INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions. 

1. Answer ALL the questions.
2. Write ALL the answers in your ANSWER BOOK.
3. Start the answer to EACH question at the top of a NEW page.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
5. Present your answers according to the instructions of each question.
6. Do ALL drawings in pencil and label them in blue or black ink.
7. Draw diagrams, tables or flow charts only when asked to do so.
8. The diagrams in this question paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
9. Do NOT use graph paper.
10. You may use a non-programmable calculator, protractor and a compass where necessary.
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.11 D.
1.1.1 Which ONE of the following forms part of the placenta?

1. Chorion
2. Amnion
3. Umbilical cord
4. Uterus

1.1.2 The list below represents some reproductive strategies in animals:

1. Amniotic egg
2. External fertilisation
3. Oviparous development
4. Altricial development
   Which of the strategies above are applicable to chickens?
   1. (i) and (ii) only
   2. (i) and (iii) only
   3. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
   4. (i), (ii) and (iv) only

1.1.3 The diagram below represents a process that takes place during meiosis.

Which ONE of the following statements correctly describes the process?

1. The process is crossing over and it results in genetically identical gametes
2. The process is nondisjunction and it results in gametes with the same number of chromosomes
3. The process is crossing over and it results in genetically different gametes
4. The process is nondisjunction and it results in gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes

1.1.4 The table below shows the average lengths of human foetuses.

Which of the following statements about the information in the table is correct?

1. The female foetuses grow at the same rate as the male foetuses.
2. The female foetuses grow faster than the male foetuses.
3. The male foetuses grow faster than the female foetuses in the beginning and then the female foetuses will grow faster than the males at the end.
4. The male foetuses grow faster than the female foetuses.

1.1.5 The diagram below shows two eyes focused on objects at different distances from the eye.

The objects on which eye X and Y are focused are …

1. N and R respectively.
2. M and T respectively.
3. O and S respectively.
4. M and R respectively.

1.1.6 The diagram below shows the development of a zygote in humans.

The correct sequence of the structures is:

1. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5, 6
2. 6, 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
3. 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
4. 2, 5, 4, 1, 6, 3

1.1.7 Which part of the brain interprets the information from the cristae?

1. Cerebellum
2. Cerebrum
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Corpus callosum

1.1.8 The onset of the reproductive age is called …

1. menstruation.
2. puberty.
3. menarche.
4. menopause.

1.1.9 Which combination of structures below indicates the correct sequence in which the sperm travels to meet the ovum in a human female?

1. Vagina → cervix → uterus → fallopian tube
2. Vagina → fallopian tube → cervix → uterus
3. Vagina → uterus → cervix → fallopian tube
4. Vagina → fallopian tube → uterus → cervix

1.1.10 The list below shows the characteristics of a sperm cell:

1. Head with nucleus
2. Enzyme-rich structure in the head
3. Many mitochondria
4. Movable tail
   Which of the above characteristics enables the sperm cell to move?
   1. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
   2. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
   3. (ii) and (iii) only
   4. (iii) and (iv) only
      (10 x 2) (20)

1.2 Give the correct biological term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the term next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.10) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.2.1 The use of resources in such a way that they are available for future generations
1.2.2 The hormone that regulates the amount of salt in the blood
1.2.3 The structure that provides nutrients to the developing embryo in oviparous organisms
1.2.4 A diagram showing the number and appearance of chromosomes in a cell
1.2.5 The division of cytoplasm during cell division
1.2.6 The type of fertilisation where the ovum is fertilised inside the female reproductive organs
1.2.7 The organ in human females where meiosis takes place
1.2.8 Chemical substances used to eliminate pests
1.2.9 Points on homologous pairs of chromosomes where crossing over takes place
1.2.10 The structure in the head of the sperm that contains enzymes (10 x 1) (10)
1.3 Indicate whether each of the statements in COLUMN І applies to A ONLY, B ONLY, BOTH A and B or NONE of the items in COLUMN ІІ. Write A only, B only, both A and B or none next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.3) in the ANSWER BOOK.

(3 x 2) (6)
1.4 The diagram below represents the structure of the male reproductive system.

1.4.1 Label part:

1. G (1)
2. F (1)

1.4.2 Supply the LETTER and the NAME of the structures with the following functions:

1. The part where the sperm cells mature (2)
2. The structure that controls the temperature for sperm production (2)

1.4.3 Describe the common function of parts A and B. (2)
1.5 The diagrams below show different phases of the process of meiosis.

Give the NUMBER of the phase where:
1.5.1 The chromosomes are haploid (1)
1.5.2 Spindle fibres pull chromosomes to opposite poles (1)
1.5.3 Crossing over takes place (1)
1.5.4 A new nuclear membrane forms around unreplicated chromosomes (1)
1.5.5 The spindle fibres start to form (1)
1.5.6 Random arrangement of chromosome pairs take place (1)
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B
QUESTION 2
2.1 A factory was built on a hill next to a dam as shown in the diagram below. The dam is a source of water for an informal settlement built next to the factory. As a result of the activities of the factory, hot water is pumped from the factory into the dam next to it.

2.1.1 Define the term thermal pollution. (2)
2.1.2 Explain ONE advantage of the dam to the community. (2)
2.1.3 The management of the factory made a statement saying that the hot water pumped into the dam has no effect on the water and the living organisms in the water. Explain TWO reasons why this statement is false. (4)
2.2 The diagram below shows the process of the greenhouse effect.

[Adapted from www.blogs.ntu.edu.sg]
2.2.1 The process at B is caused by an increased concentration of greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide. Name TWO human activities that cause an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere. (2)
2.2.2 Describe what happens at the following points on the diagram:

1. A (1)
2. B (1)

2.2.3 An increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere leads to enhanced greenhouse effect which may result in increased average temperature of the surface of the earth known as global warming. Explain TWO effects of increased average temperatures on earth. (4)
2.3 Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is a hormone released by the hypothalamus in females. It starts a chain of events during the menstrual cycle. The following diagram is a representation of the steps during the menstrual cycle in females.

[Adapted from www.open.edu]
2.3.1 Name gland A. (1)
2.3.2 According to the diagram, what is the function of gonadotropin-releasing hormone? (2)
2.3.3 Describe the effect of FSH on the ovaries. (2)
2.3.4 An ovulation indicator test can be used to predict the time of ovulation in a woman. It measures the amount of LH in blood or urine. Explain why a woman who wants to fall pregnant would use an ovulation indicator test. (2)
2.3.5 In some females too little progesterone is secreted. Explain ONE problem this could cause in a female who is trying to fall pregnant. (2)
2.4 Read the following extract about motor neuron disease.

2.4.1 According to the extract, what is the definition of motor neuron disease? (1)
2.4.2 From the extract, list TWO factors that can cause motor neuron disease. (2)
2.4.3 Explain the possible effect that this disease will have on the reflex action if a person was to step on a thorn. (3)
2.4.4 Draw a labelled diagram of a motor neuron. (4)
2.5 One of the defects of the eye is astigmatism.
2.5.1 Describe how astigmatism is caused. (2)
2.5.2 Describe how astigmatism can be treated. (1)
2.5.3 Name TWO defects of the eye that are associated with the lens. (2) [40]

QUESTION 3
3.1 An investigation was conducted by scientists to determine the effect of a low GI breakfast and a high GI breakfast on the average blood glucose concentration of women.
NOTE:

• High GI food is quickly digested and absorbed.
• Low GI food is slowly digested and absorbed.
• GI is the Glycaemic Index of a person. Glycaemic Index is a figure representing the relative ability of a carbohydrate food to increase the level of glucose in the blood.

The following steps were followed during the investigation:

• Ten women who were between the ages of 28 and 30 volunteered to participate.
• The blood glucose concentration of each female was measured before eating breakfast.
• After eating breakfast, the blood glucose concentration was measured at 15-minute intervals over a period of 120 minutes.

The results of this investigation are shown in the graph below.

[Adapted from www.ncbi.nih.gov]
3.1.1 Explain ONE possible reason why blood samples were taken before breakfast was eaten. (2)
3.1.2 Give the independent variable for this investigation. (1)
3.1.3 Give the blood glucose concentration at 45 minutes after eating a high GI breakfast in mmol/ℓ . (1)
3.1.4 With reference to the graph, describe the difference between the effect of eating low GI food compared to eating high GI food on the blood glucose levels of the women. (2)
3.1.5 Name the hormone secreted by the pancreas that will cause the effects on blood glucose levels as seen in the graph from 45 to 120 minutes. (1)
3.1.6 Explain the effect of a high GI breakfast on the secretion of the hormone named in QUESTION 3.1.5. (2)
3.1.7 Six months later the scientists decided to repeat the investigation. Five additional women joined the investigation and were not given breakfast at all as a control group.

1. Give ONE reason why the scientists decided to repeat the investigation. (1)
2. Explain the significance of having a control group for this investigation. (2)

3.1.8 Give TWO ways in which the scientists ensured the validity of the original investigation. (2)
3.2 A group of Grade 12 learners set up the following apparatus in their classroom. Two plants were used. One was placed on a clinostat that rotated (Diagram A) and the other was placed in a stationary position (Diagram B). They left the apparatus in these positions inside a dark cupboard for two weeks before making the observations as indicated in the diagram below.
NOTE: A clinostat is an apparatus that is able to rotate.

3.2.1 What type of plant growth movement was observed? (1)
3.2.2 Briefly explain the results observed in:

1. A (3)
2. B (4)

3.2.3 State ONE reason why the apparatus was placed in a dark cupboard for the duration of the investigation. (1)
3.3 Alien plant invasions may lead to loss of biodiversity.
3.3.1 List THREE ways in which alien plant invaders can be controlled. (3)
3.3.2 Explain how alien plant invaders can lead to loss of biodiversity. (2)
3.3.3 Apart from alien plant invasions, name TWO other causes of loss of biodiversity. (2)
3.4 The diagram below shows the structure of a human ear.

3.4.1 Label parts:

1. A (1)
2. C (1)
3. D (1)

3.4.2 Identify the LETTER representing the auditory nerve. (1)
3.4.3 Name the type of neuron that can be found in the auditory nerve. (1)
3.4.4 Explain the significance of the structures labelled C being arranged in different planes. (2)
3.4.5 When a person is close to a bomb explosion, a significant amount of pressure is exerted on the ear. Explain the effect this will have on the process of hearing. (3) [40]
TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C
QUESTION 4
A marathon runner participated in a race that started before sunrise.
Describe how her body temperature and water balance was regulated during the race. Also describe the changes that took place in her eyes as the sun rose in front of her.
Content: (17)
Synthesis: (3)
NOTE: No marks will be awarded for answers in the form of charts or diagrams.

TOTAL SECTION C: 20
GRAND TOTAL: 150

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections, namely SECTION A, SECTION B and SECTION C.
2. The questions in SECTION A and SECTION B are COMPULSORY.
3. Answer any TWO questions in SECTION C.
4. Read ALL the questions carefully.
5. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
6. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A (COMPULSORY)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.6 D.
1.1.1 A way of communicating assertively and firmly with others means …

1. accepting what others are saying to avoid differing from them. 
2. bravely giving your opinion to others in a thoughtful manner. 
3. insisting that your ideas and opinions are accepted by others. 
4. agreeing to avoid conflict in order to keep the peace with others.

1.1.2 Two types of exercises that may promote one's muscular strength and endurance could include …

1. sit-and-reach tests and shoulder stretches. 
2. running on the spot and a 12-minute run test. 
3. half-curl-up exercises and knee push-ups. 
4. leaning and reaching and side-plank exercises.

1.1.3 Being an environmentally responsible citizen means that you …

1. purchase products that require minimal packaging where possible.
2. clean your environment by disposing of plastics into other areas. 
3. purchase plastic bags to carry groceries and other household items.
4. support the use of plastic straws in restaurants and school tuck shops.

1.1.4 According to labour regulations, the following situation calls for redress in the workplace:

1. An employee who is working four hours overtime a day 
2. Four months maternity leave for working females 
3. An employee who is working forty hours a week 
4. Monitoring employees' calls during working hours

1.1.5 The word 'analyse' in an examination instruction means to ...

1. put items side by side to see the similarities and differences.
2. take apart an idea, and examine and investigate each part. 
3. provide an itemised series of parts, reasons or qualities.
4. discuss, give examples, state points for and against. (5 x 1) (5)

1.2 Give ONE word/term for EACH of the following descriptions. Write only the word/term next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.2.1 Specific physical activities done at different stations, each with a set of instructions in a marked area (1)
1.2.2 A document that affirms the democratic values of human dignity, equality and freedom (1)
1.2.3 An international event that takes place every four years where athletes compete in a variety of sporting activities (1)
1.2.4 The level of government that makes by-laws for street trading (1)
1.2.5 A study style where learners read out loud, recite facts, discuss work with others and use mnemonics (1)
1.3 Answer the following questions by writing the answer next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.3) in the ANSWER BOOK. Write your answers in full sentences.
1.3.1 Identify TWO democratic rights that could be violated during violent protest action. (2 x 1) (2)
1.3.2 Explain TWO poor study habits that may hamper effective studying. (2 x 2) (4)
1.3.3 Study the cartoon on the next page and answer the questions that follow.

[Adapted from www.dailymaverick.co.za. Accessed on 21 April 2019.]

1. Explain ONE limitation to the right to freedom of expression that may apply to cartoons such as above when reporting on corrupt officials. (1 x 2) (2)
2. Discuss how the cartoon on corruption above could help to fulfil the role of the media in a democratic society. (1 x 2) (2)
   TOTAL SECTION A: 20

SECTION B (COMPULSORY)
Answer ALL the questions in this section. Write your answers in full sentences.

QUESTION 2
Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

2.1 State THREE ways in which schools could promote social entrepreneurship as a viable option to counteract unemployment. (3 x 1) (3)
2.2 Describe ONE financial challenge that young entrepreneurs may initially encounter and indicate how they could deal with this challenge. (1 + 1) (2)
2.3 Discuss how becoming an entrepreneur could be used as an opportunity to empower young people in your community. (1 x 2) (2)
2.4 Suggest TWO ways in which you could use social media as a platform to promote your chances of getting a job. Motivate EACH answer. (2 x 2) (4)
2.5 Assess why EACH of the following characteristics is important for a young worker entering the job market:
2.5.1 Passion (1 x 2) (2)
2.5.2 Creativity (1 x 2) (2) [15]

QUESTION 3
Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

3.1 Define the term gender imbalance and state TWO negative effects that this may have in the workplace (1 + 2) (3)
3.2 Explain why females may be more vulnerable to sexually transmitted infections (STIs) as a result of gender imbalances. (1 x 2) (2)
3.3 Discuss ONE possible reason why there is a tendency for males NOT to report incidents of sexual abuse against themselves. (1 x 2) (2)
3.4 Assess how sexual bullying on social media platforms could be regarded as a form of gender-based violence. (2 x 2) (4)
3.5 Suggest TWO intervention strategies that the government could introduce to prevent the ongoing challenges of gender imbalances in society. Motivate EACH answer. (2 x 2) (4) [15]
TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C
Answer any TWO questions in this section.
Your responses must consist of paragraphs. Marks will ONLY be allocated for responses written in full sentences.
QUESTION 4
Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

Write paragraphs on the responsibilities of various levels of government.
Use the following as a guideline:

• State ONE social responsibility of municipalities and explain how mismanagement of public funds through fraud and corruption may affect social development in communities. (1 + 2) (3)
• Discuss THREE possible reasons why most municipalities are still mismanaging public funds, as stated in the extract above. (3 x 2) (6)
• Recommend TWO practical ways in which local communities could help prevent the mismanagement of public funds by municipalities. For EACH recommendation indicate how EACH action may help prevent mismanagement. (2 x 3) (6) [15]

QUESTION 5
Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

Write paragraphs on the evaluation of campaigns.
Use the following as a guideline:

• Define the term campaign and state TWO benefits of the youth participating in anti-substance abuse campaigns. (1 + 2) (3)
• Discuss THREE contributing factors that may lead to an increased number of learners abusing substances in schools. (3 x 2) (6)
• Recommend TWO practical strategies that could be implemented by the National Department of Social Development to ensure that the campaign is effective. For EACH answer also indicate how EACH strategy may contribute to the success of the campaign. (2 x 3) (6) [15]

QUESTION 6
Study the extract below and answer the questions that follow.

Write paragraphs on the core elements of a job contract.
Use the following as a guideline:

• Identify the relevant Labour Act related to sick leave in the scenario above and give TWO reasons why workers should know the regulations on taking leave. (1 + 2) (3)
• How do you think the employer came to the conclusion that the worker's medical certificates in the scenario above were fraudulent? Discuss THREE possible reasons. (3 x 2) (6)
• Recommend TWO practical ways in which employers could reinforce work ethics to counteract absenteeism in the workplace. For EACH answer also indicate how EACH measure may improve the work ethics of workers. (2 x 3) (6) [15]

TOTAL SECTION C:30
GRAND TOTAL: 80

MARKING GUIDELINE

SECTION A: SHORT QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
1.1
1.1.1 C ✔
1.1.2 D ✔
1.1.3 A ✔
1.1.4 A ✔
1.1.5 D ✔
1.1.6 B ✔
1.1.7 B ✔
1.1.8 B ✔
1.1.9 B ✔
1.1.10 B ✔
1.1.11 C ✔
1.1.12 D ✔
1.1.13 A ✔
1.1.14 C ✔
1.1.15 C ✔
1.1.16 B ✔
1.1.17 D
1.1.18 C ✔
1.1.19 D ✔
1.1.20 A ✔ (20 x 1) (20)
1.2
1.2.1 Blue Mosque ✔
1.2.2 Berlin Wall ✔
1.2.3 Black Forest ✔
1.2.4 Wailing Wall ✔
1.2.5 Jungfrau-Aletsch ✔ (5 x 1) (5)
1.3
1.3.1 BSR ✔
1.3.2 Multiplier effect ✔
1.3.3 Tokyo, Japan ✔
1.3.4 Limpopo ✔
1.3.5 Provide international payment networks ✔ (5 x 1) (5)
1.4
1.4.1 D ✔
1.4.2 E ✔
1.4.3 B ✔
1.4.4 C ✔
1.4.5 G ✔ (5 x 1) (5)
1.5
1.5.1 Prohibited goods ✔
1.5.2 Duty free goods ✔
1.5.3 Prohibited goods ✔
1.5.4 Duty free goods ✔
1.5.5 Goods to declare ✔ (5 x 1) (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: MAP WORK AND TOUR PLANNING; FOREIGN EXCHANGE
QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1

• London 0
• Madrid +1
  NOTE: As both countries will be practicing daylight savings time at the time of the flight it is not necessary to take DST into account in the calculation as it does not make a difference in the answer.
• Time difference: 1 hour ✔
  11:35 (+ ✔) 1 hour = 12:35
  12:35 (+ ✔) 2h25m = 15:00 ✔
  OR
  15:00 ✔✔✔✔ (4)

2.1.2

1. South Africa +2
   Switzerland +1 (+1 hour DST ✔) +2
   No time difference ✔
   06:10 (- ✔) 10h45m = 19:25 ✔
   OR
   19:25 ✔✔✔✔ (4)
2. Switzerland +1
   Spain +1
   NOTE: As both countries will be practicing daylight savings time at the time of the flight it is not necessary to take DST into account in the calculation as it does not make a difference in the answer.
   No time difference ✔
   07:00 (+ ✔) 2h15m = 09:15 ✔ on 2 April ✔
   OR
   09:15 ✔✔✔on 2 April ✔ (4)

2.1.3

1. Extreme tiredness ✔ (1)
2. The tiredness is caused by sitting for a long period of time in an aeroplane.✔✔ (2)

2.1.4

1. South Africa ✔
   British ✔ (England) (2)
2. MICE ✔
   • MESE
   • Business tourist (1)
3. Air transport – flights ✔
   Rail transport – train ✔ (2)
4. Delegates most likely made use of hotel accommodation.✔
   Motivation: Hotels offer business services that suit the profile of a MICE/MESE/business tourist.✔✔ (3)
5. The flight landed on the next day, ✔✔ 2 April (2)

2.1.5

• Passport ✔
• Visa ✔
  • Schengen visa (2)

2.1.6

1. Red channel ✔ (1)
2. The delegate was carrying more alcohol than is allowed when entering a country. ✔✔
   • He was above the limit allowed when taking alcohol into a country.
   • He had to declare the wine at customs. (2)

2.1.7 In public places make sure that you ask advice from a trustworthy source.✔✔
         Do not leave luggage unattended while at the station.✔✔

• Do not wear visible jewellery.
• Carry cameras and bags over your shoulder.
• Keep valuables tucked away where no one can see them or in a bag worn under your clothes.
• Try not to carry large amounts of cash with you.
• Be careful when using ATMs, report stolen/lost bank cards immediately.
• Do not accept or carry packages for strangers.
• Adhere to the safety regulations. (2 x 2) (4) [34]

QUESTION 3
3.1
3.1.1

• R20 000,00 ÷ ✔18,36 ✔ = £1 089,32 ✔
  OR
  £1 089,32 ✔✔✔ (3)

3.1.2

• R15 500,00 ÷ ✔16,47 ✔= €941,11 ✔
  OR
  €941,11 ✔✔✔ (3)

3.1.3

• €25 x ✔ 15,88 ✔ = ZAR397 ✔
  OR
  ZAR397 ✔✔✔ (3)

3.2
3.2.1

1. 2018 ✔ (1)
2. When exchanging rand for euro in 2018 an international traveller would get less euro for his/her rand than in 2017 and 2016. ✔✔
   • In 2018 a traveller would have had to pay more rand in exchange for one euro than in 2016 and 2017.
   • In 2018 a traveller would have paid R16,27 in exchange for one euro while in 2017 and 2016 he/she would have paid R14,77 and R14,44 respectively. (2)

3.2.2 A weakening rand will result in increased inbound tourism from European countries ✔✔as visitors will receive more rand when exchanging their euro for rand. ✔✔

• South Africa will be perceived as a cheap destination resulting in an increase in European tourists.
• Tourists from European countries will have greater buying power when visiting South Africa.
• Tourists from European countries could consider lengthening their stay in South Africa.
• Tourists from European countries could take part in more activities when in South Africa. (4) [16]
  TOTAL SECTION B: 50

SECTION C: TOURISM ATTRACTIONS; CULTURAL AND HERITAGE TOURISM; MARKETING
QUESTION 4
4.1
4.1.1

• A – Statue of Liberty ✔
• B – Buckingham Palace ✔
• E – Taj Mahal ✔
• F – Ayers Rock/Uluru
• G – Sphinx ✔
• H – Chichén Itzá ✔ (6 x 1) (6)

4.1.2

• C – Italy ✔/Vatican City State/Vatican City
• G – Egypt ✔ (2 x 1) (2)

4.1.3

• E – Agra ✔
• F – Alice Springs ✔/Northern Territory/Uluru-Kata Tjuta National Park
• H – Yucatán Peninsula ✔ (3 x 1) (3)

4.1.4

• C – Vatican City ✔
• D – Red Square ✔ (2 x 1) (2)

4.2
4.2.1 Game research ✔✔ (2)
4.2.2

• Guests are offered a variety of safaris and experiences.✔✔
• The cuisine is of a high standard.✔✔
• The chefs take the guest’s meal preferences into account.✔✔
  • Personal butlers are assigned to guests.✔✔
  • The spa offers extended operating hours.
  • The spa facility has a deck with a view of the surrounding bush.
  • Evening activities are offered to guests.
  • An alternative transport option (via helicopter) is available when travelling to Shambala Private Game Reserve.
  • The accommodation on offer is luxurious.
  • The accommodation is set in picturesque and tranquil surroundings. (4 x 2) (8)
    NOTE: Answers should be in the form of a paragraph; bullets have been given for ease of marking. [23]

QUESTION 5
5.1 Mpumalanga ✔ (1)
5.2 Natural ✔✔ (2)
5.3
5.3.1 Criterion viii ✔✔

• “To be outstanding examples representing major stages of earth's history, including the record of life, significant on going geological processes in the development of landforms, or significant geomorphic or physiographic features.” (2)

5.3.2

• The site contains among the oldest sequence of volcanic and sedimentary rocks on earth. ✔✔
• The site contains among the best-preserved sequence of volcanic and sedimentary rocks on earth. ✔✔
  • The site provides evidence of the earth’s earliest life forms.
  • The site provides earliest evidence of the way continents were formed.
  • The physical and chemical characteristics of the rocks provide an unparalleled source of scientific information about the early Earth. (2 x 2) (4)

5.4
5.4.1

• The site will receive national and international recognition which will result in an increase in visitor numbers. ✔✔
• Influx of visitors to the site will lead to increased tourism revenue. ✔✔
  • An increase in tourist numbers will lead to the creation of job opportunities due to increased demand for services.
  • Increased visitor numbers will set the multiplier effect into motion.
  • There will be a boost in the economic activity lending itself to increased GDP and benefiting all tourism businesses in the area.
  • Partnerships will be formed amongst the various stakeholders.
  • The area may attract foreign investment. (2 x 2) (4) [13]

QUESTION 6
6.1 Safari enthusiasts ✔✔

• Wild life enthusiasts (2)

6.2

• It will increase the awareness of South Africa as a travel destination. ✔✔
• It will increase the volume of arrivals from the United Kingdom (UK) travel market.✔✔
  • Showcasing South Africa as an attractive safari destination will result in increased inbound arrivals from the UK that will in turn set the
    multiplier effect into motion. (2 x 2) (4)

6.3

• KLM provides a daily service to Johannesburg via Amsterdam from the targeted cities in the UK resulting in increased inbound tourism.✔✔ 
• Visits to game reserves will increase as, from Johannesburg, holidaymakers are within easy reach of many of South Africa’s game reserves, which are home to the Big 5. ✔✔ (2 x 2) (4)

6.4 A

• 1% tourism levy is collected by the accommodation establishment from the paying guest and then paid over to the Tourism Business Council of South Africa (TBCSA) who then hands it over to TOMSA. ✔✔
• TOMSA administers the funds and makes them available to South African Tourism who uses the funds to market South Africa as a tourist destination. ✔✔ (2 x 2) (4) [14]
  TOTAL SECTION C: 50

SECTION D: TOURISM SECTORS; SUSTAINABLE AND RESPONSIBLE TOURISM
QUESTION 7
7.1 A contract of employment is an agreement between an employer and an employee outlining the conditions of the person’s employment. ✔✔ (2)
7.2

• The names of the employer and the employee ✔
• Job title ✔
• Date of commencement of duty ✔
  • Core duties
  • Working hours
  • Uniform allowances
  • Travel benefits
  • Leave and holiday entitlement
  • Fringe benefits
  • Details of pension schemes or provident fund
  • Remuneration (salary or wage) and deductions
  • Notice period required from the employee as well as the employer, should either wish to terminate the contract
  • Professional accountability and responsibility
  • Service ethics
  • Signatures of the employer and the employee (3 x 1) (3)

7.3 A code of conduct is a document that is unique to each workplace providing guidance to staff about acceptable behaviour. ✔✔
It gives guidance to staff about ethical matters. ✔✔

• It guides the relationship staff should have with their colleagues and clients.
• It creates a co-operative atmosphere.
• It promotes integrity in the workplace.
• It ensures that all at the workplace are treated with respect.
• It acknowledges different religious, cultural and social practices. (2 x 2) (4)

7.4 If the staff are professional it will create a good impression to their clients. ✔✔
Professional staff instil confidence in the business. ✔✔

• A professional appearance can result in the business being a success/positive word-of-mouth (WOM) advertising.
• A professional appearance can result in the business gaining a competitive advantage over other businesses. (2 x 2) (4) [13]

QUESTION 8
8.1 

• 3 pillars of sustainable tourism: people (social), ✔ planet (environment), ✔ profit (economic) ✔ (3)
• People: Members of the local community have experienced social upliftment through skills development and life skills support ✔✔
• Planet: Waste reduction is ensured through recycling of tea bags ✔✔
• Profit: Jobs are created; artists receive payment for every finished tea bag ✔✔ (6)
  NOTE: Candidates should write in paragraph format. Bullets have been given for ease of marking.

8.2

• Original Teabag Designs will purchase the goods that they require to make their finished products in the local community. ✔✔
• This will ensure that the local economy is supported and that money generated remains in the local community. ✔✔
• The multiplier effect will come into play resulting in an improved local economy. (2 x 2) (4)

8.3

• Original Teabag Designs could apply for sustainable tourism certification to create an awareness of their business. ✔✔
• Original Teabag Designs could encourage joint socio-economic and environmental programmes to which tourists can contribute. ✔✔
• Original Teabag Designs could market themselves on responsible tourism marketing platforms. (2 x 2) (4) [17]
  TOTAL SECTION D: 30

SECTION E: DOMESTIC, REGIONAL AND INTERNATIONAL TOURISM; COMMUNICATION AND CUSTOMER CARE
QUESTION 9
9.1
9.1.1

• Natural disaster ✔✔
• Volcanic eruption (2)

9.1.2

• Tourists would cancel their trips due to safety fears. ✔✔
• Tourism businesses would suffer a loss of revenue due to cancellations and a decrease in bookings. ✔✔
• People working in tourism businesses might lose their jobs. ✔✔
• Cruise operators would suspend their stops to the affected area. ✔✔
• Attractions in the affected area would be forced to suspend operations.
  • The lava flow would have destroyed infrastructure e.g. roads and electricity supply.
  • The toxic gas released during the volcanic eruption would have reduced the air quality resulting in health problems. (4 x 2) (8)
    NOTE: Answers should be in the form of a paragraph; bullets have been given for ease of marking.

9.1.3

• Many tourists cancelled their trips to Hawaii because they did not realise that the impact of the eruption was isolated and that the rest of the Big Island or the other islands of Hawaii were still a safe travel destination. ✔✔
• Media reports and social media created the impression that all the islands of Hawaii were affected by the eruption resulting in tourist cancellations and a decline in bookings. (2)

9.2 9.2.1

• R1,7 billion ✔✔
• R1,7 (2)

9.2.2

• There was a growth in international tourist arrivals in quarter 1 of 2018 compared to quarter 1 of 2017. ✔✔
• There was an increase in the length of stay as international tourists stayed on average one night longer in quarter 1 of 2018 compared to quarter 1 of 2017. ✔✔ (2 x 2) (4)

9.2.3

• The rand strengthened against major currencies in this quarter and this had a negative effect on tourist expenditure. ✔✔
• Tourists received less of the local currency when exchanging their currencies. (2)

9.3 9.3.1 Preloaded foreign currency debit card ✔✔

• Cash Passport card
• Travel Wallet
• International Travel Card (2)

9.3.2 This payment method is convenient ✔✔

• Provides debit card functionality without linking to your bank account.
• Prevents the cardholder from going into debt.
• Can be reloaded with any amount of money online, over a smartphone or at any ATM worldwide.
• Is PIN protected and therefore safer than carrying cash.
• Less risk is involved as the card is not linked to your bank account. (2) [24]

QUESTION 10
10.1 Web based response ✔✔

• Internet (2)

10.2

• To identify areas that need improvement ✔✔
• To obtain information from customers about their levels of satisfaction with the service or product that they have experienced.
• To build better relationships with customers.
• To encourage repeat visits.
• To ensure increased profits for the business.
• To identify future opportunities for improvement.
• To inform and empower staff about ways to improve their customer service delivery.
• To create opportunities for in-service training in the problem areas as indicated by the feedback received.
• To encourage the staff to perform better. (2)

10.3 Customer loyalty and repeat business ✔✔

• Improved public satisfaction
• An edge over the competition
• Reduced marketing budget
• Increased sales
• Fewer customer complaints (2) [6]

TOTAL SECTION E: 30
GRAND TOTAL: 200

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.

1. This question paper consists of FIVE sections.
2. ALL questions in SECTIONS A, B, C, D and E are COMPULSORY.
3. Start EACH QUESTION on a NEW page.
4. You may use a non-programmable pocket calculator.
5. In QUESTIONS 3.1.1, 3.1.2 and 3.1.3 round off your answer to TWO decimal places.
6. Show ALL calculations where required.
7. Write neatly and legibly.
8. The following table is a guide to help you allocate your time according to each section.

   SECTION	QUESTION	TOPIC	MARKS	TIME
   A	1	Short Questions	40 marks	20 minutes
   B	2	Map Work and Tour  Planning	50 marks	50 minutes
   	3	Foreign Exchange
   C	4	Tourism Attractions	50 marks	50 minutes
   	5	Heritage Tourism
   	6	Marketing
   D	7	Tourism Sectors	30 marks	30 minutes
   	8	Sustainable and   Responsible   Tourism
   E	9	Domestic, Regional  and International  Tourism	30 marks	30 minutes
   	10	Communication and  Customer Care
   		TOTAL:	200	180

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: SHORT QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.20) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.21 A.
1.1.1 The requirement, introduced in 2016 by the Department of Home Affairs, that parents visiting South Africa with a child had to produce this particular document had a negative impact on inbound tourism.

1. Passport
2. Health certificate
3. Unabridged birth certificate
4. IDP

1.1.2 This African travel and outdoor show is held annually in …

1. Johannesburg and Durban.
2. Bloemfontein and Durban.
3. Cape Town and Bloemfontein.
4. Johannesburg and Cape Town.

1.1.3 An example of a CSI policy in a tourism business:

1. Offering bursaries to students who are planning to study Tourism
2. Informing staff members about the code of conduct of the business
3. Considering the effect that activities for tourists can have on the environment
4. Providing staff with uniforms

1.1.4 A form of payment that allows for convenient banking but requires access to the internet:

1. EFT
2. SWIFT
3. ATM
4. Bank draft

1.1.5 A symptom of malaria:

1. Swollen feet
2. Extreme tiredness
3. Yellow colour of the skin and eyes
4.  Headaches, fever, pains in the muscles and joints

1.1.6 This icon is located in …

1. China.
2. Thailand.
3. Jordan.
4. India.

1.1.7 Which of the following is the LEAST likely to reflect the professional image of a company?

1. Physical appearance of the business
2. Number of staff members
3. Customer service policies
4. Stationery and marketing material

1.1.8 … will contribute to universal accessibility for tourists at an attraction.

1. The installation of fire alarms
2. The introduction of Braille signage
3. The non-availability of sliding doors
4. The removal of elevators

1.1.9 The $ is the currency that must be exchanged when travelling to …

1. Paris.
2. Harare.
3. Beijing.
4. London.

1.1.10 The ǂKhomani Cultural Landscape World Heritage Site is located at the South African border with …

1. Namibia.
2. Namibia and Botswana.
3. Lesotho.
4. Zimbabwe and Botswana.

1.1.11 The time in New York, USA (-5) when the clock strikes 00:00 at New Year in Port Elizabeth, South Africa (+2) on 1 January:

1. 18:00
2. 07:00
3. 17:00
4. 06:00

1.1.12 The graph showing the average spend per day by tourists visiting South Africa during quarter 4 for the period 2014 to 2016 indicates the following trend:

1. All markets showed a consistent growth in the average spend per day by tourists
2. The average spend per day by tourists from the European market was consistently the highest
3. All markets showed a consistent decline in the average spend per day by tourists
4. African Land Markets showed a steady decline in the average spend per day by tourists

1.1.13 A disease that cannot be prevented by vaccination:

1. Bilharzia
2. Yellow Fever
3. Hepatitis A
4. Hepatitis B

1.1.14 Portugal’s most popular region for holidaymakers:

1. Segovia
2. The Parthenon
3. The Algarve
4. The Riviera

1.1.15 The airline grounded by South African Civil Aviation Authority in May 2018 due to safety issues with nine of its aircraft:

1. SAA
2. SA Airlink
3. SA Express
4. FlySafair

1.1.16 The Comrades Marathon is closely associated with this city:

1. London
2. Pietermaritzburg
3. New York
4. Cape Town

1.1.17 The first consideration for a travel agent when planning an itinerary:

1. Travel documents
2. Luggage and clothing
3. Logical route planning
4. Compiling a tourist profile

1.1.18 The last step in an analysis to determine the trend in customer feedback:

1. Decide on an action plan
2. Capture and study the feedback
3. Launch the intervention process
4. Determine common complaints

1.1.19 When wanting to drive a vehicle in a foreign country a traveller must obtain a … before leaving his/her country.

1. health certificate
2. IDL
3. travel allowance
4. IDP

1.1.20 This world icon is famous for its layered bands of red rock revealing millions of years of geological history:

1. The Grand Canyon
2. Mount Everest
3. Machu Picchu
4. Petra (20 x 1) (20)

1.2 Choose the name of a world icon provided in the list below that best completes the descriptions. Write only the name of the world icon next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.5) in the ANSWER BOOK.

1.2.1 This popular attraction that features a cascade of domes and six slender minarets is closed to non-worshippers during the six daily prayer times
1.2.2 The remains of a physical barrier that symbolised the division between democracy and communism and lack of freedom during the Cold War
1.2.3 A mountainous region in south west Germany famous for its picturesque villages and the production of cuckoo clocks
1.2.4 A place of prayer and pilgrimage sacred to the Jewish people
1.2.5 This protected area is home to the largest and longest glacier in the Swiss Alps (5 x 1) (5)
1.3 Choose the correct word(s) from those given in brackets. Write only the word(s) next to the question number (1.3.1–1.3.5) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.3.1 When a traveller exchanges foreign currency in preparation for a holiday, the bank will do the transaction using the (BBR/BSR).
1.3.2 When money filters through the economy of a region/country benefitting various organisations this is known as the (multiplier effect/GDP).
1.3.3 (Tokyo, Japan/Paris, France) will host the 2020 Summer Olympic Games.
1.3.4 Mapungubwe Cultural Landscape World Heritage Site is located in (Gauteng/Limpopo).
1.3.5 Visa and MasterCard are financial service corporations that (issue credit and debit cards/provide international payment networks). (5 x 1) (5)
1.4 Choose a word(s) from COLUMN B that best matches the description in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–G) next to the question number (1.4.1–1.4.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.4.6 H.

(5 x 1) (5)
1.5 Study the images and indicate whether each of the products is regarded as duty free goods, goods to declare or prohibited goods.
1.5.1 Cannabis/Dagga

1.5.2 Perfume

1.5.3 Automatic weapon

1.5.4 150 cigarettes

1.5.5 Endangered animals

(5 x 1) (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: MAP WORK AND TOUR PLANNING; FOREIGN EXCHANGE
QUESTION 2
2.1 Study the World Time Zone Map below, read the information given and answer the questions that follow.

2.1.1 Study the schematic representation of the itinerary of the visitors from England and answer the question that follows.

The delegates from England departed from Heathrow International Airport in London on their trip to Spain. Calculate the arrival time of flight IB3169 in Madrid if the flying time of their non-stop flight was 02h25m.
Remember that European countries were practicing Daylight Savings Time at the time of the flight.
Show ALL calculations. (4)
2.1.2 Study the schematic representation of the itinerary of the visitors from South Africa and answer the questions that follow.

1. The delegates from South Africa departed from Johannesburg, South Africa to Zurich, Switzerland en route to Madrid, Spain. Their flight time from Johannesburg, South Africa to Zurich, Switzerland was 10h45m. Their arrival time in Zurich was indicated as 06:10+. Calculate the departure time of their flight from Johannesburg.
   Remember that European countries were practicing Daylight Savings Time at the time of the flight. Show ALL calculations. (4)
2. On the second leg of their journey the South African delegates departed from Zurich, Switzerland as indicated in the diagram. The flying time of flight LX2020 was 2h15m. Calculate the arrival time and date of their flight in Madrid.
   Remember that European countries were practicing
   Daylight Savings Time at the time of the flights.
   Show ALL calculations. (4)

2.1.3 Upon their arrival in Madrid the South African delegates could have suffered from jet fatigue after their 13h10m trip.

1. State ONE symptom of jet fatigue. (1)
2. Explain ONE cause of the travel induced condition referred to in QUESTION 2.1.3 (a). (2)

2.1.4 Study the information and diagrams and use the data given to provide the information required.

1. List the nationalities of the delegates mentioned. (2)
2. Identify the type of tourist that visited the Global Summit. (1)
3. Name TWO modes of transport that the delegates made use of en route to the Global Summit in Seville, Spain. (2)
4. Suggest the type of accommodation that the delegates most likely made use of while in Seville. Motivate your answer. (3)
5. Explain the meaning of the “+” printed next to the arrival time (06:10) of flight LX289 in Zurich. (2)

2.1.5 State TWO travel documents that the South African delegates had to produce on their arrival in Europe. (2)
2.1.6 One of the South African delegates took six bottles of the finest (best) South African wine as gifts for representatives from other world countries.

1. Identify the channel that he should have entered on arrival at customs. (1)
2. Motivate your answer to QUESTION 2.1.6 (a). (2)

2.1.7 Safety remains a major concern when travelling internationally.
Advise the South African delegates about TWO considerations they should take into account at the train station while waiting at the station for their train from Madrid to Seville. (2 x 2) (4) [34]

QUESTION 3
3.1 Study the information and the forex table below and answer the questions.

3.1.1 Calculate the amount in pounds that Mr Dlepu will receive when he exchanges the R20 000,00 for his trip to England.
NOTE: Round off your answer to TWO decimal places.
Show ALL the steps of your calculation. (3)
3.1.2 Calculate the amount of foreign currency that Mr Dlepu will have at his disposal while in France after exchanging R15 500,00.
NOTE: Round off your answer to TWO decimal places.
Show ALL the steps of your calculation. (3)
3.1.3 On his return, Mr Dlepu has €25 to exchange for rands.
Calculate the amount he will receive.
NOTE: Round off your answer to TWO decimal places.
Show ALL the steps of your calculation. (3)
3.2 Study the table below and answer the questions.

 3.2.1

1. Identify the year in which the rand was the weakest in relation to the euro. (1)
2. Motivate your answer to QUESTION 3.2.1 (a). (2)

3.2.2 Refer to your answer to QUESTION 3.2.1 (a) and discuss the effect that the trend mentioned could have on inbound tourism
from European countries to South Africa. (4) [16]
TOTAL SECTION B: 50

SECTION C: TOURISM ATTRACTIONS; CULTURAL AND HERITAGE TOURISM; MARKETING
QUESTION 4
4.1 Study the world icon map and answer the questions that follow.

4.1.1 Give the official names of the icons labelled A, B, E, F, G and H. (6 x 1) (6)
4.1.2 Name the countries in which the icons labelled C and G are located. (2 x 1) (2)
4.1.3 Name the cities, towns or areas in which the icons labelled E, F and H are located. (3 x 1) (3)
4.1.4 Give the official names of the icons labelled C and D where, when visiting, tourists will be able to see the cathedrals. (2 x 1) (2)
4.2 Study the information brochure and answer the questions that follow.

4.2.1 Give ONE example from the brochure to highlight Shambala Private Game Reserve’s sustainable and responsible management plans. (2)
4.2.2 Write a paragraph in which you demonstrate how the provision of a positive visitor experience has contributed to Shambala receiving numerous World Travel Awards. (4 x 2) (8) [23]

QUESTION 5
Study the map and information and answer the questions that follow.

5.1 Identify the province where the Barberton Makhonjwa Mountains, South Africa’s newest World Heritage Site, is located. (1)
5.2 State the type of world heritage site that UNESCO has proclaimed at the Barberton Makhonjwa Mountains. (2)
5.3 Examine the extract taken from UNESCO’s selection criteria for a site to be included on the World Heritage List. 

5.3.1 Identify the criterion that was met by the Barberton Makhonjwa Mountains World Heritage Site. (2)
5.3.2 Explain TWO ways in which the Barberton Makhonjwa Mountains successfully meets the UNESCO selection criterion identified in QUESTION 5.3.1. (2 x 2) (4)
5.4 Study the pictures and information. Answer the question that follows.

5.4.1 Discuss how the proclamation of the Barberton Makonjwa Mountains World Heritage Site will result in sustainable growth for Dusty Tracks Off Road Adventures and its tourism partners in the Barberton area. (2 x 2) (4) [13]

QUESTION 6
Study the article below and answer the questions that follow.

6.1 Identify the travel market segment targeted by South African Tourism in its United Kingdom marketing campaign. (2)
6.2 Explain how the UK campaign plays a key role in South African Tourism’s global marketing strategy. (2 x 2) (4)
6.3 Evaluate how South African Tourism’s campaign partnership with KLM will advantage South Africa as a tourist destination. (2 x 2) (4)
6.4 

Explain how the guest invoice example and TOMSA are linked to the South African Tourism campaign in the United Kingdom. (2 x 2) (4) [14]
TOTAL SECTION C: 50

SECTION D: TOURISM SECTORS; SUSTAINABLE AND RESPONSIBLE TOURISM
QUESTION 7
Study the image below and answer the questions that follow.

7.1 Explain to Mr Smith what a contract of employment is. (2)
7.2 List THREE stipulations (terms) that could be included in Mr Smith’s contract of employment. (3 x 1) (3)
7.3 On the office wall you will see a framed code of conduct for PENIKA’s Travel Agency. Discuss the value of a code of conduct for a business. (2 x 2) (4)
7.4 Discuss, giving TWO reasons, the importance of the staff at PENIKA’s Travel Agency presenting a professional image at all times. (2 x 2) (4) [13]

QUESTION 8
Read the case study and answer the questions that follow.

8.1 Original Teabag Designs can be regarded as a business that practices responsible and sustainable tourism.
Write a paragraph in which you discuss this statement. In your paragraph pay attention to the following:

• Identify the three pillars of sustainable tourism (3 x 1) (3)
• Link each of the three pillars of sustainable tourism to an example from the text to demonstrate (show) how Original Teabag Designs practises each of the pillars. (3 x 2) (6)
  NOTE: In your paragraph you must indicate to which pillar each of the examples given, links.

8.2 Explain how the local community could benefit should Original Teabag Designs apply a local procurement strategy in their business. (2 x 2) (4)
8.3 Suggest TWO strategies that Original Teabag Designs could implement to attract environmentally conscious tourists to visit the outlets (shops) at Kronendal and the V&A Waterfront. (2 x 2) (4) [17]
TOTAL SECTION D: 30

SECTION E: DOMESTIC, REGIONAL AND INTERNATIONAL TOURISM; COMMUNICATION AND CUSTOMER CARE
QUESTION 9
9.1 Study the pictures below and answer the questions that follow.

9.1.1 Classify the unforeseen occurrence. (2)
9.1.2 Tourism contributes nearly 30% to the economy of Hawaii’s Big Island.
In a paragraph, discuss FOUR ways in which the unforeseen occurrence could have had a negative impact on the tourism industry. (2 x 4) (8)
9.1.3 Explain the following statement.
Basic misunderstanding about the geographic location of Hawaii hurt tourism businesses even far from the danger zone. (2)
9.2 Study the statistics below and answer the questions that follow.

[Adapted from www.southafrica.net]
9.2.1 Calculate the increase in tourism revenue in quarter 1 of 2018 compared to quarter 1 of 2017. (2)
9.2.2 Discuss TWO factors that directly contributed to the growth in revenue generated for international arrivals in quarter 1 of 2018 compared to quarter 1 of 2017. (2 x 2) (4)
9.2.3 Suggest ONE factor (reason) that could have had a negative effect on international tourist expenditure in quarter 1 of 2018 compared to quarter 1 of 2017. (2)
9.3 Study the information from the travel review website below and answer the questions that follow. 

07 Jul 2018, 13:17 Hi I am due to travel to South Africa, along the garden route from Cape Town to Port Elizabeth, at the beginning of September this year for our honeymoon. I took advice on applying for a credit card with good rates for use abroad but unfortunately I have been refused by my bank. Is there another payment option available except using cash or my debit card? Kind regards Lucy [Adapted from www.tripadvisor.co.za]

9.3.1 Advise Lucy on the best alternative payment option for their trip. (2)
9.3.2 Discuss ONE advantage of the payment method identified in QUESTION 9.3.1. (2) [24]

QUESTION 10
Many people turn to social media to complain about bad service. Read the extracts from Facebook below and answer the questions.

10.1 Identify the method used to obtain customer feedback in the above examples. (2)
10.2 Discuss ONE reason why the management of Shosholoza Meyl should pay attention to the complaints from their customers on their Facebook page. (2)
10.3 Suggest ONE benefit for the Shosholoza Meyl if the management were to pay attention to the complaints on their Facebook page and address the issues mentioned by the customers. (2) [6]

TOTAL SECTION E: 30
GRAND TOTAL: 200

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Read the following carefully before answering the questions:

1. This question paper consists of FOUR sections.
   SECTION A: Short questions (all topics) (40)
   SECTION B: Kitchen and restaurant operations;Hygiene, safety and security (20)
   SECTION C: Nutrition and menu planning;Food commodities (80)
   SECTION D: Sectors and careers;Food and beverage service (60)
2. Answer ALL the questions.
3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
4. Start each section on a NEW page.
5. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A
QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
Various possible answers are provided for each question. Choose the correct answer and write the correct letter (A–D) next to the question number (1.1.1–1.1.10) in your ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.11 C.
EXAMPLE:
1.1.11 A good source of iron is …

1. milk.
2. carrots.
3. liver.
4. bread.
   ANSWER: 1.1.11 C

1.1.1 The income you get when you sell a product minus all the expenses is called …

1. bruto cost.
2. nett cost.
3. bruto profit.
4. nett profit.

1.1.2 A suitable starter for someone who follows a high fat low carbohydrate diet:

1. Avocado Ritz
2. Potato soup with croutons
3. Puff pastry shells with chicken and cream filling
4. Crumpets with salmon and cream cheese

1.1.3 A person who suffers from a heart disease should cut … from his/her daily diet.

1. English cucumber
2. deep fried chicken thighs
3. whole wheat bread
4. skimmed milk

1.1.4 The type of vegetarian diet that includes fish, is known as a … vegetarian diet.

1. ovo
2. pollo
3. lacto
4. pesco

1.1.5 The main reason for pricking small holes in a shortcrust base before baking it:

1. Ensures a crispy texture
2. Prevents the puffing and rising of the pastry
3. Enhances the glazing of the crust
4. Contributes to a flaky appearance

1.1.6 Identify pistachio nuts from the pictures below. It has a unique green colour and is used in pastries, tartlets and desserts.

1.1.7 A restaurant liquor licence allows the owner to sell liquor …

1. on Sundays, with a meal.
2. to someone older than 17.
3. in bulk to guest house owners.
4. by 09:00 in the morning.

1.1.8 Identify the most common way of serving and garnishing a Bloody Mary: 

1.1.9 A carrot cake gives 12 portions. The total cost of the carrot cake is R132. The cost of ONE portion is:

1. R14
2. R22
3. R24
4. R11

1.1.10 A wine suitable to be served with grilled Snoek:

1. Shiraz
2. Pinotage
3. Sauvignon Blanc
4. Sherry (10 x 1) (10)

1.2 ONE-WORD ITEMS
Give ONE word/term for EACH of the following descriptions. Write only the word/term next to the question number (1.2.1–1.2.10) in the ANSWER BOOK.
1.2.1 A French term for a paste of flour and water; the first stage when preparing pastry
1.2.2 A formal meal usually held when a large number of people celebrates a specific event
1.2.3 The service style where waiters dish up for guests, from a platter using a spoon and fork
1.2.4 Medication used for the treatment of HIV
1.2.5 A connoisseur of wine who can advise guests in a restaurant on the choice of wine with their meal
1.2.6 The set of rules of an establishment that prescribes the clothing and uniforms of its employees
1.2.7 The minimum number of units of a food item in the store room is reached and additional stock must be ordered
1.2.8 The process where melted chocolate is handled in such a way that the maximum gloss is attained as well as the correct texture
1.2.9 The proteolytic enzyme in raw pineapple that prevents setting
1.2.10 The term used for small sweet dishes, for example chocolate truffles, served to guests at the end of a meal. It is usually not indicated on
the menu
(10 x 1) (10)
1.3 SELECTION
Identify FOUR food items in the list below that are suitable for a person suffering from high blood pressure. Write only the letters (A–H) next to the question number (1.3) in the ANSWER BOOK.

1. Low-fat vanilla yoghurt
2. Salami sandwich
3. Haddock with cheese sauce
4. Instant chocolate pudding
5. Coriander lentil salad
6. Brown rice and fish paella
7. Grilled chicken fillet
8. Creamy smoked mussel soup. (4 x 1) (4)

1.4 SELECTION
Identify FIVE examples of overhead costs that restaurant managers must keep in mind. Write only the letters (A–H) next to the question number (1.4) in the ANSWER BOOK.

1. Salaries of staff
2. Monthly rent of building
3. Transport cost, for example fuel
4. Online shopping of food stock
5. Monthly municipal accounts for water and electricity
6. Hiring of extra waiters for special occasions
7. Maintenance cost, for example service of equipment
8. VAT (5 x 1) (5)

1.5 MATCHING ITEMS
Choose an illustration that best suits the meat terms listed below. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question number (1.5.1–1.5.6) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.5.7 K.
1.5.1 Rack of lamb
1.5.2 Crown roast
1.5.3 Beef olives
1.5.4 Noisette
1.5.5 Barding
1.5.6 Breading

(6 x 1) (6)
1.6 MATCHING ITEMS
Choose a dessert from COLUMN B that matches a cooking method in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–G) next to the question number (1.6.1–1.6.5) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.6.1 H.

COLUMN A  COOKING METHOD	COLUMN B DESSERT
1.6.1 Poaching 1.6.2 Baking 1.63 Deep fat frying 1.6.4 Stewing 1.6.5 Shallow frying

(5 x 1) (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: KITCHEN AND RESTAURANT OPERATIONS;
HYGIENE, SAFETY AND SECURITY
QUESTION 2
2.1 Study the newspaper article below and answer the questions that follow: 

2.1.1 Analyse the article. Compile THREE reasons why it is so important for the hospitality industry to pay attention to food hygiene. (3)
2.1.2 Identify THREE negative consequences that Chippers as a business experienced after the incidents with the ill customers. (3)
2.1.3 Use the information from the newspaper article to compile a list of FIVE strategies that Chippers implemented after the incident when food safety practises was not followed. (5)
2.2 Discuss, with the help of examples, how each of the following can contribute to guests’ positive holiday experience when arriving at a hotel or guest house:
2.2.1 Employees
2.2.2 Technology
2.2.3 Physical appearance of the building (3 x 2) (6)
2.3 Electronic point of sales is now an everyday phenomenon in the restaurant industry. Critically comment on how it has a positive influence on various aspects of the industry. (3)
TOTAL SECTION B: 20

SECTION C: NUTRITION AND MENU PLANNING;
FOOD COMMODITIES
QUESTION 3
3.1 Study the extract and spreadsheet below and answer the questions that follow.

3.1.1 Calculate the total cost of the event. Show ALL calculations. (3)
3.1.2 Use the given information and calculate the profit that Event Espresso will make with this event. (4)
3.1.3 After Esmeralda studied the quotation and compared it to those of other wedding planners she phoned Melanie and verbally confirmed that she accepts the quotation. Give a hint to Event Espresso to ensure that they will not suffer losses due to cancellations. (2)
3.1.4 Use the above given information to complete the quote form below. Write only the question number (3.1.4) and the word/term next to the letter (A–F) in your ANSWER BOOK.(6)

3.1.5 It is important for an enterprise like Events Espresso to keep their profit margins high. Formulate FOUR clear guidelines for the catering department that will help them to increase their profit. (4)
3.2 Study the pictures of two types of gelatine below and answer the questions that follow.

3.2.1 Compare the differences between the two types of gelatine by completing the table below. (8)

3.2.2 A strawberry mousse set in two layers with an egg white foamy layer on top. Explain why this happened. (2)
3.2.3 Predict what the end results will be if raw figs were used in a gelatine dessert. Supply reasons for your answer. (3)
3.3 Study the pictures below and answer the question that follows. 

3.3.1 Compare dish A and B by indicating the following:

1. The name of the dish (2)
2. The type of pastry used (2)
3. Filling (2)
4. Place on the menu (2) [40]

QUESTION 4
4.1 Choose from the list below SIX items suitable to be served at a cocktail party with a typical South African theme. There must be FOUR savoury dishes and TWO sweet dishes.

(6)
4.2 Study the picture of a meat cut below and answer the questions that follow.

4.2.1 How will the meat cut above be indicated on a restaurant menu? (1)
4.2.2 Identify the part of the beef carcass the meat is cut from. (1)
4.2.3 Suggest ONE cooking method suitable for the meat cut. Motivate your answer. (2)
4.2.4 Discuss THREE precautions to be followed to prevent the loss of moisture when cooking the above meat cut. (3)
4.2.5 Give the term used for the distribution of fat in the tissue. (1)
4.2.6 Explain what the roller mark AAA 333 on the meat will mean to the consumer. (2)
4.3 Answer the following questions regarding choux pastry.
4.3.1 Choux pastry is a versatile dough. Motivate this statement. (2)
4.3.2 Give hints for storing:

1. Raw choux pastry (2)
2. Cooked choux pastry (2)

4.3.3 Give reasons for the following when preparing choux pastry:

1. Beat in eggs one at a time (1)
2. Prick the pastry on the bottom with a fork after baking and put it back in the oven (1)

4.3.4 Predict the results if the following mistakes were made during the preparation:

1. Remove the lid of the saucepan in step one. Boil water and butter for 5 minutes (1)
2. Bake for a half an hour at 160 °C (1)

4.3.5 Briefly describe the composition of the following choux pastry products:

1. Churros
2. Pommes Dauphine
3. Gougère (3 x 2) (6)

4.4 Give the French term for:
4.4.1 Confectioner’s custard (1)
4.4.2 Egg custard (1)
4.4.3 Sweet short crust pastry (1)
4.5 Study the picture of the apricot jam below and answer the questions that follow.

4.5.1 Indicate THREE methods used to preserve this product. (3)
4.5.2 Identify a possible target market for this specific product. Motivate your answer. (2) [40]
TOTAL SECTION C: 80

SECTION D: SECTORS AND CAREERS
FOOD AND BEVERAGE SERVICE
QUESTION 5
5.1 Study the scenario below and answer the questions that follow.

5.1.1 Suzette saw the possibility of a new business opportunity.List FIVE characteristics that she should have to be successful. (5)
5.1.2 Suzette wants to approach a bank for a loan. She must compile a business plan. List all the aspects of a business plan as well as theinformation given in the scenario. (8)
5.1.3 Name THREE ways, except her Facebook page how she can market her business. (3)
5.1.4 Suggest TWO ways how Dolphin Dance can directly contribute to job creation. (2)
5.1.5 Describe THREE indirect job opportunities that Dolphin Dance can create. (3)
5.1.6 Investigate the possible market forces that can have an influence on Suzette’s business. (4)
5.1.7 Give THREE guidelines for Suzette to ensure that her Facebook-page is an effective marketing tool. (3)
5.1.8 There happens to be power failure (load shedding) sometimes during holidays. Give TWO tips to Suzette as precautions to ensure that her guests will not experience any inconvenience. (2) [30]

QUESTION 6
6.1 Pedro is a wine steward at a restaurant. Help him to identify the correct glass for each beverage. Write down the correct letter (A–G) next to the question number (6.1.1–6.1.7).

6.1.1 Martini
6.1.2 Sparkling wine
6.1.3 Red wine
6.1.4 Sherry
6.1.5 Whisky
6.1.6 Beer
6.1.7 Brandy (7)
6.2 Study the wine labels and answer the question that follows.

Compare the above wines by completing the table below:

(12)
6.3 You must compile a menu for a wedding. The bride wants to have dessert as well as cheese and biscuits on the menu. Make recommendations for the bride about the sequence of service of the above-mentioned items on the
menu. Motivate your answer. (3)
6.4 Describe FOUR procedures waiters should follow during the closing mise-en place. (4)
6.5 Explain how waiters should handle the following situation:The restaurant is very busy and guests have to wait very long for their food order. (4) [30]

TOTAL SECTION D: 60
GRAND TOTAL: 200

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A
QUESTION 1
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE ITEMS
1.1.1 B √
1.1.2 A √
1.1.3 B √
1.1.4 D √
1.1.5 B √
1.1.6 C √
1.1.7 A √
1.1.8 A √
1.1.9 D √
1.1.10 C √ (10 x 1) (10)

1.2 ONE-WORD/ITEMS
1.2.1 Dètrempe √
1.2.2 Banquet √
1.2.3 English service √
1.2.4 Antiretroviral medication √
1.2.5 Sommelier √
1.2.6 Dress code √
1.2.7 Reorder level √
1.2.8 Tempering √
1.2.9 Bromelin √
1.2.10 Friandise √ (10 x 1) (10)

1.3 SELECTION
A √
E √
F √
G √ (Any order) (4)

1.4 SELECTION
B √
C √
E √
G √
H √ (Any order) (5)

1.5 MATCHING ITEMS
1.5.1 H √
1.5.2 E √
1.5.3 F √
1.5.4 B √
1.5.5 C √
1.5.6 A √ (6 x 1) (6)

1.6 MATCHING ITEMS
1.6.1 G √
1.6.2 B √
1.6.3 E √
1.6.4 A √
1.6.5 D √ (5 x 1) (5)
TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: KITCHEN AND RESTAURANT OPERATIONS
HYGIENE, SAFETY AND SECURITY
QUESTION 2
2.1 2.1.1

• To prevent food consumers from being infected with food-borne diseases. √
• To protect both businesses and individual food handlers from possible prosecution under the OHS act. √
• To enhance and protect the reputation of the business. √ (3)

2.1.2

• They had a countrywide loss of income because customers were worried about the safety of food at Chippers. √
• They lost customers. √
• They lost their good reputation and image. √ (3)

2.1.3

• The restaurant was closed temporarily. √
• The restaurant was cleaned and sanitised. √
• All food was replaced. √
• Staff were retrained. √
• New effort was put in to win clients back/shorter waiting times/improved digital operations and new menu items. √ (5)

2.2 2.2.1 The following good service will contribute to a positive experience:

• Quick and friendly greeting. √
• An employee’s willingness to assist in a timely, thorough and knowledgeable fashion. √
• Courtesy, credibility and professionalism. √
• Punctuality and sufficiency. √ (Any 2 x 1) (2)

2.2.2 The following good service will contribute to a positive experience:

• Quick and accurate check-in with computerised systems.
• Innovative new technologies, such as computerised point of sales systems can enhance the positive experience. √
• Interactive TV’s in room with information about the area. √
• Wi-Fi available. √ (Any 2 x 1) (2)

2.2.3 The following good service will contribute to a positive experience:

• A clean, well maintained, attractive building enhances the positive experience of guests. √
• Outdated furniture and furnishings gives the impression of carelessness. Guests will not feel special.√ (2)

2.3

• POS assist employees to speed up and complete their daily tasks for example food and beverage orders. √
• Improves the communication of tasks to the kitchen, √ guest bill settlement/ credit card processing/ charges posted to guest accounts in a hotel. √
• POS can help with the inventory. √
• Data analysis can help to determine consumer behaviour. √
• Has the capability of keeping track of current food and beverage orders and transmitting the order to the production section. √
• Helping to ensure accuracy of guests’ bills. √
• Assist the cashier to relay the order to the kitchen. √
• It positively assists in putting the orders immediately without wasting of any time. √
• It alerts/informs the manager of what is happening in the food service business. √
• POS will also assist the manager to monitor the consumption, purchasing and management and control the stock. √ (Any 3 x 1) (3) [20]
  TOTAL SECTION B: 20

SECTION C: NUTRITION AND MENU PLANNING;
FOOD COMMODITIES
QUESTION 3
3.1 3.1.1

• Food cost + Overheads + Labour
  R16 900 + R19 850 + R10 500 √√
  = R46 250,00 √ (3)

3.1.2 Income:

• Profit = income – expenses:
  R700 x 80 √ = R56 000 √
  R56 000 – R46 250 √ = R9 750 √ (4)

3.1.3

• Insist on a deposit to confirm √
• The deposit can be between 25% to 75% of the bill √
• A penalty fee for cancellation will be charged √ (Any 2) (2)

3.1.4

1. Event Espresso √
2. Esmerelda Fernandez √
3. This email address is being protected from spambots. You need JavaScript enabled to view it.; 079-8441987 √
4. Three √
5. R700 per person/R56 000 √
6. Melanie Davis √ (6)

3.1.5

• Do comparative buying/purchase food from more than one supplier √
• Take precautions against theft √
• Control staff access to food as much as possible √
• Train employees thoroughly – this will help to minimise cost of ingredients/breakages of containers, burning of food and other accidents all reduce profit. √
• Measure portions accurately/avoid overproduction of food. √
  (Any 4) (4)

3.2.1 

(8)
3.2.2

• The strawberry puree did not have the consistency of thick egg √ white/was not slightly set when the egg foam was folded in. √
• The egg foam was not fold in properly. √ (Any 2) (2)

3.2.3

• Will not set/runny texture √
• The proteolytic enzyme in raw figs, ficin √
• Breaks down or digest the gelatine and prevents it from setting √ (3)

3.3 3.3.1

(8) [40]

QUESTION 4
4.1 SAVOURY

• Mini biltong quichés √
• Maize Meal and Marog Puffs √
• Mini Chicken Pies √
• Piquant Peppers stuffed with Cream Cheese √
• Samosa’s √ (Any 4 x 1) (4)

SWEET

• Small Milk Tarts √
•  Koeksisters √ (2)

4.2 4.2.1 Beef fillet √ (1)
4.2.2 Loin √ (1)
4.2.3

• Grilling / frying / roasting / baking √
  (Any dry heat method)

Reason:

• It is the softest meat cut/has the least muscle tissue/requires little
  time to soften/needs a fast cooking method √ (2)

4.2.4

• Meat must be salted towards the end of the cooking process because salt extracts meat juices √
• Do not pierce with a fork while cooking √
• Use short cooking time √
• Allows resting time of about 10 minutes to retain the meat juices √ (Any 3 x 1) (3)

4.2.5 Marbling √ (1)
4.2.6

• AAA – most tender / young animal / veal / lamb √
• 333 – medium fat √ (2)

4.3 4.3.1

• Can be used for sweet and savoury dishes √
• Is suitable for a variety of cooking methods (baking, deep fat frying, poaching) √ (2)

4.3.2

1. In the fridge, √ in an airtight container √ (2) 
2. Cooled, without a filling, √ in an airtight container √ (2)

4.3.3

1. To form a proper emulsion/to ensure a smooth mixture √ (1)
2. To allow the steam to evaporate/prevents the steam trapped inside to condense and soften the baked product. √ (1)

4.3.4

1. Too much water evaporated results in too little steam/the product will have a low volume and fat will ooze out. √ (1)
2. The temperature is too low/not enough steam will form/the end product will have a low volume/it will not be crispy on the outside. √ (1)

4.3.5

1. Spanish/Mexican strips of choux pastry, flavoured with cinnamon, √ deep fried and rolled in castor sugar while hot. √ (2)
2.  Choux paste mixed with mashed potatoes √ then deep fried. √ (2)
3. Savoury choux paste ring √ baked with a savoury filling inside √ (2)

4.4
4.4.1 Crème patisserie √ (1)
4.4.2 Crème anglaise √ (1)
4.4.3 Pâté sucrée √ (1)
4.5
4.5.1

• Addition of xylitol as a preservative √
• Heat preservation by boiling it √
• Sterilisation of the bottles √
• Excluding oxygen/put in airtight container/sealing the upper layer with wax √ (Any 3 x 1) (3)

4.5.2

• Diabetics/people on a low carbohydrates diet √
•  It does not contain sugar/it is sweetened with xylitol √ (2) [40]
  TOTAL SECTION C: 80

SECTION D: SECTORS AND CAREERS
FOOD AND BEVERAGE SERVICE
QUESTION 5
5.1 5.1.1

• The ability to identify business opportunities/take calculated risks to achieve success √
• Commitment and determination √
• Sense of responsibility and love of achievement √
• Creativity, self-reliance and adaptability √
• Future-orientated perspective √
• Confidence in achieving success √
• Good organising and management skills √
• High levels of energy and a sense of humour √ (Any 5 x 1) (5)

5.1.2

(Any 4 with examples) (4 x 2) (8)
5.1.3

• Brochures at local tourism offices/travel agencies √
• Posters in town/at travel agencies √
• Advertisements in local papers/travel magazines √
• Clear sign on outside of house with telephone number √
• Relying on good reviews of customers/word of mouth √
• WhatsApp groups
• Community radios (Any 3 x 1) (3)

5.1.4

• Builders and contractors that will convert the garage into a flat √
• A cleaner that will help with washing linen and cleaning the flat √
• Security – to guard the premises and customers/guests cars parking outside (Any 2 x 1) (2)

5.1.5

• Supermarkets that provide food/daily essentials √
• Garden service to cut the grass/ maintenance companies for the upkeep of the flat √
• Suppliers of amenities (soap, shampoo, etc.) √
• Restaurants √ (Any suitable answers) (3)

5.1.6

• New entrants into the market – many people can do exactly the same as what Suzette did/Suzette is going to compete against people who were in the business a long time and might have regular customers √
• The customer’s bargaining power/customers might choose the next door neighbour because they are cheaper/contract workers that stay a longer time will ask for a cheaper price √
• The bargaining power of suppliers of raw material/Suzette may have to bargain with suppliers that she buys the amenities from if she buys in bulk/laundry services √
• Substitute products/ other self-catering flats may look more attractive or are bigger or cheaper √ (4)

5.1.7

• Attractive, clear and appealing profile pictures √
• Good, clear descriptions and directions on the page √
• Good quality pictures with personal touches added √
• Regularly update of photos √
• Respond as soon as possible on comments of guests √
• Encourage guests to contribute to the page with likes, photos and reviews √ (Any 3 x 1) (3)

5.1.8

• Have rechargeable lamps readily available
• Place candles and matches where it can be seen and easy to find √
• Invest in a generator for unforeseen cases – it will enhance the positive experiences of guests. √
• Rather buy a gas stove than an electric when installing equipment in the kitchen area of the flat. √ (Any 2 x 1) (2) [30]

QUESTION 6
6.1
6.1.1 E √
6.1.2 G √
6.1.3 H √
6.1.4 F √
6.1.5 D √
6.1.6 A √
6.1.7 B √ (7)

6.2

(12)

6.3 SEQUENCE

• Serve cheese and biscuits after the main course, √ then serve dessert after cheese and biscuits √

MOTIVATION

• The red wine served with the main course goes well with the cheese and biscuits, but does not go well with sweet dessert
• It allows guests to finish the red wine that they drank with the main course √ (3)

6.4

• Clearing away all used items and utensils, such as coffee cups and flowers. √
• Clearing all tables and unused cutlery, crockery and cruet sets. √
• Removing linen from table. √
• Ensuring chairs have no crumbs on them and are returned to the correct places. √
• Switching off all electrical equipment. √
• Cleaning of all required items. √
• Storing all items in correct places. √
• Arranging tables and preparing dining room for the next service √
• Preparing workstations for the next service. √ (Any 4 x 1) (4)

6.5

• Be friendly/Make sure their glasses are filled/offer the beverage menu √
• Inform guests that they have to wait for a certain time (some dishes on the menu may take longer to prepare on an a la carte menu) √
• If there is a crisis in the kitchen, be prepared to offer ‘free’ items for example bread rolls or coffee, with the approval of the manager. It costs very little but one can keep the customers happy that way. It will depend on the in-house policy of the restaurant. √
• Some modern restaurants provide entertainment to keep guests busy, for example games. √ (Any 4 x 1) (4) [30]

TOTAL SECTION D: 60
GRAND TOTAL: 200

MARKING GUIDELINE

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2529CC WITBANK) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area. Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question.
1.1 D
1.2 B
1.3 D
1.4 B
1.5 C 
1.6 D
1.7 D
1.8 D
1.9 B
1.10 D
1.11 B
1.12 C
1.13 A
1.14 A
1.15 C
(15 x 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAPWORK CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES
2.1 Products from Witbank are transported along the N4 national road to Pretoria.
2.1.1 Determine if vehicles travelling along the N4 from 5 to 6 on the orthophoto map will drive uphill or downhill.

• Downhill (1 x 1) (1)

2.1.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.1.1.

• Contour heights are descending/decreasing from 5 to 6  (Candidates can give examples of actual height/readings from the map) (1 x 1) (1)

2.2 Locate line 7–8 on the orthophoto map.
2.2.1 Calculate the average gradient between the car park point 7 (1593) and 8 on the orthophoto map. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.

• Formula: Gradient =    Vertical Interval (V.I.)      
                                 Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.)
  VI = 1 593 m – 1 580 m = 13 m                 VI = 1 593 m – 1 580 m = 13 m 
  OR
  HE = 6,7  cm x 100 m                                         6,7 cm x 10 0000 cm
                                                                                            100
  [Range 6,6 cm to 6,8 cm]
  = 670 m                                                                         = 670 m 
  [Range 660 m – 680 m]
  G = ( 13 )                [1 mark for correct substitution] (13 ∶670) 
          670                                                                     13   13
  =    1    or 1 : 51,5                                                   = 1 : 51,5 
     51,5
  Range [1 : 50,76 – 1 : 52,31]
  (5 x 1) (5)

2.3 2.3.1 Calculate the magnetic bearing from point D, in block B5, to point E in block C4 for 2019.
Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.

• Formula: MB = TB + MD
  Bearing: 232°  [Range 231° – 233°]
  Difference in years: 2019 – 2002 = 17 years
  Mean annual change: 8'  W
  Total change: 17 x 8' W = 136' (2˚16') W
  Magnetic declination for 2019: 17°25' W +  2 °16' W = 19°41' W 
  Magnetic bearing for 2019: 232° + 19°41 = 251 ° 41' 
  (7 x 1) (7)

2.3.2 State the importance of calculating the magnetic declination for the present year.

• By correcting the magnetic declination, it will allow you to get the correct direction when using a map in the field. 
• By correcting the magnetic declination, it will allow you to calculate the correct magnetic bearing. 
• You will be able to get the correct direction when using a magnetic compass as you will have the correct magnetic declination. 
• Prevent getting lost 
• Determine True North 
• Orientate the map 
• Magnetic declination changes constantly  [Any ONE]
  (1 x 1) (1)

2.4 Calculate the area of block A1 on the topographical map, in km². Show ALL calculations.
Marks will be awarded for calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your answer.

• Formula: area = length (L) × breadth (B)
  3,7 (cm)  x 0,5 = 1,85 (km)  [Range: 1,8 km – 1,9 km] (3,6 cm to 3,8 cm)
  370 mm x 0,05 = 1,85 km
  3,3 (cm)  x 0,5 = 1,65 (km)  [Range: 1,6 km – 1,7 km] (3,2 cm to 3,4 cm)
  330 mm x 0,05 = 1,65 km
  1,85 km x 1,65 km = 3,05 km²  [Range: [2,88 km² – 3,23 km²]
  [Accept any other formulas/methods for calculating the length and breadth] (5 x 1) (5) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION
3.1 Study the Ferrobank industrial area in block B8.
3.1.1 Is Ferrobank a light or heavy industrial area?

• Heavy industry (1 x 1) (1)

3.1.2 Substantiate your choice in QUESTION 3.1.1.

• Outskirts of Witbank 
• Near mass transport routes, e.g. main roads and railways 
• Near natural resources and water supplies 
• Industry covers a big, level area 
• Industry can be easily extended in the future 
• Flat land [Any ONE]
  (1 x 2) (2)

3.2 Witbank is a central place town according to its main function.
3.2.1 Define a central place town.

• Provides goods and services to surrounding rural population (1 x 1) (1)

3.2.2 Provide topographic and orthophoto map evidences that Witbank is a central place town.
Many urban services:

• Churches 
• Schools 
• University 
• College 
• Police stations 
• Shops 
• Hospitals
• Recreational facilities/Golf course 
• People from surrounding rural area can use these urban services
• Transport (Roads/Railway) from different directions converge at Witbank [Any TWO]
  (2 x 2) (4)

3.3 Refer to block E10 on the topographic map.
3.3.1 Name TWO natural factors that would discourage mining in block E10 on the topographic map.

• Subsiding ground 
• Non-perennial water 
  (2 x 1) (2)

3.3.2 Explain your answer to QUESTION 3.3.1.

• Subsiding ground – Collapsing of ground (sinkholes) makes it dangerous 
• Non-perennial water – May experience seasonal shortage of water 
  (2 x 2) (4)

3.4 Infrastructure is important for mining in the region. Refer to the Greenside Colliery Mine in blocks H8 and H9 on the topographic map to answer the following questions.
3.4.1 State a form of infrastructure used by the Greenside Colliery Mine.

• Roads 
• Railway lines 
• Conveyor belt 
• Power lines 
• Reservoirs 
• Furrow [Any ONE]
  (1 x 1) (1)

3.4.2 Explain why the infrastructure mentioned in QUESTION 3.4.1 is of importance to the Greenside Colliery Mine.

• Road:
  Transportation of coal to other industries e.g. power stations 
• Railway:
  Bulky transportation of coal to industries and exports 
• Conveyor belt:
  Movement of coal to point of distribution – railway line 
• Powerlines:
  Needed for operation of mines / Power Supply 
• Reservoirs/furrows:
  Used in Colliery mine 
  [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.5 Refer to blocks H2 and H3 on the topographic map.
3.5.1 Witbank experiences seasonal rainfall. Give reasons evident in block H2.

• There are dams 
• There is a non-perennial river / stream 
  (2 x 2) (4)

3.5.2 Explain how seasonal rainfall has influenced the location of the cultivated land in block H3.

• The cultivated land is situated along the river / dam. 
  (1 x 2) (2)[25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
4.1 Refer to the picture below of a slimes dam used in the Witbank area and answer the questions that follow.

[Source: Google]
4.1.1 What type of spatial object is the slime dam?

• Polygon/area ✔(1 x 1) (1)

4.1.2 Is the picture a raster or vector image?

• Raster ✔(1 x 1) (1)

4.1.3 GIS can be used to predict the amount of water and disposable material entering the dam by integrating different sources of information. What is the term used to describe this process?

• Data integration/data layering/thematic layers ✔(1 x 1) (1)

4.2 The farmer in block H1 decides to use data manipulation to assist in maximising his output and profit from his crop farming.
4.2.1 Explain the term data manipulation.

• When different layers of data are standardised and integrated to use to study a specific problem/query ✔ [Concept] (1 x 1) (1)

4.2.2 Evaluate how data manipulation would assist the farmer in block H1 in maximising his output and profit.

• Gradient – Determine the steepness of land for efficient use of machinery/contour lines ploughing ✔✔
• Drainage density – Distribution of dams/perennial and non-perennial rivers to determine availability of water ✔✔
• Soil – type/fertility found in area affects crops in area ✔✔
• To decide what product, type of farming and farming methods to use to gain maximum use of the area ✔✔
• Accessibility – efficiency of transport network around the farm for transportation of farm products ✔✔
  [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.3 Refer to area within F in block A5 on the topographic map in which buffering has occurred.
4.3.1 Define buffering.

• It is the demarcation/boundary/delineation/spatial distance of an area around a feature ✔(1 x 1) (1)

4.3.2 What evidence is there that buffering has occurred?

• Housing development built away from marsh and vlei river line ✔
• No development along river / marsh and vlei ✔
• Walls built along river bank to prevent flooding ✔[Any ONE]
  (1 x 2) (2)

4.3.3 Explain the positive impact that buffering will have on environmental sustainability in the area in the case of pollution.

• Prevention of water pollution from settlement/farming ✔✔
• Protection of animal / plant habitat ✔✔
• Protection of ecosystem ✔✔
• Stabilises river banks ✔✔
• Aesthetic value – green belt ✔✔
  [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
  [15]

TOTAL: 75

MARKING GUIDELINE

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY
QUESTION 1
1.1 1.1.1 Location of 25,0°N / Hurricane / Bahamas / Bermuda / Movement in North westerly direction [Any ONE] (1)
1.1.2 Summer (1)
1.1.3 Mature (1)
1.1.4 East to west/westwards/North westerly (1)
1.1.5 6 (1)
1.1.6 Friday (1) 1.1.7 4 (1)
1.1.8 26,5 °C and above (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.2
1.2.1 Undercut (1)
1.2.2 Slip off (1)
1.2.3 Undercut (1)
1.2.4 Undercut (1)
1.2.5 Slip off (1)
1.2.6 Undercut (1)
1.2.7 Slip off (1) (7 x 1) (7)
1.3
1.3.1 Winter (1)
1.3.2

• A – South Atlantic High (1)
• B – Kalahari/Continental High (1)
• C – South Indian High (1) (3 x 1) (3)

1.3.3

• Found in the interior of the country (1)
• Dominates the land in winter (1)
• Moves southwards in summer (1)
• Moves northwards in winter (1)
• Air circulation in anti-clockwise (1)
• Descending air is weak during summer (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

1.3.4 The movement of the ITCZ southwards causes anticyclones A and C to move south of their positions in sketch Y. (2)
1.3.5 ANYICYCLONE A – South Atlantic High

• In summer these high-pressure ridges along the south west of the country divert moist air onto the land (2) Rainfall is minimal in summer because of the cold and dry ocean that the onshore winds blow over (2)

ANTICLONE C – South Indian High

• It is found away from the land and further south in summer (2) This allows on-shore winds to carry moisture over the east coast
  and into the interior (2) The east coast and interior receive most of its rainfall in summer (2)
  [ANY FOUR – MUST REFER TO BOTH ANTICYCLONES]
  (4 x 2) (8)

1.4 1.4.1 Radiation (1)
1.4.2 Cloudless/clear sky Night time [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
1.4.3 Katabatic (1)
1.4.4 At night, air cools as a result of terrestrial radiation and sinks (2) due to gravity (2) (1 x 2) (2)
1.4.5 This cold air sinks to the valley floor (2) If the temperature drops to reach dew point (above 0°C) condensation occurs (2) (2 x 2) (4)
1.4.6

• It will cause visibility problems (2)
• Visibility problems could increase crime rates (2)
• Increased traffic congestion (2)
• It can cause motor vehicle accidents (2)
• Pedestrians/cyclists are at risk of being hit by motor vehicles (2)
• If it mixes with pollutants it can cause smog, that can affect human health (2)
  [ANY THREE] (3 x 2) (6)

1.5 1.5.1

• Surface patterns formed by a river and its tributaries (1)
• The way in which streams are arranged within a drainage basin (1)
  [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)

1.5.2

• A – Radial (Centrifugal) (1)
• B – Trellis (1) (2 x 1) (2)

1.5.3

• At A, rivers are parallel to one another where as in B rivers flow outward from a high point (2)
• At A, tributaries meet the main river at acute angles where as in B tributaries meet the main river at right angles (2)
  [ANY ONE DIFFERENCE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.5.4

• Found in folded mountains/steep land resulting in tributaries following a straight path (2)
• Form in a poort/gap with steep sides resulting in tributaries following a straight path (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

1.5.5

• Massive igneous rocks with a uniform resistance to erosion form the underlying rock structure for the dendritic pattern (2)
• Rectangular drainage patterns form on igneous rocks that have many joints/cracks (2)
• Massive igneous rocks associated with volcanoes or domes form the underlying rock structure for the radial (centrifugal) pattern (2)
• The centripetal pattern has massive igneous rocks underlying it forming a basin (2)
• Parallel drainage patterns form from igneous rocks in areas of major faults (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

1.6.1 A cross (transverse) profile is a cross view of a river from bank to (1) bank [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
1.6.2 Turbulent (1)
1.6.3

• High rate of erosion (1)
• Valley is narrow and steep (1)
• Stream load is big bedrock
   [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

1.6.4 

1. 
   2-marks for shape
   2-marks for difference in height
   [THE MARKS MUST BE ALLOCATED FOR THE DIFFERENCES IN HEIGHT AND SHAPE IN BOTH SKETCHES] (2 x 2) (4)
2. The middle course has an open V- shape (2) whereas in the lower course there is a very wide U-shape channel (2) (2 x 2) (4)

1.6.5 The process of erosion (vertical in the upper course and lateral in the middle course) creates sediment (2) This sediment is transported to the mouth of the river where it is deposited (2) (2 x 2) (4)
[75]

QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1 C/moisture front (1)
2.1.2 G/heat low (1)
2.1.3 H/onshore winds (1)
2.1.4 A/berg wind (1)
2.1.5 F/cut-off low (1)
2.1.6 E/line thunderstorm (1)
2.1.7 D/coastal low (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.2
2.2.1 C/water table (1)
2.2.2 D/episodic (1)
2.2.3 C/longitudinal (1)
2.2.4 A/rejuvenation (1)
2.2.5 B/antecedent (1)
2.2.6 C/elbow of capture (1)
2.2.7 B/meander (1)
2.2.8 D/watershed (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.3
2.3.1 Anticlockwise movement of air around a low pressure (1)
2.3.2

1. Cold and warm front sectors are fully developed (1)
   Evidence of a well formed V shape (1)
   Cold and warm sectors are fully developed (1)
   [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
2. The warm front is associated with stratus clouds whereas the cold front is associated with cumulonimbus clouds (2) (1 x 2) (2)

2.3.3

• The occlusion starts at the apex (top) (2)
• Cold air is heavy and dense and moves faster than warm air (2)
• The cold front catches up with the warm front (2)
• An occlusion can either be warm or cold (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.3.4

[ANY THREE] (3 x 1) (3)
2.3.5

• They bring winter rainfall to Cape Town, which fills up dams and rivers (2)
• Rainfall is ideal for farming of winter crops e.g. grapes (2)
• They are associated with the formation of snow on the Cape fold mountains which attracts tourists (2)
• Rainfall enhances the growth of natural vegetation that creates aesthetic appeal for tourists (2)
  [BOTH FARMING AND TOURISTS MUST BE MENTIONED]
  (2 + 2) (4)

2.4
2.4.1 Refers to the study of climate over a small area (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Shape and structure of buildings (1) Artificial surfaces (1) Vegetation/trees (1) [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.3 Highest temperatures in the middle surrounded by lower temperatures as we move to the outskirts (1)
2.4.4

• Higher density of buildings trap heat (2)
• Higher density results in a larger surface area to absorb heat (2)
• Tall buildings/skyscrapers act as windbreakers and heat cannot be dispersed (2)
• Tall buildings cause multiple reflections (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.4.5

• Industrial decentralisation (2)
• Planting more trees in the urban area to absorb carbon dioxide (2)
• Increase eco-friendly buildings (2)
• Use of more eco-friendly energy (2)
• Establish rooftop gardens (2)
• Promote public transport resulting in fewer cars and less carbon emission (2)
• Encourage the use of bicycles/walking as there will be less motor vehicles and less carbon emissions (2)
• Increase the number of water features (2)
• Chimney stacks to be built above inversion layer/filters on chimneys (2)
• Commercial decentralisation to move shoppers/workers (2)
• Use of white reflective paints or surfaces to prevent heat being absorbed (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

2.5.1 Upper (1)
2.5.2

• A – rapids
• B – waterfalls (2 x 1) (2)

2.5.3

1. Formed in inclined strata when layers of soft rock erode quicker than layers of hard rock (2) The bed of the river becomes uneven creating a rough turbulent flow of water (2) (2 x 2) (4)
2. The turbulent water suits them as it will increase the speed of the boat (2) Waterfalls are too dangerous; going over the steep slope could injure/kill them (2) [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

2.5.4

1. Attracts tourists (1) Aesthetic appeal/recreational (1) Generates hydroelectricity (1) [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)
2. Force of falling of water creates a plunge pool at the base (2) Undercutting occurs at the base (2) This causes the hard-resistant overhanging layer to collapse (2) [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.6.1 Action taken to reduce/regulate discharge of a river (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
2.6.2 Pesticides and herbicides used on farming land can enter our rivers through direct run off or groundwater (2) (1 x 2) (2)
2.6.3 Trees decreases the amount of water that runs off directly into our rivers (2) (1 x 2) (2)
2.6.4 Flash floods can occur because artificial surfaces encourages greater run off (2) (1 x 2) (2)
2.6.5

• Fines for dumping into rivers (2)
• Create bigger buffer zones to prevent industries from being too close (2)
• Frequent testing of water quality to prevent toxic substances from industries harming our ecosystems (2)
• Encourage recycling of industrial waste (2)
• Awareness campaigns and legislation (2)
• Educate industrialists about sustainable practices (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75]

QUESTION 3
3.1
3.1.1 Large scale (1)
3.1.2 Dry point (1)
3.1.3 Situation (1)
3.1.4 RDP (1)
3.1.5 Rural depopulation (1)
3.1.6 Village (1)
3.1.7 Situation (1)
3.1.8 Round (1) (8 x 1) (8)
3.2
3.2.1 G (quaternary activities) (1)
3.2.2 A (GNP) (1)
3.2.3 H (protectionism) (1)
3.2.4 D (food insecurity) (1)
3.2.5 F (export) (1)
3.2.6 C (tertiary activities) (1)
3.2.7 B (import) (1) (7 x 1) (7)
3.3
3.3.1

• Redress injustices of the past (1)
• Promote economic growth (1)
• Alleviate poverty (1)
• National reconciliation and stability (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

3.3.2

• Land Restitution (1)
• Land Tenure (1)
• Land Redistribution (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)

3.3.3

• It is a costly process (2)
• Takes time to resolve disputes (2)
• There are grey areas in land reform policies (2)
• Disagreements between government leaders and traditional leaders (2)
• Willing buyer and seller difficult to negotiate (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.3.4

• The claimant has no interest or knowledge of agriculture (2)
• There has been a lack of training and support (2)
• No access to capital (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.3.5

• Economic growth of rural areas will not be stimulated (2)
• Increased poverty (2)
• The move from subsistence to commercial farming has not taken place (2)
• Less agricultural products for export (2)
• Food insecurity as the land is not being used effectively (2)
  (2 x 2) (4)

3.4.1 When people are abused or treated unfairly (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2

1. People are living in informal housing (1) Lack of services evident (1) [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
2.                        
   • They are unemployed and cannot pay for services (1)
   • Greed and corruption of municipal officials (1)
   • Lack of participation or say in local government (1)
   • Limited formal education (1)
     [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)
3.                          
   • Can lead to violent protests (1)
   • Increase in crime (1)
   • Xenophobic attacks (1)
   • Spread of disease (1)
   • Increase in poverty (1)
     [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)

3.4.3 Air (1)
3.4.4

• Health problems such as asthma and cancer (2)
• Skin ailments (2)
• Increase in eye diseases (2)
• Discomfort and lethargy (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.4.5

• Government legislation coupled with fines to reduce emissions (2)
• Industrial decentralisation (2)
• Promote clean sources of energy (ACCEPT EXAMPLES) (2)
• Relocate communities (2)
• Create awareness campaigns (2)
• Install filters/scrubbers in factories (2)
• Frequent testing of air quality (2)
• Create greenbelts (2)
• Industries should have tall stacks/chimneys (2)
• Protests/petitions to pressurise government to take judicious action against defaulting industries (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.5
3.5.1 A person who has an unregistered business and does not pay tax (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
3.5.2 Relentless rise of unemployment (1) Casualisation of labour (1) (2 x 1) (2)
3.5.3

• They are frequently harassed by local authorities (2)
• No proper access to trading facilities (2)
• Banks are reluctant to grant loans (2)
• No job security (2)
• Unsafe working conditions (2)
• Unhealthy working environment (2)
• They are victims of crime (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.5.4

• Introduce licensing to the sector (2)
• Specific areas like taxi ranks should be set aside for them (2)
• Partnerships with the formal sector should be forged (2)
• Facilitate training and learnership programmes (2)
• Provide storage facilities/refrigeration (2)
• Provide easier access to bank loans (2)
• Enforce policing of the area (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.5.5

• The formal sector contracts workers from the informal sector as they save on costs (2)
• The informal traders purchases goods from the formal sector which is then sold in their informal businesses (2) (2 x 2) (4)

3.6.1 South Western Cape (1)
3.6.2 Creating jobs (1) Promoting exports (1) [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
3.6.3 Oil and gas sector (1)
3.6.4

• The harbour can be used for the export and import of raw materials and goods (2)
• The harbour serves as a stopping place for oil rigs which require maintenance (2)
• Harbour is strategically located to serve gas and oil sector (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.6.5

• Low levels of skilled labour (2)
• Skilled labourers tend to move to Cape Town (2)
• Harbour needs more advanced container loading facilities (2)
• Land is mostly privately owned hence very expensive for future expansion of the IDZ (2)
• There is limited bulk electricity supply (2)
• Water in the bay is polluted with heavy metal particles that affects the mariculture industry (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75]

QUESTION 4
4.1
4.1.1 CBD (1)
4.1.2 Suburbs (1)
4.1.3 Zone of decay (1)
4.1.4 CBD (1)
4.1.5 Suburbs (1)
4.1.6 Rural-urban fringe (1)
4.1.7 Zone of decay (1) (7 x 1) (7)
4.2
4.2.1 F (Raw material) (1)
4.2.2 I (Platinum) (1)
4.2.3 G (Market) (1)
4.2.4 C (Coal) (1)
4.2.5 H (Bridge) (1)
4.2.6 A (Gold)
4.2.7 B (Footloose) (1)
4.2.8 E (Ubiquitous) (1) (8 x 1) (8)
4.3
4.3.1 Movement of people from rural areas to urban areas (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.3.2 Climatic disasters (1)
4.3.3 Health care (1) Education (1) Food outlets (1) [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1)
4.3.4

• Shops close (2)
• Production decreases as there are fewer young/adult labourers (2)
• Only older people and children left behind who are not as
  productive (2) ‘Brain drain’ as educated/skilled people leave (2)
• Fewer investments in the area (2) Infrastructure not maintained (2)
  [ANY TWO] (1 x 2) (2)

4.3.5

• Create jobs through decentralisation (2)
• Provision of basic services such as water, housing, health etc. (2)
• Improving roads and transport facilities (2)
• Effecting land reform policy (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.3.6

• There would be shortage of housing forcing urban immigrants to move into informal settlements (2)
• ‘Bright lights’ is replaced by crime and other social evils (2)
• There is a lack of planning in urban areas resulting in traffic congestion and urban sprawl (2)
• There is a lack of service provision hence a lack of water and electricity (2)
• There is a lack of jobs forcing urban immigrants into the informal sector (2)
• Urban immigrants are forced to move into decayed parts of the city which are unhealthy and crime-ridden (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)

4.4
4.4.1 Refers to the formless expansion of urban areas (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.4.2

• Increased ownership of motor vehicles (1)
• Lack of planning (1)
• Shortage of housing (1)
• Rapid population increase (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)

4.4.3

• Private ownership of motor vehicles has allowed people to live a distance away from their workplace (2)
• Increased population numbers has led to vacant land outside the city being utilised for the building of houses (2) (2 x 2) (4)

4.4.4

• Increases the heat island effect (2)
• Increases air pollution (2)
• Increases noise pollution (2)
• Destroys habitats
• Disrupts ecosystems (2)
• Decreases biodiversity (2)
• Increases greenhouse gases (2)
• Increases run off and soil erosion (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.4.5

• They can be developed on the boundaries of urban areas to prevent the expansion of cities (2)
• They can be developed or intermingled with other land use zones in urban areas to prevent the uncontrolled expansion of the city (2) (2 x 2) (4)

4.5 4.5.1 A farmer that produces crops for selling and making a profit (1)
4.5.2 It produces most of the country’s food (1)
4.5.3

• Genetically modified seeds pollute the environment (2)
• Poisons from pesticides and chemical fertilisers run off into our rivers and harms aquatic ecosystems (2)
• Irrigation depletes our available water resources that affects ecosystems and biodiversity (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.5.4 

1. Farming on a small piece of land that can be either commercial or subsistence (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
2.                      
   • New seeds have to be purchased and planted every year (1)
   • They are monopolised by multinational companies who control the prices (1) (2 x 1) (2)
3.                          
   • They reduce poverty (2)
   • They provide employment (2)
   • Earn foreign exchange through exports (2)
   • They promote food security (2)
   • They contribute in the form of taxes (2)
     [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)
4.                    
   • They can facilitate easier access to finance and credit facilities (2)
   • They can improve infrastructure to and from markets (2)
   • They can provide training to improve their skills (2)
   • The government can speed up the process of land reform (2)
     [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.6
4.6.1 Eastern Cape (1)
4.6.2 Automotive (1)
4.6.3 Port and harbour facilities (1)
4.6.4                     

• This has led to the development of link industries (2)
• This caused a multiplier effect with regards to industries (2)
• (Examples of link industries or multiplier effect can be given)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.6.5

• There is a lack of raw materials mined in the area (2)
• Electricity is expensive as the region is located a distance away from the coalfields (2)
• Production of other sustainable sources of energy is limited (2)
• The region suffers from periodic droughts (2)
• Lack of skilled labour (2)
• Constant labour strikes (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.6.6

• The presence of the PE harbour has facilitated the import and export of raw materials and goods (2)
• The deep-water port at Ngqura and the development of the IDZ there has encouraged more foreign investment (2)
• The region has an excellent road and rail network that links it to the rest of the country for transport of bulky goods internally (2)
• There is an international airport located there for rapid movement of skills and perishable goods (2)
• It has encouraged investment in the area (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75]

GRAND TOTAL: 225

ANNEXURE

FIGURE 1.1: HURRICANE FLORENCE

[Source: bestspecialnews.com]
FIGURE 1.2: SLIP-OFF AND UNDERCUT SLOPES

[Source: https://www.google.com/search]
FIGURE 1.3: INFLUENCE OF ANTICYCLONE

[Source: blog:netservice.com]
FIGURE 1.4: FOG IN A VALLEY

[Source: slideplayer.com]
FIGURE 1.5: DRAINAGE PATTERNS

[Source: lasmania.com]
FIGURE 1.6: DRAINAGE BASIN

[Source: civilspro.com]
FIGURE 2.3: LIFECYCLE OF A MID-LATITUDE CYCLONE

[Source: slideplayer.com]
FIGURE 2.4: URBAN HEAT ISLAND

[Source: https://www.google.com/search?q=urban+heat+island&hl]
FIGURE 2.5: FLUVIAL LANDFORMS

[Source: staticdiffen.com]
FIGURE 2.6: RIVER MANAGEMENT IN SOUTH AFRICA

[Source: waterplc.com]
FIGURE 3.3: LAND REFORM

[Source: farmersweekly.co.za]
FIGURE 3.4: URBAN INJUSTICES

[Source: images.the conversation.com] [Source: static.independent.co.za]
FIGURE 3.5: INFORMAL SECTOR

FIGURE 3.6: SALDANHA BAY DEVELOPMENT REGION

FIGURE 4.1: URBAN LAND-USE ZONES

[Source: wwwgeography.co.uk]
FIGURE 4.3: RURAL-URBAN MIGRATION

[Source: www.dumielauxepices.net]
FIGURE 4.4: URBAN SPRAWL

[Source: pritchettcartoons.com]
FIGURE 4.5: AGRICULTURAL FARMING SYSTEM IN SOUTH AFRICA

FIGURE 4.6: PORT ELIZABETH-UITENHAGE INDUSTRIAL REGION

RESOURCE MATERIAL

1.  An extract from topographical map 2529CC WITBANK.
2. Orthophoto map 2529 CC 15 WITBANK.
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use.

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Write your NAME in the space provided on the cover page.
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper.
3. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2529CC WITBANK) and an orthophoto map (2529 CC 15 WITBANK) of a part of the mapped area.
4. You must hand in the topographic map and the orthophoto map to the invigilator at the end of this examination session.
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough work and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper.
6. Show ALL calculations and use the formulae provided, where applicable. Marks will be allocated for these.
7. Indicate the unit of measurement in the final answer of calculations, e.g. 10 km; 2,1 cm.
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator and a magnifying glass.
9. The area demarcated in RED on the topographic map represents the area covered by the orthophoto map.
10. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the topographic map:
    

    ENGLISH	AFRIKAANS
    Aerodrome Golf course Diggings Hospital Sewerage works Shaft Slimes Dam Furrow Subsiding ground	Vliegveld Gholfbaan Uitgrawings Hospitaal Rioolwerke Skag Slykdam Voor Ondergrondse grond

QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographic map (2529CC WITBANK) as well as the orthophoto map of the part of the mapped area. Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question.
1.1 The city situated along the N4 easterly of Witbank is …

1. Bloemfontein.
2. Richards Bay.
3. Pretoria.
4. Middelburg.

1.2 The major mineral mined around the Witbank area is …

1. platinum.
2. coal.
3. diamonds.
4. iron ore.

1.3 In the map index of 2529 CC, the 29 represents …

1. 29° south of the equator.
2. 29° west of the Greenwich Meridian.
3. 29° north of the equator.
4. 29° east of the Greenwich Meridian.

1.4 The human-made feature A in block G10 on the topographic map is a …

1. conveyor belt.
2. mine dump.
3. slime dam.
4. hill.

1.5 … aerial photographs are used to create the orthophoto map.

1. Horizontal
2. Satellite
3. Vertical
4. Oblique

1.6 The human-made feature 1 on the orthophoto map is a …

1. dam.
2. reservoir.
3. building.
4. water tower.

1.7 The difference in height between spot height 1554 in block H10 and trigonometrical station 156 in block H12, is … m.

1. 20
2. 2,0
3. 21
4. 20,9

1.8 The feature found at 2 on the orthophoto map is a ...

1. golf course.
2. Witbank industrial area.
3. school.
4. King George Park.

1.9 The human-made feature at 3 on the orthophoto map is a …

1. sewage works.
2. dam.
3. reservoir.
4. slimes dam.

1.10 The dominant street pattern at B in block C12 on the topographic map is a … pattern.

1. radial
2. unplanned irregular
3. gridiron
4. planned irregular

1.11 The type of mining used to extract minerals that supply the Greenside Colliery in block H8 is …

1. dredging.
2. opencast.
3. fracking.
4. shaft.

1.12 The type of commercial area found at 4 on the orthophoto is a/an …

1. outlying business district.
2. regional shopping centre.
3. neighbourhood shopping centre.
4. isolated shopping centre.

1.13 The pattern of the rural settlements within C in block B3 on the topographic map is …

1. nucleated.
2. linear.
3. isolated.
4. stellar.

1.14 The main land-use zone found in block D10 on the topographic map is/the …

1. rural-urban fringe.
2. residential.
3. commercial.
4. light industry.

1.15 The general direction of flow of river H in block H2 is …

1. north.
2. south-west.
3. north-west.
4. south.

(15 x 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAPWORK CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES
2.1 Products from Witbank are transported along the N4 national road to Pretoria.
2.1.1 Determine if vehicles travelling along the N4 from 5 to 6 on the orthophoto map will drive uphill or downhill.(1 x 1) (1)
2.1.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.1.1.(1 x 1) (1)
2.2 Locate line 7–8 on the orthophoto map.
2.2.1 Calculate the average gradient between the car park point 7 (1593) and 8 on the orthophoto map. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.
Formula: Gradient  =     Vertical Interval (V.I.)                 (5 x 1) (5) 
                                   Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.)
2.3 2.3.1 Calculate the magnetic bearing from point D, in block B5, to point E in block C4 for 2019. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations.
Formula: MB = TB + MD (7 x 1) (7)
2.3.2 State the importance of calculating the magnetic declination for the present year. (1 x 1) (1)
2.4 Calculate the area of block A1 on the topographical map in km². Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your answer.
Formula: area = length (L) x breadth (B) (5 x 1) (5) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION
3.1 Study the Ferrobank industrial area in block B8.
3.1.1 Is Ferrobank a light or heavy industrial area?(1 x 1) (1)
3.1.2 Substantiate your choice in QUESTION 3.1.1.(1 x 2) (2)
3.2 Witbank is a central place town according to its main function.
3.2.1 Define a central place town.(1 x 1) (1)
3.2.2 Provide topographic and orthophoto map evidences that Witbank is a central place town.(2 x 2) (4)
3.3 Refer to block E10 on the topographic map.
3.3.1 Name TWO natural factors that would discourage mining in block E10 on the topographic map.(2 x 1) (2)
3.3.2 Explain your answer in QUESTION 3.3.1.(2 x 2) (4)
3.4 Infrastructure is important for mining in the region. Refer to the Greenside Colliery Mine in blocks H8 and H9 on the topographic map to answer the following questions.
3.4.1 State a form of infrastructure used by the Greenside Colliery Mine.(1 x 1) (1)
3.4.2 Explain why the infrastructure mentioned in QUESTION 3.4.1 is of importance to the Greenside Colliery Mine.(2 x 2) (4)
3.5 Refer to blocks H2 and H3 on the topographic map.
3.5.1 Witbank experiences seasonal rainfall. Give reasons evident in block H2.(2 x 2) (4)
3.5.2 Explain how seasonal rainfall has influenced the location of the cultivated land in block H3.(1 x 2) (2)[25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS)
4.1 Refer to the picture below of a slimes dam used in the Witbank area below and answer the questions that follow.

[Source: Google]
4.1.1 What type of spatial object is the slimes dam?(1 x 1) (1)
4.1.2 Is the picture a raster or vector image?(1 x 1) (1)
4.1.3 GIS can be used to predict the amount of water and disposable material entering the dam by integrating different sources of information. What is the term used to describe this process?(1 x 1) (1)
4.2 The farmer in block H1 decides to use data manipulation to assist in maximising his output and profit from his crop farming.
4.2.1 Explain the term data manipulation.(1 x 1) (1)
4.2.2 Evaluate how data manipulation would assist the farmer in block H1 in maximising his output and profit.(2 x 2) (4)
4.3 Refer to area within F in block A5 on the topographic map in which buffering has occurred.
4.3.1 Define buffering.(1 x1) (1)
4.3.2 What evidence is there that buffering has occurred?(1 x 2) (2)
4.3.3 Explain the positive impact that buffering will have on environmental sustainability in the area in the case of pollution.(2 x 2) (4)[15]

TOTAL: 75