic disposition’ allows him to act without restraint but it may also be viewed as a form of delay. Perhaps it is Hamlet’s only sane response to the predicament in which he finds himself. However, it merely serves to impact his relationships negatively, especially with Ophelia and his mother.
  • Hamlet curses his own inaction; he has shown little evidence of the immediate revenge he promised his father’s ghost. Instead, he creates an even more complex plan to entrap his uncle: ‘The play’s the thing/wherein I’ll catch the conscience of the king’.
  • The ghost does present Hamlet with a mass of contradictions: It says the murder of a relative is strange and unnatural yet asks Hamlet to kill his own uncle. It tells Hamlet that Gertrude is not to suffer; she is to be judged by God. But the ghost has judged and condemned Claudius. Hamlet finds the instructions morally questionable but still feels an obligation to avenge his father’s death. He feels powerless and wishes to ‘shuffle off this mortal coil’.
  • When Hamlet, finds Claudius vulnerable and he is given the opportunity to exact revenge, he procrastinates with the excuse that he does not want Claudius’ soul sent to heaven.
  • When Hamlet does act, he seems to do so impulsively by killing Polonius and deliberately causing the deaths of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern.
  • As a result of his procrastination many tragedies occur that could have been avoided.
  • There are moments of suicidal thought and self-loathing countered with calm and rational thoughts.
  • He is appalled to find himself unable to play the prescribed royal part of an avenging son. He is paralysed by the futility of the revenge his society demands that he seek.
  • Hamlet admires the confidence and fiery motivation of Fortinbras and Laertes but he does admit that he truly does not want to be hot-headed in taking revenge.

[Accept valid alternative/mixed response.]

[25]

OR

 

QUESTION 13: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

13.1

Rosencrantz and Guildenstern are consistently presented together in this drama. What does this suggest about their characters?

  • They seem to function as one character and are described as ‘half men’. They are sycophants who appear to not be able to think for themselves. They only do the bidding of Claudius without questioning the morality of their actions. They are interchangeably alike in their servile allegiance to Claudius.
 

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.]

(3)

13.2

To what extent is Hamlet justified in questioning Rosencrantz and Guildenstern’s loyalty towards him?

  • They are Hamlet’s childhood friends and one would expect them to be loyal to Hamlet’s grief and to support him rather than betray him. They ‘spy’ on him not because they truly care about his transformed personality but because they are pawns in Claudius’ game. Hamlet is cautious as to whom he can trust since he knows if his father could be betrayed in the most cruel way, he too, could be a victim.
 

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas]

(3)

13.3

Consider Hamlet’s speech in lines 17–28. What does it reveal about his state of mind at this point in the drama?

  • Hamlet feels betrayed by the deception of two people he regarded as close friends. He has lost faith in open and honest relationships. He feels he is surrounded by treachery and false outward appearances. He admires man but sees man’s life as futile and poisoned. He concludes that life is sterile and useless. He sees no beauty in the world but only foul corruption. His life is surrounded by hypocrisy, guile and deception by what is conceived as the ‘paragon of animals’.
 

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

(3)

13.4

Critically comment on the dramatic impact of the impending arrival of the ‘players’ (lines 31–34).

  • It contributes to the tension in the drama since Hamlet has consistently delayed in taking deliberate action. The players are part of Hamlet’s carefully executed plan to get Claudius to confess his crime of murdering his father. He wants to ‘catch the conscience of the king’ and hopes it would act as a spur for his own revenge. It is only the testimony of his father’s ghost that exposes Claudius guilt at this point. By commissioning the actors, it is Hamlet’s attempt to finally take action against his father’s murderer without having to bear the moral consequences of a bloody revenge.
 

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

(3)

13.5

Place this extract in context.

  • After Ophelia’s funeral, Hamlet tells Horatio how he discovered the treachery of Rosencrantz and Guildenstern while on the ship bound for England. He arranged for their deaths by exchanging the letter which ordered his execution for one which orders theirs.
 
 

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct points.]

(3)

13.6

Refer to lines 9–14: ‘Does it not … with this arm?’
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.

  • Tone: Hamlet’s tone is combative/determined/aggressive.
  • Justification: He is finally resolved to take action against Claudius, his father’s murderer. He shows his disgust towards Claudius’ immoral actions.
  • Body Language: He may assume a fighting stance with his sword outstretched as if facing his enemy.

[Consider valid alternative responses]
[The candidate’s response should be convincing in context.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and includes a justification.]

 
 

(3)

13.7

Hamlet recognises the ‘bravery of [Laertes’] grief’ (line 25). Show how Laertes’ expression of grief contrasts with that of Hamlet’s.

  • Both Hamlet and Laertes have the murder of their fathers to avenge. Laertes is undeterred by the moral dilemma that besets and delays Hamlet. Laertes is more resolute and takes immediate action. His actions could be perceived as more reckless. His grief is exhibited as anger. He does not spend time on thought and consideration as Hamlet does. There is no soul-searching, no worrying about an after-life and no conscience as Hamlet does. Laertes is unscrupulous and treacherous and willingly accedes to Claudius’ cowardly weapon. Hamlet could not deliberately kill in cold blood; he cannot show emotion and he is not as decisive as Laertes.
 
 

[Award 3 marks for three ideas well discussed or two ideas.]

(3)

13.8

‘Hamlet’s pursuit of justice comes at a great cost.’
Critically comment on the extent to which you would agree with this statement.

  • It is unfortunate that innocent people are destroyed while Hamlet attempts to execute the perfect revenge plan: Hamlet mistakenly kills Polonius and Ophelia is so distraught at Hamlet’s cruel treatment that she ends up drowning. His cruel confrontations with his mother may be justified but he still avoids confronting the real enemy, Claudius. Hamlet seems to use his ‘antic disposition’ to collaterally kill people like his deliberately executed plan to kill his old friends, Rosencrantz and Guildenstern. Not only does the single-minded thoughts of revenge impact his relationships, but it also leads to emotional turmoil/anguish.
  • Candidates may argue Hamlet’s unorthodox methods cost him his rightful place on the throne.
 

[Award 4 marks for a well-developed argument.]

(4)

   

[25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller

QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION

The need for self-preservation in The Crucible is a human response to survival.
Discuss the extent to which you agree with this statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).

  • Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only. However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical thought and interpretation.
  • A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
  • Refer to page 33 for the rubric to assess this question.

Candidates may include the following characters:

JOHN PROCTOR

  • He initially withholds the knowledge of Abigail and girls ‘sporting’ in the woods and that their presence there had nothing to do with witchcraft. This he learns early on in the play during a private conversation with Abigail. He does not present this knowledge to the court officials for fear of his good name/reputation being ruined if his affair with Abigail is revealed. Elizabeth urges him to share the knowledge with the court but John wishes to ‘think on it’.
  • His delay is costly to others as Abigail and the girls strengthen their influence in court resulting in many being arrested, including Elizabeth.
  • John’s final decision not to confess to witchcraft could also be seen as an act to preserve his good name. In refusing to sign the confession, he maintains his good reputation by not attaching his name to witchcraft.

TITUBA

  • Once made a scapegoat by Abigail for the activities in the woods, she is quick to falsely confess to witchcraft to save her life after being threatened with hanging for her part of what happened in the woods.
  • As a slave, she has no power/rights; therefore, she produces a lie to save herself.
  • Her confession and the power to accuse that ensues, serves as inspiration for Abigail to falsely confess and to also call out the names of witches.
  • Innocent people are arrested and trialled due to Tituba’s need for self- preservation.

ABIGAIL WILLIAMS

  • Once the girls are questioned about their actions in the woods, Abigail turns the blame on Tituba to escape punishment.
  • She also learns through Tituba’s actions that power shifts after confessing. She places herself in a position to accuse others and escape any responsibility for her actions in the woods.
  • This leads to the arrest and hanging of many innocent people, as her power in the court becomes unrefuted.
  • She insists that there be ‘no blush’ about her name to protect her reputation in a repressive Puritan society. She lies and manipulates the court and convinces them of her integrity and to diminish/undermine Elizabeth’s.

DANFORTH

  • After the disappearance of Abigail and Mercy Lewis with Parris’ money, it becomes clear that the girls are not as honest/innocent as the court had initially thought. Their actions suggest that Danforth and the other officials were fooled by the girls.
  • Danforth does not postpone the hanging of John, Rebecca and Martha as ‘postponement speaks of floundering’. This will show a weakness in the court’s rulings and will serve as a great blemish on Danforth’s reputation as a respected judge.
  • He allows the hangings to proceed and so innocent people die due to his need to preserve his pride/reputation.
 

PARRIS

  • He is motivated to save his position and family name by supporting the trials and its integrity.
  • Parris is an unpopular figure in Salem. He believes that his position is deserving of great respect. If the trials are proven to be fraudulent because of his lying daughter (Betty) and niece (Abigail), his precarious position as a minister would collapse.
  • He desperately opposes anyone trying to discredit the girls or the court.
  • His need for self-preservation outweighs the moral code of his position.
 

MARY WARREN

  • She serves as John’s witness to the pretence of the girls in the court, when trying to free Elizabeth who was arrested for witchcraft.
  • She is unable to withstand the pressure of Abigail and the girls when they turn on her. She desperately tries to save herself from the girls’ accusations and in turn betrays John by accusing him of bewitching her.
  • She is a weak, submissive character and cannot withstand pressure despite a brief moment when she was given a voice of authority as an ‘official of the court’.
 

Candidates may argue that there are other characters who also display a need for self-preservation.
[Consider other valid alternative/mixed responses.]

[25]

OR

 

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

15.1

What motivates Tituba’s testimony in this extract?

  • Tituba fears for her life as she has been threatened with hanging by Parris. Tituba is powerless as a slave in Salem and has been made the scapegoat by Abigail regarding their actions in the woods. Her status alone puts her at a disadvantage and affords her no rights or protection. The pressure to produce a confession is made out of her need for self-preservation and has nothing to do with the truth.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

15.2

Account for the presence of the Putnams during Hale’s examination and questioning.

  • Putnam is a wealthy and influential landowner in Salem and probably feels entitled to be at such an important event requiring Hale’s presence. The Putnams’ only child, Ruth, is in a similar inert state as Betty and they seek answers to her condition. They are also eager to validate the suspicion of witchcraft in Salem as it will provide them with a reason/explanation for the loss of their 7 babies who died shortly after childbirth.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

15.3

‘… the Devil is out and preying on her like a beast upon the flesh of a pure lamb’ (line 32–33). Explain the irony in Hale’s assessment of Betty.

  • Betty is not afflicted or under any spiritual attack from the Devil as Hale suggests. Betty is pretending to be in a comatose-like state to avoid the consequences/punishment for her presence in the woods. She is therefore not the victim of the Devil at all.
    OR
  • Betty is described as a ‘pure lamb’ when in fact her actions are far from innocent or pure. Her current state is due to pretence and not a spiritual attack. She wants to avoid the consequences/punishment for her presence in the woods. Therefore, Betty’s pretence is deceptive and cannot be seen as pure/innocent.
 

[Award 3 marks only if irony is shown.]

(3)

15.4

Refer to line 36: ‘I want to open myself!’. Account for Abigail’s dramatic outburst.

  • Abigail has witnessed Tituba’s confession and how her confession has empowered her to accuse/point out others. The power dynamic changes with confession and Abigail also wants to be in a position of power as opposed to her current position of offender. Abigail now claims to want to be honest/transparent to gain power. It is a cunning declaration that shows her quick assessment of the value/benefits of confession.
 

[Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.]

(3)

15.5

Place this extract in context.

 
 
  • Rebecca Nurse, Elizabeth Proctor and Martha Corey have been arrested on charges of witchcraft. Abigail used the poppet to orchestrate Elizabeth’s arrest. Giles Corey, John Proctor and Francis Nurse have come to the court to try to free their wives. They have collected supporting documents and testimonies from community members to try and sway the court. John has brought Mary Warren to the court in an attempt to discredit Abigail and the girls’ evidence/claims and expose them as frauds. Giles has accused Thomas Putnam of using his daughter, Ruth, to reach for land but refuses to divulge the name of his witness.
 
 

[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct points.]

(3)

15.6

Consider the stage direction in line 3. Account for Mary Warren’s emotional state at this point in the drama.

  • She is terrified/scared/intimidated of what she has to do in court. Mary is a timid/shy/meek girl who is experiencing a lot of pressure as she stands before the ‘weighty’ judges. She must now testify, in support of John, that the girls, under Abigail’s influence, are pretending to be afflicted by spirits during the court proceedings. Her current state is also attributed to the fear she has of Abigail and the girls’ response to her testimony in exposing their fraud. She is aware of Abigail’s malicious nature and the harm/isolation it could cause her.
 
 

[Award 3 marks only if Mary’s emotional state is clearly justified.]

(3)

15.7

Refer to lines 27–29: ‘Excellency, I have signed seventy-two death warrants; I am a minister of the Lord, and I dare not take a life without there be a proof so immaculate …’
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.

  • Body language: Hale walks over to stand in front of Danforth. He paces in front of a seated Danforth, with arms outstretched. He is frowning and his eyes are wide with emotion.
  • Tone: Frustration/ Impassioned / Earnest/ Striving/ Pleading
  • Motivation/Justification: Hale is riddled with guilt because of the death of others for whom he is partly responsible. He can no longer stand by and watch more people be incriminated by the girls, whose honesty he has started to doubt.
 
 

[Consider valid alternative responses]
[The candidate’s response should be convincing in context.]
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone, and includes a justification.]

(3)

15.8

‘Self-importance blinds the protectors of the truth.’ Critically discuss the validity of this statement by referring to both extracts.

  • EXTRACT G: Hale shows pride/excitement in the fact that he has been called to Salem because of his specialist knowledge of witchcraft. He is somewhat blinded by his pride/excitement in neglecting a proper examination of the evidence he is given. He therefore also lacks proper judgement in seeing Tituba’s confession as a means to avoid a harsh punishment, as well as seeing through Betty’s pretend affliction. ‘You have confessed yourself to witchcraft’ / ‘You are God’s instrument put into our hands …’/ ‘How can you bear to see this child suffering’/ ‘Look at her God- given innocence …’/‘pure lamb’. His pride sets the witch trials in motion as it blinds him from seeing the pretence of the confessions. When he does realise the truth, it is already too late, as innocent lives have been lost.
  • EXTRACT H: Danforth’s pride leads to a critical error in judgement. He fails to see the pretence or motives of the girls throughout the trials and allows them great power. His own ego becomes greater than the truth. Later he stubbornly refuses to see the honesty/sincerity of those brought before him. His judgement is greatly affected by aligning his own importance to that of the court. ‘Mr Hale, you surely do not doubt my justice.’
 
 

[Award 4 marks for a well-developed argument.]

(4)

 

TOTAL SECTION C:

25

 

GRAND TOTAL:

80

SECTION A: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LITERARY ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE: POETRY [10 MARKS]

Criteria

Exceptional

Skilful

Moderate

Elementary

Inadequate

CONTENT

5–6

4

3

2

0–1

6 MARKS

  • In-depth interpretation of topic
  • Range of striking arguments extensively supported from poem
  • Excellent understanding of genre and poem
  • Shows understanding and has interpreted topic well
  • Fairly detailed response
  • Some sound arguments given, but not all of them as well motivated as they could be
  • Understanding of genre and poem evident
  • Fair interpretation of topic
  • Some good points in support of topic
  • Some arguments supported, but evidence not always convincing
  • Basic understanding of genre and poem
  • Unsatisfactory interpretation of topic
  • Hardly any points in support of topic
  • Inadequate understanding of genre and poem
  • No understanding of the topic
  • No reference to the poem
  • Learner has not come to grips with genre and text

Interpretation of topic Depth of argument, justification and grasp of text

STRUCTURE AND LANGUAGE

4

3

2

1

0–1

  • Coherent structure
  • Arguments well- structured and clearly developed
  • Language, tone and style mature, impressive, correct
  • Virtually error-free grammar, spelling and punctuation
  • Clear structure and logical flow of argument
  • Flow of argument can be followed
  • Language, tone and style largely correct
  • Some evidence of structure
  • Essay lacks a well- structured flow of logic and coherence
  • Language errors minor; tone and style mostly appropriate
  • Structure shows faulty planning
  • Arguments not logically arranged
  • Language errors evident
  • Inappropriate tone and style
  • Poorly structured
  • Serious language errors
  • Incorrect style

4 MARKS

Structure, logical flow and presentation Language, tone and style used in the essay

NOTE:If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and Language.

SECTIONS B AND C: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LITERARY ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE: NOVEL AND DRAMA [25 MARKS]

Criteria

Exceptional

Skilful

Moderate

Elementary

Inadequate

CONTENT

12–15

9–11

6–8

4–5

0–3

 

15 MARKS

  • Outstanding response: 14–15
  • Excellent response: 12–13
  • In-depth interpretation of topic
  • Range of striking arguments extensively supported from text
  • Excellent understanding of genre and text
  • Shows understanding and has interpreted topic well
  • Fairly detailed response
  • Some sound arguments given, but not all of them as well motivated as they could be
  • Understanding of genre and text evident
  • Mediocre interpretation of topic; not all aspects explored in detail
  • Some good points in support of topic
  • Some arguments supported, but evidence not always convincing
  • Basic understanding of genre and text
  • Scant interpretation of topic; hardly any aspects explored in detail
  • Few points in support of topic
  • Very little relevant argument
  • Little understanding of genre and text
  • Very little understanding of the topic
  • Weak attempt to answer the question
  • Arguments not convincing
  • Learner has not come to grips with genre and text

Interpretation of topic; Depth of argument, justification and grasp of text

STRUCTURE AND LANGUAGE

8–10

6–7

4–5

2–3

0–1

  • Coherent structure
  • Excellent introduction and conclusion
  • Arguments well- structured and clearly developed
  • Language, tone and style mature, impressive, correct
  • Clear structure and logical flow of argument
  • Introduction and conclusion and other paragraphs coherently organised
  • Logical flow of argument
  • Language, tone and style largely correct
  • Some evidence of structure
  • Logic and coherence apparent, but flawed
  • Some language errors; tone and style mostly appropriate
  • Paragraphing mostly correct
  • Structure shows faulty planning
  • Arguments not logically arranged
  • Language errors evident
  • Inappropriate tone and style
  • Paragraphing faulty
  • Lack of planned structure impedes flow of argument
  • Language errors and incorrect style make this an unsuccessful piece of writing
  • Inappropriate tone and style
  • Paragraphing faulty

 

10 MARKS

Structure, logical flow and presentation; Language, tone and style used in the essay

MARK RANGE

20–25

15–19

10–14

5–9

0–4

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative response instead, award a 0 mark for both Content and Structure and Language.
There must not be more than two categories’ variation between the Structure and Language mark and the Content mark.

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

  1. Please read these instructions carefully before you begin to answer questions.
  2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of contents on the next page and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts you have studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the ones you wish to answer.
  3. This question paper consists of THREE sections.
    SECTION A: POETRY (30)
    SECTION B: NOVEL (25)
    SECTION C: DRAMA (25)
  4. Answer FIVE QUESTIONS in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B and ONE in SECTION C. Use the checklist to assist you.
  5. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA):
    • Answer ONLY questions on the novel and the drama you have studied.
    • Answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL QUESTION. If you answer the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the contextual question in SECTION C. If you answer the contextual question in SECTION B, you must answer the essay question in SECTION C.
  6. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
    • Essay questions on Poetry should be answered in 250–300 words.
    • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered in 400–450 words.
    • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and relevance.
  7. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully.
  8. Number the answers exactly as the questions have been numbered in the question paper.
  9. Start each section on a NEW page.
  10. Suggested time management:
    SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
    SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
    SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes
  11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS

SECTION A: POETRY

 

Prescribed Poetry: Answer ANY TWO questions.

QUESTION NO.

QUESTION

MARKS

PAGE NO.

1.

‘Felix Randal’

 

Essay question

10

5

       

2.

‘The Zulu Girl’

 

Contextual question

10

6

       

3.

‘The Garden of Love’

 

Contextual question

10

7

       

4.

‘Motho ke Motho ka Batho’

 

Contextual question

10

8

AND

Unseen Poem: COMPULSORY QUESTION

5.

‘A Winter Solstice Prayer’

 

Contextual question

10

9

SECTION B: NOVEL

ANSWER ONLY QUESTIONS ON THE NOVEL YOU HAVE STUDIED.

*Answer any ONE of the following four questions.

6.

The Picture of Dorian Gray

Essay question

25

10

OR

7.

The Picture of Dorian Gray

Contextual question

25

11

OR

8.

Life of Pi

Essay question

25

13

OR

9.

Life of Pi

Contextual question

25

13

SECTION C: DRAMA

ANSWER ONLY QUESTIONS ON THE DRAMA YOU HAVE STUDIED.

*Answer any ONE of the following four questions.

10.

Othello

Essay question

25

15

OR

11.

Othello

Contextual question

25

16

OR

12.

Hamlet

Essay question

25

18

OR

13.

Hamlet

Contextual question

25

18

 

OR

   

14.

The Crucible

Essay question

25

20

 

OR

   

15.

The Crucible

Contextual question

25

21

*NOTE: In sections B and C, answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL question. If you answer an essay question from SECTION B, you must answer a contextual question from SECTION C. If you answer a contextual question from SECTION B, you must answer an essay question from SECTION C.

CHECKLIST
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.

SECTION

QUESTION

NUMBERS

NO. OF QUESTIONS

TO ANSWER

TICK

A: POETRY

(Prescribed Poetry)

1–4

2

 

A: Poetry

(Unseen Poem)

5

1

 

B: NOVEL

(Essay or Contextual)

6–9

1

 

C: DRAMA

(Essay or Contextual)

10–15

1

 

NOTE: In SECTIONS B and C, ensure that you have answered ONE ESSAY question and ONE CONTEXTUAL question.
You may NOT answer TWO essay questions or TWO contextual questions.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: POETRY
PRESCRIBED POETRY

Answer any TWO of the following questions.
QUESTION 1: ESSAY QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.
FELIX RANDAL – Gerard Manley Hopkins

  1. Felix Randal the farrier, O is he dead then? my duty all ended,
  2. Who have watched his mould of man, big-boned and hardy-handsome
  3. Pining, pining, till time when reason rambled in it, and some
  4. Fatal four disorders, fleshed there, all contended?

  5. Sickness broke him. Impatient, he cursed at first, but mended
  6. Being anointed and all; though a heavenlier heart began some
  7. Months earlier, since I had our sweet reprieve and ransom
  8. Tendered to him. Ah well, God rest him all road ever he offended!

  9. This seeing the sick endears them to us, us too it endears.
  10. My tongue had taught thee comfort, touch had quenched thy tears,
  11. Thy tears that touched my heart, child, Felix, poor Felix Randal;

  12. How far from then forethought of, all thy more boisterous years,
  13. When thou at the random grim forge powerful amidst peers,
  14. Didst fettle for the great grey drayhorse his bright and battering sandal!

In ‘Felix Randal’, the speaker’s relationship with the dying man develops significantly.
By close reference to structure, tone and diction discuss to what extent you agree with the above statement.
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300 words (about ONE page).          [10]
OR

QUESTION 2: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.
THE ZULU GIRL – Roy Campbell

  1. When in the sun the hot red acres smoulder,
  2. Down where the sweating gang its labour plies,
  3. A girl flings down her hoe, and from her shoulder
  4. Unslings her child tormented by flies.

  5. She takes him to a ring of shadow pooled
  6. By thorn-trees: purpled with the blood of ticks,
  7. While her sharp nails, in slow caresses ruled,
  8. Prowl through his hair with sharp electric clicks.

  9. His sleepy mouth, plugged by the heavy nipple,
  10. Tugs like a puppy, grunting as he feeds:
  11. Through his frail nerves her own deep languors ripple
  12. Like a broad river sighing through its reeds.

  13. Yet in that drowsy stream his flesh imbibes
  14. An old unquenched, unsmotherable heat ─
  15. The curbed ferocity of beaten tribes,
  16. The sullen dignity of their defeat.

  17. Her body looms above him like a hill
  18. Within whose shade a village lies at rest,
  19. Or the first cloud so terrible and still
  20. That bears the coming harvest in its breast.

2.1 What does the word ‘flings’ (line 3) convey about the girl’s attitude?(2)
2.2 Discuss the appropriateness of the image in lines 5–6: ‘She takes him … thorn-trees’ in the context of the poem.(3)
2.3 What mood is created in lines 11–12? Substantiate your response by referring directly to the diction used.(2)
2.4 Critically comment on how the imagery used to describe the mother in stanza 5 could be viewed as contradictory.(3)
[10]
OR

QUESTION 3: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.
THE GARDEN OF LOVE – William Blake

  1. I went to the Garden of Love,
  2. And saw what I never had seen:
  3. A Chapel was built in the midst,
  4. Where I used to play on the green.

  5. And the gates of this Chapel were shut,
  6. And ‘Thou shalt not’. writ over the door;
  7. So I turn’d to the Garden of Love,
  8. That so many sweet flowers bore.

  9. And I saw it was filled with graves,
  10. And tomb-stones where flowers should be:
  11. And Priests in black gowns, were walking their rounds,
  12. And binding with briars, my joys & desires.

3.1 What impression of the speaker’s youth is created in line 4? (2)
3.2 Consider lines 7–10. Comment on the effectiveness of the contrasting symbols within the context of the poem.(3)
3.3 What does the repetition of ‘And’ reveal about the speaker’s response to the changes in the garden? (2)
3.4 Critically comment on how the description of the Chapel in lines 5 and 6 reveals the speaker’s attitude to organised religion? (3)
[10]
OR

QUESTION 4: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.
MOTHO KE MOTHO KA BATHO BABANG – Jeremy Cronin
(A Person is a Person Because of Other People)

  1. By holding my mirror out of the window I see
  2. Clear to the end of the passage.
  3. There’s a person down there.
  4. A prisoner polishing a doorhandle.
  5. In the mirror I see him see
  6. My face in the mirror,
  7. I see the fingertips of his free hand
  8. Bunch together, as if to make
  9. An object the size of a badge
  10. Which travels up to his forehead
  11. The place of an imaginary cap.
  12. (This means: A warder.)
  13. Two fingers are extended in a vee
  14. And wiggle like two antennae.
  15. (He’s being watched.)
  16. A finger of his free hand makes a watch-hand’s arc
  17. On the wrist of his polishing arm without
  18. Disrupting the slow-slow rhythm of his work.
  19. (Later. Maybe, later we can speak.)
  20. Hey! Wat maak jy daar?
  21. – a voice from around the corner.
  22. No. Just polishing baas.
  23. He turns his back to me, now watch
  24. His free hand, the talkative one,
  25. Slips quietly behind
  26. – Strength brother, it says,
  27. In my mirror,
  28. A black fist.

4.1 How does the repetition of ‘in the mirror’ in lines 5 and 6 emphasise the speaker’s situation?(2)
4.2 Discuss how the use of brackets draws the reader into the narrative of the speaker.(3)
4.3 Refer to line 24. Explain the irony of the speaker’s reference to the prisoner’s hand as ‘the talkative one’.(2)
4.4 Critically comment on how lines 26–28 link to the title of the poem. (3)
[10]
AND

UNSEEN POEM (COMPULSORY)
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION

Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.
A WINTER SOLSTICE PRAYER – Edward Hays

  1. The dark shadow of space leans over us …

  2. We are mindful that the darkness of greed, exploitation, and hatred
  3. also lengthens its shadow over our small planet Earth.
  4. As our ancestors feared death and evil and all the dark powers of winter,
  5. we fear that the darkness of war, discrimination and selfishness
  6. may doom us and our planet to an eternal winter.

  7. May we find hope in the lights we have kindled on this sacred night,
  8. Hope in one another and in all who form the web-work of peace and justice
  9. that spans the world.

  10. In the heart of every person on this Earth
  11. burns the spark of luminous goodness;
  12. in no heart is there total darkness.
  13. May we who have celebrated this winter solstice,
  14. by our lives and service, by our prayers and love,
  15. call forth from one another the light and the love
  16. that is hidden in every heart.
  17. Amen

5.1 What does the personification in line 1 suggest about the dark shadow? (2)
5.2 Comment on the impact of the metaphor in lines 2–3. (3)
5.3 Refer to lines 4–6. How do the fears of the ancestors offer a contrast to the fears of the modern world? (2)
5.4 Discuss the change in mood from stanza 2 to stanza 4 by closely referring to the diction used. (3)
[10]
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied.
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual question).
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY ─ ESSAY QUESTION
Dorian Gray is drawn to Lord Henry’s philosophies. This is what ruins Dorian. Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).        [25]
OR

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY ─ CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT A
So that was the story of Dorian Gray’s parentage. Crudely as it had been told to him, it had stirred him by its suggestion of a strange almost modern romance. A
beautiful woman risking everything for a mad passion. A few wild weeks of happiness cut short by a hideous, treacherous crime. Months of voiceless agony,
and then a child born in pain. The mother snatched away by death, the boy left to solitude and the tyranny of an old and loveless man. Yes; it was an interesting
background. It posed the lad, made him more perfect as it were. Behind every exquisite thing that existed, there was something tragic. Worlds had to be in travail,
that the meanest flower might blow … And how charming he had been at dinner the night before, as with startled eyes and lips parted in frightened pleasure, he had sat opposite to him at the club, the red candle-shades staining to a richer rose the wakening wonder of his face. Talking to him was like playing upon an exquisite violin. He answered to every touch and thrill of the bow … There was something terribly enthralling in the exercise of influence. No activity was like it. To project one’s soul into some gracious form, and let it tarry there for a moment; to hear one’s own intellectual views echoed back to one with all the added music of passion and youth; to convey one’s temperament into another as though it were a subtle fluid or a strange perfume; there was real joy in that – perhaps the most satisfying joy left to us in an age so limited and vulgar as our own, an age grossly carnal in its pleasures, and grossly common in its aims … He was a marvellous type, too, this lad, whom by so curious a chance he had met in Basil’s studio; or could be fashioned into a marvellous type, at any rate. Grace was his, and the white purity of boyhood, and beauty such as old Greek marbles kept for us. There was nothing that one could not do with him. He could be made a Titan or a toy. What a pity it was that such beauty was destined to fade! … 
[Chapter 3]

7.1 What impression of Lord Henry is created in this extract? (3)
7.2 Refer to lines 1–4: To what extent do the details of Dorian’s heritage reflect his own romantic experience with Sibyl Vane later in the novel? (3)
7.3 Refer to line 7: ‘It posed the lad, made him more perfect as it were’. Critically evaluate how this declaration contributes to the central theme of Art and Life in the novel. (3)
7.4 Critically discuss the ironic foreshadowing evident in lines 24–25: ‘What a pity it was that such beauty was destined to fade! ...’. (3)
AND

EXTRACT B
‘I can’t bear this, Harry! You mock at everything, and then suggest the most serious tragedies. I am sorry I told you now. I don’t care what you say to me. I
know I was right in acting as I did. Poor Hetty! As I rode past the farm this morning, I saw her white face at the window, like a spray of jasmine. Don’t let us
talk about it anymore, and don’t try to persuade me that the first good action I have done for years, the first little bit of self-sacrifice I have ever known, is really a sort of sin. I want to be better. I am going to be better. Tell me something about yourself. What is going on in town? I have not been to the club for days.’
‘The people are still discussing poor Basil’s disappearance.’ ‘I should have thought they had got tired of that by this time,’ said Dorian, pouring  himself out some wine, and frowning slightly. ‘My dear boy, they have only been talking about it for six weeks, and the British public are really not equal to the mental strain of having more than one more topic every three months. They have been very fortunate lately, however. They have had my own divorce case and Alan Campbell’s suicide. Now they have got the mysterious disappearance of an artist. Scotland Yard still insists that the man in the grey ulster who left for Paris by the midnight train on the ninth of November was poor Basil, and the French police declare that Basil never arrived in Paris at all. I suppose in about a fortnight we shall be told that he has been seen in San Francisco. It is an odd thing, but everyone who disappears is said to be seen at San Francisco. It must be a delightful city, and possess all the attractions of the next world.’ ‘What do you think has happened to Basil?’ asked Dorian, holding up his Burgundy against the light, and wondering how it was that he could discuss the matter so calmly. 
[Chapter 19]

7.5 Refer to lines 6–7: ‘I want to be better. I am going to be better’. Using the incident with Hetty as a starting point, comment on whether Dorian is sincere in changing his behaviour. (3)
7.6 Lord Henry is very flippant about the attitudes of the British public (lines 12–16). However, it contributes to the darkening mood of the novel. Critically comment on how it is achieved in this extract. (3)
7.7 Account for Dorian’s ‘calm’ response to the discussion of Basil’s disappearance (lines 23–25). (3)
7.8 Refer to both Extracts A and B. Critically discuss the extent to which the hypocrisy of Victorian society is exposed. (4)
[25]
OR

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual question).
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI ─ ESSAY QUESTION
In Life of Pi, the will to survive manifests itself differently in both stories. Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).  [25]
OR

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI ─ CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT C
The Pacific is no place for rowers, especially when they are weak and blind, when their lifeboats are large and unwieldy, and when the wind is not cooperating. He was close by; he was far away. He was to my left; he was to my right. He was ahead of me; he was behind me. But at last we managed it. Our boats touched
with a bump even sweeter-sounding than a turtle’s. He threw me a rope and I tethered his boat to mine. I opened my arms to embrace him and to be embraced
by him. My eyes were brimming with tears and I was smiling. He was directly in front of me, a presence glowing through my blindness.  ‘My sweet brother,’ I whispered. ‘I am here,’ he replied.  I heard a faint growl. ‘Brother, there’s something I forgot to mention.’ He landed upon me heavily. We fell half onto the tarpaulin, half onto the middle bench. His hands reached for my throat. ‘Brother,’ I gasped through his overeager embrace, ‘my heart is with you, but I must urgently suggest we repair to another part of my humble ship.’ ‘You’re damn right your heart is with me!’ he said. ‘And your liver and your flesh!’
I could feel him moving off the tarpaulin onto the middle bench and, fatally, bringing a foot down on the floor of the boat. ‘No, no, my brother! Don’t! We’re not – ‘ 
I tried to hold him back. Alas, it was too late. Before I could say the word alone, I was alone again. I heard the merest clicking of claws against the bottom of the
boat, no more than a pair of spectacles falling to the floor, and the next moment my dear brother shrieked in my face like I’ve never heard a man shriek before. He let go of me. This was the terrible cost of Richard Parker. He gave me a life, my own, but at the expense of taking one. He ripped the flesh off the man’s frame and cracked his bones. The smell of blood filled my nose. Something in me died then that has never come back to life.
[Chapter 90]

9.1 Account for the presence of the castaway at this stage of the novel. (3)
9.2 How is Pi’s interaction with the castaway typical of his character? Refer only to the extract in your response. (3)
9.3 Critically comment on the ‘growl’ (line 11) heard by Pi in the extract. Refer to your knowledge of the novel, as a whole, in your response. (3)
9.4 Refer to line 18. Discuss the significance of the tarpaulin as an important aspect of Pi’s survival at sea with a Bengal tiger. (3)
AND

EXTRACT D
Not a trace of it has been found. That’s a bit hard to believe, isn’t it? There are no tigers in the Americas. If there were a wild tiger out there, don’t you think the police would have heard about it by now?’
‘I should tell you about the black panther that escaped from the Zurich Zoo in the middle of winter.’
‘Mr Patel, a tiger is an incredibly dangerous wild animal. How would you survive in a lifeboat with one? It’s –‘
‘What you don’t realise is that we are a strange and forbidding species to wild animals. We fill them with fear.  They avoid us as much as possible. It took centuries to still the fear in some pliable animals – domestication it’s called – but most cannot get over their fear, and I doubt they ever will. When wild animals fight us, it is out of sheer desperation. They fight when they feel they have no other way out. It’s a very last resort.’
‘In a lifeboat? Come on, Mr Patel, it’s just too hard to believe!’
[Chapter 99]
9.5 Place the extract in context. (3)
9.6 Consider lines 8–13. In response to Okamoto’s question, Pi is able to provide a convincing argument. How has Pi’s childhood in India contributed to his ability to provide such a response? (3)
9.7 Refer to line 9: ‘We fill them with fear.’ Discuss the irony of Pi’s statement, when considering the initial stages of Pi’s ordeal at sea. (3)
9.8 Refer to lines 1–3.
Pi’s animal story, that necessitates the existence of Richard Parker, is essential if Pi is to lead a normal existence after his 227-day experience at sea.
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the statement. Refer to the novel, as a whole, in your response. (4)
[25]
TOTAL SECTION B: 25
AND

SECTION C: DRAMA
Answer ONLY on the play you have studied.
OTHELLO – WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual question).
QUESTION 10: OTHELLO ─ ESSAY QUESTION
The weaknesses of men lead to the misfortune of women in this drama. Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages).  [25]
OR

QUESTION 11: OTHELLO ─ CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT E

OTHELLO:  Give me a living reason she’s disloyal.
IAGO: I do not like the office,
But sith I am entered in this cause so far,
Pricked to’t by foolish honesty and love,
I will go on. I lay with Cassio lately,

And being troubled with a raging tooth,
I could not sleep. There are a kind of men
So loose of soul that in their sleeps
Will mutter their affairs. One of this kind is Cassio.
In sleep I heard him say ‘Sweet Desdemona.
Let us be wary, let us hide our loves’
And then, sir, would he grip and wring my hand
Cry ‘O, sweet creature!’, then kiss me hard,
As if he plucked up kisses by the roots,
That grew upon my lips, lay his leg o’er my thigh,
And sigh, and kiss, and then cry ‘Cursed fate,
That gave thee to the Moor!’
OTHELLO: O, monstrous, monstrous!
IAGO: Nay, this was but his dream
OTHELLO: But this denoted a foregone conclusion.
IAGO: ‘Tis a shrewd doubt, though it be but a dream.
And this may help to thicken other proofs
That do demonstrate thinly.
OTHELLO: I’ll tear her all to pieces.
IAGO: Nay, yet be wise; yet we see nothing done.
She may be honest yet. Tell me but this:
Have you not sometimes seen a handkerchief
Spotted with strawberries in your wife’s hand?
OTHELLO: I gave her such a one. ‘Twas a gift

[Act 3, Scene 3]

11.1 Consider lines 10–17. How is Iago’s retelling of Cassio’s dream a deliberate attempt to provoke Othello? (3)
11.2 Refer to line 25 where Iago advises Othello to ‘be wise’. Discuss the irony of Iago’s advice. (3)
11.3 Othello’s threat, ‘I’ll tear her all to pieces’ (line 24) shows a significant change in Othello’s character. Contrast the character presented in this line with the character seen earlier in the play. (3)
11.4 Explain why Iago intentionally uses the handkerchief as part of his plot to destroy Othello. (3)
AND

EXTRACT F

LODOVICO: O thou Othello, that was once so good,
Fallen in the practice of a cursed slave,
What shall be said to thee?

OTHELLO: Why, anything;
An honourable murderer, if you will:
For naught I did in hate, but all in honour.
LODOVICO: This wretch hath part confessed his villainy.
Did you and he consent in Cassio’s death?
OTHELLO: Ay.
CASSIO: Dear general, I never gave you cause.
OTHELLO: I do believe it, and I ask your pardon.
Will you, I pray, demand that demi-devil
Why he hath thus ensnared my soul and body?
IAGO: Demand me nothing. What you know, you know.
From this time forth I never will speak word.
LODOVICO: (to IAGO) What, not to pray?
GRAZIANO: Torments will open your lips.

[Act 5, Scene 2]

11.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
11.6 Comment on Othello’s conviction that he is an ‘honourable murderer’ (line 5). (3)
11.7 Refer to lines 14–15: ‘Demand me nothing. What you know, you know. From this time forth I never will speak word.’
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and
tone. Motivate your instructions. (3)
11.8 Iago exploits the relationships he has with others to fulfil his evil plans.
Using this extract as a starting point, discuss to what extent you agree with the statement. (4)
[25]
OR

HAMLET – WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual question).
QUESTION 12: HAMLET ─ ESSAY QUESTION
Hamlet is a character of many contradictions.
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages). [25]
OR

QUESTION 13: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
EXTRACT G

GUILDENSTERN

What should we say, my lord?

HAMLET

Why, anything ─ but to th’ purpose.     You were sent for, and there is a kind of confession in your looks which your modesties have not crafted enough to colour. I know the good King and Queen have sent for you.

ROSENCRANTZ

To what end, my lord?

HAMLET

That you must teach me. But let me conjure you by the rights of our fellowship, by the consonancy of our youth, and by the obligation of our ever-present love, and by what more dear a better proposer could charge you withal, be even and direct with me whether you were sent for or no.

ROSENCRANTZ

(to GUILDENSTERN) What say you?

HAMLET

Nay the, I have an eye of you ─ if you love me, hold not off.

GUILDENSTERN

My lord, we were sent for.

HAMLET

I will tell you why. So shall my anticipation prevent your discovery, and your secrecy to the King and Queen moult no feather. I have of late-lost all my mirth, forgone all custom of exercise; and indeed it goes so heavily with my disposition that this    goodly    frame,    the   earth,    seems    to    me    a    sterile promonotory. This most excellent canopy the air, look you, this brave o;erhanging firmament, this majestical roof fretted with golden fire ─ why, it appears no other thing to me than a foul and pestilent congregation of vapours. What a piece of work is man! How noble in reason, how infinite in faculty, in form and moving how express and admirable, in action how like an angel, in apprehension how like a god ─ the beauty of the world, the paragon of animals! And yet, to me ─ no, nor woman, neither, though by your smiling you seem to say so.

ROSENCRANTZ

My lord, there are no such stuff in my thoughts.

HAMLET Why did you laugh, then, when I said ‘Man delights not me’?
ROSENCRANTZ

To think, my lord, if you delight not in man what Lenten entertainment the players shall receive from you. We coted them on the way, and hither are they coming to offer you service.

[Act 2, Scene 2]

13.1 Rosencrantz and Guildenstern are consistently presented together in this drama. What does this suggest about their characters? (3)
13.2 To what extent is Hamlet justified in questioning Rosencrantz and Guildenstern’s loyalty towards him? (3)
13.3 Consider Hamlet’s speech in lines 17–28. What does it reveal about his state of mind at this point in the drama? (3)
13.4 Critically comment on the dramatic impact of the impending arrival of the ‘players’ (lines 31–34). (3)
AND
EXTRACT H

HORATIO

So Guildenstern and Rosencrantz go to’t?

HAMLET

Why, man, they did make love to his employment.
They are not near my conscience.
Their defeat Doth by their own insinuation grow.
‘Tis dangerous when the baser nature comes
Between the pass and fell incensed points
Of mighty opposites

HORATIO

Why, what a king is this!

HAMLET Does it not, think’st thee, stand me now upon ─
He that hath killed my king and whored my mother,
Popped in between th’election and my hopes,
Thrown out his angle for my proper life,
And with such cozenage ─ is’t not perfect conscience
To quit him with this arm? And is’t not to be damned
To let this canker of our nature come
In further evil?
HORATIO It must be shortly known to him from England
What is the issue of the business there?
HAMLET It will be shortly known to him. The interim’s mine,
And a man’s life no morethan to say ‘one’.
But I am very sorry, good Horatio,
That to Laertes I forgot myself;
For by the image of my cause I see
The portraiture of his. I’ll court his favours.
But sure, the bravery of his grief did put me
Into a towering passion.
[Act 5, Scene 2]

13.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
13.6 Refer to lines 9–14: ‘Does it not … with this arm?’
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3)
13.7 Hamlet recognises the ‘bravery of [Laertes’] grief’ (line 25). Show how Laertes’ expression of grief contrasts with that of Hamlet’s. (3)
13.8 ‘Hamlet’s pursuit of justice comes at a great cost.’ Critically comment on the extent to which you agree with this statement. (4)
[25]
OR

THE CRUCIBLE – ARTHUR MILLER
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual question).
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE ─ ESSAY QUESTION
The need for self-preservation in The Crucible is a human response to survival. Discuss the extent to which you agree with this statement.
Your essay should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages). [25]
OR

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE ─ CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT I

HALE You have confessed yourself to witchcraft, and that speaks a wish to come to Heaven’s side. And we will bless you, Tituba.
TITUBA (deeply relieved): Oh, God bless you, Mr Hale!
HALE (with rising exaltation): You are God’s instrument put in our hands to discover the Devil’s agents among us. You are selected, Tituba, you are chosen to help us cleanse our village. So speak utterly, Tituba, turn your back on him and face God – face God, Tituba, and God will protect you.
TITUBA (joining with him): Oh, God, protect Tituba!
HALE (kindly): Who came to you with the Devil? Two? Three? Four? How many?
(TITUBA pants, and begins rocking back and forth again, staring ahead)
TITUBA There was four. There was four.
PARRIS (pressing in on her): Who? Who? Their names, their names! 
TITUBA (suddenly bursting out): Oh, how many times he bid me kill you, Mr Parris!
PARRIS Kill me!
TITUBA (in a fury): He says Mr Parris must be kill! Mr Parris no goodly man, Mr Parris mean man and no gentle man, and he bid me rise out of my bed and cut your throat! (They gasp.) … And then he come one stormy night to me, and he say, ‘Look! I have white people belong to me.’ And I look – and there was Goody Good.
PARRIS Sarah Good!
TITUBA (rocking and weeping): Aye, Sir, and Goody Osburn.
MRS PUTNAM I knew it! Goody Osburn were midwife to me three times. I begged you, Thomas, did I not? I begged him not to call Osburn because I feared her. My babies always shrivelled in her hands!
HALE Take courage, you must give us all their names. How can you bear to see this child suffering? Look at her, Tituba. (He is indicating BETTY on the bed.) Look at her God-given innocence; her soul is so tender; we must protect her, Tituba; the Devil is out and preying on her like a beast upon the flesh of the pure lamb. God will bless you for your help.
ABIGAIL rises as though inspired, and cries out.
I want to open myself!

[Act 1]

15.1 What motivates Tituba’s testimony in this extract? (3)
15.2 Account for the presence of the Putnams during Hale’s examination and questioning. (3)
15.3 ‘… the Devil is out and preying on her like a beast upon the flesh of a pure lamb’ (lines 32–33). Explain the irony in Hale’s assessment of Betty. (3)
15.4 Refer to line 36: ‘I want to open myself!’. Account for Abigail’s dramatic outburst. (3)
AND

EXTRACT J

GILES Say nothin’ more, John. (pointing at Danforth): He’s only playin’ you! He means to hang us all!
(Mary bursts into sobs.)

DANFORTH This is a court of law, Mister. I’ll have no effrontery here!

PROCTOR Forgive him, sir, for his old age.    Peace, Giles, we’ll prove it all now.
(He lifts up Mary’s chin.) You cannot weep, Mary. Remember the angel, what he say to the boy. Hold to it, now; there is your rock. (MARY quiets. He takes out a paper, and turns to Danforth.) This is Mary Warren’s deposition. I – I would ask you remember, sir, while you read it, that until two weeks ago she were no different than the other children are today. (He is speaking reasonably, restraining all his fears, his anger, his anxiety.) You saw her scream, she howled, she swore that familiar spirits choked her; she even testified that Satan, in the form of women now in jail, tried to win her soul away, and then when she refused ─   

DANFORTH  We know all this.

PROCTOR  Aye, sir.   She swears now that she never saw Satan; nor any spirit, vague or clear, that Satan may have sent to hurt her. And she declares her friends are lying now.

(PROCTOR starts to hand DANFORTH the deposition and HALE comes up to DANFORTH in a trembling state.)

HALE I cannot say he is an honest man; I know him little. But in all justice, sir, a claim so weighty cannot be argued by a farmer. In God’s name, sir, stop here; send him home and let him come again with a lawyer ─                                                                                     

DANFORTH (patiently): Now look you, Mr Hale ─

HALE Excellency, I have signed seventy-two death warrants; I am a minister of the Lord, and I dare not take a life without there be a proof so immaculate no slightest qualm of conscience may doubt it.

DANFORTH Mr Hale, you surely do not doubt my justice.                                              

[Act 3]

15.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
15.6 Consider the stage direction in line 3. Account for Mary Warren’s emotional state at this point in the drama. (3)
15.7 Refer to lines 27–29: ‘Excellency, I have signed seventy-two death warrants; I am a minister of the Lord, and I dare not take a life without there be a proof so immaculate …’
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language and tone. Motivate your instructions.  (3)
15.8 ‘Self-importance blinds the protectors of the truth.’ Critically discuss the validity of this statement by referring to both extracts. (4)
[25]

TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL: 80

NOTE:

  • This marking guideline is intended as a guide for markers.
  • It is by no means prescriptive or exhaustive.
  • Candidates' responses should be considered on merit.
  • Answers should be assessed holistically and marks awarded where applicable. The marking guideline should be discussed before the commencement of marking.

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS
Marking the comprehension:

  • Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the meaning/understanding. (Errors should still be indicated.)
  • If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined, disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise. However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an answer, this will be acceptable.
  • For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.
  • No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The reason/substantiation/motivation/quotation is what should be considered.
  • For questions which require quotations from the text, do not penalise candidates for omitting the quotation marks or for an incorrect spelling within the quotation.
  • When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence, mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
  • When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first two/three.
  • Accept dialectal variations.
  • For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING
QUESTIONS: TEXT A

1.1 This indicates that the search for purpose is not something new. (2)
1.2 The first group of people who are looking for meaning in life consists of those who are receiving counselling from psychiatrists/people who want to have more fulfilling lives. The second group of people consists of businessmen who want to be better leaders. (2)
1.3 People become too busy with their daily lives, appointments and objectives.
This constant activity causes them to lose focus of their purpose in life. (2)
1.4 The author is quoting words that have been used by people before. (1)
1.5 Not finding one’s life purpose could lead to a permanent discontentedness (‘chronic, lingering dissatisfaction’), a restlessness in one’s spirit (‘an absence of inner peace’) and a feeling of disharmony with one’s inner self (‘a sense of not being fully in sync with your inner self’).
[Candidates MUST use their own words.]  (3)
1.6 False.
‘Sometimes it is right in front of your eyes’.
[No mark for ‘False’.]  (1)
1.7 This short sentence emphasises that the writer believes each person has a simple choice to make – he/she can either choose to continue living an unfulfilling outer life or he/she can make a real effort to find his/her purpose in life.  (3)
1.8 At first glance being focused on finding one’s purpose in life seems like self- interest, as one expects outside factors (like reaching goals) to determine one’s purpose. However, it is when one forgets about these worldly definitions of success that one finds one’s true purpose, because purpose should determine goals and not vice versa. Knowing yourself creates awareness of your life purpose.
[Any three points.] (3)
1.9 In paragraph 7 the writer relates the story of the investment advisor who discovered his purpose after realising his focus needed to shift from managing money to helping others.
In paragraph 11 the writer states that those who find their purpose have realised that ‘service towards something beyond ego’ is a necessary requirement.
These people discover that focusing on something altruistic beyond the self (‘ego’) enables them to be in accord/harmony (‘in sync’) with their inner selves.
[Candidates must refer to both paragraphs 7 and 11.]  (3)
1.10 Happiness is dependent on what happens in one’s life. / Happiness fluctuates with good and bad times (‘situational’: line 41). One’s purpose, however, is the intrinsic motivation that allows one to keep going and striving towards the fulfilment of that purpose, irrespective of what happens in everyday life. (3)
1.11 The man with the backpack might have gone on a “pilgrimage” to ask the hermit about the meaning of life, since it is sometimes thought that people who withdraw from society might have answers to metaphysical questions.
OR
The man with the backpack might have been hiking in the mountains and unexpectedly met the hermit. He then asked him about the meaning of life. (1)
1.12 The self-deprecating tone of the hermit makes this cartoon humorous. His awareness of both his physical state (‘in a cave in my underpants’) and his lack of purpose (not knowing the ‘meaning of life’), makes this cartoon funny. There is anti-climax since it is not the answer one expects.
[Candidates must identify tone AND discuss how the tone contributes to the humour.] (2)
1.13 In paragraph 10 of TEXT A the author maintains that one only finds meaning in life once one starts focusing on an external purpose that transcends one’s own immediate needs (‘to serve something larger than oneself’: line 56). In TEXT B the hermit has withdrawn from society and spends his life on top of a mountain. This hermit is unlikely to find the purpose/meaning of life in seclusion, as he only needs to concern himself with his own immediate needs daily. / By withdrawing from society, he can focus on his external purpose and not on self-interest and his immediate needs.
In TEXT A the author also says people often find their purpose in their daily work/activities (‘their service and sense of purpose is embodied in the work that they do every day’: lines 58–59). Since the hermit in TEXT B has nothing to do during the day, there is no activity that might contribute to finding his sense of purpose/the meaning of life.
[Candidates must refer to BOTH texts.] (4)
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS

Use the following main points that the candidate should include in the summary as a guideline.
Any 7 valid points are to be credited in paragraph form.
(Sentences and/or sentence fragments must be coherent.)

 

QUOTATIONS

 

POINTS

1

‘Perseverance   is    an    essential element you need to achieve a high level of success.’

 

You     realise      that     success      is dependent on perseverance.

1

‘to        remain        steadfast        in accomplishing the difficult task’

1

It teaches you to be resolute to complete tasks.

2

‘It    requires   a    higher   level   of patience to develop perseverance in you.’

2

You are aware of the need to be patient.

3

‘Someone who practices perseverance is more trustworthy than other people. People know you are not going to quit, no matter how hard the situation gets.’

3

You   are    perceived    to    be    more reliable since you will not give up.

4

‘You develop a sense of self-worth and confidence.’

4

You develop confidence and self-esteem.

5

‘You start taking ownership of the goals you have set to achieve.’

5

You    are     aware    that     you    are responsible for the attainment of your goals.

6

‘You become a firm believer that your destiny is in your hands. You control your own fate.’

6

You realise that you are in control of your life.

7

‘it augments the goal’s value for you  and       intensifies      your motivation level.’

7

You   become    motivated    as    your goals intensify in importance.

8

‘It leads you to wonderful findings and broadens your knowledge about yourself and your goals.’

8

You acquire self-knowledge.

9

‘achieve your true potential’

9

You fulfil your potential.

PARAGRAPH FORM
NOTE: What follows is merely an example. It is not prescriptive and must be used very carefully.

Perseverance determines success. It develops patience and resolution to complete tasks. People with perseverance are perceived to be more reliable than others. This builds confidence and self-esteem. As you persevere you realise that you are in control of your life with the responsibility of fulfilling your goals. These goals become more valuable as you work towards the attainment thereof. As your goals intensify in importance, your motivation to succeed increases. You also acquire self-knowledge as you strive to achieve your potential.
(81 words) 

Marking the summary
The summary must be marked as follows:

  • Mark allocation:
    • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
    • 3 marks for language
    • Total marks = 10
  • Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim:
    • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
    • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
    • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
  • Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim:
    • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark
    • 1–5 points quoted: award 1 language mark

NOTE:

  • Format:
    Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be assessed.
  • Word count:
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used.
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of words used, or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly. If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCURES AND CONVENTIONS
Marking SECTION C:

  • Spelling:
    • One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect, unless the error changes the meaning of the word.
    • In full sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is in the language structure being tested.
    • Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly.
  • Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/as per instruction.
  • For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct.

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING
3.1 The product is included to enable the reader to recognise the brand. (2)
3.2 It could mean that the pet owner should buy more (‘Get more’) Whiskas.
Or it could mean that the pet owner will get more of his pet’s love/devotion if he buys more Whiskas.  (2)
3.3

  • The manufacturers of Whiskas want the reader to know that they are involved in rehoming cats. They also want the readers to become involved. This shows that they care.
  • The inclusion of this sentence is, therefore, effective in conveying the message, as they hope to influence people to buy their product. Animal lovers/cat lovers would hopefully rather buy their product if they know that some of the profits are going towards a worthy cause.
  • They might also convince a reader to adopt a cat. That reader would also be influenced to buy their product, since they “convinced” them to adopt a pet, which would add to their quality of life. The reader would remain loyal to the product.

[Candidates must refer to the message of the advertisement in their answer.]  (3)
3.4 TEXT D would be more effective.

  • Visual: Cat owners would think that the visual representation of the words which follow the movement of the wagging tail is very clever.
  • Text: People who own cats would find the cat’s opinion of his being the most important creature very humorous. The inclusion of the owner as the second best in the world if they give the cat Whiskas, would probably make them buy the food.
    OR

TEXT E is more effective.

  • Visual: The cat appears very shy/uncertain in the image. This would touch the heart strings of people who love cats/animals.
  • Text: An animal lover would find the sentence wishing Larry a happy future in his new home very moving. The invitation to become involved in adopting a cat might convince the reader to undertake this selfless act. People who prefer adoption rather than buying a pet, will approve of this advertisement.

[Any three points. However, the candidate must identify the target market and address both the visual and the text.]   (3)
[10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA
4.1 His tone is one of glee/excitement.

  • His use of the interjection, ‘Oooh’ indicates his glee in catching somebody who is intoxicated. / The word ‘very’ is in bold to emphasise his excitement.
    AND
    His big eyes convey his excitement. / His pursed lips show his glee.

[Candidates must identify tone and indicate how both the verbal and the non-verbal (body language) aspects contribute to the tone to be awarded full marks.]  (3)
4.2 In FRAME 3 Madam is calmly blowing into the breathalyser. In FRAMES 4, 5 and 6 Madam’s cheeks grow progressively rounder. / Madam’s cheeks grow progressively redder (as indicated by the shading).
This shows that she is blowing harder and harder into the defective breathalyser. (2)
4.3 In FRAME 6 the piece of paper which has been stuck in the breathalyser pops out. The absence of dialogue emphasises everybody’s utter amazement at this unexpected turn of events. (2)
4.4 The cartoonist criticises corrupt government contracts in such a way that the reader laughs about it. Popular opinion maintains that China mass produces substandard products and sells them cheaply. Obviously, these cheap products do not work. (3)
[10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY
5.1 The apostrophe indicates plural possession. (1)
5.2 After she had performed for music producers Evan Rogers and Carl Struken in 2003, her music career started at the age of 15.
[Tense must be correct.]  (1)
5.3 realised – released (1)
5.4 But it was only in 2007 that the singer gained recognition with her album,
Good Girl Gone Bad.  (1)
5.5 Over the years, many accolades have been won by the 32-year-old singer.
[Award one mark only if the answer is completely correct.] (1)
5.6 Since she made her debut, / Following her debut, 14 No. 1 hits have featured on the Billboard Hot 100 chart.  (1)
5.7 (Rihanna featured in the Forbes’ list) – on (1)
5.8 B – adjective (1)
5.9 presense – presence (1)
5.10 co-owns (1)
[10]

TOTAL SECTION C: 30
GRAND TOTAL: 70