1. SOURCE-BASED QUESTIONS 
1.1 The following cognitive levels were used to develop source-based  questions: 

1.2 The information below indicates how source-based questions are  assessed: 

• In the marking of source-based questions credit needs to be given to  any other valid and relevant viewpoints, arguments, evidence or  examples.
• In the allocation of marks emphasis should be placed on how the  requirements of the question have been addressed.
• In the marking guideline, the requirements of the question (skills that  need to be addressed) as well as the level of the question are  indicated in italics. 
• When assessing open-ended source-based questions, learners should  be credited for any relevant answers.
• Learners are expected to take a stance when answering ‘to what  extent’ questions in order for any marks to be awarded. 

1.3 Assessment procedures for source-based questions 

• Use a tick (✔) for each correct answer
• Pay attention to the mark scheme e.g. (2 x 2) which translates to two  reasons and is given two marks each (✔✔ ✔✔); (1 x 2) which  translates to one reason and is given two marks (✔✔)
• If a question carries 4 marks then indicate by placing 4 ticks (✔✔✔✔)

Paragraph question 
Paragraphs are to be assessed globally (holistically). Both the content  and structure of the paragraph must be taken into account when awarding  a mark. The following steps must be used when assessing a response to  a paragraph question: 

• Read the paragraph and place a bullet ( . ) at each point within the text  where the candidate has used relevant evidence to address the  question.
• Re-read the paragraph to evaluate the extent to which the candidate  has been able to use relevant evidence to write a paragraph. ∙ At the end of the paragraph indicate the ticks (√) that the candidate  has been awarded for the paragraph; as well as the level (1, 2 or 3) as  indicated in the holistic rubric and a brief comment e.g.
  ___________ ˖ __________________________ ˖ _________________ _________________ ˖ __________________________ ˖ ___________ √√√√ Level 2
  Used mostly relevant evidence to write a basic paragraph
• Count all the ticks for the source-based question and then write the mark on  the right-hand bottom margin e.g. 32/50
• Ensure that the total mark is transferred accurately to the front/back  cover of the answer script. 

2. ESSAY QUESTIONS 
2.1 The essay questions require candidates to: 

• Be able to structure their argument in a logical and coherent manner.  They need to select, organise and connect the relevant information so  that they are able to present a reasonable sequence of facts or an  effective argument to answer the question posed. It is essential that an  essay has an introduction, a coherent and balanced body of evidence  and a conclusion. 

2.2 Marking of essay questions 

• Markers must be aware that the content of the answer will be guided  by the textbooks in use at the particular centre.
• Candidates may have any other relevant introduction and/or  conclusion than those included in a specific essay marking guideline  for a specific essay.
• When assessing open-ended source-based questions, learners should  be credited for Any other relevant answers. 

2.3 Global assessment of the essay 
The essay will be assessed holistically (globally). This approach requires the  teacher to score the overall product as a whole, without scoring the  component parts separately. This approach encourages the learner to offer  an individual opinion by using selected factual evidence to support an  argument. The learner will not be required to simply regurgitate 'facts' in order  to achieve a high mark. This approach discourages learners from preparing  ‘model’ answers and reproducing them without taking into account the  specific requirements of the question. Holistic marking of the essay credits  learners’ opinions supported by evidence. Holistic assessment, unlike  content-based marking, does not penalise language inadequacies as the  emphasis is on the following: 

• The construction of argument 
• The appropriate selection of factual evidence to support such argument
• The learner’s interpretation of the question. 

2.4 Assessment procedures of the essay 
2.4.1 Keep the synopsis in mind when assessing the essay. 
2.4.2 During the reading of the essay ticks need to be awarded for a  relevant introduction (indicated by a bullet in the marking  guideline/memorandum), each of the main points/aspects that is  properly contextualised (also indicated by bullets in the marking  guideline/memorandum) and a relevant conclusion (indicated by a  bullet in the marking guideline/memorandum) e.g. in an answer where  there are 5 main points there will be 7 ticks. 
2.4.3 Keep the PEEL structure in mind when assessing an essay.

2.4.4 The following symbols MUST be used when assessing an essay: 

• Introduction, main aspects and conclusion not properly  contextualised  ^ 
• Wrong statement                                 _________________ 
• Irrelevant statement                             |
                                                               |
                                                               | 
• Repetition R 
• Analysis A√ 
• Interpretation I√ 
• Line of argument LOA  ⇑⇓

2.5 The matrix 
2.5.1 Use of the matrix in the marking of essays. 
In the marking of essays, the criteria as provided in the matrix  should be used. When assessing the essay note both the content  and presentation. At the point of intersection of the content and  presentation based on the seven competency levels, a mark should  be awarded. 

1. The first reading of essays will be to determine to what extent  the main aspects have been covered and to allocate the  content level (on the matrix).

   C	LEVEL 4

2. The second reading of essays will relate to the level (on the  matrix) of presentation.

   C	LEVEL 4
   P	LEVEL 3

3. Allocate an overall mark with the use of the matrix.

   C	LEVEL 4	}26–27
   P	LEVEL 3

MARKING MATRIX FOR ESSAY: TOTAL: 50 

*Guidelines for allocating a mark for Level 1: 

• Question not addressed at all/totally irrelevant content; no attempt to structure the essay = 0
• Question includes basic and generally irrelevant information; no attempt to structure the essay = 1–6
• Question inadequately addressed and vague; little attempt to structure the essay = 7–13

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: SOURCE-BASED QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1: HOW DID THE DEPLOYMENT OF MISSILES TO CUBA  CONTRIBUTE TO COLD WAR TENSIONS BETWEEN THE SOVIET 
UNION AND THE UNITED STATES IN THE 1960s?
1.1.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1A – L1] 

• The United States deployed nuclear Jupiter missiles to Turkey 
• An American plot to overthrow Castro’s government (2 x 1) (2) 

1.1.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1A – L2] 

• Castro had established a close relationship with USSR
• Cuba was embracing the ideology of communism
• Kennedy feared the impact of the domino effect in Latin America
• Any other relevant response. (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.1.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1A – L2] 

• To counter the installation of missiles in Turkey by the US 
• USSR wanted to be in a close range to attack US
• To deter any future invasion of Cuba by the United States
• To restore the balance of power
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.2 1.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1B – L1] 

• To inform the public of the developments in Cuba
• His decision to initiate and enforce a ‘quarantine’
• The potential global consequences if the crisis continued to escalate
• It shall be the policy of this nation to regard any nuclear missiles  launched from Cuba against any nation in the western Hemisphere  as an attack by Soviet Union on the United States, requiring a full  revengeful response upon Soviet Union. (4 x 1) (4) 

1.2.2 [Definition of historical concept from Source 1B – L1] 

• The closing of all naval routes for the USSR ships to prevent the  delivery of missiles to Cuba
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.2.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1B – L2] 

• He saw it as an act of aggression as USA was ready to attack
• He was infringing the international rights of moving freely in  international waters
• USA had no right to interfere in the affairs of Cuba and Russia
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2)

1.2.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1B – L2] 

• It brought the world to brink of nuclear war
• Kennedy and Khrushchev did not agree on removal of missiles in  Cuba
• None of the two leaders wanted to compromise their position. 
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

1.3 1.3.1 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1C – L2] 

• The USSR / Khrushchev has deployed missiles in Cuba, (the  indication of Cuba carrying a missile)
• The USA / Kennedy discovered the deployment of missiles (USA is  watching Cuba with a missile)
• Cuba/Castro accepted the missiles (Cuba is carrying a missile)
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.3.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1C – L2] 

• Castro was seeking protection against any invasion by USA
• Castro wanted to defend Cuba / Cubans.
• After the Bay of Pigs invasion Castro felt threatened by the situation  hence, he turned to the USSR for help.
• Any other relevant response (Any1 x 2) (2)

1.3.3 [Evaluate the usefulness of Source 1C – L3] 
Useful to a great extent: 

• It provides an American view on the discovery of missiles in Cuba
• It provides visual evidence of the deployment of missiles in Cuba.
• It shows Cuba receiving and accepting missiles 
• It shows USA observing the deployment of missiles which are of  close range with the cities of USA
• Any other relevant response  

Useful to a lesser extent  

• It depicts an American view on the discovery of the missiles in  Cuba 
• Source is biased against Cuba 
• Cuba viewed as aggressive
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

1.4 [Comparison of evidence of from Source 1B and Source 1C – L3]

• Source 1A provides information regarding the US discovery of missiles  sites in Cuba, while Source 1C shows visual evidence of the established  missiles sites
• Both sources clarify the danger of the establishment of missiles. (Missile  Crisis)
• Both sources show that Russia and America were involved in the Cuban  Missile Crisis 
• Cuba was just a pawn
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

1.5. 1.5.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1D – L1] 

• The two countries agreed to end the standoff with a trade-off.
• The Soviet Union would remove its missiles from Cuba and the USA  would remove its missiles from Turkey. (Any 1 x 2) (2) ∙ ∙ 

1.5.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1D – L1] 

• A verification mission that the Soviet Union was keeping its promise  to remove the missiles (1 x 2) (2) 

1.5.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 1D – L2] 

1.                    
   • Kennedy was viewed as a hero
   • Kennedy seen as peacemaker by the people of the world
   • Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) 
2.                      
   • Khrushchev was regarded as a sell-out of the communist  ideology to US capitalism. 
   • He was ousted as a leader of the Soviet Union in 1963
   • Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (4) 

1.5.4 [Extraction of evidence from Source 1D – L1] 

• The creation of the hotline, a direct phone from Moscow, the capital  of the Soviet Union, to Washington D.C.
• Signing of the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (2 x 1) (2) 

1.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis of evidence from relevant sources – L3]  Candidates may use the following as points to answer the question: 

• Cuba associated herself with Russia (Source 1A)
• USA defined herself in opposition to Castro’s regime (Source 1A)
• American plot to overthrow Castro government (Source 1A)
• USA had established its missile bases in Turkey and Italy, next to the  USSR’s doorstep. (Source 1A)
• In response, the USSR deployed missiles in Cuba, thus within close range of  the US (Source 1A)
• USA threaten USSR – Cuban attack would be seen as attack on USA  (Source 1B)
• US responded by declaring a quarantine around Cuba to stop USSR ships  from entering Cuba. (Source 1B)
• USA declared Defcon 2/3 status (Source 1B)
• USSR sees blockade as an act of aggression and ordered ships to proceed  (Source 1B)
• Crisis reached stalemate (Source 1B)
• The situation became even tenser, with the world holding its breath for the  imminence of a nuclear war. (Source 1C and own knowledge)
• Both the US and USSR initiated diplomatic relations to end the crisis without  firing any missile. (Source 1D)
• Demands and compromises were made by both US and USSR to end the  crisis (Source 1D and own knowledge)
• USSR agreed to dismantle its missile base in Cuba, while the US committed  itself to get rid of missile in Turkey and Italy
• Both agreed to leave Cuba alone
• A telephone hotline was established for diplomatic communication between  US and USSR (Source 1D)
• Nuclear test Ban Treaty was signed to mark the end of the crisis. (Own  knowledge)
• Any other relevant response 

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark: 

(8) [50]

QUESTION 2: WHY DID SOUTH AFRICA BECOME INVOLVED IN THE   ANGOLAN WAR OF INDEPENDENCE?
2.1 2.1.1 [Definition of historical concept from Source 2A – L1]

• A war between the citizens of the same country in this case the  FNLA, UNITA and the MPLA within the borders of Angola  
• Any other relevant response (1 x 2) (2) 

2.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A – L1] 

• FNLA 
• UNITA
• MPLA (3 x 1) (3) 

2.1.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2A-L1] 

• MPLA (1 x 1) (1) 

2.1.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2A – L2] 

• They were against the communist MPLA 
• To stop the spread of communism in Southern Africa
• To establish pro-South Africa neighbouring states 
• MPLA was assisted by Cuban military forces 
• Any relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.2 2.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2B – L1] 

• Operation Savannah
• Operation Reindeer
• Operation Protea
• Operation Askari (Any 3 x 1) (3) 

2.2.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2B – L2] 

• South Africa had no right to interfere in Angola’s internal affairs ∙ SA trained forces in order to overthrow the Angolan  government 
• Gave massive assistance to rebel forces 
• South Africa wanted to prove to the Western world that they  were anti-communist
• South Africa wanted to prove to the Western world that they  were pro-capitalist 
•  Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.2.3 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2B – L1] 

• To help stop the MPLA from taking power 
• Angola of providing bases from which SWAPO (South West  African People’s Organisation), the only Namibian liberation  movement fighting an armed struggle against South Africa, sent  guerrillas into Namibia. 
• Angola was home to the main military training bases of  Umkhonto we Sizwe (MK), the armed wing of the ANC 
• To regain some international credit from Western powers   (Any 3 x 1) (3)

2.2.4 [Evaluate the reliability of Source 2B – L3] 
Reliable to a great extent 

• It was written by a reputable historian/professor
• It is a secondary source based on research
• The information can be corroborated
• The intention was to inform the audience of South Africa’s  involvement
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.3 2.3.1 [Analysis of evidence from Source 2C – L2] 

• It shows South African forces preparing for battle.
• It shows that the SADF had a substantial number of troops 
• It shows the artillery the SADF had at their disposal
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.3.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2C – L2] 

• The battle ended in a stalemate situation which led to negotiations
• Negotiations resulted into Namibia gaining its independence
• It led to black majority rule in Namibia 
• Any relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.4. [Comparison of evidence in Sources 2B and 2C – L3] 

• Source 2B gives an account of South African interventions ‘the largest  before those took place around Cuito Cuanavale’ and Source 2C shows  the South African troops during battle on Angolan soil.
• Source 2B states that South African troops often invaded Angola to provide  military assistance to UNITA and in Source 2C the visual source shows the  SADF preparing military vehicles for the battle of Cuito Cuanavale.
• Both sources refer to the readiness of SADF for the battles in Angola,  particularly the battle of Cuito Cuanavale
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

2.5 2.5.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 2D – L1] 

• When the SADF faced stiff resistance from Angolans the  operational command of the SADF broke down (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2D – L2] 

• Massive Cuban support for the MPLA 
• SA lost their air superiority
• The MIG 23’s ensured that battle reached a stalemate 
• Any other relevant answer (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.3 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2D – L2] 

• SADF did not value black lives 
• They were practising racial policies towards blacks
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 2D – L2] 

• Many white soldiers died
• They were unable to defeat the Angola forces
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2)

2.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis from relevant sources – L3] Candidates may include the following aspects in their responses: 

• Troops from Zaire and South Africa invaded Angola to place the FNLA  and UNITA, respectively, in power (Source 2A)
• SA against MPLA because of their Cuban military support (Source 2A)  ∙ SA accused MPLA of providing bases for SWAPO (Source 2B) 
• SWAPO used Angola to send guerrilla fighters into SWA (Source 2B) ∙ MPLA allowed ANC to set up military bases in Angola (Source 2B)
• SA wanted to destroy the main military bases of Umkhonto we Sizwe  (Source 2B) 
• SA was anti-communist and wanted to prevent MPLA from taking over  (Source 2B) 
• SA was pro-capitalist and wanted to regain international credit from  western powers 
• SA wanted to break their policy of isolation (own knowledge) 
• South African Army preparing for the battle of Cuito Cuanavale (Source  2C) 
• SA army wanted to deliver the final blow during Cuito (Source 2D) 
• Angolan and Cuban MiG 23s proved superior to the South Air Force  (Source 2D) 
• Advance weaponry prevented South African victory (own knowledge)
• A combined effort by Angolan groups (MPLA) and Cuban troops proved  formidable enough to halt the SADF advances. (Source 2D) 
• Any other relevant answer 

Use the following rubric to allocate a mark:  

(8) [50]

QUESTION 3: WHAT WAS THE IMPACT OF THE BLACK POWER  MOVEMENT ON AFRICAN AMERICANS LIVING IN THE  UNITED STATES OF AMERICA DURING THE 1960s? 
3.1 3.1.1 [Extraction of information from Source 3A – L1] 

• Young, black so-called militants
• Radicals coming out of the urban areas in the North (2 x 1) (2) 

3.1.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3A-L1] 

• ‘Somebody hits you. You send him to the cemetery.’ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.1.3. [Explanation of historical concept from Source 3A – L1] 

• Celebrated black pride and stressed the importance of black  determination 
• A belief that black people should be proud of themselves, their  heritage, appearances and achievements 
• A social ideology that encouraged hope and dignity but also self help, self-reliance, self-pride and self-determination 
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.1.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3A – L2] 

• The civil rights movement advocated non-violent and passive  action. 
• The pace of change brought by the CRM was too slow 
• Did not believe that they would get their freedom by means of  passive resistance – believed in violence 
• They did not believe in unity, peace and equality between blacks and whites. 
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.1.5 [Determining the usefulness of Source 3A – L3] 
Useful 

• Gives us a perspective on how the youth in the north felt about  their status in the USA in the 1960s 
• It shows that a certain section of the black community became  disillusioned with the slow pace of change of the CRM 
• Shows that Malcolm X promoted violence to bring about change
• Shows Malcolm X did not believe in passive resistance but rather self defence 
• Source shows that blacks were subjected to police violence in the  USA; hence his stance of violence 
• He wanted to counter police brutality with violence 
• Wanted Black people to manage themselves without white  assistance 
• Bloodshed was only vehicle that will bring about change 
•  Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

3.2 3.2.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3B – L1] 

• Viciously, shamelessly, unmercifully assaulted
• Beaten by an army of pigs (police)
• They were murdered (3 x 1) (3) 

3.2.2 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3B – L1] 

• The education system that taught white supremacy and portrayed  black people as inferior
• No opposition or protest by white citizens
• The radio, television, magazines and newspaper make us  (blacks) lawless criminals
• It led white people to believe that they were in some sort of  danger (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

3.2.3 [Interpretation of evidence in Source 3B – L2] 

• Their method of peacefully resisting police brutality did not work  and had to be reviewed. 
• The government did not grant black people equality and freedom, in spite of the peaceful nature of their protest actions.
• They had to apply new methods of resistance based on violence  to bring about change.
• The death of the three Black Panther members justified the need  for the use of radical and violent methods of resistance
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.3 3.3.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3C – L1] 

• Free shoes
• First-aid kits (Any 2 x 1) (2) 

3.3.2 [Interpretation of evidence in Source 3C – L2] 

• To show the growth and effectiveness of the programme
• To show that blacks could do things for themselves 
• To show which basic needs were currently met and pressure  other people to sponsor and support the programme 
• To show black self-reliance 
• Any other relevant response (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.3.3 [Extraction of information from Source 3C – L1]  

• Implemented to serve the people
• So that eventually the community will be able to serve itself, without depending upon the avaricious (greedy) businessmen  to give us what we need
• It’s a way we will begin to see our new society (Any 2 x 1) (2)

3.3.4 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3C – L2] 

• Black people must take control of their own destiny 
• Black people must take power to administer their own affairs
• Blacks must unite with other marginalised groups in America  and rule themselves 
• Power to regain political and economic freedom 
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.4 3.4.1 [Extraction of evidence from Source 3D – L1] 

•  Free breakfast for children (Any 1 x 2) (2) 

3.4.2 [Interpretation of evidence from Source 3D – L2] 

• To uplift African American communities from impoverishment  through community-based programmes.
• To promote self- help, self-reliance and self-pride amongst  African Americans
• To spread the ideas of Black power philosophy through the  country 
• To protect the members against police brutality
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4) 

3.5 [Comparison of evidence in sources to determine similarities – L3]

• Source 3C states that the Survival Programmes were implemented to  serve people. This is supported by the evidence in Source 3D which  shows the Free Breakfast Programme offered to serve the needs of  black children
• Source 3C states that the Survival Programmes were started by the  Black Panther Party. This is supported by the evidence in Source 3D  which states that the breakfast program was started by the Black  Panther Party
• Source 3C states that the Black Panther Party established ways in  which blacks could survive without white assistance. This is supported  by Source 3D with Blacks providing Free Breakfast for black children  without the assistance of whites
• Any other relevant response (Any 2 x 2) (4)

3.6 [Interpretation, analysis and synthesis from relevant sources – L3] Candidates may include the following aspects in their responses: 

• Malcolm X rejected the non-violent resistance promote by Martin Luther  King Junior, he was able to influence young black men through his  statements to advocate for radical change and the use of violence to  resist segregation (Source 3A)
• Malcolm X also emphasised self-defence because of the extensive use  of violence by police against peaceful demonstrators unlike Martin  Luther King (Source 3A)
• Constant police brutality in the black communities and the death of the  three Black Panther members lead to the emergence of Black Power  Movement which was a militant group that protected and defended the  black communities (Source 3B)
• Led to the adoption of new methods of resistance based on violence and  self-reliance (Source 3B) 
• BPM resisted racism, exploitation and police brutality (Source 3B) 
• The BPM encouraged blacks to fight back by any means necessary  (Source 3B) 
• BPM launched their community programmes (Source 3C) 
• Community programmes aim was self-reliance without white assistance  (Source 3C)
• BPM launched the People’s Survival Programmes so that communities  could serve themselves (Source 3C)
• BPM wanted blacks to establish their own new society. (Source 3C) 
• BPM provided free breakfast for black children (Source 3D)
• Any other relevant response  

Use the rubric below to assess this question. 

(8) [50]

SECTION B: ESSAY QUESTIONS 
QUESTION 4: CASE STUDY – CHINA 
[Plan and construct an original argument based on relevant evidence using  analytical and interpretative skills.] 

SYNOPSIS
Candidates need to indicate whether they agree or disagree with the statement. If  they agree with the statement they should briefly explain why and support their  stance with historical evidence. 

MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their responses: 
Introduction: Candidates should take a stance by agreeing or disagreeing with the  statement. 

ELABORATION 

• Mao Zedong’s implementation of the First Five Year Plan (Brief background  only) 
• Implementation of the Second Five Year Plan (Great Leap Forward) in 1958. Its  objective was to increase industrial and agricultural production in China.
• To end all forms of private enterprise.
• Promoted the collectivisation of co-operatives (farms) 
• Dealt with resistance to collectivisation by forceful amalgamation of farms
• Statistics of production outputs were exaggerated to ‘prove’ the success of the  policy 
• High taxation on farm products led to disgruntled peasants and decreased  production 
• Depended on unskilled labour (peasants) for industrial production rather than  scientists and engineers. This led to a decrease in productivity in the industrial  sector 
• Workers had to work long hours to increase production
• Great Leap Forward was a dismal failure after 3 years of its implementation
• Mao Zedong was unable to stop starvation of millions of people due to famine
• Mao Zedong re-introduced capitalism in only certain sectors
• Mao Zedong resigned as President of China (1959) but remained as  Chairperson of the Communist Party (handed authority to President Liu Shaoqi  and Deng Xiaoping to deal with economic issues)
• He introduced the Cultural Revolution in 1966 to restore authority that was lost  as a result of the failure of the Great Leap Forward 
• Used the Communist Party to stamp the authority of the government  ∙ Introduced the re-nationalisation of heavy industries 
• Focused on the principle of establishing a classless society
• Established the Red Guards to deal with opponents of the Communist Party
• Used the Red Guards to change old habits and attitudes (Four Olds)
• Introduced the Little Red Book to change the mind-set of critics and promote  communism
• To enforce communism schools, universities and colleges were closed and  critics were dealt with accordingly. 
• Eliminated key officials (Xiaoping and Liu Shaoqi) and Mao became the sole  leader of China in 1966.
• Any other relevant response 

Conclusion: Candidates should tie up their arguments with relevant conclusions. [50]

QUESTION 5: INDEPENDENT AFRICA: COMPARATIVE CASE STUDY – THE  CONGO AND TANZANIA 
[Plan and construct an original argument based on evidence, using analytical and  interpretative skills] 

SYNOPSIS 
Candidates need to critically discuss the successes and challenges faced by both  Tanzania and Congo with specific reference to economic, social and cultural  development after they gained independence from colonial rule. 

MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their responses 
Introduction: Candidates should critically discuss the successes and challenges  faced by Tanzania and the Congo with specific reference to their economic, social  and political development after they gained independence from colonial rule. 

ELABORATION 
Political transformation of Congo and Tanzania 

Similarities: 

• Both the Congo and Tanzania were under European colonial rule until the early  1960s
• After multi-party elections were held during independence, both countries  became one-party states in the first five years after becoming independent
• Both countries held elections 
• Both leaders emphasise the importance of Africanisation of their political systems  (they see democracy as non-African 'and a Western imposition)
• The leaders of both countries (Mobutu Sese Seko and Julius Nyerere) remained  "lifelong president" between the 1960s and 1970s. 
• In both countries, opposition leaders were silenced, imprisoned and in some  cases murdered
• Both Mobutu Sese Seko and Julius Nyerere prided themselves on building their  nations and have the pride of Zaire or Tanzanian – be lived out 

Differences: 

• Mobutu Sese Seko established a Kleptocracy, a group of appointed public  officials who abused their position for financial gain while Julius Nyerere  introduced the ‘Leadership Code’ in the Arusha Declaration demanding ‘high  levels of public officials' integrity 
• Mobutu Seso Seko was exorbitant and wore expensive clothes and built himself extravagant palaces, while Julius Nyerere's leadership style was one of personal  integrity and humility. 
• Mobutu Sese Seko identified himself with the West, while Julius Nyerere adopted  a policy of non-identification with capitalist or communist countries 

ECONOMIC TRANSFORMATION OF CONGO AND TANZANIA 
Similarities: 

• Both countries relied heavily on agriculture and mineral extraction and no country could develop a credible manufacturing sector 
• No country had a significant increase in the standard of living for the majority of  its people 
• Both countries experienced economic crises and had to rely on foreign aid 

Differences: 

• Mobutu Sese Seko initially nationalised the industry with his Zairianisation policy,  but when it failed, he adopted a capitalist model; Julius Nyerere adopted an  African socialist model (as set out in the Arusha Declaration) which led to the  nationalisation of businesses and land
• Mobutu accepted aid, investment and financial support from the West (especially  the US and France); Nyerere was initially opposed to accepting foreign aid (see  it as neo-colonialism)
• Mobutu created a new class of elite supporters; Nyerere tried to get rid of  Tanzania's classes of subdivision divisions
• Any other relevant answer 

SOCIAL AND CULTURAL 
Education and language 

• Colonial education promoted Eurocentric values 
• Under colonialism, few African children received more than primary education. 
• The Congo and Tanzania had some qualified technicians and engineers
• Children learned European history and languages and Western knowledge benefits over African knowledge 

Education in Tanzania 

• Nyerere promoted the use of Swahili (a common language used by most  Tanzanians spoken) above English
• Between 1961 and 1981, illiteracy in Tanzania fell from 80% to 20%.
• Few sources were given to tertiary education. Primary enrolments increased
• Structural adjustment in the 1980s drastically cut off social expenditure causing  shortages of textbooks, banks and teachers as a result
• Nyerere (Tanzania) wrote a pamphlet 'Education for Independence' (1967) – he  expanded primary school education in rural areas and focused on basic literacy

Education in the Congo 

• With independence, there were 14 university graduates in the Congo and  therefore the higher education system had to be expanded
• Between 1960 and 1974, primary education in Congo increased from 1,6 million  to 4,6 million
• French remained the language of instruction in the Congo Africanisation
• In Tanzania: ‘Villagisation’ – Nyerere, promoted 'traditional' community values by Ujamaa (‘familyhood’) villages; Tanzanians were encouraged to focus on agriculture and traditional values and become independent. Tanzanians chose to  cultivate the land in communes rather than to export produce
• In Congo: Zairianisation: Mobutu promoted African faith and culture by means of his authenticité policy.
• Mobutu encouraged people to wear African clothing, to play and listen to African  music and eat African food
• Mobutu renamed many towns and cities in the Congo with African names (e.g. Leopoldville became Kinshasa) 

DRESS 

• Mobutu and Nyerere accepted Kwame Nkrumah and Maoist clothing 

ART 

• Promoted African art and literature as well as craft
• Any other relevant answer 

Conclusion: Candidates should tie up their argument with a relevant conclusion. [50]

QUESTION 6: CIVIL SOCIETY PROTESTS FROM THE 1950s TO THE 1970s  CIVIL RIGHTS MOVEMENT 
[Plan and construct an original argument based or relevant evidence using analytical  and interpretative skills.] 

SYNOPSIS 
Candidates should indicate to what extent the various forms of protest actions were  successful in ending racial discrimination and segregation. 

MAIN ASPECTS 
Candidates should include the following aspects in their response: 
Introduction: Candidates should indicate to what extent they agree with the  statement. 

ELABORATION 
Reasons for the emergence of the Civil Rights Movement: 

• Living in ghettos and slum areas/poor housing, under-resourced facilities (school,  health etc.) lack of jobs and poverty; slow pace of change/loss of faith in the Civil  Rights Movement
• Brief background to Martin Luther King Jnr. and the reason for the Civil Rights  Movement.
• Rosa Parks: Rosa Parks, an African-American woman, took a stand against  discrimination on public buses. 
• On 1 December 1955 in Montgomery, Alabama, she refused to give up her seat  to a white passenger, ignoring the custom in the South at the time that required  African-Americans to give up their seats if required. 
• She was arrested for this, and the incident led to the local black community  boycotting the bus service
• The Federal court declared segregation of public transport unconstitutional 
• Sit-ins (from 1960) – Greensboro, North Carolina, four students staged a ‘sit-in’ at a Whites-only lunch counter (In the summer of 1961, businesses in Greensboro  desegregated) Sit-ins spread across the segregated facilities such as “pray-ins’’  ‘’read-ins ‘’wade-ins’ – six lunch counters in Nashville changed their policy and  desegregated their counters.
• Freedom Rides (non-violent) – (sat-in; buses and travelled from north to deep  south to test new federal laws prohibiting segregation on national bus system 
• Attacked by mobs, petrol-bombed, thrown in jail and not protected by local police. Thousands volunteered and President Kennedy was forced to order federal  marshals to protect Freedom Riders. 
• Tough new legislation introduced by
• Federal order – 1 November 1961 officially desegregated all interstate public  facilities
• Demonstration and marches:
• Birmingham 1963 (Mass demonstrations, including a children’s march were met  with violent and vicious reaction from police (water cannons, dogs, etc. all used  to terrorise non-violent protestors) president Kennedy stated on TV that racial  segregation ‘was a moral issue’ which had no place in American life. On 10 May  1963 the city’s businesses and municipality announced that municipal facilities  would be desegregated. Attacks and murders of African Americans in the city  continued (Medgar Evans, bombing of 16th Street Baptist Church)
• March on Washington 1963: 250 000 people took part in a non-racial, non violent march on Washington to demand full equality and jobs; Martin Luther King  Jnr gave “I have a dream speech”
• Freedom summer (1964): Thousands of activists and volunteers (more than  70 000 students many from northern states, local SNCC, CORE and NAACP  activists) worked to register African American in Mississippi and teach in Freedom  Schools (literacy history); Activists and volunteers were met with violence from  white segregationist mobs and police officers; (1964, 2 July) Civil Rights Act  passed – barred discrimination and segregation in employment and all public  facilities 
• Selma-Montgomery marches (March 1965): To demand that African American  be allowed to register to vote (only 2,5% of black people were registered votes  due to intimidation and racist attacks) – after three attempts, brutal police attacks  on non-violent demonstrators (Bloody Sunday) and mass support from across the  country they reached Montgomery. President Johnson was pressurised to pass  the 1965 Voting Rights Act
• Voting Rights Act passed on 6 August 1965 - Outlawed obstacles to voting  (such as literacy tests, poll taxes) which had been put in place to prevent black  people registering as voters: CRM achieved equality before the law 

Conclusion: candidates should tie up their arguments with a relevant conclusion. [50]

TOTAL: 150

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections:
   SECTION A: Essay (50)
   SECTION B: Transactional texts (2 x 25) (50) 
2. Answer ONE question from SECTION A and TWO questions from SECTION B. 
3. Write in the language in which you are being assessed.
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. You must plan (e.g. use a mind map/diagram/flow chart/key words, etc.), edit and  proofread your work. The planning must appear BEFORE the answer.
6. All planning must be clearly indicated as such. It is advisable to draw a line across  all planning.
7. You are strongly advised to spend your time as follows:
   • 80 minutes on SECTION A
   • 70 minutes on SECTION B (2 x 35 minutes) 
8. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
9. Give each response a suitable title/heading, as indicated by the question. NOTE: The title/heading must NOT be considered when doing a word count.
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1

• Write an essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE of the following topics.
• Write down the NUMBER and TITLE/HEADING of your essay. 

1.1 You know my name! [50] 
1.2

‘Feeling my way through the darkness 
Guided by a beating heart, 
I can’t tell where the journey will end 
But I know where to start.’   [Avicii] [50] 

1.3 ‘We should invest in books not bullets.’ [Malala Yousafzai] [50] 
1.4 ‘Snowflake’ is an appropriate name for Generation Z – also known as the Post Millennials. [50] 
1.5 Leave no man behind.  [US Army Soldier’s Creed] [50] 
1.6 The pictures reproduced below may evoke some reaction or feeling in you, or stir  your imagination.  

• Select ONE picture and write an essay in response. 
• Provide your essay with a suitable title. 
•  Write the correct topic number (1.6.1, 1.6.2 or 1.6.3). 

NOTE: There must be a clear link between your essay and the picture you have  chosen. 
1.6.1

[Source: Getty Images] [50]
1.6.2 

[Source: www.masscommunicationtalk] [50] 
1.6.3 

[Source: www.pinterest.com]  [50] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 

• Respond to TWO of the following topics.
• The body of EACH answer should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length.
• Pay careful attention to the following: 
  • Content and planning
  • Audience, register, tone and style 
  • Choice of words and language structure 
  • Format, structure and editing 
• Write down the NUMBER and the TITLE/HEADING of the text you have chosen,  e.g. 2.1 Letter to the Editor. 

2.1 LETTER TO THE EDITOR 

[Source: www.pinterest.com] 
You have noticed an increase in the number of homeless people who own pets. 
Write to your local newspaper to air your views on this matter. [25]

2.2 INFORMAL SPEECH 

[Source: www.pinterest.com] 
The increasing pressure on teenagers has led to many of them falling into a rut  as a means to cope. This has given rise to an escalation in mental health issues  such as depression.  
Write an informal speech that you will present to your grade in which you  address the issues that surround teenage depression, giving cautionary advice  on how best to avoid this issue. [25] 

2.3 INFORMAL LETTER 
A friend and his/her family emigrated at the end of your Grade 11 year.  
Write a letter to your friend informing him/her them of a distressing experience you  endured this year that you wished you could have shared with him/her. [25] 

2.4 OBITUARY 
An award winning and celebrated actor/actress has been fatally injured while  performing his/her own stunts for a new movie due for release early next year.  The incident occurred while being filmed on location in Toronto, Canada.  
Write his/her obituary for publication in the Hollywood Reporter. [25]

2.5 INTERVIEW 
Humble, local Port Elizabeth man and  Survivor winner, Tom Swartz, has gained  fame for “Outwitting, outplaying and  outlasting” his competitors on the reality  show.  Write the interview that takes place between  you and Tom in which you find out about his  experience as a survivalist and his  objectives for the future. [25]

2.6 MAGAZINE ARTICLE

The UK ‘celebrates’ its annual national Volunteer Week this year from  18–24 February, Australia, 20–26 May and Canada, 7–13 April.  
Why does South Africa not have such a campaign? 
Write a magazine article in which you express your views on the idea of a  Volunteer Week, how it can be beneficial to all parties concerned and how such  an initiative could be realised.  
Give your article a suitable title. [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 50
GRAND TOTAL: 100

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Please read this page carefully before you begin to answer questions.
2. Do not attempt to read the entire question paper. Consult the table of  contents on pages 3–4 and mark the numbers of the questions set on texts  you have studied this year. Thereafter, read these questions and choose the  ones you wish to answer.
3. This question paper consists of THREE sections.
   SECTION A: POETRY (30)
   SECTION B: NOVEL (25)
   SECTION C: DRAMA (25)
4. Follow the instructions at the beginning of each section carefully. 
5. Answer FIVE QUESTIONS in all: THREE in SECTION A, ONE in SECTION B  and ONE in SECTION C. Use the checklist to assist you. 
6. Number the answers exactly as the questions have been numbered in the  question paper. 
7. Start each section on a NEW page. 
8. Suggested time management: 
   SECTION A: approximately 40 minutes
   SECTION B: approximately 55 minutes
   SECTION C: approximately 55 minutes 
9. LENGTH OF ANSWERS:
   • Essay questions on poetry should be answered in 250–300 words.
   • Essay questions on the Novel and Drama sections should be answered in  400–450 words.
   • The length of answers to contextual questions should be determined by  the mark allocation. Candidates should aim for conciseness and relevance. 
10. CHOICE OF ANSWERS FOR SECTIONS B (NOVEL) AND C (DRAMA): ∙ Answer ONLY questions on the novel and the drama you have studied. ∙ Answer ONE ESSAY QUESTION and ONE CONTEXTUAL QUESTION. If  you answer the essay question in SECTION B, you must answer the  contextual question in SECTION C. If you answer the contextual question  in SECTION B, you must answer the essay question in SECTION C. 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

TABLE OF CONTENTS 
SECTION A: POETRY

SECTION C: DRAMA  
ANSWER ONLY ON THE DRAMA YOU HAVE STUDIED. 

CHECKLIST 
Use this checklist to ensure that you have answered the correct number of questions.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
Answer any TWO of the following questions. 
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the question that follows.

The poem, ‘Funeral Blues’, focuses on how the depth of love increases the sense  of loss and despair. 
Critically discuss how the use of DICTION and IMAGERY establishes the TONE  in the poem. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 250–300  words (about ONE page). [10] 

OR

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow. 

2.1 Account for the mirror used by the man in the poem. (2)
2.2 Explain the warning implied in line 15 (‘He’s being watched’). (2) 
2.3 Explain how being imprisoned changes a ‘person’ (line 3) into a ‘prisoner’  (line 4). (3) 
2.4 Critically comment on how the concept of Ubuntu is demonstrated in the  poem. Refer to the tone in support of your answer. (3) [10] 

OR

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

3.1 How does the description of Felix Randal as a ‘mould of man’ in line 2 suit his  occupation? (2) 
3.2 Felix Randal’s illness affected him in two ways. Explain. (2) 
3.3 Discuss the speaker’s observation in line 9 with reference to the sonnet  structure of the poem. (3) 
3.4 How does the speaker’s memory of Felix Randal in lines 12–14 create the  final tone in the poem? (3) [10] 

OR

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

4.1 Traditionally an elegy is a mournful poem written in response to death. How  is this contradicted in the poem? (2) 
4.2 Refer to line 3: ‘We are precious’. Consider the connotation of the word  ‘precious’ and show how this statement is true of the African people in the  context of the poem. (2) 
4.3 In line 20, the speaker refers to the dead in a joyful rather than a sad way.  How does this contribute to your understanding of African people? (3) 
4.4 Refer to the last stanza. How do the images of nature create the final tone? (3) [10] 

AND

UNSEEN POEM (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 5: CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

5.1 Refer to line 4. In your own words explain what the attitude of learners is to  poetry. (2) 
5.2 What is the speaker implying by listing some of the things one likes in stanza 2? (2)
5.3 Comment on the effectiveness of the image in lines 17–18. (3) 
5.4 How does the structure of the poem reinforce the central idea? (3) [10] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
Answer ONLY on the novel you have studied. 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 6 (essay question) OR QUESTION 7 (contextual question). 
QUESTION 6: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – ESSAY QUESTION 
Dorian Gray shook his head and struck some soft chords on the piano, ‘Like the  painting of a sorrow,’ he repeated, ‘a face without a heart.’ [Ch. 19] 
Critically discuss to what extent Dorian’s reflection of himself is an accurate  assessment of how his character develops. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 

OR 

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow. 
EXTRACT A 

7.1 Refer to lines 1–2: ‘But he would not sin’. Account for the decision Dorian makes at this point in the novel. (3) 
7.2 Refer to lines 3–4: ‘He would not see Lord Henry any more’. In your view, is Dorian’s decision not to see Lord Henry realistic?  Motivate your response. (3) 
7.3 Refer to line 7: ‘She must have suffered more than he had.’ Critically comment on how Dorian’s ability to show concern here is  contradicted later in the novel. (3)
7.4 Refer to line 7: ‘Poor child!’ Explain what Dorian’s expression indicates about his attitude towards Sibyl. (3)
AND 

EXTRACT B

7.5 Place this extract in context. (3)
7.6 Account for Campbell’s ‘cold’ attitude towards Dorian. (3)
7.7 Comment on Dorian’s reference to the dead body as ‘the silent thing’ in line 11. (3) 
7.8 ‘Even though Dorian is able to avoid justice, there is no escape from his  conscience.’ Critically comment on this statement by referring to the mood created in both  extracts. (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 8 (essay question) OR QUESTION 9 (contextual question).
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION 
‘I felt even my soul had been corroded by salt.’ (Ch. 92) 
Critically discuss to what extent this statement is an accurate assessment of the  way the character of Piscine Molitor develops. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 

OR 

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT C 

9.1 Why is Pondicherry no longer Pi’s home? (3) 
9.2 Refer to line 7. Provide a possible explanation for Pi’s observation that he  still sees Richard Parker in his dreams. (3) 
9.3 Despite their serious conditions (such as cancer) many patients seek to visit  Pi in order to comfort him. What is it about Pi’s story that they find so  compelling? (3) 
9.4 To what extent is Pi able to recover adequately after his rescue? Explain  your answer. (3) 

AND

EXTRACT D

9.5 Place this extract in context. (3) 
9.6 Refer to line 18: ‘And so it goes with God.’ Comment on what Pi’s tone reveals about his relationship with God. (3) 
9.7 What does the ‘[long silence]’ in line 24 indicate about the investigators’  understanding of Pi’s version of events? (3) 
9.8 Critically comment on the mood in both extracts and show how this is essential to understanding Pi’s survival. (4) [25] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
Answer ONLY on the play you have studied. 
HAMLET – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 10 (essay question) OR QUESTION 11 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 
Critically discuss to what extent Hamlet is both a victim and a villain.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 

OR 

QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT E

11.1 This spectacular scene opens showing Prince Hamlet dressed in black.  Explain the dramatic effect that is created by presenting Hamlet in this way. (3) 
11.2 Refer to line 1: ‘our dear brother’s death’. Account for the irony in this line. (3)
11.3 Refer to line 9: ‘this warlike state’. Discuss how this line may have both a  literal and figurative interpretation. (3) 
11.4 ‘Now follows that you know young Fortinbras, Holding a weak supposal of our worth,’ (lines 17–18) 
In these lines Claudius indicates that Fortinbras is not a threat to Denmark  nor to Claudius. How is this assumption proven to be incorrect at the end  of the play? (3) 
AND 

EXTRACT F 

11.5 Why does Claudius align himself with Laertes at this point in the play? (3)
11.6 Comment on the significance of Gertrude’s appearance at this stage. (3) 
11.7 Refer to Laertes’ response to his sister’s death in line 28: ‘Drowned? O,  where?’  
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you instruct  the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body language  and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3) 
11.8 Show how deception ultimately leads to tragedy by referring to both  extracts in your response. (4) [25] 

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 12 (essay question) OR QUESTION 13 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – ESSAY QUESTION 
Critically discuss to what extent Othello is both a victim and a villain.  
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450  words (2–2½ pages). [25] 
OR

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
EXTRACT G 

13.1 The word ‘jealousy’ is repeated in this extract. To what extent does Iago’s  own jealousy lead to this encounter with Othello? (3) 
13.2 Explain how Iago will provide the proof that Othello demands in line 16. (3) 
13.3 Refer to line 19: ‘To show the love and duty that I bear you.’ How is Iago’s character revealed in this line? (3) 
13.4 Refer to lines 24–25: ‘I would not have your free and noble nature/Out of  self-bounty be abused.’ Comment on the irony in this line. (3) 
AND

EXTRACT H

13.5 Account for the significance of Desdemona offering a handkerchief to  Othello at this point in the drama. (3) 
13.6 Othello’s reference to the magical properties of the handkerchief in line 17 is a reminder of earlier references made to magic when he eloped with  Desdemona. Discuss. (3) 
13.7 Refer to line 25: ‘Then would to God that I had never seen it!’ 
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct  the actress to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language  and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3)
13.8 Critically comment on the extent to which deception ultimately leads to  tragedy by referring to both extracts in your response. (4) [25] 

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
Answer EITHER QUESTION 14 (essay question) OR QUESTION 15 (contextual  question). 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION 
John Proctor is both a victim and a villain in this drama. 
Critically discuss the extent to which you agree with the above statement. 
Your response should take the form of a well-constructed essay of 400–450 words  (2–2½ pages). [25] 

OR 

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
Read the extracts below and then answer the questions that follow.
EXTRACT I 

15.1 Refer to lines 1–2: Account for Rebecca’s suggestion that Reverend Hale  be sent back. (3) 
15.2 Refer to lines 7–8: ‘There is prodigious danger in the seeking of loose  spirits’. Comment on this warning in the light of later events. (3) 
15.3 To what extent would you agree with Rebecca’s opinion in line 9 that they  should blame themselves for the children’s behaviour? (3) 
15.4 Account for Proctor’s attitude towards Putnam in lines 20–21: ‘We vote by  name in this society and not by acreage’. (3) 
AND 

EXTRACT J

15.5 While ‘I speak God’s law’ (line 9). Comment on the irony of Danforth’s  utterance. (3) 
15.6 Refer to lines 22–23: ‘You have closer knowledge of this man; might her  presence soften him?’ To what extent is Goody Proctor able to influence her husband’s final  decision? (3) 
15.7 Refer to lines 1–2: ‘Excellency, I must have more time!’ 
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you  instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body  language and tone. Motivate your instructions. (3) 
15.8 Critically comment on how deception ultimately leads to tragedy by referring  to both extracts in your response. (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25
GRAND TOTAL: 80

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of THREE sections:
   SECTION A: Comprehension (30)
   SECTION B: Summary (10)
   SECTION C: Language structures and conventions (30) 
2. Read ALL the instructions carefully.
3. Answer ALL the questions. 
4. Start EACH section on a NEW page. 
5. Rule off after each section. 
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper. 
7. Leave a line after each answer. 
8. Pay special attention to spelling and sentence construction.
9. Suggested time allocation:
   SECTION A: 50 minutes
   SECTION B: 30 minutes
   SECTION C: 40 minutes
10. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING
Read TEXTS A and B below and answer the questions set. 
TEXT A 

TEXT B 

[Source: Psychology Today.com] 

QUESTIONS: TEXT A 
1.1 Refer to line 1: ‘Managing depression requires you to mind your media  intake’. Explain the meaning of line 1 in your own words. (2) 
1.2 Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE? Motivate your answer by quoting  SEVEN consecutive words from paragraph 1.  The news business is trustworthy. (2)
1.3 ‘News programming uses a hierarchy: if it bleeds, it leads’ (line 16). How does this slogan affect your understanding of news reporting? (2) 
1.4 Critically comment on the motives of news agencies in paragraph 2 in the  context of ethical values. (3) 
1.5 In your view, what does the use of a ‘teaser’ imply about the news  broadcasters (line 18)? (3)
1.6 What is your opinion on the practice of ‘stunting’ (line 30)? (3) 
1.7 Why is the ‘crawl’ (paragraph 5) used specifically during entertainment  programmes? (2) 
1.8 Identify THREE results of fear-based media. Use your own words. (3)
1.9 Refer to paragraph 8. Discuss the writer’s intention in using this paragraph as the conclusion to his  article. (3) 

QUESTIONS: TEXT B 
1.10 Refer to TWO visual clues and explain how these convey the man’s state of  mind. (3) 

QUESTION: TEXTS A AND B 
1.11 Do you think that Text B is an accurate depiction of the message of Text A?  Motivate your answer by referring to both texts. (4) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS 
TEXT C provides insight into how the portrayal of the Disney princess has  changed during the past thirty years. Summarise these changes in your own  words.  
NOTE:

1. Your article should include SEVEN points and NOT exceed 90  words. 
2. You must write a fluent paragraph. 
3. You are NOT required to include a title for the summary. 
4. Indicate your word count at the end of your summary. 

TEXT C 

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCTURES AND CONVENTIONS 
QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
Study the following advertisements (TEXTS D and E) and answer the questions set.
TEXT D

 [Source: Best print ads of 2018] 
3.1 Account for the Surfrider Foundation’s choice of logo. (2)
3.2 How does the slogan emphasise the message of this advertisement? (2)

TEXT E

[Source: Best print ads of 2018] 

[www.ondazul.org.br]

QUESTIONS: TEXT E 
3.3 Explain the effectiveness of the rhetorical question in the copy of this  advertisement for canned sardines. (2) 

QUESTION: TEXT D AND E 
3.4 Critically comment on how the inclusion of plastic in the graphics in these two  advertisements reinforces the advertisers’ message. (4) [10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA
Study TEXT F and answer the set questions. 

TEXT F: CARTOON 

[Source: Calvin and Hobbs cartoons] 

QUESTIONS: TEXT F 
4.1 Refer to FRAME 2. What does the use of the bold lettering and punctuation reveal about the boy’s  (Calvin’s) attitude? (2) 
4.2 Refer to FRAME 8. Explain the reason for the tiger’s conclusion. (2)
4.3 Refer to FRAME 7. Critically discuss the effectiveness of TWO techniques used by the cartoonist. (3) 
4.4 Discuss the irony in the last frame. (3) [10] 

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY 
Read TEXT G, which contains some deliberate errors, and answer the questions set.
TEXT G 

QUESTIONS: TEXT G 
5.1 Honest Chocolate is a small artisanal Bean to Bar chocolate company based in  Cape Town, South Africa. (lines 1–2) Identify the part of speech of the underlined word. (1)
5.2 ‘We believe in keeping things handcrafted, using old school methods, using  quality organically produced ingredients and making a pure chocolate that has a  deliciously distinct feel and taste.’ (lines 2–4) Study the above sentence, then choose the correct answer from the options  provided. Write only the question number and the option of your choice. 
This sentence is an example of a … 

1. complex sentence.
2. compound sentence.
3. simple sentence.
4. compound-complex sentence. (1) 

5.3 Which punctuation mark could be used to replace the dash in line 6 without  changing the meaning of the sentence? (1) 
5.4 ‘Our goal is to have ethical consideration for people and the environment by  sourcing products local and fair.’ (lines 6–8) Rewrite this sentence so that it is grammatically correct. (1)
5.5 Identify and correct the spelling error in paragraph 3. (1)
5.6 Explain the different functions of the apostrophes in line 13. (2)
5.7 Quote ONE example from paragraph 6 to prove that the register is colloquial. (1)
5.8 Correct the sentence with the unrelated participle in paragraph 7. (1) 
5.9 Correct the concord error in paragraph 8. (1) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 30 
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INFORMATION FOR THE MARKER 
In assessing a candidate’s work, the following aspects, among others, drawn from the  assessment rubric, must be borne in mind: 

• The overall effect of planning, drafting, proofreading and editing of the work on  the final text produced. 
• Awareness of writing for a specific purpose, audience and context – as well as  register, style and tone – especially in SECTION B. 
• Grammar, spelling and punctuation. 
• Language structures, including an awareness of critical language. 
• Choice of words and idiomatic language. 
• Sentence construction. 
• Paragraphing. 
• Interpretation of the topic that will be reflected in the overall content: the  introduction, development of ideas and the conclusion.

MEMORANDUM

SUGGESTED APPROACH TO MARKING
SECTION A: ESSAY 
Refer to SECTION A: Rubric for Assessing an Essay found on page 8–9 of these  marking guidelines. 
CRITERIA USED FOR ASSESSMENT 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT AND  PLANNING. 
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE  AND EDITING. 
3. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for STRUCTURE. SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 

Refer to SECTION B: Rubric for Assessing Transactional Texts found on page 10 of  these marking guidelines. 
CRITERIA USED FOR ASSESSMENT 

1. Read the whole piece and decide on a category for CONTENT, PLANNING  AND FORMAT. 
2. Re-read the piece and select the appropriate category for LANGUAGE, STYLE  AND EDITING. 

NOTE:  

• Various formats of transactional/referential/informational texts have been  taught/are in current practice. This has to be considered when assessing the  format. 
• Give credit for appropriateness of format. 
• Look for a logical approach in all writing.

NOTE: 

• The points given below each topic in these marking guidelines serve only as  a guide to markers. 
• Allowance must be made for a candidate’s own interpretation of the topic,  even if it differs from the given points or a marker’s own views or  interpretations.

SECTION A: ESSAY
QUESTION 1 
Candidates are required to write ONE essay of 400–450 words (2–2½ pages) on ONE  of the given topics. Candidates may write in any genre: narrative, descriptive,  reflective, discursive, argumentative, or any combination of these. 

1.1 You know my name! 

• Reflective/narrative 
• The importance of one’s name 
• Sense of identity 
• Being acknowledged [50]

1.2 ‘Feeling my way through the darkness …’ (Avicii) 

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive 
• Uncertainty, stumbling through to find a path 
• A journey with hidden obstacles/difficulties to navigate 
• Sense of hope/faith that one will get there in the end 
• Or sense of security/certainty [50]

1.3 ‘We should invest in books not bullets.’ (Malala Yousafzai) 

• Narrative/argumentative/discursive 
• Focus on education not violence 
• Spending government money on education and future generations not on  arming the military 
• Candidate may include details about Malala Yousafzai as an advocate for  education, women’s rights and equality 
• Candidate may disagree with topic [50] 

1.4 ‘Snowflake’ is an appropriate name for Generation Z – also known as the Post-Millennials. 

• Argumentative/discursive/reflective/narrative 
• May agree or disagree with statement 
• Must demonstrate understanding of term ‘Snowflake’: self-obsessed, fragile,  easily offended or unable to deal with opposing opinions/entitled 
• Generation Z: born between 1995 and 2010 [50]

1.5 Leave no man behind. (US Army Soldier’s Creed) 

• Narrative/descriptive/reflective/argumentative/discursive 
• Could relate to military usage of not leaving a soldier/comrade behind on the  ‘battle field’ 
• Could relate to not leaving family/friends behind – all inclusive [50]

1.6
1.6.1 Hands gripping fence 

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive 
• Description of being isolated/captured/held against will/ostracised 
• Should focus on fence as a barrier [50]

1.6.2 Pen 

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive 
• Focus could be on the art/power of writing 
• Could interpret as ability to write, thus literacy [50]

1.6.3 Old man on bench 

• Narrative/reflective/descriptive/argumentative/discursive 
• Focus: the old man. Could link to old age, ageism or being alone 
• Could reflect on how society views or treats the elderly 
• Could reflect on the importance of a grandparent or elderly in society 
• Could discuss loneliness and isolation  
• May focus on reflection on a life lived, ruminative [50]

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: TRANSACTIONAL TEXTS 
QUESTION 2 
Candidates are required to respond to TWO of the topics set. The body of each  response should be 180–200 words (20–25 lines) in length. The language, register,  style and tone must be appropriate to the context. 

2.1 LETTER TO THE EDITOR 

• Reference must be made both to homeless people and pets 
• May question ability of person to look after an animal 
• May question if homeless person is using pet to gain sympathy 
• Candidate must express an opinion [25]

2.2 INFORMAL SPEECH 

• Acknowledge audience as peer group 
• Address issue of depression 
• Provide advice [25]

2.3 INFORMAL LETTER 

• Candidate must demonstrate understanding that emigrate means to leave the  country (not just his/her town/city/province) 
• Should reflect on this past year and mention the difficulty or hardship endured
• Candidate should mention how the person could have influenced or advised him/her on the situation he/she had faced [25] 

2.4 OBITUARY 

• Formal language 
• Factual details of deceased’s life 
• How they died 
• Reference to their legacy 
• Any community based or humanitarian work they were involved in 
• By whom they are survived [25]

2.5 INTERVIEW 

• Candidate should demonstrate knowledge of what a ‘survivalist’ is 
• Could refer to the reality show: what strategy he employed to win 
• What his plans are for the future – as a new millionaire [25]

2.6 MAGAZINE ARTICLE 

• Could include: what a Volunteer Week could entail, who could volunteer or  for what one could volunteer. 
• Must reference benefits to a community/town/organisation  
• How one could organise or start a volunteer culture in one’s community [25] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 50 
GRAND TOTAL: 100

SECTION A: ASSESSEMENT RUBRIC FOR ESSAY – HOME LANGUAGE [50 MARKS] 
NOTE: 

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A). 
• Marks from 0–50 have been divided into FIVE major level descriptors. 
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper-level and a lower-level subcategory with the  applicable mark range and descriptors. 
• Structure is not affected by the upper-level and lower-level division.

SECTION B: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – HOME LANGUAGE [25 MARKS]

NOTE TO MARKERS 

• This marking guideline is intended as a guide for markers.
• Candidates’ responses must be considered on their merits. 

MARKING GUIDELINES 

• Wherever a candidate has answered more than the required number of  questions, mark only the first answer/response. (The candidate may not  answer the essay and the contextual question on the same genre.)
• In SECTION A, if a candidate has answered all four questions on seen poems,  mark only the first two.
• In SECTIONS B and C, if a candidate has answered two contextual or two  essay questions, mark the first one and ignore the second. If a candidate has  answered all four questions, mark only the first answer in each section,  provided that one contextual and one essay has been answered. 
• If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next one  is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next.
• If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guideline. 
• If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the  meaning, mark correct.
• Essay question: If the essay is shorter than the required word count, do not  penalise because the candidate has already penalised him/herself. If the  essay is too long, consider and assess a maximum of 50 words beyond the  required word count and ignore the rest of the essay.
• Contextual questions: If the candidate does not use inverted commas when  asked to quote, do not penalise.
• Answers to contextual questions must be assessed holistically. Part marks  should be awarded in proportion to the fullness of the response to each  question.

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: POETRY 
PRESCRIBED POETRY 
QUESTION 1: POETRY – ESSAY QUESTION 
‘FUNERAL BLUES’ – W.H. Auden 

• Use the following, among other points, as a guide to marking this question.  Responses might differ, depending on the candidate’s sensitivity to and  understanding of the poem.
• Refer to pages 24–25 for the rubric to assess this question. 

‘Funeral Blues’ explores the speaker’s sense of loss at the death of a loved one. Through  the use of diction, evocative imagery and its tone the poem shows how the depth of love  increases the sense of loss and despair. 

DICTION: 

• In the title, ‘Blues’ refers to a depressed mood which is appropriate since the poem is  about grief. It can also apply to a musical genre characterised by a soulful, melancholy mood.
• The experience of loss is personalised through the repetition of ‘my’ in stanza 3.
• The speaker experiences his grief domestically – ‘telephone’, ‘dog’, ‘clocks’, then publically – ‘aeroplanes’, ‘policemen’ and ultimately universally – ‘stars’, ‘sun’, ‘moon’,  ‘ocean’ – showing the extent of the deep loss and that his sorrow cannot be contained.
• The words ‘muffled’ and the ‘moaning’ are associated with wordless expressions of  agony and torment.
• The instructions in stanza 4 (‘put’, ‘pack’, ‘dismantle’, ‘pour’ and ‘sweep’) are  exaggerated and unrealistic. It shows the speaker’s inability to deal with the reality of  this loss.  

IMAGERY: 

• The metaphor comparing the deceased to compass points shows the profound loss  of someone who provided a sense of direction and purpose.
• The image of the words scribbled across the sky for all to see displays how the  speaker wants to project his grief to his entire surroundings so that the world should  mourn with him.
• Conventional imagery associated with romance (‘stars’, ‘moon’, ‘sun’) in the final  stanza is stripped of meaning as ‘nothing now can come to any good’ reflecting the  tone of despair/hopelessness/anguish/misery. 

The speaker’s sense of sorrow and anguish is evident throughout the poem through a  personal account of a special relationship. Daily existence without the loved one seems  untenable to the speaker. The reader is left in no doubt as to the enormity of the loss. 
[Credit valid alternative responses] [10]
OR

QUESTION 2: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
‘MOTHO KE MOTHO KA BATHO BABANG’ – Jeremy Cronin 
2.1 Account for the mirror used by the man in the poem. 
It allows for visual contact since the prisoners are able to see one another  reflected in the mirror./It is used as a tool for their non-verbal communication. 
[Award 2 marks for any one point well discussed.] (2)
2.2 Explain the warning implied in line 15 (‘He’s being watched’). 
This is a warning that the warden is nearby. The prisoners’ secret  communication is risky and could lead to further punishment if they are found  out. 
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
2.3 Explain how being imprisoned changes a ‘person’ (line 3) into a ‘prisoner’  (line 4). 
A ‘person’ is a human being with value. Going to prison would strip the person  of this humanity. The different words indicate how the person’s circumstances  diminish his status. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
2.4 Critically comment on how the concept of Ubuntu is demonstrated in the  poem. Refer to the tone in support of your answer. 
Ubuntu refers to a universal bond that connects all humanity. Despite  imprisonment and isolation, these human beings find a way to connect. It gives  them the ability to feel human despite the degradation of prison life. They find  their freedom in communication. This communication provides comfort,  strength, hope and encouragement through the powerful symbol of ‘the black  fist’ which shows solidarity. 
The tone is defiant; hopeful. 
[Award 1 mark for tone and 2 marks for two relevant explanations.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 3: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
‘FELIX RANDAL’ – Gerard Manley Hopkins 
3.1 How does the description of Felix Randal as a ‘mould of man’ in line 2 suit  his occupation? 
The word ‘mould’ implies an ideal shape. His job as a farrier is physically  strenuous. He is well built.  
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2)
3.2 Felix Randal’s illness affected him in two ways. Explain.  
The illness did not only result in his physical decline but also resulted in spiritual  suffering/He could not cope with the effect of the illness on his body and it  destroyed his mental strength. 
[Award 2 marks for two relevant and distinct points.] (2) 
3.3 Discuss the speaker’s observation in line 9 with reference to the sonnet  structure of the poem. 
Line 9 starts the sestet and therefore indicates a change in the speaker’s  attitude.  
The speaker experiences a conversion. He describes how caring for Felix  Randal on a personal level, has made him truly compassionate. He admits he  has become more compassionate as a result of his association with Felix  Randal. 
In the octave the speaker performs his priestly duty of ministering to a dying  man by anointing him and offering him the Eucharist. The focus is on the duty.  The speaker realises he has become more compassionate as a result of his  association with Felix Randal. 
[Award 3 marks only if octave and sestet are discussed.] (3) 
3.4 How does the speaker’s memory of Felix Randal in lines 12–14 create the  final tone in the poem?  
Lines 12–14 show that the speaker’s memory of Felix Randal is of a ‘powerful’  man shoeing a ‘great grey drayhorse’. He chooses to remember him healthy  instead of broken. The tone is optimistic. 
[Award 2 marks for explanation and 1 mark for tone.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 4: POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
‘AN AFRICAN ELEGY’ – Ben Okri 
4.1 Traditionally an elegy is a mournful poem written in response to death.  How is this contradicted in the poem? 
Unlike a traditional elegy which is mournful and often focuses on death, this  poem is a reflection of the unique African spirit which finds beauty and joy in  suffering. It is an optimistic account of the African experience rather than a  sorrowful one. 
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2)
4.2 Refer to line 3: ‘We are precious.’ 
Consider the connotation of the word ‘precious’ and show how this  statement is true of the African people in the context of the poem. 
Precious refers to something rare and valuable. In this context it highlights the  intrinsic value of the African people – the ability to express gratitude for what  they have and the ability to find hope and joy in suffering. The speaker suggests  that in their endurance and optimism, these people are rare and unusual. They  have worth and value. 
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2) 
4.3 In line 20, the speaker refers to the dead in a joyful rather than a sad way.  How does this contribute to your understanding of African people? 
Ancestors play an important role in African tradition. They do not mourn those  who have died since they still play an important role in daily life. They obey  what they feel are messages from their ancestors. They give advice from their  omniscient perspective. Their ancestors provide a connection with the past as  well as in the present and the future, offering wisdom, encouragement and  hope. Therefore, the ancestors are celebrated and death is not sad. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
4.4 Refer to the last stanza. How do the images of nature create the final  tone? 
The ocean and the sky represent the natural universe. It is seen as friendly,  ‘not an enemy’. It is joyful, ‘full of songs’. The final tone is one of confidence; contentment; joy. 
[Award 1 mark for tone and 2 marks for the two references to nature.] (3) [10]

QUESTION 5: UNSEEN POETRY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION
‘SOME LIKE POETRY’ – Wislawa Szymborska 
5.1 Refer to line 4: In your own words explain what the attitude of learners  is to poetry. 
Poetry is not something they are able to choose to do so they probably do not  enjoy it. The line ‘where one has to’ suggests that if they were given a choice  they would prefer not to do poetry. 
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2) 
5.2 What is the speaker implying by listing some of the things one likes in  stanza 2? 
The list includes ordinary things which are simple and yet provide comfort and  pleasure. The speaker wonders whether liking poetry could be comparable  to these simple pleasures. 
[Award 2 marks for any two distinct and relevant points.] (2)
5.3 Comment on the effectiveness of the image in lines 17–18. 
The speaker admits that she does not always understand poetry, just like life.  The image shows that poetry is something she chooses to hold onto for  support when life becomes uncertain.  
[Award no more than 2 marks if only literal interpretation 
Award 3 marks for any two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3)
5.4 How does the structure of the poem reinforce the central idea? 
Each stanza leads with the consecutive words of the title. The first stanza  shows how only ‘some’ people would enjoy poetry, the second shows the  simple things people ‘like’ and the third shows that an attempt to define poetry  may be elusive but it does not detract from the power that poetry has to cope  with life’s uncertainties. 
[Award 3 marks for three ideas related to each stanza.] (3) [10] 
TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: NOVEL 
THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – Oscar Wilde 
QUESTION 6 – ESSAY QUESTION: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY 

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only.  However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of  critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 26 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates must make reference to aspects from the quote, i.e. the painting’s  transformation, and the ‘face without the heart’. 

• In Dorian’s case, the painting is a record of his ‘sorrows’. Dorian’s face never reflects his  real life. 
• Initially the painting portrays Dorian’s exceptional beauty and implied innocence.
• Dorian’s vanity compels him to wish that he could remain as lovely and youthful as the  exquisite portrait Basil paints of him. He pledges his soul if he could live without bearing  the physical burdens of ageing and sinning – he wishes that the portrait could age in his  stead, which happens. 
• When he breaks Sibyl’s heart and drives her to suicide, he notices the first change in the  portrait which shows the effects of his age and experience. It proves that he can behave  with impunity. 
• Despite feelings of guilt over Sibyl’s tragic death he follows Lord Henry’s amoral  aestheticism, recasting the tragedy of her death as a beautiful work of art in life. He  treats the tragedy of her suicide as a ‘painting of a sorrow’. It allows him to distance  himself from any accountability. From that moment onwards, he is unambiguous about  pursuing pleasure dispassionately. 
• He cares nothing for the morality of conventional society. He is the cause of many  people’s ‘sorrow’ yet he remains unscathed. 
• As Dorian indulges in horrible sins over the years, his likeness in Basil’s painting grows more hideous. Dorian seems to lack a conscience and is unable to distract himself from  the dissipation of his soul. He holds a morbid fascination with the portrait which grows  older and uglier with each sin Dorian commits. The ugliness of his ‘heart’ is only visible  in the painting. 
• When Basil Hallward comes back into his life and tries to convince him to reform, he  shows Basil the painting. Basil’s repulsion unsettles Dorian because his secret is out; he  kills Basil. 
• When he gives up Hetty he assumes he is working toward his redemption, but instead  he is simply indulging in something different that might amuse his jaded palate.
• He recognises that in order to repent, he has to confess publicly to his sins but he cannot  lose his public face because that is all he is. 
• Dorian’s guilt and awareness of his own evil torture him relentlessly until he tries to kill  his conscience by stabbing the portrait but in an ironic twist, he dies instead. 
• His life is a tragedy of sorrows, not all his own. Many sorrows were foisted onto others  by him. His face is not his heart; it is simply pretty.
  [Credit valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 7: THE PICTURE OF DORIAN GRAY – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
7.1 Refer to lines 1–2: ‘But he would not sin.’ 
Account for the decision Dorian makes at this point in the novel. 
Dorian cruelly rejected Sibyl after what he perceived as a poor stage  performance. He notices the expression on the portrait had changed ‘with the  touch of cruelty in the mouth’. When he sees the affect his actions have on the  portrait, he is appalled and resolves to make amends to Sibyl. 
[Award 3 marks for two well discussed ideas OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.2 Refer to lines 3–4: ‘He would not see Lord Henry any more’. In your view, is Dorian’s decision not to see Lord Henry realistic?  Motivate your response. 
YES 
It is realistic. Dorian has chosen to return to Sibyl. At this stage he has a  conscience and admits that he has hurt her. He believes by returning to her,  their relationship will be restored. He believes she would fascinate him again;  he feels a duty to return to her. 
OR 

NO 
It is unrealistic. Lord Henry still has a strong influence over Dorian. He openly  disapproves of Dorian’s relationship with Sibyl Vane. He will probably interfere  and try to derail the relationship. Dorian’s expectations are based on a very  slim understanding of who Sibyl and he really are. 
[Accept mixed/valid alternative responses.] 
[Award 3 marks for two well discussed ideas OR three ideas.] (3) 
7.3 Refer to line 7: ‘She must have suffered more than he had.’ Critically comment on how Dorian’s ability to show concern here is  contradicted later in the novel.  
Here he is still able to empathise. He is concerned about Sibyl’s well-being.  Later his self-absorption is all-encompassing and destructive. His involvement  with Alan Campbell and Adrian Singleton proves the dire consequences of his  heartlessness; similarly, so does Basil’s murder. 
[Award 3 marks for two well discussed ideas OR three ideas.] (3) 

7.4 Refer to lines 7–8: ‘Poor child!’ 
Explain what Dorian’s expression indicates about his attitude towards Sibyl. 
Dorian’s tone expresses pity/compassion/sympathy. However, his attitude  towards their relationship is superficial based on the quality of her performance  on stage and not who she truly is. His reference to her as a child is indulgent  and patronising. He does not view her as his equal. 
[Award 3 marks only if attitude is discussed.] (3)

7.5 Place this extract in context. 
Dorian had just stabbed Basil to death. He wants Alan to help him dispose of  Basil’s body in the attic. He has blackmailed Alan into acquiescing to this awful  request. 
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.] (3)
7.6 Account for Campbell’s ‘cold’ attitude towards Dorian. 
Initially Alan refuses to give in to Dorian’s request to dispose of Basil’s body.  However, when Dorian hands him a note, ‘(a) horrible sense of sickness came  over him’. It is evident that Dorian has damning evidence against him that has  caused him to avoid Dorian up to now. The information contained in the note  is the reason for Alan’s revulsion. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
7.7 Comment on Dorian’s reference to the dead body as ‘the silent thing’ in  line 11. 
He has just murdered an old friend, not a ‘thing’. His reference to Basil as a  ‘thing’ shows how callous he is, and how quickly he is able to distance himself  from the damage that he causes. He has silenced Basil’s attempts to get him  to redeem himself by killing him. He avoids any situation where he is forced to  confront himself. He has lost his humanity. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
7.8 ‘Even though Dorian is able to avoid justice, there is no escape from his  conscience.’ 
Critically comment on this statement by referring to the mood created in  both extracts. 

EXTRACT A: 
Even though Dorian expresses pity and regret (‘Poor child!’) as he reflects on  how he had treated Sibyl, the mood is hopeful and optimistic. Dorian resolves to make amends and a fresh start. This positive mood is reflected in the  description of the ‘fresh morning air’, the birds singing and ‘the dew drenched  garden’. 

EXTRACT B: 
Here the mood is grim and forbidding, evidenced by descriptions of the ‘portrait  leering’, ‘grotesque misshapen shadow’ and ‘loathsome red dew’. This is the  point of no return for Dorian’s soul. The mood reflects the finality of the murder. He has to confront the horror of what he has become. 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to the mood in both extracts.] (4) [25]

LIFE OF PI – Yann Martel
QUESTION 8: LIFE OF PI – ESSAY QUESTION

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only.  However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical  thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 26 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates must make reference to aspects from the quote, i.e. the corrosion  of his soul. 

• The corrosion of his soul implies the loss of his humanity.
• Corrosion is a gradual process where metal breaks down and changes  appearance. Similarly, Pi’s ordeal corrodes his sensibilities.
• The ‘salt’ is a metaphor for the traumatic experiences he has to endure in order to  survive. 
• Pi’s ordeal initially appears to be surmountable. He is optimistic despite having  lost his family after the storm. 
• His will to survive gives him the power to do things he would never have imagined  himself doing – catching and butchering fish and turtles, taming a hungry tiger and  even at the point of greatest desperation, eating human flesh. He is shocked at  how savage he has become – the corrosion of his soul is undeniable. 
• Gradually he is forced to question his own values – he decides that his  vegetarianism is a luxury under these conditions and learns to fish, often violently  butchering his catch. 
• The constant battle of wills between Pi and Richard Parker is what keeps him  going.
• He has forfeited most of what is precious to him in order to stay alive. ∙ What is left of Pi is just a shell of a human being. He is sunburnt, diseased and  dehydrated. It appears as if the corrosion is complete.
• At Pi’s absolute lowest, he clings to his faith: ‘I should turn to God’.
• The loss of Pi’s vision adds emotional pain to his physical torment: he has also  lost sight of his humanity
• But Pi is not destroyed. The corrosion is not complete. There is still something left  of Pi. The adult Pi is haunted by his actions during his suffering at sea. It may be suggested  that the gentle, family man in Toronto has recovered his humanity and healed his  soul. 

[Credit valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 9: LIFE OF PI – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
9.1 Why is Pondicherry no longer Pi’s home? 
Pi grew up in Pondicherry. His parents decided that the family should emigrate  to Canada. Pi was the only survivor after the sinking of the Tsimtsum. After  Pi’s rescue, he could not return to Pondicherry, because there was nothing for  him there. 
[Award 3 marks for three distinct relevant points.] (3) 
9.2 Refer to line 7. Provide a possible explanation for Pi’s observation that  he still sees Richard Parker in his dreams. 
His life is inextricably tied up with Richard Parker’s. Pi’s survival was  determined by the ongoing tension between him and the menacing tiger. Pi’s  subconscious is still grappling with the tiger because the tiger is in fact Pi’s alter  ego, thus the dreams. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
9.3 Despite their serious conditions (such as cancer) many patients seek to  visit Pi in order to comfort him. What is it about Pi’s story that they find  so compelling? 
Although they suffer serious illnesses, they are inspired by Pi’s story, because  if he could survive such a nightmare, they might too. They want to see a  survivor in order to make their own survival more real. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
9.4 To what extent is Pi able to recover adequately after his rescue? Explain  your answer. 
He recovers sufficiently to study, have a family and lead a conventional life. He  is, by his own admission, always reminded of Richard Parker. His house has  religious artifacts that show his spirituality, which was in evidence when he was  a boy in Pondicherry and it still sustains him. He has managed to keep intact  despite his unspeakable suffering on the boat.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3)
9.5 Place this extract in context. 
Pi eventually reaches Mexico. Officials representing the shipping company of  the Tsimtsum come to Mexico to question the recovering Pi. They find his story  of his 227 days at sea too implausible to believe and Pi tells them a second  story. 
[Award 3 marks for three distinct and relevant ideas.] (3)
9.6 Refer to line 18: ‘And so it goes with God.’ 
Comment on what Pi’s tone reveals about his relationship with God. 
His tone is confident. The only constant presence during his ordeal on the boat  has been an awareness of God’s presence. Even the investigators’ skepticism  is not enough to shake his unwavering belief. It is the only thing that he has to  show after 227 incredulous days.  
[Award 3 marks only if tone is identified.] (3) 
9.7 What does the ‘[long silence]’ in line 24 indicate about the investigators’  understanding of Pi’s version of events? 
The silence occurs because Pi cries. Up to now he has been very confident  and in control. His emotions indicate that there must be some truth to what he  has been telling them. They are uncomfortable because he could be speaking  the truth and their disbelief is challenged. They are moved by his crying. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
9.8 Critically comment on the mood in both extracts and show how this is  essential to understand Pi’s survival. 

EXTRACT C: The mood is reflective, warm and sincere. Pi relates his  experience in hospital with appreciation. He is touched by people’s kindness  and interest. He copes with the painful reminder of Richard Parker. 
EXTRACT D: The extract contains an element of humour as Pi challenges the  very serious investigators who come looking for the ‘straight facts’. The fact  that Pi has survived this ordeal is in itself a far-fetched reality which defies  explanation. Pi is light-hearted with the investigators who do not seem to get his point that there can be more truth and significance behind a story than just  the ‘dry, yeastless’ facts.  

OR 

Pi starts crying because he is overcome with relief. He might even be saddened  by his recollection of his terrible experience. The investigators are taken aback  by his display of emotions; it changes the initial light-hearted mood to one of  sadness.  
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to the mood in both extracts.] (4) [25] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 25

SECTION C: DRAMA 
QUESTION 10: HAMLET – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only.  However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of  critical thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments.
• Refer to page 26 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates may argue that Hamlet is a victim who is helpless and suffers due to the  actions of others or that he is a deliberately cruel and malicious person. 

VICTIM:  

• Initially Hamlet is presented as a normal young man who is mourning the death of his  father and distraught because of his mother’s hasty marriage to his uncle. He is well  educated and presented as a logical and rational man. 
• He is sceptical of the ghost’s orders. He questions the validity of the ghost’s claims, for  fear it may be the devil trying to influence him towards revenge and aggression. The  seeds of revenge that are planted fester in his mind. 
• Rosencrantz and Guildenstern betray him as friends. He realises that there are very few  people whom he can trust. Life becomes so meaningless to him that he contemplates  suicide. He is the victim of overwhelming and confusing circumstances.
• He is a victim of Claudius’ attempts to have him killed but when he has an opportunity to  get rid of this enemy, his conscience prevents him from doing so. 

VILLAIN: 

• Although Hamlet claims to love his mother, he is very cruel to her and berates her in a  malicious manner. 
• Hamlet does not apologise or show any horror when he stabs Polonius. He rather uses  it as an opportunity to criticize his mother. 
• Hamlet is even crueller to Ophelia than he is to his mother. Through his merciless insults  and the murder of Polonius, Hamlet causes Ophelia to lose her grip on reality and  eventually she commits suicide. 
• Hamlet sets up the play within the play and puts on an ‘antic disposition’ in an attempt  to make sense of his emotional confusion and to reveal Claudius’ guilt. This shows his  self-control against acting rashly. 
• It could be argued that Hamlet’s death is heroic and he redeems himself by taking on  the duties of a crown prince and bequeathing his country to Fortinbras. ∙ Hamlet changes from a confused and deeply saddened son and crown prince, unable  to cope with the dramatic changes within his close family, to a confident and purposeful  young man. He realises that returning to Denmark might cost him his life. He is  determined to face whatever is necessary in order to fulfil his obligation to his father. His  villainous behaviour stems from his deep sense of justice rather than being evil. 

Credit mixed/valid alternative responses. [25]

QUESTION 11: HAMLET – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
11.1 This spectacular scene opens showing Prince Hamlet dressed in black.  Explain the dramatic effect that is created by presenting Hamlet in this  way. 
Hamlet stands aloof in contrast to the glitter and brilliance of the court. Hamlet,  dressed in black in this context, emphasises his isolation and it highlights his  suffering. The colour, black, is funereal. It is evident that he is still in mourning  for his father. 
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.] (3) 
11.2 Refer to line 1: ‘our dear brother’s death’. Account for the irony in this  line. 
Claudius conveys his love (‘dear’) for his brother who has died but he is not  sincere. He has shown no love when he cruelly killed his relative in order to  usurp his position.  
[Award 3 marks only if irony is fully discussed.] (3)
11.3 Refer to line 9: ‘this warlike state’. 
Discuss how this line may have both a literal and figurative interpretation. 
The state is literally at war since Fortinbras has prepared to avenge the loss of  Norwegian lands to Hamlet’s father when he was king. Figuratively, the state is  ‘disjointed’ since Claudius usurped the throne and caused confusion in the  natural order of things. Denmark is thrown into disarray.  
Hamlet, too, experiences an emotional battle as he vacillates between reason  and avenging the death of his father. (1 mark) 
[Award 3 marks only if both the literal and figurative interpretation is  discussed.] (3) 
11.4 ‘Now follows that you know young Fortinbras, Holding a weak supposal of our worth,’ (lines 17–18) 
In these lines Claudius indicates that Fortinbras is not a threat to  Denmark nor to Claudius. How is this assumption proven to be incorrect  at the end of the play? 
Claudius is over-confident and arrogant. He views ‘young Fortinbras’ as  immature yet it is Fortinbras who becomes the next Danish king. He proves to  be a good leader, deserving of Hamlet’s endorsement at the end to restore  stability and morality to Denmark. 
[Award 3 marks for three relevant ideas.] (3)
11.5 Why does Claudius align himself with Laertes at this point in the play? 
Hamlet has killed Laertes’ father, Polonius. Laertes is devastated. Claudius  uses Laertes’ grief to his advantage by convincing Laertes to avenge his  father’s death. Hamlet is a threat to Claudius maintaining the throne. He  wants Hamlet killed before Hamlet exposes Claudius. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3)
11.6 Comment on the significance of Gertrude’s appearance at this stage. 
Claudius convinced Laertes that he is unable to take action against Hamlet  because of the love that Gertrude has for Hamlet. Gertrude’s appearance at  this stage highlights the horror of the lengths Claudius will go to protect  himself and how truly immoral he is. He disregards the effect Hamlet’s death  will have on Gertrude and shows how self-serving he is. Her appearance at  this stage also foreshadows her death from the poisoned cup that is part of  Claudius’ plan to kill Hamlet.  
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three ideas.] (3) 
11.7 Refer to Laertes’ response to his sister’s death in line 28: ‘Drowned? O,  where?’ 
If you were the director of a production of Hamlet, how would you  instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body  language and tone. Motivate your instructions. 
His eyes might be large to show his shock at the news. His arms may be  outstretched or he may be slumped over in devastation. His curt response  may indicate that he is still processing the vengeful plan against Hamlet and  he is not quite prepared for more sad news. His tone might be bitter, grave  or shocked. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to both body language and  tone, and includes a justification.] (3) 
11.8 Show how deception ultimately leads to tragedy by referring to both  extracts in your response. 

EXTRACT E: 
Claudius appears to be an honourable, dutiful king who is prepared to put  aside his grief for the sake of the welfare of Denmark. He deceptively shrouds  his culpability in the death of his brother and sets the stage for even more  devious acts leading to tragedy. 

EXTRACT F: 
Here Claudius deceives Laertes into believing that Hamlet is his enemy that  should be eliminated. He plots what would appear to be an innocent fencing  match which does ultimately lead to many deaths, including his own. 
[Award 4 marks only if both extracts are discussed.] (4) [25]

OTHELLO – William Shakespeare 
QUESTION 12: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only.  However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical  thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments. ∙ Refer to page 26 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates may argue that Othello is a victim who is helpless and suffers due to the  actions of others or that he is a deliberately cruel and malicious person. 

• Othello is introduced as a great warrior who has gained a lofty status due to his prowess  on the battlefield. He is asked to lead the army against the Turkish invasion of Cyprus:  he is described as ‘valiant’ by the Duke and ‘brave’ by Montano.
• Othello treats Desdemona as an equal; he respects her and trusts her implicitly.
• Even Iago who claims to ‘hate the moor’ admits that he is a good man. 

VICTIM: 

• Iago’s machinations against Othello prove that he is unable to defend himself against  Iago’s sophisticated deceit and manipulation. 
• Iago is predatory: he is cunning in his meticulous dismantling of Othello’s character.  Othello stands little chance to repel the sly attacks on him; instead of being the effective  and admired soldier, he is now the victim of Iago’s sly insinuations.
• Iago corrupts his feelings for Desdemona and his subsequent jealousy causes immense  suffering and torment for Othello. 

VILLAIN: 

• Although Iago orchestrates his ultimate destruction, Othello’s behaviour is villainous.
• Othello accepts Iago’s insinuations about Cassio and Desdemona even before he has  proof. Othello does not demand justice; he craves revenge. 
• Othello publicly insults and strikes his wife calling her a ‘subtle whore’. His cruelty is  manifested. 
• He refuses to accept Emilia’s reassurances that nothing is going on. He has already  closed his mind to the possibility of her innocence. He never gives Desdemona the  opportunity to prove her innocence. 
• He orders the murder of a trusted, loyal general (Cassio) and fools himself into believing  that he is the instrument of divine justice when he kills Desdemona. 
• Othello absolves himself of blame, describing himself as an ‘honourable murderer’. This  is not the actions of a victim; it is the actions of a murderer – a villain.
• Iago is undoubtedly the supreme villain in this drama but he serves to create the tragedy  that is the ultimate destruction of Othello. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 13: OTHELLO – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
13.1 The word ‘jealousy’ is repeated in this extract. To what extent does Iago’s  own jealousy lead to this encounter with Othello? 
Iago is jealous because he was overlooked for promotion as lieutenant; Cassio  was chosen instead. It is rumoured that his wife, Emilia, has been unfaithful to  him with Othello. He is envious of Othello’s happy relationship with Desdemona.  He views Othello as an outsider who is not deserving of the respect he has been  accorded in Venice. 
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.] (3)
13.2 Explain how Iago will provide the proof that Othello demands in line 16. 
Iago repeatedly asks Emilia to give him the handkerchief that was Othello’s first  gift to Desdemona. He plants it in Cassio’s room. Iago tells Othello he saw  Cassio wipe his beard with it. Cassio eventually gives it to Bianca, his prostitute  friend. 
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.] (3) 
13.3 Refer to line 19: ‘To show the love and duty that I bear you.’ How is Iago’s character revealed in this line? 
Throughout the drama, Iago shows no love and duty towards anyone. He is  duplicitous. He is depicted as the consummate villain who particularly bends  Othello to his will. He is jealous of Othello and will stop at nothing to destroy  Othello and his happiness with Desdemona. He continually plants seeds of doubt  in Othello and fuels his jealousy so that the once loving husband and brave warrior  is transformed into an irrational and cruel man. Othello and many others stand no  chance against Iago’s evil machinations. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3) 
13.4 Refer to lines 24–25: ‘I would not have your free and noble nature/Out of  self-bounty be abused.’ 
Comment on the irony in this line. 
Iago suggests here that Desdemona is abusing Othello’s good nature by  deceiving him. However, it is Iago who is corrupting Othello’s nature. He  transforms him into a jealous fiend who kills Desdemona. 
[Award 3 marks only if irony is fully discussed.] (3) 
13.5 Account for the significance of Desdemona offering a handkerchief to  Othello at this point in the drama. 
This is a different handkerchief; not the ocular proof which Othello demands.  It was once a symbol of Othello’s love for Desdemona; it is now an object of  suspicion and destruction. When she innocently hands a different handkerchief to  him it serves to confirm Iago’s conviction that Venetian women are not to be  trusted. The jealous monster Othello has become is now hell-bent on revenge  and Iago has achieved his aims. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
13.6 Othello’s reference to the magical properties of the handkerchief in  line 17 is a reminder of earlier references made to magic when he eloped  with Desdemona. Discuss. 
When Brabantio first learned about his daughter’s elopement with Othello, he  was convinced she was bewitched by this foreigner. He did not want to believe  that his daughter would deceive him. He attributes her actions to a magical  potion prepared by Othello that must have affected her senses and enabled  Othello to control her. To Othello the handkerchief is magical since it is a  symbol of the love they once shared. After the handkerchief is lost Othello  believes Desdemona has given that love away. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed OR three ideas.] (3)
13.7 Refer to line 25: ‘Then would to God that I had never seen it!’ 
If you were the director of a production of Othello, how would you instruct  the actress to deliver these lines? Pay special attention to body language  and tone. Motivate your instructions. 
Her tone would be sorrowful/distressed that the loss of the handkerchief would  mark the end of their love. She would move closer to Othello and reach out to  him to show that despite his strange behaviour she still loves him and is loyal  to him. She could throw down the handkerchief she is holding to show that she  is troubled by how such an object could define the direction of their relationship. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to body language and tone,  and includes a justification.] (3) 
13.8 Critically comment on the extent to which deception ultimately leads to  tragedy by referring to both extracts in your response.  

EXTRACT G: 
Iago appears to have Othello’s best interests at heart by cautioning him about  Desdemona’s faithfulness (‘Look to your wife. Observe her well with Cassio.’).  He is aware of Othello’s insecurities and jealousies and uses it to his advantage  to sow seeds of suspicion (‘She did deceive her father’) which ultimately leads  to Desdemona’s death and Othello’s destruction. 

EXTRACT H: 
Othello hides his anger beneath a calm demeanour as he questions Desdemona  about the handkerchief. She is unaware of his motives as he spins a web of  deceit about the magical properties of the handkerchief in an attempt to get her  to confess to infidelity. She maintains her innocence. This enrages him even  more and he orders the murder of a trusted loyal general, Cassio, and fools  himself into believing that he is the instrument of divine justice when he kills  Desdemona. 
[Award full marks only if reference is made to both extracts.] (4) [25]

THE CRUCIBLE – Arthur Miller 
QUESTION 14: THE CRUCIBLE – ESSAY QUESTION 

• Below is the basis for answering this essay. Use the following as a guideline only.  However, also allow for answers that are different, original and show evidence of critical  thought and interpretation.
• A range of examples may be used by the candidates to support their arguments. 
• Refer to page 26 for the rubric to assess this question. 

Candidates may argue that John Proctor is a victim who is helpless and suffers due  to the actions of others or that he is a deliberately cruel and malicious person. 
VICTIM: 

• John Proctor is initially presented as a good man: he is honest, upright and not afraid to  speak his mind.
• He becomes the victim, like so many others in Salem, of a crooked justice system and  village hysteria. No amount of common sense or logic is enough to save him.
• John is never the conventional victim. He eventually admits his transgressions and  insists on the truth to prevail even if it means that he is going to die. 

VILLAIN: 

• John Proctor is not a conventional villain either. 
• However, before the start of the drama, he engages in a lustful affair with the young  Abigail. It is Abigail’s jealousy of Elizabeth, hoping to take her place as John’s wife,  which sets the entire witch hysteria in motion and precipitates much of the chaos in  Salem.
• The only way to stop Abigail’s rampage through Salem is to confess publicly to the  adultery but Proctor is a proud man who places great emphasis on his reputation.  However, this does not make him a villain.
• He is not truthful when he first speaks to Elizabeth about his conversation with Abigail.  When Elizabeth tries to convince him to tell the court what Abigail said about the girls’  activities being just ‘sport’, he wavers, allowing the trials to continue. He waits until after  his wife is accused to be honest about his conversation and relationship with Abigail. He  is a stupid husband but not a villainous one.
• He knows that his confession will make the trials seem more legitimate and that it may  cast doubt on his friends’ innocence if he lies about his own. He chooses to tear up the  false confession and retain his integrity as well as that of those who have already died.
• As Elizabeth says at the end of the play: ‘He have his goodness now’.
• The true villainy that is exposed is the injustice of the court as well as those who use the  witch trials to expose personal vendettas. 

[Credit mixed/valid alternative responses.] [25]

QUESTION 15: THE CRUCIBLE – CONTEXTUAL QUESTION 
15.1 Refer to lines 1–2: Account for Rebecca’s suggestion that Reverend Hale  be sent back. 
Reverend Hale is known as the expert in detecting witchcraft. Rebecca, as the  voice of reason in the community, recognises that his mere presence may  arouse suspicion and fear among the villagers. She mentions previous  arguments and the need for the Salem community to be a more peaceful one. 
[Award 3 marks only if reference is made to both Rev. Hale and Rebecca.] (3) 
15.2 Refer to lines 7–8: ‘There is prodigious danger in the seeking of loose  spirits’. Comment on this warning in the light of later events. 
This warning proves to be well-founded. People turn against each other. They  become irrational. People who are accused are forced into false confessions,  others lose their lives. It is also an opportunity for jealousies and vengeances  to surface as accusations of witchcraft become a means to exact justice against  rivals. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.3 To what extent would you agree with Rebecca’s opinion in line 10 that  they should blame themselves for the children’s behaviour? 

AGREE 
The adults would blame themselves because they raise the children in a strict  Puritan community. They are not allowed any freedom to express themselves.  They are forced to live according to rigid Biblical commandments. Their  rebellion is a natural inclination against such inflexible rules. Betty’s refusal to  wake up in this extract shows her fear for the consequences of being caught  dancing. Conflict amongst the adults in the community has not been a positive  example to the children. 
OR 

DISAGREE 
Rebecca underestimates the destruction children like Abigail and her acolytes  are capable of. Their actions in the woods are not innocent. Abigail wanted a  potion that would cause the death of Elizabeth. The Biblical commandments  taught should have instilled sound moral values in the children so that they  would make principled choices. 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three distinct ideas. Consider a valid/mixed response.] (3)
15.4 Account for Proctor’s attitude towards Putnam in line 20–21: ‘We vote by  name in this society and not by acreage’. 
To Proctor, a man’s integrity and reputation are important. His attitude towards  Putnam is derisive/contemptuous/scornful. Proctor does not hesitate to  confront him. Putnam is a greedy and vindictive landowner who encourages  the witchcraft allegations so that he can buy up their land.  
[Award 3 marks for three relevant and distinct ideas.] (3) 
15.5 ‘While I speak God’s law’ (line 9). Comment on the irony of Danforth’s  utterance.  
Danforth does not speak God’s law. He enforces punishment based on lies  and not the truth. God’s law is based on the truth. 
[Award 3 marks only if irony is discussed.] (3) 
15.6 Refer to lines 22–23: ‘You have closer knowledge of this man; might her  presence soften him?’ 
To what extent is Goody Proctor able to influence her husband’s final  decision? 
Despite Elizabeth’s initial mistrust after her husband’s infidelity, this ordeal has  strengthened rather than broken the bonds of their marriage. Although  naturally distressed by the death he faces, she respects his decision to restore  his honour and gain the respect of his family and community. It is her  understanding and support that allow him to choose to do the right thing rather  than take the easy way out by confessing.  
It is also the integrity shown by people like Rebecca and Giles that convinces  Proctor to make the decision to uphold the truth and die with honour. (1 mark) 
[Award 3 marks for two ideas well discussed or three distinct ideas.] (3)
15.7 Refer to lines 1–2: ‘Excellency, I must have more time!’ 
If you were the director of a production of The Crucible, how would you  instruct the actor to deliver these lines? Pay specific attention to body  language and tone. Motivate your instructions. 
Hale may look anxious/apprehensive/desperate and frustrated. He may have  his arms outstretched to intensify his plea for time. He might sound panic stricken at the thought of more innocent people losing their lives. He feels guilty  for his own part in contributing to the witch-hunts. His realises that he is running  out of time to save innocent lives and makes a last desperate petition to the  courts. 
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate refers to both body language and  tone, and includes a justification.] (3)
15.8 Critically comment on how deception ultimately leads to tragedy by  referring to both extracts in your response.  

EXTRACT I:  
It is Betty’s feigned illness that arouses suspicion and fear among the  villagers and the initial accusations of witchcraft. This seemingly close-knit  community is fractured by witchcraft allegations.  

EXTRACT J:  
The justice system is meant to be objective and fair yet it is subverted by lies  and false testimony. This injustice is perpetuated by the judges who would  rather preserve their reputations than uphold the truth. (‘Postponement now  speaks a floundering on my part’). Many innocent people lose their lives as  a result. 
[Award 4 marks only if reference is made to both extracts.] (4) [25] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 25 
GRAND TOTAL: 80

RUBRIC FOR MARKING THE POETRY ESSAY 

NOTE: If a candidate has ignored the content completely and written a creative essay instead,  award a 0 for both content, and structure and language.

NOTE: 

• These marking guidelines are intended as a guide for markers.
• The guidelines are by no means prescriptive or exhaustive.
• Candidates’ responses should be considered on merit.
• Answers should be assessed holistically and points awarded where  applicable.
• The marking guideline should be discussed before the commencement of  marking. 

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 
Marking the comprehension: 

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in  responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the  meaning/understanding. (Errors should still be indicated.) 
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined,  disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise.  However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an  answer, this will be acceptable. 
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I  AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be  considered.
• No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The  reason/substantiation/motivation/quotation is what should be considered.
• For questions which require quotations from the text, do not penalise candidates for  omitting the quotation marks or for an incorrect spelling within the quotation. 
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence,  mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted. 
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first  two/three. 
• Accept dialectal variations. 
•  For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the correct  answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1: READING FOR MEANING AND UNDERSTANDING QUESTIONS:
TEXT A 
1.1 If you suffer from depression, you have to monitor/limit the time spent on  media. ✔✔ (2) 
1.2 False: ‘doesn't always succeed in reporting facts accurately’. ✔✔ (2) 
1.3 Knowing that this is the starting point for news reporting helps the reader to  evaluate all stories heard on the news, realising that sensationalism is the  aim. ✔In this way, the reader is able to evaluate the news objectively  without becoming emotionally involved ✔ 
[Award one mark for recognising the sensationalism and one mark for the  need to remain objective.] (2) 
1.4 The news business is so concerned about profits and increased ratings  that any search for truth is excluded. ✔✔ 
This causes them to become unethical and unreliable. ✔ (3) 
1.5 The teaser ensures that listeners/viewers tune in to the news programme  to allay the fears caused by the ‘teaser’ in the first place. ✔ 
It implies that the broadcasters are unscrupulous as they blatantly  manipulate and prey on people’s vulnerabilities. ✔✔  
[Award 3 marks only if the candidate has expressed an opinion on the  news broadcasters.] (3) 
1.6 ‘Stunting’ is the practice of using pre-scripted, pre-prepared news stories  with misleading information. ✔This is a deplorable practice as it is nothing  short of lying. ✔ It creates anxiety in viewers. ✔ 
[Candidates must identify/explain the practice of ‘stunting’ for 1 mark.]
[A well-developed value judgement of this practice = 2 marks ] (3) 
1.7 The purpose of these ‘crawls’ is to serve as advertising for upcoming news  programmes. ✔ Since there are many viewers ✔ during entertainment  slots, many people will hopefully be drawn to watch the news programmes. (2) 
1.8 Fear-based media causes people to feel that their environments/  communities are not safe. ✔ 

• People start believing that crime rates are on the rise. ✔
• People believe that they are more likely to be the victims of crime, which is  not the case. ✔
• People assume that the world is more dangerous than it really is. ✔

[Credit any THREE points.] (3)
1.9 The writer wants to provide solutions to readers who feel overwhelmed by  the bad news they encounter every day. ✔ He ends his article on a  positive note – unlike most news articles these days. ✔✔ 
[A candidate can only earn 3 marks for a well-developed answer.] (3) 
1.10 The exclamation marks/the toast which pops out of the toaster/the man’s  open mouth/huge eyes ✔✔depict his shock ✔ at reading about his non existent affair in the newspaper.  
[Candidates must refer to how any TWO visual clues reveal the man’s  state of mind.] (3) 
1.11 Yes, it is an accurate depiction. 

• In Text A the writer explains how reporters are not concerned about  reporting factual information. ✔
• In Text B it is clear that the man is not having an affair, but he reads  about his affair in the newspaper. ✔
• This emphasises the point made in Text A that sensation is much more  important than truth. ✔
• Text B also reinforces the statement that false news reports cause  anxiety. ✔ 

[Note: No mark is awarded for YES/NO.] 
[Candidates need to highlight the similarities in BOTH Text A and Text B  and draw a conclusion about the similarities between the two texts.] [A cogent ‘No’ response is unlikely. However, treat all responses on their merits.] (4) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SUMMARY 
QUESTION 2: SUMMARISING IN YOUR OWN WORDS 
Use the following main points that the candidate should include in the summary as a guideline. 
Any 7 valid points are to be credited in paragraph-form. 
(Sentences and/or sentence fragments must be coherent.) 

PARAGRAPH-FORM 
NOTE: What follows is merely an example. It is not prescriptive and must be  used very carefully. 

Marking the summary: 
Marking is on the basis of the inclusion of valid material and the exclusion of invalid  material. 
The summary must be marked as follows: 

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point)
  • 3 marks for language
  • Total marks = 10 
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has not quoted verbatim: 
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks
• Distribution of language marks when candidate has quoted verbatim: 
  • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark
  • 1–5 quotes: award 1 language mark 

NOTE: 

• Format
  Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be assessed. 
• Word count:
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used.
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of  words used, or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly. If the  word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the stipulated  upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary. 

TOTAL SECTION B: 10

SECTION C: LANGUAGE STRUCURES AND CONVENTIONS 
Marking SECTION C: 

• Spelling:
  • One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect,  unless the error changes the meaning of the word.
  • In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error  is in the language structure being tested.
  • Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly. 
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full  sentences/as per instruction. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding to the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct. 

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING ADVERTISING 
3.1 The organisation’s logo is the stylised image of a wave breaking.  It is a representation of a surfer riding the waves. ✔✔ (2) 
3.2 Through the slogan, ‘Rise above plastics’, the Surfrider foundation aims to  raise awareness about pollution in the oceans of the world, especially plastic  pollution. ✔ Their slogan is intended to encourage people to stop the use of  plastic material/packaging to prevent plastic pollution in the oceans. ✔ 
[Credit candidates who refer to the representation of the slogan within a  plastic bottle.] (2) 
3.3 The rhetorical question draws attention to the prominence of plastic  pollution. ✔ It emphasises the problem and makes the reader aware of the  dangers. ✔ (2) 
3.4 Both texts emphasise that humans ultimately eat what the fish ingest. ✔ The visuals of both advertisements show plastic pollution in an unexpected  way. ✔ 
Both advertisers effectively succeed in creating awareness of the drastic  effects and health hazards of plastic pollution in the oceans. ✔✔ 
[Award one mark for the purpose of the advertisers.] 
[Award one mark for a reference to the use of plastic in both visuals.]
[Award two marks for a critical comment evaluating the message of the  advertisers.] (4) [10]

QUESTION 4: UNDERSTANDING OTHER ASPECTS OF THE MEDIA 
4.1 The bold lettering emphasises Calvin’s anger/frustration ✔ because he is too  young to smoke. The punctuation conveys his questioning of the law ✔ which he regards as  unfair. (2) 
4.2 Hobbes is confused about why people are not able to stop smoking ✔ when it causes such a violent reaction. ✔ (2) 
4.3 The cartoonist uses sound effects and body language: Calvin’s mouth is  wide open/He is coughing and spluttering/He coughs so violently that he lifts  off the ground/His tongue is crooked/His eyes are wide and bulging/He is  coughing up smoke/He is clutching his chest in agony. ✔ These clues convey the ferocity/franticness/violence/frenzy of his reaction to  smoking. ✔✔ 
[Award 1 mark for identifying sound effects and body language.] 
[Award 2 marks for a well-developed discussion of both techniques.] (3) 
4.4 The irony causes humour because Calvin’s mother’s intention when giving  him permission to smoke was to teach him a lesson. ✔ Calvin, however,  perceives it as proof that parents are not to be trusted. ✔ He does not perceive it as a warning about the health risks of smoking. ✔ (3) [10]

QUESTION 5: USING LANGUAGE CORRECTLY 
5.1 Adjective (1)
5.2 B – compound sentence (1)
5.3 Comma (1) 
5.4 ‘Our goal is to have ethical consideration for people and the environment by  sourcing products locally and fairly.’ 
OR 
‘Our goal is to have ethical consideration for people and the environment by  sourcing local products fairly.’ (1) 
5.5 Practise (1) 
5.6 We’re – omission/contraction people’s – possession (2)
5.7 ‘a bit of’/‘polished off’/‘on to something’ (1) 
5.8 When he/Michael returned to Cape Town, the opportunity came to join  Anthony on his chocolate adventure. On Michael’s/his return to Cape Town, the opportunity came to join Anthony  on his chocolate adventure. (1) 
5.9 something that continually changes (1) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 30 
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 

1. Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions. 
2. These marking guidelines serve as a guide to markers. Some responses may  require a marker’s discretion. 
3. Candidates’ responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.

MARKING THE COMPREHENSION  

• Because the focus is on understanding, incorrect spelling and language errors in  responses should not be penalised unless such errors change the meaning/  understanding. (Errors must still be indicated.) 
• If a candidate uses words from a language other than the one being examined,  disregard those words, and if the answer still makes sense, do not penalise.  However, if a word from another language is used in a text and required in an  answer, this will be acceptable. 
• For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I  DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered. 
• When one-word answers are required and the candidate gives a whole sentence,  mark correct provided that the correct word is underlined/highlighted.
• When two/three facts/points are required and a range is given, mark only the first  two/three. 
• Accept dialectal variations. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the correct  answer AND/OR the answer written out in full.  

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: COMPREHENSION 
QUESTION 1  
1.1
1.1.1 Morné Kahts is a (medical) doctor ?and Lucky Felisono is his  patient.  (2)  
1.1.2 B/excited and happy  (1)  
1.2 To show that these words are written in a different language (than the rest of  the text). 
OR 
To show that the text is in English, but these are Xhosa words. 
NOTE: Accept any ONE of the above answers. (1) 
1.3 It refers to the time in South Africa  after the end of apartheid.  (2)
 1.4 English-speaking medical students are expected to live with an Afrikaans- or  Xhosa-speaking health worker. 
They should stay with their host for two-and-a-half weeks. 
They have to do research at a community clinic.  (3) 
1.5 They are allowed to speak English when there is an emergency.  (1)  
1.6 Sign language has to be included so that doctors can communicate with  patients who are deaf/hard of hearing/have a problem with the spoken  language.  (1)  
1.7 Relationships improve when the doctors speak the language of the people  in the different communities they work.  (2)  
1.8 They communicate much better.  They have a better relationship. ? (2) 
1.9 ‘sings in vernacular’  (1)  
1.10 Doctors are under oath to keep all information related to a patient’s illness  confidential. An interpreter could very easily divulge information to  strangers. (2)  
1.11 Patients understand Dr Kahts because he explains their medical condition in  a way that is easy to understand, while other doctors use difficult medical  terms which patients do not understand.  (2)   
1.12 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.  
Yes. It is a good idea because patients want to know that the doctor  understands them. This gives them the confidence that the treatment will be  what they need and that it will be effective.  
OR  
No. A doctor’s job is to provide the best possible treatment to his patients.  There is no evidence that if a doctor cannot speak the language of the patient  that treatment will be any different/or ineffective.  
NOTE: Accept other suitable responses. A candidate can score 1 mark for an  answer that is not well-substantiated.  
Accept a combination answer. (2) 
1.13 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.  
Yes. The title is suitable because it is linked to the article which provides the  reader with information on the benefits of doctors being able to speak the same  language as their patients. The article also provides facts based on the personal  experience of Dr Kahts and his patients.  
OR  
No. The title is not suitable because it only focuses on the experience of one  doctor and his patient. This might not be the same for all doctors and patients.  All doctors are trained to provide the same treatment, so the language that they  speak plays a minor role.  
NOTE: Accept other suitable responses which show that the candidate has  understood the passage and how the title leads to it AND is able to  provide substantiation. A candidate can score 1 mark for an answer  that is not well-substantiated. (2)  
1.14 It is called a hearing aid.  (1)  1.15 When someone has passed on/died.  (1)  
1.16 The 2001 census only targeted disabled people,  while the 2011 census  targeted the whole South African population.  (2)  
1.17 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.  
No. One can become deaf when listening to loud music using headphones/  damage your eardrums/become oblivious to one’s surroundings.  
OR  
Yes. It is more enjoyable to use headphones when listening to your favourite  music. There is no evidence to prove that listening to loud music using  headphones leads to hearing loss. 
NOTE: Accept other suitable responses. A candidate can score 1 mark for an  answer that is not well-substantiated. Accept a combination answer. (2)  
TOTAL SECTION A: 30 

SECTION B: SUMMARY 

QUESTION 2 
The following points form the answer to the question.  

MARKING THE SUMMARY 
The summary should be marked as follows:  

• Mark allocation:
  • 7 marks for 7 points (1 mark per main point) 
  • 3 marks for language 
  •  Total marks: 10 
• Distribution of language marks when a candidate has not quoted  verbatim: 
  • 1–3 points correct: award 1 mark 
  • 4–5 points correct: award 2 marks 
  • 6–7 points correct: award 3 marks 
• Distribution of language marks when a candidate has quoted verbatim: 
  • 6–7 quotes: award no language mark 
  • 1–5 quotes: award 1 language mark 

NOTE:  

• Format 
  • Even if the summary is presented in the incorrect format, it must be  assessed. 
• Word Count: 
  • Markers are required to verify the number of words used. 
  • Do not deduct any marks if the candidate fails to indicate the number of  words used, or if the number of words used is indicated incorrectly. 
  • If the word limit is exceeded, read up to the last sentence above the  stipulated upper limit and ignore the rest of the summary.  

TOTAL SECTION B: 10 

SECTION C: LANGUAGE 

• One-word answers must be marked correct even if the spelling is incorrect,  unless the error changes the meaning of the word. 
• In full-sentence answers, incorrect spelling should be penalised if the error is in  the language structure being tested. 
• Where an abbreviation is tested, the answer must be punctuated correctly. 
• Sentence structures must be grammatically correct and given in full sentences/  as per instructions. 
• For multiple-choice questions, accept BOTH the letter corresponding with the  correct answer AND/OR the answer written out in full as correct. 

QUESTION 3: ANALYSING AN ADVERTISEMENT 
3.1 Because skin is for life.  (1)  
3.2 It appeals to women who want beautiful skin/women who have dry and  damaged skin/women who care about their skin.  (1)  
3.3 Your skin will be protected. 
Damaged skin will be healed/restored. 
Dry skin will be moisturised. (3) 
3.4 It contains Tea Tree Oil  and Aloe Vera.  (2) 
3.5 C/the product definitely works.  (1) 
3.6 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.  
Yes. The girl looks happy with her skin/is smiling after using the product.  The words ‘dryness to moisture’, could show that her skin has changed from  being dry to smooth/moisturised. 
OR  
No. There is no evidence in the picture that her skin was dry and damaged  before using the product. The before and after picture could be one of  someone else’s skin. 
NOTE: Do not award a mark for Yes or No. A candidate can score  1 mark for an answer that is not well-substantiated. (2)  [10] 

QUESTION 4: ANALYSING A CARTOON 
4.1
4.1.1 C/unreasonable (1) 
4.1.2 The word ‘NOT’ (1)  
4.2 Jeremy’s mother throws her arms in the air. 

• Her mouth is wide open. 
• Her eyes are wide open. 

NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)  
4.3 The word SO is written in capital letters/bold.  There are two question marks.  (2) 
4.4 She feels that he is too young.  (1) 
4.5 I was me and not you.  (1) 
4.6 Open-ended. Accept a suitable response, e.g.  
Yes. He is definitely too young (and irresponsible). Going on a road trip  means you need money and transport which Jeremy most probably does not  have. His parents are also concerned about his safety. 
OR  
No. They should allow Jeremy to go on the road trip because he wants to  have fun like any other 16-year-old. Doing this without his parents could  teach him to become more responsible. 
NOTE: Do not award a mark for Yes or No. A candidate can score 1 mark  for an answer that is not well-substantiated. (2)  [10] 

QUESTION 5: LANGUAGE AND EDITING SKILLS 
5.1
5.1.1

1. than  (1) 
2.  response  (1) 
3. is  (1) 
4. more  (1)  

5.1.2 don’t they/do they not  (1) 
NOTE: Apostrophe must be used correctly.  
5.1.3 well-known – adjective  (1)  Nelson Mandela – (proper) noun  (1)  
5.1.4 A parent does not have to set the example by saying please and thank  you.  (1)  
5.1.5 Children were expressing gratitude as a routine while having  dinner.  (1)  
5.1.6 Amy said that gratitude was  a powerful catalyst for happiness and  the spark that lit up her  life.  
NOTE: Award ONE mark for each of the underlined changes and  ONE mark for the omission of the comma, the quotation  marks and the insertion of the final full stop as well as the  correct use of capital and small letters throughout. (4) 
5.1.7 more important  (1) 
5.2
5.2.1 The value of showing gratitude should be emphasised.  (1) 
5.2.2 aloud  (1) 
5.2.3 Showing gratitude has a positive influence on people’s friendships (1) 
5.2.4 It is a good idea for us to start gratitude journals.  (1) 
5.2.5 appreciation  (1)  
5.2.6 Either express gratitude by writing a thank you letter or buying a gift./  Either express gratitude by buying a gift or writing a letter. (1)  
[20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 80

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Candidates are required to answer questions from TWO sections.
2. These marking guidelines are merely a guide to assess learners’ responses.
3. Candidates' responses should be assessed as objectively as possible.
4. MARKING GUIDELINES
   4.1 A candidate may not answer more than ONE question on the same genre.
   4.2 If a candidate gives two answers where the first one is wrong and the next one is correct, mark the first answer and ignore the next.
   4.3 If answers are incorrectly numbered, mark according to the marking guidelines.
   4.4 If a spelling error affects the meaning, mark incorrect. If it does not affect the meaning, mark correct.
   4.5 If the candidate does not use inverted commas when asked to quote, do not penalise.
   4.6 For open-ended questions, no marks should be awarded for YES/NO or I AGREE/I DISAGREE. The reason/substantiation/ motivation is what should be considered.
   4.7 No marks should be awarded for TRUE/FALSE or FACT/OPINION. The reason/substantiation/motivation is what should be considered.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: NOVEL
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ONE question on the novel they have studied.
QUESTION 1: CRY, THE BELOVED COUNTRY
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 1.1 and 1.2.
1.1
1.1.1

1. Claremont √
2. Gertrude √
3. priest √
4. prostitute √ (4)

1.1.2 The letter from Reverend Msimangu urges him to come to Johannesburg because his sister is very ill. √ / Rev. Msimangu informs Stephen that Gertrude is very ill. √ (1)
1.1.3 Claremont is very dirty/ dilapidated/neglected/smells of alcohol. √ (1)
1.1.4 The paper enhances oppression of black people/ it does not report on everything that should be mentioned. √ (1)
1.1.5

1. Concerned/worried/disturbed. √ (1)
2. He is concerned by the neglect of education by parents and children/he believes that children should be educated. √√ (2)

1.1.6 The streets in Claremont are named after beautiful and clean flowers yet the streets are an eye sore/ they are dirty and shabby. √√ (2)
1.1.7 The discussion of the theme of urban life versus rural life, should include the following points, among others:

• John, Gertrude, Absalom, Sibeko’s daughter move from Ndotsheni (rural areas) where there is poverty and few job opportunities to Johannesburg in search of better life/work opportunities.
• Once in the cities they do not get what they had hoped for (Gertrude never finds her husband).
• They settle illegally in shanty towns on the periphery.
• Gertrude and Absalom resort to all sorts of crime and immoral activities.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.
A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel. (3)
1.1.8 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• She went to Johannesburg to look for her husband and could not find him.
• There are no job opportunities for illiterate people like her.
• She sells liquor and her body to make a living.
• She has a child to feed.

OR
No.

• She should have gone back home when she did not find her husband.
• She cannot continue breaking the law in order to make a living.
• She can at least try and find a job even though she is not educated.

NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 2 or 3 marks for a response which is well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the text of the novel. (3) AND
1.2.1 Kumalo visits the chief to talk about ways to restore Ndotsheni as the land is barren. √ He also wants to discuss ways to stop people from going to Johannesburg. √ (2)
1.2.2 It is customary for the chief to make people wait. √ It gives Stephen a chance to rest. √ (2)
1.2.3

1. ‘Pondered’ √ (1)
2. There has been no rain. /The land is bare nothing grows /People leave for better places like Johannesburg. There is poverty. √√
   NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

1.2.4 C/toppled √ (1)
1.2.5 The white men expect the chiefs to run things normally (hold the pieces together) but the same white men have destabilised the communities (have taken most of the pieces away). √√ (2)
1.2.6 Chiefs ruled valueless and desolated states. √ (1)
1.2.7

1. Satire √ (1)
2. The mockery shows that the assistance people get is not well thought of and gives poor results.
   The bigger picture is missed in helping the community/ the actual cause of desolation (drought and poverty) is not addressed. √√ (2)

1.2.8 Open-ended.
Accept any relevant response which shows understanding of the story, among others:
Yes.

• The restoration of Ndotsheni comes too late for some families.
• The Kumalo family loses Absalom/Gertrude/John due to poverty/lack of jobs.
• There are deaths of cattle and of human beings (Malusi and Kuluse’s children).
• The land does not produce anything even if there can be rain.

OR
No.

• It is not too late; some children are saved from starvation.
• Kumalo and Jarvis work together to restore Ndotsheni.
• The gift of milk helps.
• The agricultural demonstrator comes with new ways.
• The building of the dam comes when it is needed most and benefits many at Ndotsheni.
• Life and hope eventually return to the valley of Ndotsheni.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 2 or 3 marks for a response which is well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the text of the novel. (3) [35]

QUESTION 2: STRANGE CASE OF DR JEKYLL AND MR HYDE
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 2.1 AND 2.2.
2.1
2.1.1

1. October √
2. violent √
3. woman √
4. notable √ (4)

2.1.2 The maid fainted when she saw Hyde beating Danvers to death/That was the time she had woken up after the murder. √ (1)
2.1.3 ‘incredibly mangled’ √ (1)
2.1.4 The stick was made of scarce/strong/thick wood √ (1)
2.1.5

• He is not impulsive. √
• He acts on evidence based on facts. √
• He is decisive. √
• He is methodical. √
  NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above. (2)

2.1.6 The police found a sealed and stamped envelope with the name and address of Mr Utterson. √ (1)
2.1.7 Sir Danvers is old/aged/polite/beautiful √ and Mr Hyde is small/ impatient. √ (2)
2.1.8 People that have seen him find it difficult to describe him √/very few people that know him /his family cannot be traced √/he has no photograph √/people describe him differently.
NOTE: Accept ANY TWO of the above. (2)
2.1.9 The discussion should show an understanding of the following points, among others:

• The eyewitness’ testimony is reliable because the maid vividly sees everything, the weather is clear with a moon that provided more light.
• The maid’s physical description of both Sir Carew Danvers and Mr Hyde shows reliability.

OR

• The eyewitness’ testimony is unreliable, she fainted or collapsed which means she may not recall everything that happened.
• She took a long time to report the crime which she describes as violent.

NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated.
A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel. (3)
2.2
2.2.1

1. Simile √ (1)
2. Dr Jekyll has isolated himself from people/friends, he is miserable or low-spirited because of his own making. √√ (2)

2.2.2

1. Utterson is concerned about Dr Jekyll’s health as a friend. √ He thinks that Dr Jekyll is blackmailed by Mr Hyde. √ (1)
2. He shows that he is kind √ and caring √ about the welfare of his friend./He is supportive of his friend no matter the circumstances. √ (2)
   NOTE: Accept any TWO relevant responses.

2.2.3

1. Fearful/anxious √ (1)
2. Jekyll is anxious he has run out of the drug, √ and this can lead to his transformation into Hyde. √ (2)

2.2.4 Jekyll is desperately in need of a drug to keep him alive or as Dr Jekyll. √ (1)
2.2.5 Jekyll fears to go out with Utterson and Enfield, there is a possibility of him transforming into Mr Hyde in their presence. √/His secret of being Mr Hyde will be discovered. Hyde is being sought by the police for the murder of Sir Danvers. √ (2)
2.2.6 The discussion of the theme ‘primitive’ and ‘civilised’ society, should include the following points, among others:

• Dr Jekyll represents a Victorian gentleman, he is educated and a respected scientist who is morally upright.
• Mr Utterson also wants to conform to societal values of being civilised, he does not want to gossip or talk about other people.
• Mr Hyde represents the primitive society – he has no morals, he is cruel and is described by many people as an animal/ape/thing.
• Mr Hyde’s behaviour is unacceptable to society – trampling a young girl and killing Sir Danvers ruthlessly. (3)

2.2.7 Open-ended.
Accept any relevant response which shows understanding of the story, among others:
Yes.

• Dr Jekyll remains a respected scientist.
• He tries to hide what is not accepted by society by splitting his dual personality using a potion/chemical.
• His evil side is known as Hyde which initially helps him to remain the good doctor.
• He keeps indoors to protect his reputation when Mr Hyde takes over his life.

No.

• It is eventually discovered that Dr Jekyll and Mr Hyde is one person.
• Dr Jekyll’s experimentation ruins his reputation as a doctor with Dr Lanyon.
• Dr Jekyll’s friendship with Dr Lanyon is also ruined by what he sees (transformation into Mr Hyde) which leads to Lanyon’s death.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 2 or 3 marks for a response which is well-substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the text of the novel. (3) [35]
  TOTAL SECTION A: 35

SECTION B: DRAMA
QUESTION 3: MACBETH
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ONE question on the drama they have studied.
Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions, i.e. QUESTIONS 3.1 and 3.2.
3.1
3.1.1

1. Cawdor √
2. bravely √
3. ambitious √
4. Lady Macbeth √ (4)

3.1.2

1. The killing of King Duncan. √ (1)
2. Duncan is his cousin/Duncan has just rewarded him with a title to thank him/He is the host he should be the one protecting the king/
   Duncan has conducted himself so well as a king. √ (1)

3.1.3 Duncan has rewarded Macbeth by giving him a title of Macdonwald, who was considered to be a traitor because he fought against Scotland. Macbeth fought bravely against Macdonwald and the King trusts him, Macbeth is now the one who ends up killing the King, therefore is a traitor and untrustworthy √√ (2)
3.1.4

• Lady Macbeth should look up straight into Macbeth’s eyes. √
• She should put her hands on her waist/hips. √
• She should frown. √
• She should bend her body forward. √
  NOTE: Accept any TWO relevant responses. (2)

3.1.5

1. B/simile √ (1)
2. Macbeth wants the crown/wants to be the king √ and yet he is reluctant to kill the king, he is like a cat who would want to catch a fish but would not want to get his feet wet. √ (2)

3.1.6

• Lady Macbeth is very cruel/heartless √ – Macbeth is afraid to proceed with their cruel plan but Lady Macbeth insists that they should continue with the killing. √
  OR
• She is manipulative √ – she blackmails Macbeth by doubting his love/that Macbeth is not man enough/She accuses Macbeth of being a coward. √ (2) NOTE: Accept any ONE of the above combinations.

3.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the drama, among others:
No.

• Macbeth is the one who initially comes up with the plan to kill King Duncan after he meets with the witches.
• He convinces Lady Macbeth about what the witches have told him and the result thereof.
• Now that the opportunity is available, he is backing off when Lady Macbeth has already made plans.

OR
Yes.

• He is now bound by his conscience that what he plans is wrong.
• He does not want to do it anymore but the wife is now blackmailing him/she is forcing him to do what he no longer wants to do.
• He loves his wife and he wants to prove that he is not a coward.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit response where a combination is given. For full marks, the response should be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the novel. (3)

AND
3.2.1

1. He is in disbelief/shocked/distraught. √
   He cannot believe the cruelty that his family has gone through/ he cannot believe that not one of them is alive /
   He is hurt that he has left his family unprotected/ he is blaming himself for leaving them alone. √ (2)
2. Macbeth √ (1)
3. Macduff compares Macbeth to a hawk/vulture that would make a merciless kill (swoop down) on defenceless chicks (children) √√ (2)

3.2.2 Macduff later fights with Macbeth √ and kills him in revenge for the death of his family. √ (2)
3.2.3

1. Determination/vengeful √ (1)
2. Malcolm is determined to overthrow Macbeth. √ (1)

3.2.4 Bravery /Patriotism √
Both make plans/bent on saving Scotland/ Both make plans to destroy Macbeth/ Both make plans to bring the tyranny to an end. √ (2)
3.2.5 Accept a relevant, text-based explanation on the theme of good versus evil.

• Macbeth and Lady Macbeth represent evil with the intension to be king and queen.
• Macbeth continues murdering every person that he suspects is against him including innocent women and children.
• King Duncan is an example of a good king.
• Macduff and Malcom go to England in search of better ways to deal with the misery of the people of Scotland under Macbeth’s rule.
  NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)

3.2.6 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the reasons why Macduff left Scotland, among others:
No.

• What Macduff does cannot be praised.
• He leaves his children alone knowing well that Macbeth is capable of murdering everyone.
• He runs for his dear life leaving his family unprotected.
• He does not opt for other ways to save Scotland from the tyranny of Macbeth.

OR
Yes.

• What Macduff does is noble, he shows what people who love their country should do.
• He cannot bear to see the misery in his country during Macbeth’s reign.
• He does not know that Macbeth is ruthless, that he will attack helpless children in order to hurt him.
• Macduff does not trust Macbeth anymore and he cannot serve him as his subject.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit response where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3) [35]

QUESTION 4: MY CHILDREN! MY AFRICA!
4.1
4.1.1 

1. high √
2. Mr Myalatya √
3. apartheid √
4. brilliant √ (4)

4.1.2

1. D/the atmosphere was exciting. √ (1)
2. Zolile High School: It is in a poor black township. √
   Everything about it is grey. √
   It is a mixed school. √
   Camdeboo High School: It is a White affluent school √
   It is a girls’ high school. √
   It is situated in town. √
   [The difference must be clear for TWO marks]. (2)

4.1.3

1. Thami should look down/away. √
   He should support his head with his hands. √
   He should bend his back. √
   NOTE: Accept any TWO RELEVANT responses. (2)
2.  He is embarrassed because Isabel realises that he finds it
   difficult to debate with girls √ especially White girls. √ (2)

4.1.4 Mr M leaves Thami and Isabel to go to a staff meeting. √ (1)
4.1.5 The discussion of the theme of friendship, should include the following points, among others:

• Isabel forms a relationship with Thami (a black person) the only other person that she has been close to except the maid (Aunty) and Samuel (the deliveryman) at her father’s pharmacy.
• She is able to open up to him and gets to learn certain things (riots) about the location that she would not have known.
• Thami is also comfortable with her after being uneasy at the beginning when he debates with a girl/a white girl.
  NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the drama. (3)

4.1.6 Yes.

• Thami is an admirable person, he is a brilliant student and focuses on school activities like debating. 
• He is confident and is not easily intimidated by Isabel during the debate.
• He is considerate/respectful of others, he does not want to hurt Mr M’s feelings especially at the beginning of the drama/he treats Isabel with respect.
• He sacrifices his dream of being educated for the struggle against Bantu Education.

No.

• Thami is easily influenced by political issues, he joins the school boycotts and forgets about Mr M’s teachings (non violence).
• He is gullible, he has a bright future but leaves school to become part of the group that destroys township schools.
• He does not appreciate Mr M’s efforts to get him a bursary by participating in the literature quiz. (3)

AND
4.2
4.2.1

1. He rebels against Mr M √ and drops the literature quiz/drops out of school for the struggle. √ (2)
2. These lines reveal Thami’s determination to play by the rules of the comrades/struggle. √ His loyalty to the struggle takes no exception even to Isabel (his friend who is a white girl) and he must stop meeting with her. √ (2)

4.2.2

1. Disbelief/Shock/Amazement √ (1)
2. Isabel cannot believe that Thami is going along with a decision taken by comrades (boycotting school/not mixing with whites), √
   Isabel is shocked that Thami chooses the struggle over the literature quiz which may offer him a bursary if they win. √ (2)
3. A / Sarcasm √ (1)
4. Isabel feels that the decision by comrades for learners to stay away from school / blacks to have minimal contact with whites is not the beginning √ but the end to her relationship with Thami / end to the literary quiz / end to Thami’s studies. √ (2)

4.2.3 It is ironic that the comrades and Thami are fighting for freedom from the oppression by white people, yet the comrades restrict the movement/association of blacks (Thami can no longer meet Isabel freely). √√ (2)
4.2.4 It reveals that Isabel is caring, √ she is worried about Thami’s decision of joining the struggle and his future prospects. √
OR
Isabel is protective of Thami, √ she comes to his rescue when Mr M confronts him by saying that she is no longer interested in Thami’s response to the question she asked. √ (2)
4.2.5 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of Mr M deeds as a teacher, among others:
Yes.

• Mr M tries to educate black learners outside the confines of the government-imposed Bantu Education.
• He teaches learners (especially Thami) to think independently and make own decisions.
• Thami is living proof of Mr M’s teaching, he guides and nurtures him to become eloquent and critical of the Bantu Education.

No.

• Mr M fails to reason with his learners when they disagree with his ways of fighting for freedom. Learners do not see the bigger picture of mental liberation so they leave school to join the struggle.
• Mr M cannot stop learners from being influenced by societal issues (boycotts) though he spends all his time educating them to become independent thinkers.
• Learners mock Mr M by using the English/grammatical structures he teaches them when they vandalise the school.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the text of the drama. (3) [35]
  TOTAL SECTION B: 35

SECTION C: SHORT STORIES
QUESTION 5
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer BOTH questions set on the TWO short stories they have studied i.e. QUESTIONS 5.1 and 5.2.
QUESTION 5.1: TRANSFORMING MOMENTS by Gcina Mhlophe
5.1
5.1.1

1. seventeen √
2. unsure √
3. well √
4. teased √ (4)

5.1.2 D/shocked. √ (1)
5.1.3 She hates herself. √/She has low self-esteem. √/She believes she is ugly. √ (2)
NOTE: Accept any TWO of the above.
5.1.4

1. Metaphor √ (1)
2. She cannot believe that being a good student is the reason why the minister takes her to the meeting.
   She realises that people notice her potential.
   She was overwhelmed by a great feeling of happiness. √√ (2)

5.1.5 The narrator as a church goer felt she was introduced into poetry by imbongi so that she could also be a praise poet like him. √√ (2)
5.1.6 The discussion of the theme of self-discovery, should include the following points, among others:

• The narrator initially believed that she is ugly/she did not like herself.
• She does not have fashionable clothes.
• The fact that she does well at school does not assist in making her confident enough.
• She only realises her potential when the minister takes her to a meeting where she meets an imbongi and she realises that she can be a praise poet.
• She discovers her own talent of being a praise poet.
  NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the short story. (3)

5.1.7 Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Father Fikeni sees potential in a young girl and takes her to his house.
• Father Fikeni tells her, her voice is normal but resonant.
• He takes her to a meeting where she meets imbongi and she is motivated and inspired into developing her full potential.
• She gets to love her voice that can be used purposefully.
• She realises she is beautiful and talented.

OR
No.

• Father Fikeni gives the narrator special treatment at the expense of other children. /He only takes his favourite child to his house whilst leaving other children in the hostel.
• The narrator’s self-discovery happens naturally, she could have realised her talent even without Father Fikeni help.
• The narrator’s sister always motivates the narrator for her good work at school. / The teachers are instrumental in boosting her self esteem, they read her essays or share her good work with the whole class.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO only.
  Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the short story. (3)

QUESTION 5.2: THE LAST BREATH by Sam Kahiga
5.2 5.2.1 They are coming from the blind school √ /They went to see Eva (the narrator’s girlfriend). √ (1)
5.2.2

1. The fact that Eva is blind. √ (1)
2. He is going to marry her knowing that she is blind. √ (1)

5.2.3 The narrator and his father have an unhealthy relationship – they do not see eye to eye on a number of issues. √
The narrator’s father controls his son – he does not allow the narrator to make his own decisions. √ (2)
5.2.4 He has seen that Eva is caring/kind-hearted/loving/Eva is not as helpless as he thought. / √ Eva is a good person. √ (1)
5.2.5

1. Anger/force √ (1)
2. The narrator is angry at his father’s attitude towards Eva. √ He has made up his mind to marry Eva. / He really does not care what his father thinks or wants. √ (2)

5.2.6 She accepts Eva/she respects her son’s decision. √ (1)
5.2.7 ‘terrible cough’ √ (1)
5.2.8 When the narrator’s father is about to die, he decides to donate his cornea to Eva. In the sense he literally gave her eyes and that made his son happy. √√√ (3)
5.2.9 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows an understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• Because he cares about his son.
• He does not understand how a blind woman could make his son happy.
• He thinks that she will be a burden to him for the rest of his life and that will not make him happy.

No.

• Even though he loves his son, he cannot make choices for him.
• He must respect his son’s choice.
• He should accept people with disability, not discriminate against Eva, she is blind but she can do other things.
  NOTE: Do NOT award marks for YES or NO only.
  Credit response where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 for a response which is not well substantiated. The candidate’s response must be grounded in the short story. (3) [35]
  TOTAL SECTION C: 35

SECTION D: POETRY
NOTE: Candidates are required to answer ALL the questions.
QUESTION 6.1: Alexandra by Mongane Wally Serote
6.1
6.1.1

1. Alexandra √
2. mother √
3. born √
4. criticism√ (4)

6.1.2 B/apostrophe. √ (1)
6.1.3 He was born and raised there √ (as a mother would give birth and raise a child)/It is a part of him. √It will always be part of him. √
The township is forever tied to the speaker, just like a mother and child are tied. √ (2)
6.1.4 In the first stanza he sees his mother as beautiful and loving. √ In the fourth stanza he sees his mother as cruel and frightening. √ (2)
6.1.5

1. Metaphor √ (1)
2. His being is entwined to Alexandra/he feels his destiny is there despite having gone to other places but he goes back to his place of birth. /It looks like he has no choice but must accept his fate. √√ (2)

6.1.6 The discussion of the theme of poverty, should include the following points, among others:

• The township is barren and covered in dust /there is dirt all over the township (‘my tongue tasted dust’).
• here are not enough resources to properly care for everyone who lives there (‘dirty waters of your dongas’).
• The speaker mentions that crime and violence have taken over the township (‘bloody cruel/hell’).
• Water is also polluted by blood of residents who die.
  NOTE: For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1 or 2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be rounded in the poem. (3)

6.1.7 Open-ended.
Accept a relevant response which shows the understanding of the following viewpoints, among others:
Yes.

• The poet’s description of Alexandra reflects the reality of his assumptions. Alexandra is described as a mother with good (beautiful, loving) and bad (dirty, dusty, polluted, and cruel) sides.
• The poet finds beautiful cities unlike his birth place but he will always have a special bond with Alexandra like that of a mother and child.
• The poet assumes that the cruelty (water diluted with blood of my brothers, dongas for death-beds) caused by apartheid government dehumanised him/other Alexandra residents.

OR
No.

• The poet’s assumptions about Alexandra are biased. Alexandra’s dusty streets and polluted waters are exaggerated. Alexandra is like any township that is overpopulated.
• One always has a choice to go to places and learn new ways of living/make a choice not to submit to the evils of Alexandra.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit responses where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the poem. (3)

QUESTION 6.2: Death by Anonymous
6.2.1

1. ‘mind was heavy’ √ (1)
2. Metaphor√ (1)
3. The poet finds himself wide awake/suffering from insomnia √ He cannot sleep/sleep has completely disappeared/like it has literally ran away on foot and left him. √ /The poet is unable to sleep and this is compared to sleep literally running away from him. (2)
4. C/ euphemism. √ (1)

6.2.2 The speaker called for water because he wanted to wash and refresh himself. √ /Wanted to stay awake.√ (1)
6.2.3

1. ‘Hied’ √ (1)
2. Although he ran to his chamber and firmly locked the door for it to stay out, death was able to sneak underneath the door to prove that there is no escape from death. √√ (2)

6.2.4 The speaker is afraid to die. The speaker tries everything in his power to avoid death – he goes to church to pray. √/ He tries to run away from death – he goes to the sea and rows a boat. √ (2)
6.2.5 Death is in control of his life. There is no escape. √√ (2)
6.2.6 Death is personified throughout the poem. √ (1)
6.2.7 Yes.

• He fears death therefore he keeps his mind occupied with death thoughts – he does everything to avoid it.
• He tries to escape from it.
• He even tries to pray so that death would not get him, yet death is all over him.
• He should understand that death is everywhere and try and live a normal life.

No.

• He needs to understand that death is part of life.
• Everyone is going to die.
• Him being old should be the last person to fear death, instead he should welcome it.
• He needs to know that death is inevitable.
  NOTE: Do NOT award a mark for YES or NO. Credit a response where a combination is given. For full marks, the response must be well-substantiated. A candidate can score 1–2 marks for a response which is not well-substantiated. The candidate’s interpretation must be grounded in the poem. (3) [35]

TOTAL SECTION D: 35
GRAND TOTAL: 70

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
These marking guidelines must be used in conjunction with the attached English  FAL assessment rubrics for SECTIONS A, B and C. 
NOTE: All pieces of writing should be read at least TWICE during assessment,  once for content and once for language respectively. Errors must be  indicated in your second reading. 

MEMORANDUM

SECTION A: ESSAY 
QUESTION 1 
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS: 

• Candidates are required to write on ONE topic only.
• The ideas listed below the topics are only some ways in which the topics can  be interpreted.
• Full credit must be given for the candidates’ own interpretation.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 50-mark grid to mark the essays. The texts produced by candidates  must be assessed according to the following criteria:
  • Content and planning (30 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (15 marks)
  • Structure (5 marks) 

NOTE:

• Adhere to the length of 250–300 words as prescribed in the CAPS  document. However, should the maximum word count be reached mid sentence, read to the end of that sentence.
• No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes  penalties. 

1.11. My enemy has become my friend and … 
Narrative/Reflective/Descriptive 

• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings the  candidate experiences/experienced.
• If descriptive, the writer should create a picture in words using as many senses as possible to make the description clear. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than  one type of essay. [50]
1.2 Possibilities for me in the future  
Descriptive/Narrative/Reflective 

• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many  senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending.
• If reflective, the essay should convey emotional reactions and feelings the  candidate experiences/experienced. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay. [50] 
1.3 Unbelievable! 
Narrative/Reflective/Descriptive 

• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line and an interesting ending.
• If reflective, the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings  the candidate experiences/experienced.
• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many  senses as possible to make the description clear. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than one type of essay. [50] 
1.4 Doing what is right is not always popular. 
Reflective/Argumentative/Discursive/Narrative 

• If reflective the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings  the candidate experiences/experienced.
• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint for  or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments to  support his/her view. The conclusion should be a strong, clear and  convincing statement of the writer’s opinion.
• If discursive, the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and  clearly analysed in the essay. The candidate may come to a particular  conclusion at the end of the essay, which should include recommendations.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line and an interesting  ending. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more  than one type of essay. [50]
1.5 ‘You cannot change the past, but you can make a difference now.’  – Avis J. Williams 
Discursive/Argumentative/Descriptive/Reflective/Narrative 

• If discursive, the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and clearly  analysed in the essay. The candidate may come to a particular conclusion at  the end of the essay, which should include recommendations.
• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint for  or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments to  support his/her view. The conclusion should be a strong, clear and convincing  statement of the writer’s opinion.
• If descriptive, the candidate should create a picture in words using as many  senses as possible to make the description clear.
• If reflective the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the  candidate experiences/experienced.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong story line and an interesting  ending. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more than  one type of essay. [50] 
1.6 Security cameras tend to violate privacy. 
Argumentative/Discursive/Reflective/Narrative 

• If argumentative, the essay must reflect a specific argument or viewpoint for  or against the topic. The candidate should give a range of arguments to  support his/her view. The conclusion should be a strong, clear and convincing  statement of the writer’s opinion.
• If discursive, the arguments for and against must be well-balanced and clearly  analysed in the essay. The candidate may come to a particular conclusion at  the end of the essay, which should include recommendations.
• If reflective the essay should convey the emotional reactions and feelings the  candidate experiences/experienced.
• If narrative, the essay must have a strong storyline and an interesting ending. 

NOTE: A candidate may write an essay which contains elements of more  than one type of essay. [50] 
1.7 Interpretation of pictures 
The candidate: 

• must give the essay a suitable title.
• may interpret the pictures in any way, relevant to the picture.
• may choose to write any type of essay, relevant to the picture.
• must link the interpretation to the picture. 
• may write in any appropriate tense.

1.7.1 Picture: Two dice 
Narrative/Descriptive/Reflective/Argumentative/Discursive 

• Literal interpretations: gambling, casinos, the gambling industry,  street corner gambling, dicey situations, board games: snakes and  ladders, Ludo etc.
• Figurative interpretations: luck, fate, chance, destiny, risk danger,  daring, adventure, don’t-care-attitude, dreams, obsessive and compulsive behaviour [50] 

1.7.2 Picture: Billows of smoke coming from pipe/chimney/  smokestack 
Narrative/Descriptive/Reflective/Argumentative/Discursive 

• Literal interpretation: air pollution, smog, respiratory diseases,  climate change, global warming 
• Figurative interpretation: solutions to air pollution, air purity, acid  rain, green living, green manufacturing, green energy [50] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B: LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 2 
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS: 

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 30-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The  texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following  criteria as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content, planning and format (18 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (12 marks) 

NOTE: 

• Adhere to the length of 120–150 words as prescribed in the CAPS document.  However, should the maximum word count be reached mid-sentence, read to  the end of that sentence.
• No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes penalties.

2.1 FRIENDLY LETTER 
Apology and explanation about textbook. 

• The following aspects of format must be included:
  • Address of sender
  • Date
  • Greeting/Salutation
  • Suitable ending
• The tone and register of the letter should be friendly and informal.
• Arrangements must be made for the return of the borrowed book. [30]

2.2 DIALOGUE 
A conversation between the candidate and father/mother. 

• The tone must be informal.
• The following ideas may be explored, among others:
  • A brief scenario (context) must be sketched before the speakers start speaking.
  • The names of the speakers must appear on the left-hand side of  the page.
  • A colon must appear after the name of each speaker.
  • A new line must be used to indicate each speaker.
  • Stage directions (tone of voice, actions etc.) must be written in brackets, if applicable. 
• The following ideas may be explored, among others:
  • Your sister’s intent to join a girls’ soccer team.
  • You persuading your father/mother to allow your sister to join the  girls’ soccer team. [30]

2.3 OBITUARY 
A best friend has passed away  

• The tone must be formal.
• The following aspects of format must be included:
  • Full name of the deceased
  • Date of birth
  • Date of death
  • Cause of death
  • Birth place 
  • Where the person was living at the time of death
  • Key survivors 
  • Date, time and place of funeral 
• May be included: 
  • Biographical information 
• Content should include the following, among others: 
  • A tribute must be paid to the deceased.
  • State what the best friend meant to you. [30]

2.4 NEWSPAPER ARTICLE 
Service delivery protest 

• The article must have a suitable heading.
• Paragraphs must not be too long.
• The style should be personal, addressing the reader.
• The language must be formal.
• The article should be stimulating to the reader. 

The content should include: 

• dissatisfaction with the behaviour of protestors. 
• why not necessary to engage in unacceptable behaviour [30]

TOTAL SECTION B: 30

SECTION C: SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT 
QUESTION 3 
INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS: 

• Candidates are required to answer ONE question.
• Marking must be objective. Give credit for relevant ideas.
• Use the 20-mark assessment rubric to mark the responses in this section. The  texts produced by candidates must be assessed according to the following  criteria as set out in the assessment rubric:
  • Content, planning and format (12 marks)
  • Language, style and editing (8 marks) 

NOTE: o Adhere to the length of 80–100 words as prescribed in the CAPS  document. However, should the maximum word count be reached  mid-sentence, read to the end of that sentence. 

• • No additional penalties may be imposed as the rubric itself imposes  penalties. 

3.1 FLYER 
Fundraising for tracksuits 

•  The following aspects should be included, among others:
  • Eye-catching headline or slogan
  • Catchy words and phrases
  • Sufficient details of items for sale
  • Contact person or names of persons doing the fundraising
• The language may be formal or informal but not slang or colloquialism. [20]

3.2 DIARY ENTRIES 
The candidate’s feelings BEFORE and AFTER delivering the acceptance  speech. 

• There must be two diary entries with two different times / dates.
• The entries must express the candidates’ feelings before and after  delivering the acceptance speech to club members.
• The diary entries must be written in the first person.
• The language should be simple and informal.
• The tone must reflect suitable emotions. [20]

3.3 DIRECTIONS 
Directions to the Youth Centre 

• The directions may either be in point or paragraph form. 
• Complete sentences are not necessary.
• Directions must be in the correct chronological order.
• Landmarks, approximate distances and specific directions must be  included. [20] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20 
GRAND TOTAL: 100

SECTION A: RUBRIC FOR ASSESSING ESSAY – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [50 MARKS] 

• Always use the rubric when marking the creative essay (Paper 3, SECTION A).
• The marks from 0–50 have been divided into 5 major level descriptors.
• In the Content, Language and Style criteria, each of the five level descriptors is divided into an upper and a lower level sub-category with the applicable mark range and descriptors.  OStructure is not affected by the upper level and lower level division.

SECTION B: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR LONGER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [30 MARKS]

SECTION C: ASSESSMENT RUBRIC FOR SHORTER TRANSACTIONAL TEXT – FIRST ADDITIONAL LANGUAGE [20 MARKS]