ECONOMICS
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1.  Answer FOUR questions as follows in the ANSWER BOOK: 
   SECTION A: COMPULSORY
   SECTION B: Answer TWO of the three questions.
   SECTION C: Answer ONE of the two questions. 
2. Answer only the required number of questions. Answers in excess of the  required number will NOT be marked. 
3. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
4. Write the question number above each answer. 
5. Read the questions carefully. 
6. Start EACH question on a NEW page. 
7. Leave 2–3 lines between subsections of questions. 
8. Answer the questions in full sentences and ensure that the format, content  and context of your responses comply with the cognitive requirements of  the questions.
9. Use only black or blue ink. 
10. You may use a non-programmable pocket calculator.
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1 30 MARKS – 20 MINUTES 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A–D) next to the question  numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, for example 1.1.9 D. 
1.1.1 The supply curve for the individual firm under perfect conditions  is … sloped. 

1. negatively
2. positively
3. horizontally
4. vertically 

1.1.2 An industry with only two producers controlling the market is known  as a/an … 

1. duopoly.
2. monopoly.
3. oligopoly.
4. tripoly. 

1.1.3 Public goods are provided and funded by … 

1. markets.
2. factories.
3. governments.
4. companies. 

1.1.4 The government can introduce … to increase the mobility of labour. 

1. taxes
2. poverty
3. inflation
4. training programmes 

1.1.5 The South African Reserve Bank is responsible for implementing  … policy. 

1. fiscal
2. domestic
3. monetary
4. foreign trade

1.1.6 People travelling to South Africa from other countries are known  as … tourists. 

1. inbound
2. influx
3. internal
4. outbound 

1.1.7 Global warming is caused by the release of … into the atmosphere. 

1. oxygen
2. carbon dioxide
3. hot air
4. cold air 

1.1.8 The institution that publishes the consumer price index on a  monthly basis is … 

1. the Department of Finance. 
2. the Department of Tourism. 
3. the South African Revenue Services. 
4. Statistics South Africa. (8 x 2) (16)  

1.2 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches the item in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–I) next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.8) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 

1.3 Give ONE term for each of the following descriptions. Write only the term  next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.6) in the ANSWER BOOK.  Abbreviations, acronyms and examples will NOT be accepted. 
1.3.1 Sum of all individual businesses producing a similar kind of product
1.3.2 The wage rate set by government, below which no employer can  pay his/her workers 
1.3.3 The combined cost of goods or services to producers and  consumers and society as a whole 
1.3.4 An extreme increase in price of more than 50% per month 
1.3.5 The type of tourism that involves attending conferences, trade fairs  and exhibitions in other countries 
1.3.6 A variety of plant and animal species found in a particular  environment (6 x 1) (6) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B 
Answer any TWO of the three questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK.
QUESTION 2: MICROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES
2.1 Answer the following questions. 
2.1.1 Give any TWO examples of variable costs. (2 x 1) (2)
2.1.2 How are consumers affected by price leadership? (1 x 2) (2)
2.2 Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

2.2.1 Identify ONE way in the extract in which the banks colluded  regarding the exchange of the dollar for the rand at fixed prices. (1) 
2.2.2 To what kind of market structure does the extract refer? (1)
2.2.3 Briefly describe the term cartel. (2) 
2.2.4 Explain the view of the competition policy on the formation of  cartels. (2) 
2.2.5 How would cartels in the banking sector affect South Africa's foreign trade? (2 x 2) (4)
2.3 Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow. 

2.3.1 What is the equilibrium price in the graph above? (1)   
2.3.2 Identify the quantity of goods above which will be supplied  if a maximum price of R70 is implemented. (1) 
2.3.3 Briefly describe the term market failure. (2) 
2.3.4 Why will a government implement maximum prices of certain  goods? (2) 
2.3.5 Use the graph to explain the impact of maximum prices on the  market. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4 Briefly discuss merit and demerit goods as a cause of market failure. (2 x 4) (8)
2.5 Draw a fully labelled graph to illustrate the long-run equilibrium of the  monopoly. (8) [40] 

QUESTION 3: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES 
3.1 Answer the following questions. 
3.1.1 Name any TWO types of pollution. (2 x 1) (2)
3.1.2 How is a reduction in taxes linked to demand pull inflation? (1 x 2) (2)
3.2 Read the extract below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.2.1 Identify ONE item which low-income earners may struggle to pay  when inflation is high. (1) 
3.2.2 Which phrase in the extract implies a decrease in the quantity of  goods purchased by the consumer? (1) 
3.2.3 Briefly describe the term inflation. (2)
3.2.4 How do the actions of trade unions cause inflation? (2)
3.2.5 How can the government use taxation to combat inflation? (2 x 2) (4)
3.3 Study the cartoon below and answer the questions that follow. 

3.3.1 Identify ONE environmental problem in the cartoon above. (1) 
3.3.2 Identify the phrase in the cartoon that relates to the loss of  biodiversity. (1)   
3.3.3 Briefly describe the term pollution. (2) 
3.3.4 Explain a measure adopted by the international community to deal  with the loss of biodiversity. (2) 
3.3.5 Why is hazardous and chemical waste regarded as harmful to the  environment? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4 Differentiate between the consumer price index (CPI) and the producer price  index (PPI). (2 x 4) (8) 
3.5 How can the government promote South Africa as a tourist destination? (8) [40]

QUESTION 4: MICROECONOMICS AND CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES   40 MARKS – 30 MINUTES  
4.1 Answer the following questions. 
4.1.1 Give any TWO examples of world heritage sites in South Africa. (2 x 1) (2) 
4.1.2 Why is there a high degree of interdependence between firms in an  oligopoly market? (1 x 2) (2) 
4.2 Study the information below and answer the questions that follow.

4.2.1 Give ONE example of monopolistic competition in the information above. (1) 
4.2.2 Identify ONE method in the information above that is used in non price competition. (1) 
4.2.3 Briefly describe the term monopolistic competition. (2) 
4.2.4 How does a monopolistic competitor differ from a perfect  competitor in terms of market information? (2) 
4.2.5 Why do monopolistic competitors achieve only normal profit in  the long run? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3 Study the information below and answer the questions that follow. 

4.3.1 Identify the number of jobs created in the tourism sector in 2016. (1)
4.3.2 What was the general unemployment rate in 2017? (1)
4.3.3 Briefly describe the term tourism. (2) 
4.3.4 Give ONE reason why South Africa is experiencing growth in  tourism. (2) 
4.3.5 Why is the tourism industry successful in creating jobs in South Africa? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4 Briefly discuss the reasons for a cost-benefit analysis (CBA). (4 x 2) (8)
4.5 Advise the governor of the Reserve Bank on how monetary policy could be  used to combat inflation. (8) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
Answer any ONE of the two questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK. Your answer will be assessed as follows: 

QUESTION 5: MICROECONOMICS 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES  

• Discuss in detail, without the use of graphs, the market structure of a perfect  market. (26 marks)
• With the aid of a graph, explain economic loss of the perfect competitor.  (10 marks) [40]   

QUESTION 6: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 40 MARKS – 40 MINUTES  

• Discuss in detail the measures used by government to ensure sustainable  development. (26 marks)
• Evaluate how successful the government has been to conserve and preserve the  environment in South Africa. (10 marks) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1  
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS  
1.1.1 B ✓✓ positively  
1.1.2 A ✓✓ duopoly 
1.1.3 C ✓✓ governments 
1.1.4 D ✓✓ training programmes 
1.1.5 C ✓✓ monetary 
1.1.6 A ✓✓ inbound 
1.1.7 B ✓✓ carbon dioxide 
1.1.8  D ✓✓ Statistics South Africa (8 x 2) (16)
1.2 MATCHING ITEMS  
1.2.1 C ✓ The exclusive right to manufacture a product    
1.2.2 I ✓ A period of production where all factors of production become   variable   
1.2.3 E ✓ A method of building customer loyalty by choosing one product  instead of another    
1.2.4 F ✓ Authorises and prohibits large mergers and takeovers
1.2.5  A ✓ Excludes products with volatile prices 
1.2.6 B ✓ A condition whereby a country experiences low economic  growth, high unemployment and high inflation simultaneously 
1.2.7 D ✓ Spill-over effects of an economic activity on third parties 
1.2.8  G ✓ International agreement to limit the production of greenhouse  gases (8 x 1) (8) 
1.3 GIVE THE TERM  
1.3.1Industry ✓
1.3.2 Minimum wages ✓ 
1.3.3 Social costs ✓ 
1.3.4 Hyperinflation ✓ 
1.3.5 Business ✓ 
1.3.6 Biodiversity ✓ (6 x 1) (6) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B 
Answer any TWO of the three questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK.
QUESTION 2: MICROECONOMICS  
2.1 Answer the following questions. 
2.1.1 Give any TWO examples of variable costs. 

• Wages ✓ 
• Expenditure on raw materials ✓ 
• Water ✓ 
• Electricity ✓ Any (2 x 1) 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
2.1.2 How are consumers affected by price leadership?  

• Consumers will lose out (affected negatively) ✓ if the dominant  firm decides to increase their prices, all other firms do the same ✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)
2.2 DATA RESPONSE 
2.2.1 Identify ONE way, from the extract, in which the banks colluded  in exchanging the dollar for the rand at fixed prices. 

• Making false sales to drive up demand ✓ 
• Agree not to trade for specific periods of time ✓ (1)

2.2.2 What kind of market structure does the extract refer to? 

• Oligopoly ✓ (1) 

2.2.3 Briefly describe the term cartel 

• A group of businesses in an oligopoly that comes together with the  aim of fixing prices ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)    
2.2.4 Explain the view of the competition policy on the formation of  cartels. 

• South Africa does not approve because it is a form of collusion  which is illegal and punishable by law in terms the Competitions Act ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)
2.2.5 How would cartels in the banking sector affect South Africa's  foreign trade?  
South Africa's foreign trade will be affected by:  

• Exports increase due to the depreciation / weakening of the  exchange rate✓✓  
• Exports will decrease if the rand appreciates / strengthening of  the exchange rate✓✓ 
• Imports increasing due to the appreciation of the rand /  strengthening of the exchange rate✓✓  
• Imports decreasing due to the depreciation of the rand /  weakening of the exchange rate✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4)
2.3 DATA RESPONSE 
2.3.1 What is the equilibrium price in the graph above? 

• R120 ✓ (1)   

2.3.2 Identify the quantity of goods above that will be supplied if a  maximum price of R70 is implemented. 

• 50 units ✓ (1)

2.3.3 Briefly describe the term market failure. 

• Market failure occurs when the best available (optimal) production  has not been achieved / when there is allocative and/or productive  inefficiency✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
2.3.4 Why will a government implement maximum prices of certain  goods? 

• To make goods more affordable / give the poor greater access to  certain goods and services / safeguard the interest of the  consumer✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
2.3.5 Use the graph to explain the impact of maximum prices on the  market. 

• At the maximum price at R70 suppliers will reduce the supply  50 ✓ while consumers will increase their demand to 150 ✓ 
• The demand will exceed the supply by 100, therefore creating  a shortage on the market ✓✓ (2 x 2) (4)

2.4 Briefly discuss merit and demerit goods as a cause of market failure.  Merit goods 

• These are goods/services that are deemed necessary or beneficial to the  society✓✓ e.g. education, health care ✓ 
• These goods are highly desirable for general welfare but not highly rated  by the market, therefore provide inadequate output/supply✓✓ 
• If people had to pay market prices for them relatively too little would be  consumed – the market will fail to produce✓✓ 
• The reason for undersupply of merit goods is that the market only takes  the private benefits into account and not the social benefits✓✓ (Max 4)   

Demerit goods 

• These are goods/services that are regarded as bad or harmful for  consumption hence we should use less of these✓✓ e.g. alcohol,  cigarettes ✓ 
• There is an oversupply of demerit goods. Some consumers may be  unaware of the true cost of consuming them✓✓ 
• Demerit goods lead to an increase in social costs, therefore, the  government charges sin tax / excise duties to discourage the consumption  of such goods✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max. 4) (Allocate a maximum of 4 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8)
2.5 Draw a well-labelled graph to illustrate the long run equilibrium of the  monopoly.  

Mark allocation 

• Labelling of axis 1 mark
• Correct sloping and labelling of AR curve 1 mark
• Correct sloping and labelling of MR curve 1 mark
• Correct drawing, labelling and positioning of  AC curve 1 mark
• Correct drawing and labelling of MC curve 1 mark
• Correct indication of profit maximisation point 1 mark
• Correct area of economic profits 2 marks (8) [40] 

QUESTION 3: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES 
3.1 Answer the following questions. 
3.1.1 Name any TWO types of pollution. 

• Land / environmental pollution ✓ 
• Soil pollution ✓ 
• Water pollution ✓ 
• Air pollution ✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 1) (2)
3.1.2 How is reduction in taxes linked to demand pull inflation?  

• It increases household disposable income, therefore aggregate  demand for goods and services increases✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)3.
2 DATA RESPONSE 
3.2.1 Identify ONE item, which low-income earners may struggle to  pay for, when inflation is high. 

• Food ✓ 
• Housing ✓ (1) 

3.2.2 Which phrase in the extract implies a decrease in the quantity  of goods purchased by the consumer?  

• 'purchasing power of the consumer declines' ✓ (1)

3.2.3 Briefly describe the term inflation. 

• Sustained and significant increase in the general price level over a  period of time.✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)
3.2.4 How do the actions of trade unions cause inflation? 

• They often bargain for wage increases that are above the  inflation rate ✓✓ 
• Wage increases demanded by trade unions are often not  linked to productivity ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)
3.2.5 How can government use taxation to combat inflation?  

• Increasing direct taxation leads to a decrease in disposable  incomes and demand such as income tax✓✓ 
• Increasing indirect taxation such as loan levies which will  reduce money supply by making credit more expensive✓✓ 
• Increase surcharges on imported goods will reduce the demand  for these goods✓✓ 

(Accept other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4)
3.3 DATA RESPONSE 
3.3.1 Identify ONE environmental problem in the cartoon. 

• Hazardous waste ✔ 
• Chemical waste ✔ (1)   

3.3.2 Identify the phrase from the cartoon that relates to the loss of  biodiversity. 

• You have killed the plant and animal life ✔ (1)

3.3.3 Briefly describe the term pollution. 

• Introduction of waste or toxic substances into the environment ✔✔ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
3.3.4 Explain a measure adopted by the international community to  deal with the loss of biodiversity. 

• CITES bans commercial international trade in endangered species  of plant and animals ✔✔ (2) 

3.3.5 Why is hazardous and chemical waste regarded as harmful to  the environment?  

• They kill living organisms, therefore causing an imbalance in  the ecosystem ✔✔ 
• They cause infertility in people, animals and plants ✔✔ 

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4)
3.4 Differentiate between the consumer price index (CPI) and the producer  price index (PPI).  

• The CPI measures costs of living while the PPI measures costs of  production ✓✓ 
• The CPI basket consists of consumer goods and services while the PPI  basket consists of goods only ✓✓ 
• In the CPI figures capital and intermediate goods are excluded while in  the PPI, capital and intermediate goods are included ✓✓ 
• The CPI prices include VAT while prices in the PPI excluded VAT✓✓ 
• The CPI does not show prices of imported goods explicitly while in the  PPI prices are shown explicitly ✓✓ 
• The CPI include interest rates while PPI exclude interest rates✓✓  Any (4 x 2) (8) 

3.5 How can the government promote South Africa as a tourist destination?   
The government can promote South Africa as a tourist destination by: 

• improving infrastructure suitable for tourism ✓✓ E.g. transport and  accommodation facilities ✔ 
• developing new tourist attractions sites to cater for even more tastes ✔✔ 
• improving the existing tourist attraction sites for them to stay relevant to  current times ✔✔ 
• reducing the level of crime in the country to make tourists safe at all times  ✔✔ 
• advertising the country as a good tourist destination in variety of local and  international media ✔✔ 
• hosting major international events ✓✓ 
• creating a stable political environment✓✓ 
• promote excellence amongst businesses in the tourism industry by  rewarding them✓✓ 

 (Accept other correct relevant responses) 
 (Allocate a maximum of 2 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples)  (8) [40]

QUESTION 4: MICROECONOMICS AND CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES
4.1 Answer the following questions. 
4.1.1 Give any TWO examples of world heritage sites in South  Africa. 

• Mapungubwe ✓ 
• The Vredefort Dome ✓ 
• The Sterkfontein caves / cradle of human kind / Maropeng ✓ 
• Robben Island ✓ 
• iSimangaliso Wetland ✓ 
• The Cape Fynbos region ✓ 
• uKhahlamba Drakensberg Park ✓ 
• Richtersveld Cultural and Botanical Landscape ✓ (2 x 1) (2) 

4.1.2 Why is there a high degree of interdependence between firms  in an oligopoly market?  

• There are firms that are watching each other closely because the  decisions of one firm influences other firms ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)
4.2 DATA RESPONSE 
4.2.1 Name ONE example of monopolistic competition from the  information. 

• Hairdresser ✓ 
• Fast-food shops ✓ 
• Law firms ✓ (1) 

4.2.2 Identify ONE method used in non-price competition from the  information. 

• Advertising ✓ 
• Packaging ✓ 
• Service ✓ (1)

4.2.3 Briefly describe the term monopolistic competition. 

• It is a market structure with many buyers and sellers where entry is  relatively easy but the product is differentiated ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant responses) (2) 
4.2.4 How does a monopolistic competitor differ from a perfect competitor in terms of market information. 

• Market information in the perfect market is complete ✓ compared to monopolistic competition where market information is incomplete ✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant responses) (2)
4.2.5 Why do monopolistic competitors achieve only normal profit  in the long run? 

• Economic profit of the business in the short term will attract new  producers to the industry in the long term ✓✓ 
• Economic profits will become smaller because prices decrease  due to more supply ✓✓ 
• This process will continue until no more businesses enter the  industry and only a normal profits are earned ✓✓ 
• The long term equilibrium is reached where the AC Curve is  tangent to the demand curve ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3 DATA RESPONSE 
4.3.1 Identify the number of jobs created in the tourism sector in  2016. 

• 1.5 million ✓ (1) 

4.3.2 What was the general unemployment rate in 2017? 

• 27.7 % (1) 

4.3.3 Briefly describe the term tourism 

• The activities of people travelling to and staying in places outside  their usual environment for no more than one consecutive year for  leisure, business or other purposes such as studying ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
4.3.4 Give any reason South Africa is experiencing growth in  tourism. 

• Increase in disposable income ✓✓ 
• Favourable exchange rate ✓✓ 
• Technology, such as internet and television travel shows✓✓ 
• Travel has become a necessity✓✓ 
• An increase in government expenditure on promoting  tourism✓✓ 
• The rich diversities that South Africa has to offer✓✓ 
• More flexible working hours / more leisure time✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)
4.3.5 Why is the tourism industry successful in creating jobs in  South Africa?  

• The industry is labour intensive; therefore, it needs many people  for performing variety of duties ✓✓  
• The services provided requires a mixture of skilled and unskilled  labour ✓✓ 
• As the number of tourists increases, the industry often offers  immediate employment to those who seek jobs ✓✓ (2 x 2)  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (4) 
4.4 Briefly discuss the reasons for a Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) 

• CBA helps to make better decisions on how scarce resources are  allocated to satisfy wants ✓✓ 
• Involves making decisions based on comparing economic benefits with  economic costs of a project ✓✓ 
• The feasibility of the project is determined by subtracting costs from  benefits, if the difference is positive (benefits > costs) then the project  could be undertaken ✓✓  
• Greater objectivity in decision making✓✓ 
• There are no market signals like supply and demand to guide efficient  resource allocation (leads to subjectivity in decision making) ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (4 x 2)
(Allocate a maximum of 4 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8) 
4.5 Advise the governor of the Reserve Bank on how monetary policy could  be used to combat inflation. 
SARB can use monetary policy to combat inflation by: 

• increasing interest rate (repo rate) when inflation is high, therefore making it expensive to borrow money ✓✓ 
• adjusting money supply to match the quantity of goods and services available ✓✓ 
• using open market transactions by selling government bonds, when  banks buy these bonds, money flows to the financial sector and out of  circulation ✓✓ 
• reducing the level of credit by applying stricter lending criteria. 
• increasing the cash reserve requirement, that requires banks to keep  a larger amount of money in reserves ✓✓ 
• applying moral persuasion to the commercial banks to be careful when  giving credit ✓✓ 

(Accept other correct relevant response) 
(Allocate a maximum of 2 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8) [40] 

 TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
Answer any ONE of the two questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK. Your answer will be assessed as follows: 
QUESTION 5: MICROECONOMICS  

• Discuss in detail, without the use of graphs, the market structure of a perfect  market. (26 marks) 
• With the aid of a graph, explain economic loss of the perfect competitor.   (10 marks) [40]   

INTRODUCTION 
Perfect competition occurs when none of the individual market participants can  influence the price of the product ✓✓  
(Accept any other relevant introduction) (Max. 2)
BODY: MAIN PART 
Many buyers and many sellers ✓ 

• The number of buyers in the market structure is so large that individual market  participants are insignificant in relation to the market as a whole. 
• This has the important implication that no individual buyer is able to influence the  market price ✓✓ 
• The number of sellers is so large in the market that the individual seller cannot  influence the market price ✓✓ 

Homogeneous product ✓ 

• All the products sold in the specific market are exactly the same regarding quality,  appearance etc. ✓✓ 
• It makes no difference to a buyer where or from whom he/she buys the product ✓✓ 

Freedom of exit / entry ✓ 

• There is complete freedom of entry and exit / the market is fully accessible ✓✓ 
• Buyers and sellers are completely free to entry or leave the market ✓✓
• Entry is not subjected to any form of restriction, i.e. legal, financial, technological or  other barriers that curtail the freedom of buyers and sellers ✓✓ 

Mobility of factors of production ✓ 

• All factors of production are completely mobile ✓✓ 
• Labour, capital and the other factors of production can move freely from one market  to another ✓✓

Perfect information ✓ 

• Both buyers and sellers have full knowledge of all the prevailing market conditions ✓✓ 
• For example, if one business ventured to raise its price above the market price,  buyers would immediately became aware of it and would switch their purchases to  businesses who still charge the lower price ✓✓ 

No collusion ✓ 

• Collusion between sellers do not occur ✓✓ 
• In a perfectly competitive market, each buyer and seller acts independently from  one another ✓✓ 
• Collusive practices are illegal in South Africa, according to the Competition Act of  1998 ✓✓ 

Unregulated market ✓ 

• There is no government intervention that could affect buyers or sellers ✓✓ 
• Decisions are left to individual sellers and producers ✓✓
• No preferential treatment (no discrimination) ✓
• All buyers and sellers are treated equally ✓✓ 

Free competition✓ 

• Buyers are free to buy whatever they want from any firm and in any quantity✓✓
• Sellers are free to sell what, how much and where they wish✓✓ 

Efficient transport and communication✓ 

• Efficient transport ensures that the products are made available everywhere✓✓
• This implicates that a change in demand and supply in one part of the market will  influence the price in the entire market✓✓ 
• Efficient communication keeps buyers and sellers informed about market  conditions✓✓ 

Profits✓ 

• The perfect competitor can only make economic profit in the short term✓✓ 
• The perfect competitor will make normal profits in the long term✓✓ 

Price Determination✓ 

• The market / industry determine the market price for the individual firm✓✓ 
• Therefore they are price takers✓✓ 
• The demand curve is therefore horizontal✓✓ 

Efficiency✓ 

• Productive / technical efficiency – prevail in a perfect market where production  takes place through the effective utilisation of all the resources resulting in the  highest number of goods and services at least cost✓✓ 
• Allocative efficiency – is reached in perfect market whereby the quantity and type  of goods and services produced are the best for all the consumers ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant responses) 
(A maximum of 8 marks can be allocated for mere listing of facts/examples) (Max. 26)

BODY: ADDITIONAL PART 
Economic Losses

Mark allocation 

• Correct indication of loss minimisation point = 1 mark
• Correct drawing, labelling and positioning of AC curve = 1 mark
• Correct drawing and labelling of MC curve = 1 mark
• Correct drawing and labelling of MR/AR curve = 1 mark
• Correct indication of economic loss area = 2 marks
  Max 6 marks 

• The minimum point of the short-term average cost curve (AC) is higher than the  market price B ✓✓ 
• The business is in equilibrium at point E where MR = MC ✓✓ 
• At the market price B, the firm will produce the quantity 100 ✓✓ 
• At this point, however, total cost exceeds total revenue ✓✓ 
• In view of its cost structure the business is making a loss at point b which is  represented by the area, ABCE ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max. 10)
CONCLUSION 
In reality, no market meet the above conditions, therefore perfect market is theoretical ✓✓ (Max. 2) 
(Accept any other correct relevant higher order conclusion) [40] 

QUESTION 6: CONTEMPORARY ECONOMIC ISSUES  

• Discuss in detail the measures used by government to ensure sustainable  development. (26 marks)
• Evaluate how successful government has been to conserve and preserve the  environment in South Africa. (10 marks) [40]

INTRODUCTION 
Environmental sustainability means the ability of the environment to survive its  economic use for economic activities ✔✔ 
(Accept any other suitable response) (Max. 2)
BODY: MAIN PART 
Granting of property rights ✓ 

• The above has a conservation effect as people take care of things that belong to  them ✔✔ 
• To prevent plant and animals from being extinct, people can be given property  rights over them ✔✔ 
• The plants and animals would then be preserved at little cost to the taxpayer ✔✔ 
• If property rights could be expanded to common goods like clean air, government could charge the polluters for the right to pollute ✔✔ 

Charging for the use of the environment ✓ 

• Consumers and producers pay a monthly fee to the government for the waste they  produce and disposal of it in the environment ✔✔ 
• Consumers pay municipal charges for rubbish collection and sewage disposal ✔✔ 
• Industries might also be levied emission charges and vehicle owners for gas  emissions when they buy new vehicles ✔✔ 
• The charges should be proportional to the waste produced ✔✔ 
• A fixed total charge such as a monthly charge will not encourage waste producers  to reduce waste ✔✔  

Environmental subsidies ✓ 

• Government can provide subsidies to encourage activities that reduce  environmental damage ✔✔ 

Subsidies could be for:  

• Developing a new technique or equipment e.g. to save energy, reduce smoke or to  use environmentally friendly energy such as wind, tide or sun energy ✔✔ • Encouraging the production of environmentally friendly substitutes such as  unleaded petrol ✔✔ 
• Encouraging recycling of wastes such as bottles, cans and cardboard ✔✔  

Environmental taxes/green taxes ✓ 

• This tax will increase the price of the harmful goods and people will look for alternatives, e.g. the levy on tyres ✓✓
• In order to achieve socially efficient output, the rate of tax should be equal to the  marginal external cost ✓✓

Education ✓ 

• People can be made aware of the environmental problems and the importance of  the environment to their survival ✓✓ 
• Households have become conscious of the importance of waste recycling ✓✓ 
• Co-operatives have been established to produce organic foods for the domestic  and international markets, and in so doing have renewed traditional agricultural  systems ✓✓ 

Command and control ✓ 

• CAC measures entail the setting of maximum permitted levels of emission (e.g. CO2) ✓✓ resource use (tons of fish caught) or minimum acceptable levels of environmental quality (in water reserves) ✓✓ 
• Inspectors monitor the activities and impose fines if the legal limits are not  respected ✓✓ 

Voluntary agreements ✓ 

• Instead of regulations, government can enter into voluntary agreements with  enterprises for them to cut pollution ✓✓  
• Businesses prefer voluntary agreements to regulations because they can negotiate  such agreements to suit their own circumstances and build them into their  planning✓✓ 

Marketable permits ✓  

• The government give each business a licence to pollute to a certain degree✓✓ 
• Businesses sell their licences to other businesses✓✓ 
• In South Africa marketable permits are granted by the Department of Minerals and  Energy✓✓ (Max. 26) (Accept any other correct relevant responses) 

(Allocate a maximum of 8 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples)   
ADDITIONAL PART 
South Africa 's conservation and preservation efforts have had mixed results for: 

• A large number of animal species are successfully protected in national parks such  as the Kruger Park ✓✓ This is with the exception of a few species such as  rhinoceros and elephants, which are threatened by poachers ✓✓ 
• Rhinoceros poaching has slightly decreased since 2014 and the trend seemed to continue in 2017. ✓✓ However, the average number (1148) of rhinos killed per year was still very high and this threatens the specie's survival ✓✓ 
• There has been a steady increase in poaching of elephants (as 46 were poached in 2016 compared to 9 in 2015) ✓✓ 
• Botanical gardens are successfully protecting a variety of plant species across the country ✓✓ 
• Zoological gardens are keeping a variety of animal species and ensuring their safety and survival ✓✓ 

(Accept other correct relevant higher order response) (Max.10) 
CONCLUSION 
For environmental sustainability to be achieved there need to be a real commitment  from governments, markets and international communities for changing their actions  against the environment.✓✓  
(Accept other correct relevant higher order response) (Max.2) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ECONOMICS
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A (COMPULSORY) 
QUESTION 1  
1.1 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS  
1.1.1 B - dumping ✓✓ 
1.1.2 A - investments ✓✓ 
1.1.3 D - demand-and-supply side ✓✓ 
1.1.4 C - ad valorem ✓✓ 
1.1.5 C - economic growth ✓✓ 
1.1.6 B - globalisation ✓✓ 
1.1.7 A - employment rate ✓✓ 
1.1.8 D - industrial ✓✓ (8 x 2) (16) 
1.2 MATCHING ITEMS  
1.2.1 E - Approach taken by a country's central bank to influence   spending in the economy ✓ 
1.2.2 I - Proportion of their disposable income that households spend ✓   
1.2.3 A - Compares export prices with import prices by means of  indexes ✓ 
1.2.4 H - Trade policy that promotes the manufacturing of local products  for foreign markets ✓ 
1.2.5 D - Buying and selling of government securities to influence the   money supply ✓ 
1.2.6 G - Strategies used to encourage production ✓ 
1.2.7 C - Removal of trade barriers ✓ 
1.2.8 F - Measures headline inflation ✓ (8 x 1) (8) 
1.3 GIVE THE TERM  
1.3.1 Money ✓ 
1.3.2 Recession ✓
1.3.3 Protectionism ✓ 
1.3.4 Employment Equity ✓
1.3.5 Fiscal ✓
1.3.6 Urbanisation ✓ (6 x 1) (6)

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B 
Answer TWO of the three questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK.
QUESTION 2: MACROECONOMICS  
2.1 Answer the following questions. 
2.1.1 Name any TWO member countries of the BRICS trade protocol. 

• Brazil ✓ 
• Russia ✓ 
• India ✓ 
• China ✓ 
• South Africa ✓ (2 x 1) (2)

2.1.2 How can indirect subsidies benefit the export producer? 
The export producer can benefit by receiving  

• refunds on import tariffs ✓✓ 
• tax rebates / tax concessions ✓✓ 
• production cost will decrease / increased profits ✓✓ 
• increased ability to compete in foreign markets / increased  exports ✓✓ 

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)
2.2 DATA RESPONSE 
2.2.1 Identify the trend line in the business cycle. 

• K ✓ (1)

2.2.2 Which letter represents a trough in the diagram? 

• D ✓ (1)   

2.2.3 Briefly describe the term business cycle.  

• Successive periods of expansion and contraction ✓ in economic  activities ✓ 
  (Accept any other correct relevant description) (2) 

2.2.4 Explain economic activity during phase EF in the business  cycle. 

• Economy is growing and improving rapidly ✓✓  
• More businesses open up and more workers are hired ✓✓ 
• Increased demand for credit which increases interest rates ✓✓ 
• Higher demand and higher prices for capital goods ✓✓ 
• Profits and salaries increase ✓✓ 
• Higher inflation ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
2.2.5 How can the length (BF) be used in forecasting of business  cycles?  

• Because the length remains relatively constant, one can  forecast that the next cycle will be of a similar length ✓✓ 
• If a business cycle has a length of 12 years, it can be predicted  that 12 years will pass between successive peaks or troughs or  that it will take 6 years for the economy to pass through a  recession ✓✓ 
• Longer cycles show strength which will indicate that the next  cycle will also be strong (or vice versa) ✓✓
  (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4) 

2.3 DATA RESPONSE 
2.3.1 Identify the base year currently used by the SARB above. 

• 2010 ✓ (1)   

2.3.2 Which sector contributed most towards the Gross Domestic  Product of South Africa? 

• Tertiary sector ✓ (1) 

2.3.3 Briefly describe the term Gross Value Added (GVA) at constant  prices. 

• GDP where the effect of inflation on the nominal GDP has been  taken into account ✓ and the figure has been changed by deflating  the index ✓ 
  (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 

2.3.4 How would GDP at market prices be converted to GNP at market  prices? 

• GNP = GDP plus primary income from the rest of the world minus  primary income to the rest of the world / GDP plus nett primary income ✓✓  (2)

2.3.5 Calculate the Gross Domestic Product at market prices (A).  (Show all calculations) 

• Gross value added at basic prices     2 794 601
  Plus: Taxes                                       (+) 30 600 ✓ 
  Min : Subsidies                                 (-) 5 900 ✓    
  GDP at market prices                    2 819 301 ✓✓ 
  OR 2 794 601 + 30 600 ✓ – 5 900 ✓ = 2 819 301 ✓✓ (4) 

2.4 Briefly explain the measures to reduce a deficit on the balance of  payments. 

• Borrowing money from the IMF ✓✓ 
• Import substitution will reduce imports of goods because it will be  produced in the country ✓✓ 
• Export promotion will increase in aggregate supply and reduce prices.  Exports are promoted through cheaper prices ✓✓ 
• Higher interest rates help to decrease spending on imports ✓✓ 
• An increase in import tariffs and controls, although SA complies with  policies of the WTO to reduce its import controls.(Trade liberalisation) ✓✓ 
• Exchange control allows central banks to ration foreign exchange ✓✓ 
• Reduction of foreign reserves by SARB to correct deficits if we adopted a  managed floating exchange rate ✓✓ 
• Changes in exchange rate, i.e. currency depreciation/devaluation makes  imports expensive (reduction) and exports cheaper for foreign countries  (increase exports) ✓✓ 
• An increase in tax reduces disposable income which decreases demand  in imports ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response)  
(Allocate a maximum of 4 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (4 x 2) (8)
2.5 Why should South Africa follow a policy of free trade? 
A policy of free trade should be followed by: 

• allowing specialisation which reduces the cost per unit of a product  (economies of scale) ✓✓ 
• improving sales locally and abroad leading to increased profits ✓✓ 
• ensuring a variety of goods which increases the choices of consumers  and increase ]’x✓ 
• accelerating economic growth which promotes greater savings and investment ✓✓ 
• allowing developing countries to take advantage of foreign expertise which may be unavailable domestically ✓✓ 
• promoting increased efficiencies, product improvement and technological advancement ✓✓ 
• promoting competition and improving resource allocation ✓✓ 

(Allocate a maximum of 2 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples)  
(Accept any other correct relevant response) (8) [40] 

QUESTION 3: ECONOMIC PURSUITS  
3.1 Answer the following questions. 
3.1.1 Name any TWO social indicators. 

• Demographics ✓ 
• Nutrition and health ✓ 
• Education ✓ 
• Services ✓ 
• Housing and urbanisation ✓ (2 x 1) (2) 

3.1.2 What can government do during a period of recession to  stimulate the economy?  
The government can  

• apply an expansionary fiscal policy ✓✓ 
• reduce taxes / lower personal income tax ✓✓ 
• increase government spending ✓✓ 
• provide new infrastructure ✓✓ 
• support SMME’s and informal sector activities ✓✓ 

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)
3.2 DATA RESPONSE 
3.2.1 Name ONE vehicle manufacturer, which have production  plants in South Africa.  

• BMW ✓ 
• Ford ✓ 
• Volkswagen ✓ (1) 

3.2.2 Identify ONE advantage of vehicle production plants located in  South Africa in the extract. 

• Diversified manufacturing ✓ 
• Compete in the global economy ✓ 
• Accelerate growth and development ✓ 
• Investment opportunities ✓ 
• Enjoys production advantages ✓ 
• Lead to trade agreements ✓ (1)

3.2.3 Briefly describe the term free trade area. 

• A free trade area is where restrictions such as tariffs and quotas  have been removed ✓✓ (2)

3.2.4 What is the purpose of the Southern African Development  Community? 

• Further socio-economic cooperation and integration as well as  political and security cooperation amongst Southern African states  ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
3.2.5 How could the government address poverty in South Africa  through the manufacturing sector?  
Government could address poverty by: 

• encouraging industrial development through effective industrialpolicies that will encourage labour intensive production  processes ✓✓ 
• contributing in paying direct and indirect subsidies to limit the  cost of production and favour the end consumer (lower prices)  ✓✓ 
• paying concessions to manufacturers to ensure affordable end  products ✓✓ 
• paying incentives to ensure diverse production with a bigger  choice for the consumer ✓✓ 
• creating a positive climate for investment in mostly labour  intensive production processes ✓✓ 
• applying macro-economic policies that encourage production  of a large component of the final product domestically to limit  unemployment ✓✓ 
• supporting the establishment of SMME’s ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4) 
3.3 DATA RESPONSE 
3.3.1 When, according to the graph was unemployment at its  highest level? 

• Second Quarter 2017 ✓ (1)

3.3.2 Which institution compiled the unemployment figures? 

• StatsSA ✓ (1)

3.3.3 Briefly describe the term unemployment. 

• Unemployment refers to those people within the economically  active population who are willing and able to work ✓ but cannot  find a job ✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2)  
3.3.4 What is the negative impact of high unemployment on the  youth? 

• It limits their future growth and development ✓✓ 
• It will discourage them to further their studies or look for decent  employment ✓✓ 
• It will affect their humanity and well-being ✓✓ 

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
3.3.5 How can the government reduce unemployment in the  economy?  
The government can reduce the level of unemployment by 

• applying the skills development programmes to ensure better  remuneration that will stimulate demand and production ✓✓ 
• incentivising business communities to absorb youths and  provide them with relevant training and skills/internships required to utilise the latest technology required in production  processes ✓✓ 
• incentivising youth participation in the economy through taxrebates and tax cuts ✓✓  
• providing employment through the EPWP ✓✓  

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4) 
3.4 Briefly discuss demographics as social indicator.  

• Government and businesses need to know the size of the country's population for their planning (population growth) ✓✓ 
• Governments need to know the infrastructure projects and social programmes they need to invest into as priority ✓✓ 
• Governments and businesses need to know about the availability of labour and the size of the population of their markets ✓✓ 
• Countries populations are counted when census are held according to  different time periods ✓✓ 
• South Africa's population numbers 55 million and it is estimated that it will  grow even more in 2021 ✓✓ 
• Life expectancy expresses the number of years a new-born infant will live  if the prevailing patterns of mortality remains the same throughout his or  her life ✓✓ 
• It is important for governments to know what the average life expectancy is  because working humans require a range of social services and are  simultaneously the tax base for the country ✓✓ 
• The Human Development Index is an indicator of human development  where the standard of living, quality of health care and general standard of  education is considered ✓✓ (4 x 2) 
  (Accept any other correct relevant response)  

(Allocate a maximum of 4 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8)
3.5 How can the monetary policy be used to stimulate the economy of South Africa? 
The monetary policy should be used to stimulate the economy by:  

• decreasing interest rates that will influence credit creation by making  credit cheaper ✓✓ 
• stabilising the exchange rates by encouraging capital inflows in order to  take care of a deficit on the current account of the balance of payments  ✓✓ 
• applying open markets transactions where credit creation is encouraged by the SARB to buy securities in the open market and money as a result  flows into the banking system ✓✓ 
• applying moral suasion where the SARB consults with banks and persuade them to act in a manner that is desirable in terms of the  economic conditions that prevail at the time ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response)  
(Allocate a maximum of 2 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8) [40]

QUESTION 4: MACROECONOMICS AND ECONOMIC PURSUITS 
4.1 Answer the following questions. 
4.1.1 Name any TWO examples of indirect tax. 

• Value added tax (VAT) ✓ 
• Excise duties / sin tax ✓ 
• Custom duties ✓ 
• Fuel levy ✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 1) (2) 
4.1.2 What important role do small, micro and medium enterprises  (SMME's) play in the economy? 

• It acquires and improves business management skills ✓✓ 
• Help to broaden the employment base ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (1 x 2) (2)
4.2 DATA RESPONSE 
4.2.1 According to the extract what was the deficit in the balance of  payments in 2016? 

• R76 bn ✓ (1) 

4.2.2 Identify the term that calculates the difference between goods  imported and goods exported. 

• Balance of trade ✓ (1) 

4.2.3 Briefly describe the term balance of payments. 

• A systematic record of all transactions between one country and  other countries over a particular time period ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
4.2.4 What is the significance of the balance on the current  account? 

• It give an indication whether a country is living within its means (indicates a surplus or a deficit) ✓✓ (2) 

4.2.5 How can a surplus on the balance of payments affect the  South African economy positively? 
The surplus of the balance of payments can affect the economy  positively by 

• reaching the production potential of the country ✓✓ 
• building the reserves of the country due to a surplus ✓✓ 
• investing more in infrastructure ✓✓  
• increased value of the rand ✓✓ 
• attracting more foreign direct investment ✓✓ 
• reducing the tax burden due to less money borrowed to pay off  public debt ✓✓ 
• stimulating economic growth and create job opportunities ✓✓ 

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4)
4.3 DATA RESPONSE 
4.3.1 Which part of the north/south divide is reflected by the small  fishes in the cartoon? 

• The South ✓ (1) 

4.3.2 According to the information above, why is foreign direct  investment (FDI) so important for development in countries? 

• It is of critical importance to fast-track the improvement of  developing countries / used for industrial development ✓ (1)

4.3.3 What is the message in the cartoon? 

• The North - through the mediation of the WTO - is offering the  South (poor-developing countries) financial support, but the South  are sceptical / afraid of the intention of the North ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
4.3.4 How does mass production by developed countries affect the  environment negatively? 

• They are mainly responsible for damage to the ozone layer,  pollution and dumping toxic waste ✓✓ 

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2) 
4.3.5 How are developing countries disadvantaged by a lack of  foreign direct investment?  
Developing countries will be disadvantaged by 

• slow economic growth ✓✓ 
• lack in the growth of employment opportunities / high  unemployment ✓✓ 
• no improvement in the quality of human life ✓✓ 
• a lack of economic integration and development ✓✓ 
• ineffective use of available resources ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) (2 x 2) (4)
4.4 Differentiate between endogenous and exogenous approaches to  business cycles.  

4.5 How effective is productivity as an economic indicator? 
Productivity as an economic indicator is effective by: 

• using a productivity index that shows outputs relative to inputs – the higher  the outputs relative to inputs, the more productive an economic unit ✓✓
• using a more productive economic unit that is more competitive and has a  better chance of being profitable and succeeding ✓✓ 
• forcing productivity to keep up with increases in labour cost, or otherwise it  will lead to a country that is less competitive ✓✓ 
• helping countries to invest in policies that will improve their productivity ✓✓
• focusing more on higher education and training ✓✓ goods market and  labour market efficiency ✓✓ financial market development ✓✓ and  technological readiness in South Africa ✓✓  

(Accept any other correct relevant response) 
(Allocate a maximum of 2 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (8) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
Answer any ONE of the two questions in this section in the ANSWER BOOK.
QUESTION 5: MACROECONOMICS  

• Discuss the macro-economic objectives of the state. (26 marks)
• How successful has the South African government been in reaching its  macro-economic objectives? (10 marks) [40] 

INTRODUCTION 
The government provides goods and services that are under-supplied by the market  and therefore plays a major role in regulating economic activity and guiding and  shaping the economy ✓✓ (Max 2)  

BODY: MAIN PART
Objectives  

• Economic growth ✓
  • Refer to an increase in the production of goods and services ✓✓
  • Measured in terms of real GDP ✓✓
  • For economic growth to occur, the economic growth rate must be higher than  population growth ✓✓
  • Growth and development in a country benefit its citizens because it often leads  to a higher standard of living ✓✓ 

• Full employment ✓
  • It is when all the people who want to work, who are looking for a job must be  able to get a job ✓✓
  • High levels of employment is the most important economic objective of the  government ✓✓
  • The unemployment rate increased over the past few years ✓✓
  • Informal sector activities must be promoted because it is an area where  employment increase ✓✓ 

• Exchange rate stability ✓
  • The economy must be managed effectively and effective fiscal and monetary  policy must be used to keep the exchange rate relatively stable ✓✓
  • Depreciation and appreciation of the currency create uncertainties for producers  and traders and should be limited ✓✓
  • The SARB changed the exchange rate from a managed floating to a free  floating exchange rate ✓✓ 

• Price stability ✓
  • Stable price causes better results in terms of job creation and economic growth  ✓✓
  • The government's inflation target is 3% - 6% and they are successful in keeping  inflation within this target ✓✓
  • Interest rates, based on the repo rate are the main instruments used in the  stabilisation policy ✓✓
  • The stable budget deficit also has a stabilizing effect on the inflation rate ✓✓

• Economic equity ✓
  • Redistribution of income and wealth is essential to reduce poverty ✓✓
  • South Africa uses a progressive income tax system where the higher income  earners pay more tax ✓✓
  • Taxation on profits, taxation on wealth, capital gains tax and taxation on spending, are used to finance free services ✓✓
  • Free social services are basic education; primary health and financing basic  economic services ✓✓
  • Cash grant to the poor/vulnerable, for example child grants and disability grants  ✓✓
    (Max. 26) (Accept any other correct relevant response) 

(Allocate a maximum of 8 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) 
BODY: ADDITIONAL PART  

• Learner responses can be positive or negative  
• Follow the argument and see if the candidate can produce enough evidence to  support his/her answer    

The government is successful in reaching these goals by: 

• reducing unemployment through the EPWP. If it was not for the programme, the  unemployment rate would have been even higher ✓✓
• managing to keep inflation within the 3–6% target ✓✓ 
• improving economic equity (BEE through affirmative action, gender equity) ✓✓
• operating on a free floating exchange rate system in line with international  benchmarks ✓✓ 

The government is not successful in reaching its goals through: 

• a decreasing economic growth rate; in the last 5 years the average real gross  domestic product growth has been below 2% ✓✓
• increasing unemployment rates - unemployment rate have increased to 27.7 in  2017 which was the highest since 2009 ✓✓
• fluctuating value of the rand - in the past 5 years the value of the rand fluctuated  against the major trading partners' currencies ✓✓
• BEE only benefitting a few individuals due to corruption and misrepresentations  such as fronting ✓✓  

 (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Any 5 x 2) (Max.10) 
CONCLUSION: 
While government has achieved some successes, the fulfilments of some of the  objectives are compromised by factors like lack of accountability, corruption,  budgeting, nepotism and incompetence ✓✓ 
(Accept any other correct and relevant higher order response) (Max. 2) [40]

QUESTION 6: ECONOMIC PURSUITS  

• Discuss in detail the following as South Africa's initiatives in regional  development: 
  • Special Economic Zones (8)
  • Corridors (8)
  • Spatial Development Initiatives (10) (26 marks) 
• How effective is South Africa's regional development policies in terms of  international benchmarking? (10 marks) [40]

INTRODUCTION 
This is the promotion of economic development in areas where poverty, unemployment  and income inequality are high in order to uplift them ✓✓  
(Accept any other correct relevant introduction) Max (2)
BODY: MAIN PART  
SPECIAL ECONOMIC ZONES (SEZ's) 

• These are geographical areas of a country set aside for specifically targeted economic activities ✓✓ 
• These activities are supported through special arrangement that may include laws and support systems that promote industrial development ✓✓ 
• They are meant to expand the manufacturing sector ✓✓ 
• Create additional industrial hubs so that the national industry base will be regionally  diversified ✓✓ 
• These areas may enjoy incentives such as tax relief and support systems to  promote industrial development ✓✓ 
• There are plans to reduce tax to 15% as an incentive to attract new industries ✓✓ 
• The aim of creating SEZ is to attract : 
  • only new business ✓
  • business which are developing a new product line ✓ 
  • business which are expanding their volume ✓
• The DTI has indicated that the existing IDZs where special tax incentives do not  apply, would be graduated into SEZs ✓✓ 
• It creates a basis for a broader range of industrial parks and provide economic   infrastructure to promote employment ✓✓ (Max 8) 

CORRIDORS 

• Corridors in South Africa are spatial areas that offer specific advantages to mining, manufacturing and other businesses ✓✓ 
• The advantages also include the presence of existing infrastructure and the  specialisation of products or services ✓✓ 
• These corridors are development areas within South Africa and are the  development priorities of all development agencies ✓✓ 
• The DTI provides help in support of the development corridors ✓✓ 
• the Maputo corridor, that starts in Gauteng and extends through Mpumalanga to  the Maputo port, offers opportunity to the transport industry or the Phalaborwa sub corridor in the Limpopo Province offers opportunities for mining and related  activities ✓✓ (Max 8)

SPATIAL DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES (SDI's)  

• This is an area with high levels of unemployment and poverty that has been  identified by the government for a co-ordinated effort to develop the economic  potential of the area ✓✓ 
• The area chosen for an SDI must be under-developed and have the potential for  sustainable growth ✓✓ 
• The development focuses on high level support in areas where socio-economic  conditions need concentrated government assistance ✓✓ 
• These initiatives help to spread economic activities equally in the country ✓✓ 
• All investment is based on public-private partnerships ✓✓ 
• It is a government strategy of investment that involves the department of trade and industry (DTI) and transport (DoT) ✓✓ 
• It focuses on government attention across national, provincial and local government  levels to ensure that investment are fast-tracked ✓✓ and that the maximum synergy  between the various types of investments ✓✓ 
• These projects are expected to create new jobs well into the future ✓✓ 
• The success of these projects relies on a strong move towards international competitiveness, regional cooperation and a more diversified ownership base ✓✓ 
  (Accept any other correct relevant response) (Max 10)
    (Allocate a maximum of 8 marks for the mere listing of facts/examples) (Max 26)  

ADDITIONAL PART 
South Africa’s regional development policies is effective in complying with  international benchmarks by: 

• effectively managing strategies free of corruption through good governance ✓✓
• effectively integrating between different areas by means of spill-over benefits to  other industries ✓✓ 
• building partnerships between central government, local authorities, civil society  and special interest groups and the private sector ✓✓ 
• providing sufficient resources in resource-poor areas e.g. infrastructure ✓✓ 
• establishing competitive businesses not in need of ongoing financial aid from  government ✓✓ 
• involving people from the region in training, education, improving productivity and  providing essential goods and services to the region ✓✓ 
• concentrating on issues at grass roots level, to ensure that development starts  from below ✓✓ 
• focusing on total development covering all human life, e.g. education, health and  nutrition ✓✓ (Max 10)
  (Accept any other correct relevant higher order response)  

(Marks should be awarded if development policies do not comply with benchmarks)
CONCLUSION 
Economic decentralisation would guarantee that greater emphasis of the development  of the country and comprehensive use of resources are used effectively for the  improvement of the well-being of the country ✓✓ (Max 2)
(Accept any other correct relevant higher order response) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMSELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS TO MARKERS 

1.  All questions with multiple answers imply that any relevant, acceptable  answer should be considered. 
2. Calculations:
   2.1 All calculations must show the formula/e
   2.2 Substitution of values must be done correctly
   2.3 All answers MUST contain the correct unit to be considered
   2.4 Alternative methods must be considered, provided that the same  answer is obtained
   2.5 Where an erroneous answer could be carried over to the next step,  the first answer will be deemed incorrect. However, should the  incorrect answer be carried over correctly, the marker has to re calculate the values, using the incorrect answer from the first  calculation. If correctly used, the learner should receive the full  marks for subsequent calculations
3. The memorandum is only a guide with model answers. Alternative  interpretations must be considered, and marked on merit. However, this  principle should be applied consistently throughout the marking session at  ALL marking centres.

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1: OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY 
1.1 The type of work done in an electrical technology workshop requires the  correct intensity of light because good visibility ✔ is crucial in performing  work, e.g. soldering work, panel wiring, measuring electrical quantities and  for safety requirements. ✔ (2) 
1.2 Dangerous practices are processes✔ or activities that have some form of  inherent ✔risk or hazard when performed and may lead to serious injuries or  even death. (2) 
1.3

• Be calm. ✔ 
• Assess the situation✔
• Call the emergency services
• Report the injuries to appropriate authority
• Administer first aid and CPR (2) 

1.4 Workers infected with HIV tend to be absent from work regularly due to  illness✔ because of their weakened immune system and this impacts  negatively on productivity. ✔ (2) 
1.5 It is ethically correct to report a person who is working under the influence of  medication that may lead to drowsiness because the person may place  himself/herself and other persons in danger while operating the machinery. ✔ The person may also cause damage to the machinery.✔ therefore no person  may enter or remain in a workplace under the influence of medications. (2) [10] 

QUESTION 2: THREE-PHASE AC GENERATION 
2.1

• Single phase generate less power ✔
• It can supply power to single phase load only ✔
• Single phase is more expensive to generate power (2) 

2.2 Three coils are placed at 1200 relative to each other.✔ When these coils are  rotated anti-clockwise they cut the magnetic field lines which induce the emfs of the same frequency and magnitude in these coils.✔ The induced emfs are  at 1200 out of phase with each other. ✔ (3) 
2.3
2.3.1 

I_PH = V_PH ✔
         Z_PH  
 = 220
     16 
= 13,75 A ✔ ✔ (3)

2.3.2 

P = I²Z
 =13,75² × 16
= 3025 W 
= 3,025 kW ✔ (3) 

2.4
2.4.1

• By connecting an appropriate capacitor in parallel with the load ✔
• By connecting synchronous motors in parallel with the load (1) 

2.4.2

• Less current will be drawn from the supply ✔
• Cost saving from drawing less current ✔
• Less heat will be generated as a results there will be fewer losses (2) 

2.5
2.5.1 Input power to the load 

P= P₁ + P₂ + P₃✔ 
= 8000 + 4000 + (-460) 
= 11,54 kW ✔ ✔ (3) 

2.5.2 Power dissipated  = ✔ 

P = √3V_LI_LCos θ 
I_L =          11540        
       √3 × 380 × 0,8
 =  21,92 A ✔ (3) [20]

QUESTION 3:THREE-PHASE TRANSFORMERS 
3.1
3.1.1

• Core type transformer ✔
• Shell type transformer ✔ (2) 

3.1.2

• The iron core of transformers is laminated to reduce circulating eddy  currents in the core✔
• which generate losses in the form of heat. (1) 

3.2 When an alternating voltage is connected to the primary windings, a  magnetising current will flow, ✔and an alternating magnetic field is set up in  the core. ✔ This alternating magnetic field links with the secondary windings,  and an emf is induced in the secondary windings ✔ (3) 
3.3

• Same voltage and turns Ratio (both primary and secondary voltage rating is  same) ✓
• Same KVA ratings✓
• Same frequency rating 
• Same polarity 
• Similar impedance (2) 

3.4

• It improves the insulation qualities of the windings ✔
• It cool-down the temperature rise due to heat generated in the transformer  during its circulation process. (1) 

3.5
3.5.1 

V_L = √3 × V_PH ✔ 
= √3 × 220✔ 
= 381,05 V ✔ (3) 

3.5.2 

S = √3 × V_L × I_L
I_L =         S                         I_PH = I_L ✔
         √3 × V_L                       ∴ = 454,55 A 
=      300000   
    √3 × 381,05 
= 454,55 A ✔ (5) 

3.5.3 

P = SCos θ  ✔ 
= 300000 × 0,8 ✔ 
= 240 kW ✔ 
or 
P = √3V_LI_LCos θ  
= √3 × 381,05 × 454,55 × 0,8 ✔
= 240 kW (3) [20] 

QUESTION 4: THREE-PHASE MOTORS AND STARTERS 
4.1
4.1.1 It houses the bearings that hold the rotor axis ✔ (1) 
4.1.2 The purpose of the cooling fins is to dissipate generated heat to the  outside of the motor ✔ (1) 
4.1.3

• It houses the end wires of the three coils and earth ✔ (1)
• It is used to connect the supply to the motor 

4.2

• High starting torque ✔
• Can be connected in star or delta ✔
• Wide range of application ✔
• Higher efficiency 
• They are self-starting (3)

4.3
4.3.1 Synchronous speed of the motor. 

n_s = 60 × f 
            p 
= 60 × 50  ✔ 
       2 
=  1500 RPM ✔ (3) 

4.3.2 Rotor speed of the motor. = ✔ 

n_r = n_s(1-S) 
= 1500(1- 0,04)
= 1440 RPM ✔ ✔ (3) 

4.4
4.4.1 

P = √3 × V_L × I_L × Cos θ × η 
= √3 × 380 × 15 × 0,8 × 0,9 ✔ 
= 7,108 kW ✔(3) 

4.4.2 The supply current will be less✓ for the same output power. ✓ (2) 
4.5
4.5.1

• The start button normally is open and spring loaded, ✔when it is  pressed and released, the main contact (MC1) will energise, ✔closing MC1(N/O) ✔and current will flow through it which will enable  the circuit to operate ✔until the normally closed stop button is  pressed. (4) 

4.5.2 The two motors are running, ✔because the MC1 (N/O), MC2 (N/O) ✔ and T (N/O) are closed. ✔ (3) 
4.5.3 The overload relays are connected to each motor so that each motor  can be disconnected from the supply✔ the moment the current in  that motor exceed the value that the overload is specifically  designed for ✔without affecting the running of the other motor. ✔ (3)  
4.5.4 When the start button is pressed, the MC1 will be energised, ✔ closing MC1 (N/O1) and MC1 (N/O2) and Motor 1 will run. ✔ Timer  contact (T) will also be energised and after pre-determined time T  (N/O) will close ✔and Motor 2 will run. ✔Both motors can be  stopped by pressing the stop button. (4)
4.5.5 Conveyer belt (1) 
4.6 Check the: 

• shaft bearings for smooth movement ✔ 
• motor housing for cracks ✔ 
• end plates for proper even fastening✔ 
• cooling fan blades 
• protection cover over the fan (3) 

4.7 The motor cannot be used✔ because there is continuity between winding U  and W ✔due to damaged insulation of the two windings ✔ which will result in  a short circuit and further burning of wires. (3) 
4.8 The function of the zero volt coil is to switch off the supply to the circuit✔ in  the event of power failure. ✔ and when the power is restored, the system will  remain off until it is re-started. (2) [40]

QUESTION 5: RLC 
5.1

• Frequency ✔
• Inductance ✔
• Capacitance ✔ (3)

5.2
5.2.1 The power factor is lagging✔ (1) 
5.2.2 

Cos θ = R
             Z
but Z = √R² + (X_L - X_C)²
= √20² + (60 - 35)²
= 32,02 Ω ✔ 
 therefore Cos θ  =  20  
                             32,02
= 0,62 ✔ (5) 

5.2.3 The Q factor will be halved✔ because the Q factor is inversely  proportional to the resistance of the circuit✔. The doubling of the  inductance and capacitance as a ratio will have no effect on the Q factor.✔ (3) 
5.3 At resonance, the impedance of the circuit is at a minimum and hence the  current is at a maximum.✔ When there is a change in frequency from  resonance, the impedance will increase ✔ causing the current to decrease.✔ (2) 
5.4
5.4.1 (3) 

5.4.2 

Ir  = E
       R 
= 240
    20 
= 12 A ✔ ✔ (3) [20]

QUESTION 6: LOGIC
6.1
6.1.1  (1)

6.1.2 (1) 

6.2 Relay logic✔ (1) 
6.3

• Laptop✔
• Handheld device
• Desktop computer
• PLC interface (1) 

6.4

• High power SCRs or Triacs✔
• Solid state relays (1) 

6.5 A series of instructions✔ written in ladder logic/function block or instruction list  that is used to control the operation of a PLC.✔ (2) 
6.6

• Function block diagram✔
• Instruction list✔ (2) 

6.7
6.7.1 A timer is a function in PLC programs that waits for a predetermined  time✔ before executing a certain programmed function.✔ (2) 
6.7.2 Markers are registers in the memory used to store information until  needed by the program.✔ Markers are also used to retain  information from the end one rung to the beginning of the next rung of  a program. ✔ (2) 
6.8 It would reduce the complexity of the ladder program✔ and the reaction and  execution time would be quicker✔ with a smaller program. (2) 
6.9 (6) 
6.10 (6) 
6.11 (8)
6.12 (5)

QUESTION 7: AMPLIFIERS 
7.1
7.1.1 Negative feedback is when a portion of the output is fed back to the  input✔ and is 180º out of phase with the input✔ (2) 
7.1.2 The bandwidth refers to the range of frequencies✔ that the op amp  can operate without distortion (linearly)✔ (2) 
7.2
7.2.1 (4) 
7.2.2

• Threshold detector✔
• Voltage level detector (1)

7.3 Oscillator circuits✔ (1) 
7.4 (2) 
7.5
7.5.1 Summing amplifier circuit✔ (1) 
7.5.2

• Audio mixer✔
• Temperature measurement (1) 

7.5.3 (3) 
(All values in kilo ohm) 
7.6
7.6.1 By replacing the feedback capacitor✔ with a feedback resistor✔ (2)
7.6.2  (4)
7.7
7.7.1

• Audio oscillators✔ 
• Electronic organs (1)

7.7.2 (3) 
7.7.3 (3) 
7.8 (4) 
7.9 (3) 
7.10 (5) 

7.11 (5) 
7.12
7.12.1 used as a buffer ✔ (1) 
7.12.2 Used for isolation ✔ because of its high input impedance and low  output impedance ✔ (2) [50] 

TOTAL: 200

ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of SEVEN questions.
2. Answer ALL the questions. 
3. Sketches and diagrams must be large, neat and fully labelled. 
4. Show ALL calculations and round off answers correctly to TWO decimal  places. 
5. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in  this question paper.
6. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
7. Show the units for ALL answers of calculations. 
8. A formula sheet is provided at the end of this question paper. 
9. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY 
1.1 Explain the importance of having the correct light intensity in an electrical  technology workshop. (2) 
1.2 With reference to the workshop, explain the term dangerous practices. (2)
1.3 State TWO actions that take priority in a medical emergency. (2)
1.4 Describe how HIV/Aids can affect productivity in the workplace. (2) 
1.5 Explain why it is ethically correct to report a person who is working under the  influence of strong medication that causes drowsiness. (2) [10] 

QUESTION 2: THREE-PHASE AC GENERATION 
2.1 State TWO disadvantages of single-phase power generation. (2)
2.2 Describe how an emf is induced in the coils of a three-phase AC system. (3) 
2.3 A delta-connected alternator generates 220 V per phase. Each phase has an  impedance of 16 Ω.  
Given: 

V_PH = 220 V 
Z_PH = 16 Ω 

Calculate the: 
2.3.1 Current flowing in each phase (3)
2.3.2 Power dissipated per phase (3)
2.4 With reference to power factor correction, answer the questions that follow. 
2.4.1 Name ONE method that can be employed to improve the power factor  of a system. (1) 
2.4.2 Give TWO reasons for improving the power factor of a system. (2) 
2.5 The three-wattmeter method is used in a three-phase supply system to  determine the power delivered to a three-phase, star-connected inductive  load. The load has a power factor of 0,8 lagging. The readings on the  wattmeters are 8 kW, 4 kW and - 460 W respectively. The supply voltage is 380 V. 
Given: 

P₁ = 8 kW 
P₂ = 4 kW 
P₃ = - 460 W 
p.f. = 0,8 lagging  
V_L = 380 V 

Calculate the: 
2.5.1 Total input power delivered to the load (3) 
2.5.2 Current drawn by the load (3) [20]

QUESTION 3: THREE-PHASE TRANSFORMERS 
3.1 With reference to the construction of transformers, answer the questions that  follow. 
3.1.1 Name TWO types of transformer construction. (2)
3.1.2 State why the iron core of transformers is laminated. (1)
3.2 Describe how an emf is induced in the secondary winding of a transformer. (3) 
3.3 State TWO requirements that must be met before three single-phase  transformers are connected to form a three-phase transformer. (2) 
3.4 State the function of the oil in oil-filled transformers. (1) 
3.5 A three-phase 300 kVA step-down transformer has a star-connected  secondary with a phase voltage of 220 V. 

FIGURE 3.5: THREE-PHASE TRANSFORMER 
Given: 

S = 300 kVA 
V_PH = 220 V 
p.f. = 0,8 lagging 

Calculate the: 
3.5.1 Secondary line voltage (3)
3.5.2 Maximum allowable secondary phase current (5) 
3.5.3 Maximum output power at a power factor of 0,8 lagging (3) [20]

QUESTION 4: THREE-PHASE MOTORS AND STARTERS 
4.1 With reference to the construction of motors, state the functions of the  following parts of the motor: 
4.1.1 Endplates (1)
4.1.2 The cooling fins (1)
4.1.3 The terminal box (1) 
4.2 State THREE advantages of three-phase motors. (3) 
4.3 A 12 pole, three-phase induction motor is connected across a 380 V, 50 Hz  supply. The motor has a slip of 0,04. 
Given: 

VL = 380 V 
Slip = 0,04  
f = 50 Hz 
 ∴p=2 pole pairs per phase 
No. of poles =12 poles 

Calculate the: 
4.3.1 Synchronous speed of the motor (3)
4.3.2 Rotor speed of the motor (3) 
4.4 A three-phase star-connected motor draws a current of 15 A when connected  to a 380 V, 50 Hz supply. The motor has a power factor of 0,8 with an  efficiency of 90%. 
Given: 

V_L = 380 V 
p.f = 0,8 
I_L = 15 A 
ŋ = 90% 

Answer the following questions. 
4.4.1 Calculate the power of the motor at full load. (3) 
4.4.2 Describe how the current drawn by the motor will be affected if the  power factor of the motor is improved. (2)
4.5 The control circuit of a motor starter is shown in FIGURE 4.5 below. Study the  circuit diagram and answer the questions that follow. 

FIGURE 4.5: CONTROL CIRCUIT OF  AN AUTOMATIC SEQUENCE STARTER 
4.5.1 Explain why the normally open hold-in contact MC1 (N/O1) is  connected in parallel with the start button. (4) 
4.5.2 State, with a reason, whether the two motors are running. (3)
4.5.3 Explain the relevance of using two overload relays in the circuit. (3)
4.5.4 Describe how the starter achieves its function. (4)
4.5.5 State ONE application of the automatic sequence starter. (1) 
4.6 List THREE mechanical inspections that must be carried out on an induction  motor before putting it into service. (3)
4.7 FIGURE 4.7 below shows the terminal box of a three-phase induction motor.  The resistance measured between the terminals is shown in the diagram.  Explain, with reasons, if the motor is operational. 

FIGURE 4.7: TERMINAL BOX (3) 
4.8 State the function of the zero volt coil in a motor starter (2) [40]

QUESTION 5: RLC 
5.1 State THREE factors that affect the impedance of an RLC circuit. (3)
5.2 Refer to the circuit in FIGURE 5.2 below and answer the questions that follow. 

FIGURE 5.2: SERIES CIRCUIT 
Given: 

R = 20 Ω 
X_L = 60 Ω 
X_C = 35 Ω 
V_S = 240 V 
f = 50 Hz 

5.2.1 State whether the power factor of the circuit is leading or lagging. (1)
5.2.2 Calculate the power factor of the circuit. (5) 
5.2.3 Explain what will happen to the Q factor of an RLC series circuit  if R, L and C are doubled. (3) 
5.3 An RLC series circuit is at resonance. Describe what will happen to the  current in the circuit if the frequency is decreased below resonant frequency. (2) 
5.4 Refer to the circuit diagram in FIGURE 5.4 below and answer the questions  that follow. 

FIGURE 5.4 
Given: 

C = 0,0147 µF 
L = 0,5 mH 
R = 20 Ω 
V_S = 240 V 
f = 50 Hz 

Calculate the: 
5.4.1 Frequency at which the circuit will resonate (3) 
5.4.2 Current flowing through the resistor at resonance (3) [20] 

QUESTION 6: LOGIC 
6.1 Draw the symbol of EACH of the following, when using ladder logic with  respect to programmable logic controllers (PLC): 
6.1.1 An input device (1)
6.1.2 Relay or other device used as an output (1)
6.2 Name the logic system that was replaced by PLCs. (1)
6.3 Name ONE programming device used to program a PLC. (1) 
6.4 Magnetic relays are still used to switch high-current devices on or off.  Recommend ONE other device that could be used to switch high-current  devices using PLCs. (1) 
6.5 Explain the term program with respect to a PLC. (2) 
6.6 Name TWO programming languages, other than ladder logic, used to  program PLCs. (2) 
6.7 Describe the functions of the following: 
6.7.1 Timer function (2)
6.7.2 Marker (2) 
6.8 Explain why a Boolean expression must be simplified before it is converted to  a ladder program. (2) 
6.9 Draw the logic gate diagram that will represent the following Boolean  expression: 
(6)
6.10 Simplify the following expression using Boolean algebra: (Show ALL steps.) 
(6) 
6.11 Simplify the Boolean expression below by using a four-variable Karnaugh  map: 
(8)
6.12 Refer to the circuit in FIGURE 6.12 below and draw the ladder logic diagram  that will execute the same function in a PLC system. 

FIGURE 6.12: DIRECT-ON-LINE CONTROL CIRCUIT (5) [40]

QUESTION 7: AMPLIFIERS 
7.1 Describe the following terms with reference to operational amplifiers:
7.1.1 Negative feedback (2)
7.1.2 Bandwidth (2) 
7.2 FIGURE 7.2 below shows a non-inverting voltage comparator and the  input voltage. 

FIGURE 7.2 
7.2.1 Redraw the input voltage and directly below it draw the output voltage  wave form if the reference voltage is set at 2 V. (4) 
7.2.2 State ONE application of the operational amplifier in FIGURE 7.2. (1)
7.3 Name the type of op amp circuit that uses positive feedback. (1) 
7.4 Refer to FIGURE 7.4 below and draw the output of an ideal operational  amplifier 

FIGURE 7.4: OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER (2)
7.5 Refer to the circuit in FIGURE 7.5 below and answer the questions that follow. 2 kΩ  

FIGURE 7.5: OP AMP CIRCUIT 
7.5.1 Identify the circuit in FIGURE 7.5. (1)
7.5.2 State ONE application of the circuit. (1) 
7.5.3 Calculate the amplitude of the output voltage if V1 has an amplitude of  0,5 V, V2 = 0,2 V and V3 = 0,2 V, all at the same frequency. (3)
7.6 Refer to FIGURE 7.6 below and answer the questions that follow.

FIGURE 7.6: INTEGRATOR OP AMP CIRCUIT 
7.6.1 Explain how the integrator circuit in FIGURE 7.6 can be changed to  operate as an inverting operational amplifier. (2) 
7.6.2 Draw and label the given input waveform and, in line directly below it,  draw the output waveform. (4)
7.7 Refer to the circuit in FIGURE 7.7 below and answer the questions that follow. 

FIGURE 7.7: RC PHASE-SHIFT OSCILLATOR CIRCUIT 
Given: 

R₁ = R₂ = R₃ = 8 kΩ 
C₁ = C₂ = C₃ = 275 x 10-12 F 

7.7.1 State ONE application of the oscillator. (1)
7.7.2 Calculate the oscillating frequency of the oscillator. (3)
7.7.3 Redraw FIGURE 7.7.3 below in the ANSWER BOOK and draw the  waveform represented at points a, b and c (in FIGURE 7.7 on page  15) with reference to the output. 

FIGURE 7.7.3 (3) 
7.8 FIGURE 7.8 below shows the input to an inverting Schmitt trigger. Redraw the  input wave and directly below it draw the output from the Schmitt trigger.   

FIGURE 7.8 (4)
7.9 Calculate the resonating frequency of a Hartley oscillator consisting of two  coils of 30 mH each and a capacitor of 0,35 µF. 
Given: 

L₁ = 30 mH 
L₂ = 30 mH 
C₂ = 0,35 µF (3) 

7.10 FIGURE 7.10 below shows a Colpitts oscillator circuit. Calculate the oscillation  frequency of an operational Colpitts oscillator when an inductor of 2,6 H is  connected in parallel with a series-connected combination of a 30 nF and  60 nF capacitor. 

FIGURE 7.10: COLPITTS OSCILLATOR 
Given: 

L = 2,6 H 
C₁ = 30 nF 
C₂ = 60 nF (5)

7.11 With reference to FIGURE 7.11(a) below, draw the input wave form shown in  FIGURE 7.11(b) and the output wave form directly below it. 

FIGURE 7.11(a) 

FIGURE 7.11(b) (5) 
7.12 Answer the following questions with reference to a voltage follower. 
7.12.1 State the application of the voltage follower when used between two  circuits. (1) 
7.12.2 Explain why the voltage follower is used between two circuits. (2) [50] 

TOTAL: 200

DRAMATIC ARTS
GRADE 12  
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR sections: 
   SECTION A: 20th Century Theatre Movements (30)
   SECTION B: South African Theatre: 1960–1994 (40)
   SECTION C: South African Theatre: Post-1994–Contemporary (40)
   SECTION D: The History of Theatre, Practical Concepts, Content and Skills (40) 
2. SECTION A
   QUESTION 1 is COMPULSORY.
   Refer to the play text you have studied and its relevant 20th Century Theatre  Movement.
   EPIC THEATRE 
   • Caucasian Chalk Circle Bertolt Brecht
   • Kaukasiese Krytsirkel Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
   • Mother Courage Bertolt Brecht
   • Moeder Courage Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
   • The Good Person of Szechwan Bertolt Brecht 
   • Kanna Hy Kô Hystoe Adam Small
     OR
     THEATRE OF THE ABSURD
   • Waiting for Godot Samuel Beckett
   • Afspraak met Godot Translation of Samuel Beckett play text
   • Bagasie André P Brink
   • The Bald Primadonna Eugene Ionesco 
   • Die Kaalkop Primadonna Translation of Eugene Ionesco play text
     OR
     POSTMODERN THEATRE
   • Skrapnel Willem Anker
   • Top Girls Carol Churchill
   • Popcorn Ben Elton
   • Buried Child Sam Shepard 
3. SECTION B 
   This section consists of THREE questions. Answer only ONE question in  this section. 
   QUESTION 2: Woza Albert! Percy Mtwa, Mbongeni Ngema and  Barney Simon OR
   QUESTION 3: Sophiatown Junction Avenue Theatre Company OR
   QUESTION 4: Siener in die Suburbs PG du Plessis 
4. SECTION C
   This section consists of THREE questions. Answer only ONE question in  this section. 
   QUESTION 5: Nothing but the Truth John Kani OR
   QUESTION 6: Groundswell Ian Bruce OR
   QUESTION 7: Missing Reza de Wet 
5. SECTION D 
   This section consists of one question (QUESTION 8) which is COMPULSORY.

QUESTIONS

SECTION A: 20th CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
This section is COMPULSORY. 
QUESTION 1 
Study SOURCE A below and answer the question that follows. 
SOURCE A 

Evaluate, in an essay, how the play text and the 20th Century Theatre Movement that  you studied this year reflect any of the quotations above. 
The content of your essay must include the following: 

• The 20th Century Theatre Movement you studied:
  • Theatre of the Absurd OR Epic Theatre OR Postmodern Theatre
• The quotation(s) you selected from SOURCE A 
• Specific examples from the play text you studied which support your answer.

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE: 1960–1994 
Answer only ONE question in this section. 
QUESTION 2: WOZA ALBERT! BY PERCY MTWA, MBONGENI NGEMA AND  BARNEY SIMON 
Study SOURCE B below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE B

2.1 Explain what the 'pink noses' (line 1) refer to in the play. (2) 
2.2 Suggest why the creators of Woza Albert! chose to use the real names of  actors in the play. (2) 
2.3 Describe how you might stage lines 3 to 5 in SOURCE B. Refer to the  following: 

• Use of voice and body 
• Use of performance space/blocking (6) 

2.4 Analyse the possible challenges an actor may experience when playing many  roles in Woza Albert!. (4) 
2.5 The stage directions in lines 1 and 2 include the words 'bloody bandage' and  'military hats'. Explain whether these descriptions in the stage directions are  necessary for the success of the scene. (2) 
2.6 Explain the events leading up to Operation Coronation (lines 7 and 20). (4)
2.7 Identify and evaluate examples of the following forms of comedy in this scene: 

• Physical comedy 
• Verbal/Vocal comedy (6)

2.8 Assess why Woza Albert! could be described as a form of Protest Theatre. (4) 
2.9 Discuss how Woza Albert! succeeded in educating and mobilising audiences  through its content and style of performance. (10) [40]

QUESTION 3: SOPHIATOWN BY THE JUNCTION AVENUE THEATRE COMPANY 
Study SOURCE C below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE C 

3.1 Explain why Mingus asks Jakes to write a love letter for him. (2) 
3.2 Suggest why an audience may find the ending of the letter, 'Yours in loving  memory' (line 22), funny. (2) 
3.3 Comment on how the characters relate to one another in this scene,  (SOURCE C). (4)
3.4 Discuss, with line references, how you might block the scene to show these  relationships. (6) 
3.5 Relate the story that Jakes has 'up his sleeve' that will 'floor the lot of them'. (Lines 12 and 13) (4) 
3.6 Suggest the most truthful physical and vocal techniques the actor playing  Mingus in SOURCE C might use. (6) 
3.7 Sophiatown could be described as Protest Theatre. What elements of Protest  Theatre can you identify from the play to support this statement? (6) 
3.8 Assume you are Ruth. Write a journal entry in which you reflect on: 

• Your personal experiences of life in Sophiatown 
• Your personal experiences of the forced removals 
• The effect of forced removals on the people living in Mamariti's house (10)  [40]

QUESTION 4: SIENER IN DIE SUBURBS BY PG DU PLESSIS 
Study SOURCE D below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE D 

4.1 State why, according to the play text, Tjokkie has the ability to 'see'. (1)
4.2 Name the TWO characters who force Tjokkie to 'see'. (2)
4.3 Describe how the two characters in QUESTION 4.2 force Tjokkie to 'see'. (2)
4.4 Analyse any TWO of Tjokkie's visions in SOURCE D in relation to events and  characters in the play. (6) 
4.5 Justify why Siener in die Suburbs is a 'must see' production. (3)  
4.6 Explain how the actor, playing Tjokkie, could physically and vocally perform  the moment he 'sees' on stage. (8) 
4.7 If you were directing the play, how would you use sound and lighting in a  scene where Tjokkie 'sees' to enhance the dramatic and theatrical  effectiveness of the performance? (8) 
4.8 Discuss how ideas and themes, such as 'the future' and 'to dream', are  examined in this play. (10) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 40 

SECTION C: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE: POST-1994 – CONTEMPORARY
Answer only ONE question in this section. 
QUESTION 5: NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH BY JOHN KANI  
Study SOURCE E below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE E 

5.1 Describe the relationship between Sipho and Thando, as shown in  SOURCE E, by: 

• The placement of the characters on stage 
• The dialogue (6) 

5.2 Direct the actors playing Sipho and Thando on how to say their lines in the  short extract in SOURCE E. (4) 
5.3 Comment, with reasons, on the suitability of EACH character's costume. (4) 
5.4 Suggest why Thando might be worried that Sipho is 'nervous', based on the  short dialogue in SOURCE E. (2) 
5.5 At the end of the play Sipho has a climactic outburst. Analyse the events  leading to this outburst. (6) 
5.6 Comment on the effectiveness of the realistic set design for the action of  the play. (6) 
5.7 Discuss how Nothing But The Truth is an example of personal and universal  reconciliation. (12) [40]

QUESTION 6: GROUNDSWELL BY IAN BRUCE 
Study SOURCE F below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE F 

You have been cast in a school production of Groundswell. You are rehearsing the  scene depicted in SOURCE F. 
6.1 Identify the setting of the play. (2)
6.2 Describe the mood of this scene. (2)
6.3 Motivate the inclusion of isiXhosa in the play text. (2) 
6.4 How does the positioning of the characters reflect their relationship and the  mood of the scene? (4) 
6.5 Describe how apartheid has affected the relationship between the characters  in the play. (4) 
6.6 You have been cast as one of the characters in the play. Reflect on the  techniques of a theatre practitioner that informed the development and  portrayal of your character. (6) 
6.7 Describe an appropriate set that would complement the genre of the play. (4)
6.8 Explain why you believe the director chose to produce this play at your  school. (4) 
6.9 An important element of any realistic drama is conflict. Conflict drives the  action of the play to its climax and conclusion.  Discuss the significance of this statement. Refer to the plot, socio-political  context and subject matter of Groundswell. (12) [40]

QUESTION 7: MISSING BY REZA DE WET 
Study SOURCE G below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE G 

You and your group have selected the scene above as part of an informal performance  assessment. You have decided to play the role of Miem for the performance. 
7.1 Describe how the mood of the scene is captured in the stage directions. Refer  to lines 1 to 4. (2) 
7.2 Outline, for the rest of your group, your ideas of sound effects that could be  added to create the mood and atmosphere in this scene. (4) 
7.3 Identify the irony of Miem's words in lines 11 to 13. (2)
7.4 Suggest what line 15 reveals about Meisie's attitude toward the circus. (2) 
7.5 Evaluate the importance of light as a symbol in the play. Refer to examples  from the play text as a whole in your answer. (6) 
7.6 Analyse what values and attitudes Miem's character displays through her  words and actions in SOURCE G. (4) 
7.7 Explain how you would portray Miem's character both vocally and physically  in lines 16 to 18. (8) 
7.8 Discuss how Reza de Wet develops the idea of the supernatural in the play. (12) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40

SECTION D: THE HISTORY OF THEATRE, PRACTICAL CONCEPTS, CONTENT  AND SKILLS 
QUESTION 8 (COMPULSORY) 
Study SOURCE H below and answer the questions that follow. 
SOURCE H 

8.1 Define Poor Theatre. (2) 8.2 Write brief notes on Grotowski's view of actors and acting. (4) 
8.3 Explain how South African theatre was influenced by Poor Theatre during the  days of Apartheid. (4) 
8.4 Briefly discuss how 'the work of Stanislavski' (lines 6 and 7) has contributed to  the theatre world. (4) 
8.5 Compare how Grotowski and Stanislavski used theatre space in terms of  the actor-audience relationship. (6) 
8.6 Suggest why Grotowski believed that theatre could not compete with 'rich' film  (line 11). (4) 
8.7 Compare the experience of watching a live theatre performance with watching  a film. (6) 
8.8 Describe how you have applied the principles of Grotowski OR Stanislavski  OR film to any of your practical performances during your study of Dramatic  Arts. (10) 

TOTAL SECTION D: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

DRAMATIC ARTS
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

GENERAL NOTES FOR THE CHIEF MARKER AND MARKERS 

1. The purpose of assessment/examination processes is not only to determine the  'remembering' of knowledge taught and learnt at each of the 6 cognitive levels of  knowledge, but also to determine the complexity of the thinking process the  candidate applies to the knowledge retrieved from memory. The tool to assess  these two components is Anderson and Krathwohl's revised Blooms' Taxonomy.
   • 6 cognitive levels of difficulty
   • 4 thinking processes of complexity
2. The marking guideline discussion forum, before marking commences, cannot  sufficiently predict all responses. Provincial markers need to take this into account,  be open to candidates' responses and make sure that different teaching styles do  not disadvantage the learner/candidate.
3. Spend the first day to unpack the quality and quantity of the evidence in the  marking guidelines, standardise required responses and find common definitions  and concepts. Assimilate the
   • Expected responses for each question 
   • The cognitive level of difficulty required from the candidate
   • The type of thinking process and complexity of thinking required from the  candidate
   • Action verbs used at each of the cognitive levels and the type of evidence  required (facts, concepts, processes and thinking). 
   • Refer to the annexures at the end of the marking guidelines 
4. If the marking guidelines do not give clear guidance, a marker must indicate, with  a short comment, why marks were awarded or not. 
5. Tick clearly next to the required cognitive level/thinking process of complexity/  concept/content/skills/knowledge aspects required when a mark is awarded.  Markers should engage actively with the answer.
   • Refer to rubrics in the annexure at the end of the marking guidelines 
6.  During the marking process, have regular rounds of consultation to ensure marking  is standardised.
7. Where a candidate writes more than the suggested number of words, do not  penalise (e.g. essay question).
8. Mark globally where possible. Markers accept any correct, relevant and well motivated answers.
9. Markers must check that candidates' responses align with the Curriculum  Assessment Policy Statement's Broad Topics and Topics, Content (concepts, skills  and knowledge).

MEMORANDUM 

Rating of Essay and Response Questions 
The chief marker in each province must clarify the paradigm from which the questions  and the accompanying marking guidelines were designed and set: 

1. Item difficulty: 
   How complex is the design of the question? 
2. Task difficulty: 
   What is the cognitive level and thinking process required from the candidate? 
3. Stimulus difficulty: 
   How difficult or easy is it to understand and apply the source?
4. Expected response difficulty: 
   What is the quantity (how much) and quality (how well) of the expected response,  required from the candidate, as provided in the marking guidelines? 
   Does it align with the item, task and stimulus?
   Are the marks appropriately weighted and allocated? 

–Leong: 2002 

In the training of markers at the beginning of the marking process, the chief marker in  each province should follow the following procedure. This will assist with the  standardisation of the scoring of candidate's essays and responses for each part of the  examination. It will also standardise national marking procedures, processes and  results. 
Introduction to the Task 

• Raters read the task required from the Item and summarise it. 
• Raters read the Item and plan a response to the task. 
• Raters share response plans and summarise expectations for student  responses/share not just the quantity of evidence (how much) but the quality of  evidence (How well). 

Introduction to the Rubric and Anchor Papers 

• Trainer reviews rubric with reference to the task. 
• Trainer reviews procedures for assigning holistic scores (i.e., by matching  evidence from the response to the language of the rubric and by weighing all  qualities equally). 
• Trainer leads review of each anchor paper and commentary. (NOTE: Anchor  papers are ordered from high to low within each score level.) 

Practise Scoring Individually 

• Raters score a set of practice papers individually. Raters should score the papers  independently. 
• Trainer records scores and leads discussion. (Practice papers should contain  scores and commentaries.)

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR sections: 
   SECTION A: 20th Century Theatre Movements (30)
   SECTION B: South African Theatre: 1960–1994 (40)
   SECTION C: South African Theatre: Post-1994–Contemporary (40)
   SECTION D: The History of Theatre, Practical Concepts, Content and Skills (40) 
2. SECTION A
   QUESTION 1 is COMPULSORY.
   Refer to the play text you have studied and its relevant 20th Century Theatre  Movement.
   EPIC THEATRE 
   • Caucasian Chalk Circle Bertolt Brecht
   • Kaukasiese Krytsirkel Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
   • Mother Courage Bertolt Brecht
   • Moeder Courage Translation of Bertolt Brecht play text
   • The Good Person of Szechwan Bertolt Brecht 
   • Kanna Hy Kô Hystoe Adam Small
     OR
     THEATRE OF THE ABSURD
   • Waiting for Godot Samuel Beckett
   • Afspraak met Godot Translation of Samuel Beckett play text
   • Bagasie André P Brink
   • The Bald Primadonna Eugene Ionesco 
   • Die Kaalkop Primadonna Translation of Eugene Ionesco play text
     OR
     POSTMODERN THEATRE
   • Skrapnel Willem Anker
   • Top Girls Carol Churchill
   • Popcorn Ben Elton
   • Buried Child Sam Shepard 
3. SECTION B 
   This section consists of THREE questions. Answer only ONE question in  this section. 
   QUESTION 2: Woza Albert! Percy Mtwa, Mbongeni Ngema and  Barney Simon OR
   QUESTION 3: Sophiatown Junction Avenue Theatre Company OR
   QUESTION 4: Siener in die Suburbs PG du Plessis 
4. SECTION C
   This section consists of THREE questions. Answer only ONE question in  this section. 
   QUESTION 5: Nothing but the Truth John Kani OR
   QUESTION 6: Groundswell Ian Bruce OR
   QUESTION 7: Missing Reza de Wet 
5. SECTION D 
   This section consists of one question (QUESTION 8) which is COMPULSORY.

SECTION A: 20th CENTURY THEATRE MOVEMENTS 
QUESTION 1 

The following is a guide: 
The candidate must: 

• Answer this question in the form of an essay 
• Use the play text he/she has studied as an example 
• Refer to either one of the three movements: Theatre of the Absurd OR Epic Theatre OR Postmodern Theatre in  their answer 
• Refer to the Source in their answer 
• Demonstrate the question and source have been analysed, understood and integrated in their essay 

The content of the essay must cover the following: 

1. ONE selected Theatre Movement: 
   •  Theatre of the Absurd OR 
   •  Epic Theatre OR 
   • Postmodern Theatre
2. Play text studied
3. Question
4. Source 

Markers note: 

• Candidate must demonstrate that the above has been understood and critically analysed and applied in the essay 
• Rote learnt knowledge must be contextualised in an original argument that displays factual, contextual, procedural  and meta-cognitive thinking 
• The rubric on the next page is a guide to the marker to assess the: 
  • Levels of cognitive process dimension (remembering, understanding, applying, analysing, evaluating and  creating) 
  • Complexities of thinking displayed by the candidate (factual, conceptual, procedural, metacognitive) 
• Responses may be in the form of notes

The following is general information on the movements: 

EPIC THEATRE 
Intention is to: 

• Distance the audience (emotionally) 
• Encourage the audience to see the world in which they lived more critically and clearly  rather than take their beliefs for granted 
• Make a clear distinction between a Theatre of Illusion, ('Dramatic' Theatre) and Epic  Theatre 
• Be opposed to the idea of pretence (a typical feature of Realism), but rather portrays  the harshness of real life 
• Keep spectators to alert throughout the play  
• Remove the 'illusion' of Realism 
• Employ various techniques to alienate the audience – difference between what they  saw on the stage and what was real 

Techniques 

• 'Verfremdungseffekt' or alienation distances the audience from the action on the stage 
•  Music should provide a noteworthy commentary on the action e.g. in Mother Courage  where the ironically bitter words of a song which speaks of the character's steady  moral decline are deliberately arranged to a sweet, carefree tune. The incongruity  between the tune and the words compels the audience to think about the true meaning of the song 
• Songs amongst the scenes tell the audience what was to happen before it occurred
• Stage space is non-specific 
• Sets are simple and symbolic  
• Theatre should 'make strange' the actions that are presented 
• Historification – the playwright should highlight the 'pastness' of the events by  separating them from the present 

Audience should: 

• Think that, if he or she had experienced the same conditions as those demonstrated in  the play, he/she would have acted in a different way, because of the lessons learnt
• Consider what he or she would have done to make a positive difference
• Be inspired to make similar valuable social improvements with regard to the current  state of affairs 
• Be encouraged to bring about social reforms in his community or environment 

THEATRE OF THE ABSURD 
The Absurdist world: 

• Appears to have no true order or meaning 
• Offers the audience an existentialist point of view of the outside world 
• Forces the audience to consider their meaning in the world  
• Has no definite, specific or recognisable existence 
• Proposes that human beings are what they make of themselves 
• Proposes that human beings are determined by their actions and choices 
• Has a pessimistic outlook of the human struggle 
• Mainly concerned itself with mankind's search for meaning 

Characters: 

• Are not fixed 
• Represent humanity who themselves are nothing
• Exist in a bleak world devoid of meaning 
• Are lost, confused  
• Their actions are worthless and absurd 
• Are clown-like  
• Stay together as they are afraid to be alone in such an incomprehensible world 
• Lack identity – dull, uninteresting and lack dimension 
• Flawed  
• Are not well-rounded – no past and we are given little indication what the future might  be 
• Remain static and show no development 
• Come across as being repulsive, pathetic, miserable and incapable
• Are emotionally empty  
• Their qualities are exaggerated  
• Are used to express Absurdists' views on the human condition 
• Are mutually dependent  
• Are 'Social puppets' 
• Perform double acts  

Language and dialogue: 

• Shows that humans are not adept at communication  
• Acts as a barrier to communication  
• Isolates the individual even more 
• Shows that speech is almost futile 
• Questions the value of language  
• Lost its ability to communicate 
• Attempts at communication often 'disintegrate' from clichés to meaningless syllables
• Inability of language to bridge the gap between the characters 
• Dehumanises and makes existence automatic and meaningless 
• Presents the unexpected, the bizarre and the absurd 
• Uses silence rather than the spoken word 
• Contains meaningless conversations  
• Are habitual and superficial  
• Are seen as an escape from the tedium of life 
• Create new words 
• Contain banal daily conversations mixed with literary language, puns, clichés, slang  and repetitions are interspersed with poetic language 
• Displays a repetitious style of dialogue to emphasise the cyclic nature of life 

Themes explore and demonstrate the: 

• Temporality and evanescence (time) 
• Tragic difficulty of becoming aware of one's own self in the merciless process of  renovation and destruction that occurs in life 
• Change of time 
• Difficulty of communication   
• Unending quest for reality  
• Tragic nature of relationships  
• Terror of man in the face of total meaninglessness 
• Anguish (Existential angst) 
• Isolation and loneliness of man lost in a world in which God has deserted him • Illusion that science and reason provide answers or meaning

POSTMODERNISM 
The Postmodern world: 

• Rejects the certainties of the Modern Era  
• Contains no Grand Narrative or singular truth  
• Rejects the idea that there is a dominant set of beliefs or a neat solution
• 'Destroys' the 'truth' 
• Embraces multiple view points, perspectives, realities 
• Includes Art, Theatre, Architecture, Music, Film, Literature, Fashion, TV and other  forms of expression 
• Borrows from a multiple array of styles 
• Rejects the notion of 'high art' and 'low art' 
• Embraces Avant Garde (forward thinking), experimental theatre 
• Does not prescribe to a 'purity' in art 
• 'Trashes' high art 
• Contains no fixed way of creating art  
• Moves towards a more subjective opinion 
• Holds that culture belongs to every person 
• Deconstructs (a way of taking set notions apart and putting them together again in a  new, disrupted and disjointed manner) ideas, images and constructs
• Contradicts ideas, images and constructs 
• Does not prescribe a meaning, point of view or perspective 
• Holds the notion that each individual viewer creates their own unique meaning
• Reflects and celebrates the madness and chaotic way of life in a Popular culture
• Enjoys nonsense art, ideas, constructs and theories 
• Sees irony and humour 
• Emphasises HOW things are seen as opposed to WHAT is seen 

Pastiche: 

• Is a Visual Arts technique of different images, media forms etc. pasted together to  create one piece 
• Uses references and layers, different texts and images 
• Uses Meta Theatre/Text 
• Reminds the viewer that they are in the theatre 
• Contains characters that can step out of character and communicate with the  audience 
• Is the art work reflecting on itself 
• Is non-linear in construction 
• Is reflexive 
• Is peripheral even not essential 
• Contains theories or ideas 
• Is broken up  
• May overlap with many points of view and conflicting voices 

Performances are: 

• The main focus 
• The main process 
• Not captured in a script because they consist of images, sounds and multimedia

Rehearsal processes are: 

• Improvised 
• Changed 
• Revised 
• Updated 
• Transformed through performance continually 

Audience is: 

• An important active element  
• Often included in the dialogue 

Play Texts: 

• Have no clear beginning, middle or end 
• Make the script just the starting point 
• Have unanswered questions 

Texts (visual, aural, the human body etc.): 

• Look at themes or theatrical devices 
• Leave the play open-ended 
• Embrace the idea that the audience makes their own meaning 
• Ask more questions than are answered 
• Contain visual images and non-spoken actions 
• Deconstruct a truth and do not accept only one reality 
• Use time, space and structure to echo the deconstructed or defragmented story or plot
• Do not necessarily have real people 
• Contain characters and people who are merely a representation of fragmented ideas
• Often start at a realistic point but unravel and the action becomes unreal as the play  goes along 

TOTAL SECTION A: 30

SECTION B: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE: 1960–1994 
The candidate must answer only ONE question in this section. 
QUESTION 2: WOZA ALBERT! BY PERCY MTWA, MBONGENI NGEMA AND  BARNEY SIMON 
2.1 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates need  only mention one representation.  
The following is a guide: 
Pink noses are used to represent: 

• White characters, e.g. Baas Kom, the white policeman 
• A miner's lamp (2)

2.2 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
The following is a guide: 

• Actors are portraying many characters through transformation techniques 
• It is easier to use their real names on the script 
• The play was workshopped with the two actors whose names are used (2)

2.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Mark globally. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Use of voice: 

• Actors should have the ability to use various accents as they are switching  from one character to the other, e.g. Bobbejaan transforming into being  Baas Kom 
• They should be able to produce sound effects using their voices e.g. the  sound of a siren in jail 

Use of body: 

• Stand upright  
• Chests out  
• Legs slightly apart  
• The above physical characteristics give them a sense of authority 

Use of performance space/blocking: 

• Actors might enter and move through the audience 
• The whole performance space could be used for the military parade (6)

2.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Actors may: 

• Find it difficult to portray multiple roles because it is both physically and  vocally demanding to transform from one character to another 
• Not be able to play all the different accents of the various characters 
• Struggle with physical and vocal transformation of characters because each character must have their own unique physical and vocal  characteristics 
• Struggle with breath control because the performance demands are  physically challenging (4) 

2.5 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• One well-motivated statement OR 
• Two separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The stage directions are necessary for the success of the scene  because: 

• The audience would recognise them as military men and their rank through their gestures, military hats and pink noses 
• The audience would also recognise them as wounded through their  bandages 
• The style of performance is Poor Theatre and the effectiveness of Poor  Theatre is to strip away any unnecessary costumes or props which  focuses the audience on what is important (2) 

2.6 Markers accept other relevant answers. 
The following is a guide: 
The events leading up to Operation Coronation are: 

• Bobbejaan and Zuluboy await Morena's arrival  
• They want Morena to make more bricks 
• Morena arrives and they offer him food and drink 
• Bobbejaan betrays Morena to the police 
• The police raid Coronation Brickyard  
• Zuluboy hits a policeman with a knobkierie 
• Morena is arrested (4)

2.7 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements which reflect evaluation OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Physical comedy: 
Characters: 

• Use exaggerated movements and gestures to mimic and make fun of  characters and actions e.g. marching as soldiers 

Vocal comedy: 
Characters: 

• Use exaggeration of accent to poke fun and create humour 
• Use vocal mimicry of stereotypes (a sergeant) for recognition and cause  laughter 
• Use of hyperbole e.g. 'He struck me with a branch of a tree' (6)

2.8 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Woza Albert! can be described as Protest Theatre because the play:

• Protests against apartheid 
• Deals with sociopolitical issues that needed change e.g. poverty, Bantu  education system, poor working conditions 
• Aims to change society outside the territory of theatre 
• Was used to mobilise the masses of oppressed people against Apartheid (4)

2.9 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE A to inform your marking. Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
The following is a guide: 
Education and mobilisation occurred through: 
Content that: 

• Highlighted relevant socio-political issues, e.g. poor working conditions,  poverty, Bantu Education 
• Made the issues of the struggle familiar to the audience 
• Created an awareness of the atrocities committed by the apartheid  government 
• Made the characters recognisable so that audiences could relate to them  e.g. Auntie Dudu and the meat vendor 
• Made places recognisable and which evoked strong feelings of anger and  sadness, e.g. Albert Street, Regina Mundi Church and Coronation  Brickyard 
• Made situations familiar to the audience members e.g. the musician and  the pass book, Auntie Dudu searching for food etc. 

Performance style that: 

• Made use of various South African languages, such as isiZulu, Afrikaans  and English to include all South Africans 
• Included interactive singing, dancing and storytelling which captivated  audiences  
• Demonstrated a physical style of acting which was energetic and vibrant
• Created an intimate actor-audience relationship e.g. breaking the fourth  wall 
• Used mime, which was universally recognisable 
• Used ideophones to create the world of the play and evoke responses (10) [40]

QUESTION 3: SOPHIATOWN BY THE JUNCTION AVENUE THEATRE COMPANY 
3.1 Mingus is illiterate, he cannot read or write. (2)
3.2 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
The following is a guide: 
The ending might be funny because: 

• The phrase 'Yours in loving memory' is used to refer to people who have  died, not in a love letter. Mingus probably heard it at the funeral he had  attended earlier on  
• It is not romantic to say 'Yours in loving memory' (2)

3.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The characters relate to one another in this scene as people: 

• Who are familiar with one another; with the exception of Fahfee, they all  live in the same house 
• Who get along with each other most of the time 
• Who are protective of each other, especially Mingus of his younger sister  Lulu  
• Who are concerned about the wellbeing of each other, e.g. Jakes and  Mingus both wish for Lulu to remain at school and become educated 
• Who would argue and disagree about some matters but who would defend  each other in times of crisis (4) 

3.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The scene should be blocked to reflect the following physical and  emotional relationships between characters: 

• Mingus is desperate for Jakes to write his letter so he may stand very  close to Jakes to see what he writes on the page (line 1) 
• Fahfee could enter from upstage left and walk across the stage quite fast  in an animated fashion with news of the day (lines 3 to 5) 
• Jakes could approach Fahfee (line 6) because he is curious to know if  Fahfee has brought Lulu's books 
• Mingus could move between Fahfee and Jakes in an aggressive stance  (lines 7 to 9) because he is being protective of his sister, Lulu (6)

3.5 Markers accept other relevant answers. 

• Two well-motivated statement OR  
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Jakes wants to: 

• Write about a white girl who might be willing to live in Mamariti's house 
• Prove that people from different cultural backgrounds can live together in  harmony and defy apartheid laws 
• Focus on a human story which would be more universally relevant (4)

3.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

Candidates should focus on an integrated analysis of preparation and  performance of the character. Mention could be made of Stanislavski's' System/Method. Other authentic, original approaches to characterisation and  acting would be acknowledged. 
The following is a guide: 
The actor could reflect an understanding of the following aspects of  Stanislavski's System, e.g.: 
Physical score of actions: 

• Actions and reactions should be realistic  
• Physical action (facial expression, gestures and movement) is used in the  creation of the play's life on stage 

Beat work: 

• Shifts in thought and feeling should be reflected effectively and realistically
• Units and objectives should be reflected in the actor's physical and vocal  expression 

Vocal expression: 

• The illusion of a real conversation is created because the play is realistic
• Thoughts and feelings must be analysed and understood in order to be reflected in the actor's tone, pace, rate, volume etc.  

Magic if: 

• The actor should live as if he/she is the character 
• Vocal and physical responses would vary from performance to  performance, but will always be experienced as truthful and as real as  possible 
• 'Acting is believing' 

Circles of attention: 

• The actor's focus should be on the world of the play and not on the  audience 

Emotional memory: 

• The actor can draw on personal experiences to tap into emotional reality in  performance (6)

3.7 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Elements of Protest Theatre found in the play: 

• Protests against Apartheid 
• Deals with socio-political issues that need change e.g. poverty, Bantu  Education system, crime and forced removals 
• Aims to change society outside of the theatre by evoking an emotional  response in the audience 
• Was used to mobilise the masses against apartheid 
• Uses slogans, songs and narration to evoke a response of protest from  the audience 
• Has the actors address the audience at times 
• Is a living newspaper documenting the forced removals, demolition and  ultimate destruction of Sophiatown, the place 
• A record of the defiance of the residents of Sophiatown (6)

3.8 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE A to inform your marking. Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
The candidate should express their point of view in the form of a reflection.  The candidate should document the life in Sophiatown, comment on personal  experiences of forced removals as well as the effects of forced removals on the people living in Mamariti's house. 
The following is a guide: 
Personal experiences of life in Sophiatown: 

• We lived in an overcrowded, small space. We shared the space with other  people and did not have personal space as I was used to more space  back home in Yeoville. In Mamariti's house there is no privacy and I could  not have a bedroom to myself as I had to share it with the other female  occupants of the house 
• It was difficult yet interesting to learn a different way of life. I had to learn  Tsotsitaal and communicate with gang members for the first time in my  life. I had to be able to be in control of the situation and use not only the  correct language/lingo but also body language and keep eye contact to  show my seriousness 
• I wanted to experience a different kind of life than the one I was used to. I  ended up falling in love with Jakes but we could not pursue the  relationship due to the Apartheid laws that prohibited inter-racial  relationships

Personal experiences of forced removals: 

• I found myself displaced both physically and emotionally as a result of the  forced removals. I had to decide where I should go as I had closed the  door back home in Yeoville. Staying in Sophiatown was not an option as I  was now faced with the reality that I did not belong there even though my  heart was now rooted there and I had found love 
• Moving out of Sophiatown with my lover was not an option either. We were  both afraid to explore the relationship any further and rebel against the  Immorality Act 

Effects of forced removals: 

• Mamariti was heartbroken as she had to leave her house and it meant a  loss of income for her as she could not continue operating her shebeen and renting out the rooms in her house for extra income. It was illegal to  own a shebeen and sell liquor 
• Some of Mamariti's belongings were destroyed while loading them onto the truck and not all of her belongings could be loaded  
• Lulu's schooling was disrupted 
• Mingus finally accepted the fact that he had to move to Meadowlands and  willingly did so (10) [40]

QUESTION 4: SIENER IN DIE SUBURBS BY PG DU PLESSIS 
4.1 Tjokkie was born with the caul therefore he has the ability to 'see'. (1)
4.2 Giel and Jakes. (2) 
4.3 Markers accept other relevant answers. 
The following is a guide:  
The two characters force Tjokkie to see by: 

• Pulling Tjokkie up by his overall with the block-and-tackle while 
• they lower the lifting-jack onto his legs 
• Forcing him to smoke a joint (marijuana) 

4.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
Candidates must  mention TWO of the visions to get full marks. Mark globally. 
The following is a guide: 
Vision 1: 
The vision could refer to: 

• Tiemie who is compared to a garden 
• Jakes who appears to see if the seed in the garden is growing 
• The question of paternity of the child Tiemie carries 
• Jakes who wants to find out if he is the father of the child 

Vision 2: 
In the vision the: 

• Ducks could represent horses in a race 
• Less colourful duck could refer to the grey horse, Nattie Tatty, who wins the race later in the play 

Vision 3: 
The vision could refer to: 

• Tjokkie's desire to re-unite with his dead father 
• Giel leaving Ma at the end of the play 
• The death of both Tjokkie and Tiemie 
• Jakes who runs away after he kills Tiemie (2) 
• Ma who stands motionless in a state of shock (6)

4.5 Markers accept other relevant answers.
Award full marks for: 

• Three separate thoughts/statements

The following is a guide: 
The play is a 'must see' because: 

• It is a domestic drama about the lives of ordinary people
• Its themes are universal
• It has interesting and intriguing characters
• It has a dramatic plot and outcome
• Many can relate to the issue of being 'stuck' in their circumstances (3)

4.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
Candidates should focus on an integrated analysis of how realism in the  theatre translated into preparation and performance of the character. Mention  could be made of Stanislavski's System/Method. An authentic, original  approach to characterisation and acting would be acknowledged. 
The following is a guide: 
The actor playing Tjokkie could reflect an understanding of the  following aspects of Stanislavski's System, e.g.: 
Physical score of actions: 

• Actions and reactions should be realistic  
• Physical action (facial expression, gestures and movement) is used in the  creation of the play's life on stage 

Beat work: 

• Shifts in thought and feeling should be reflected effectively and realistically 
• Units and objectives should be reflected in the actor's physical and vocal  expression 

Vocal expression: 

• The illusion of experiencing a real 'vision' is created because the play is  realistic 
• Thoughts and feelings must be analysed and understood in order to be  reflected in the actor's tone, pace, rate, volume etc.  

Magic if: 

• The actor should live as if he is the character seeing these 'visions' 

Circles of attention: 

• The actor's focus should be on the world of the play and not on the  audience 

Emotional memory: 

• The actor can draw on personal experiences to tap into emotional reality in  performance (8) 

4.7 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers based on the  candidate's knowledge of applying sound and lighting design. 
Award full marks for: 

• Four well-motivated statements 

The following is a guide: 
Sound effects could include the use of: 

• A song to increase the tension and to create a mysterious atmosphere
• Mechanical sounds to emphasise Tjokkie's struggle 
• Silence to reinforce the importance of the moment 

Lighting effects could include the use of: 

• Red lighting to foreshadow the danger of the visions 
• Flashing lights to reinforce the supernatural nature of the visions (8)

4.8 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE A to inform your marking. Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Candidates should display an understanding of how central ideas are  highlighted through the characters in the play. 
The following is a guide: 

• It is believed that Tjokkie can predict the future when he has visions 
• Tjokkie's visions of the future serve as a catalyst for the dramatic action in  the play  
• Tjokkie believes Tiemie has potential and should escape the Suburbs  in order to have a better future 
• Tiemie dreams of a future away from the Suburbs  
• Tiemie does not want to be stuck in a house with children and a husband  who comes home drunk every evening 
• Jakes dreams of a future in which he and Tiemie are married and have  a son  
• Giel gambles to improve his own future 
• Ma does not want her children to make the same mistakes she made (10) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 40

SECTION C: SOUTH AFRICAN THEATRE: POST-1994 – CONTEMPORARY
The candidate must answer only ONE question in this section. 
QUESTION 5: NOTHING BUT THE TRUTH BY JOHN KANI  
5.1 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The placement of the characters on stage reflects a relationship: 

• In which Sipho is in command of the space, seated on the chair, whilst  Thando kneels on the floor cleaning the coffee table as a dutiful daughter  might do 
• Of the closeness of a father and daughter as they are physically close to  each other 

The dialogue reflects: 

• Caring questioning as to her father's well-being 
• A depth of relationship in the communication and qualification of what is  troubling Sipho 
• That Thando is close to her father as she is sensitive to his mood and  feelings (6) 

5.2 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR
• Four separate thoughts/ideas

Direction of the lines might take into account: 

• Character and situation, e.g. anxiety of waiting for the body to arrive 
• Mood and feeling, e.g.: sombre, sadness, grief
• Motivation and tension, e.g. relationship with the deceased

Candidates might mention the following aspects of vocal delivery: 

• Volume, e.g. Sipho's volume might be loud as his anxiety might take the  form of aggression 
• Pitch, e.g. Thando's pitch might be higher to reflect her anxiety
• Inflection, e.g. Thando's question might end in a rising inflection
• Pause, e.g. a dramatic pause to emphasis the issue that the nervousness is about 'this evening' (4)

5.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
The following is a guide: 
Sipho's costume is suitable because it: 

• Reflects his position as assistant chief librarian, wearing a suit and tie  which is somewhat dishevelled after a long day's work and the prospect of  Mandisa's arrival 
• Is appropriate for his age 
• Is conservative like his character 

Thando's costume is suitable because: 

• She is cleaning the house and she wears an apron 
• Her headdress shows her respectful and conservative nature 
• She has just returned from work so she is still wearing her work jacket (4)

5.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Thando might be worried that Sipho is nervous about: 

• Mandisa's arrival from England 
• The arrival of Themba's body from England 
• The funeral arrangements for Themba 
• Meeting Reverend Haya and Mr Kahla to make funeral arrangements (2)

5.5 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Mark globally. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Events might include: 

• Mandisa's arrival with ashes rather than a body 
• Mandisa's flippant and somewhat disrespectful attitude towards Sipho  because of her Western upbringing 
• The constant questioning about Themba by Thando and Mandisa in order  to find out the truth 
• The withholding of the truth from Mandisa and Thando because of  Themba's affair 
• The worry about the funeral 
• Not being appointed as chief librarian which would cause Sipho to be  angry and disappointed 
• Sipho going to a shebeen and getting drunk as an emotional reaction to  the bad news that he was not appointed chief librarian  

All these events build up as fuel for Sipho's climactic outburst (6)
5.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The set design is effective for the action of the play because it: 

• Pays attention to detail, e.g. the bead curtains, furnishings, kitchen and  lounge  
• Includes a bookshelf which is filled with books that look well-used 
• Displays photographs on the counter which reflect the warmth of family life 
• Allows the characters to be comfortable in the set and use it in a realistic  manner e.g. Thando kneels comfortably on the carpet, Sipho sits  anxiously on the edge of his chair 
• Reflects the socio-economic environment which the characters inhabit,  e.g. two rooms, beaded curtains 
• Allows the characters space to move (6)

5.7 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE B to inform your marking.
Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
The following is a guide: 
Nothing But The Truth is a good example of personal and universal  reconciliation because the play's action aims to: 

• Reconcile many divergent elements: traditional and modern; old and  young; male and female; exiled South Africans abroad and the people left  behind in Apartheid South Africa 
• Unite families: father and daughter; husband and wife; brother and  brother; cousin and cousin 
• Heal the Makhaya family from the pain they suffered during Apartheid 
• Show how traditional and modern values seem to clash as in the case of  Mandisa being opposed to the idea of not being able to go out before the  burial of her father. It is customary that the family of the deceased cannot  socialise as they are still mourning. This is finally resolved  
• Reveal how the young and old generations understand life differently, but Sipho as the elder has the final word in the affairs of the household 
• Restore the broken relationship between brothers as in the case of Sipho  and Themba. Sipho manages to finally forgive his brother for all the  wrongs that he has done him. He acknowledges that he did not want to  admit the truth and instead blamed his brother for the death of his son,  Luvuyo, even though he knew that he was not responsible 
• Reconcile characters (e.g. Sipho with himself), between characters (e.g. Sipho, Thando and Mandisa), and with the future (Sipho releases the past  and focuses on future plans) 
• Have universal significance for reconciliation of all kinds because the play  reflects the human condition (12) [40]

QUESTION 6: GROUNDSWELL BY IAN BRUCE 
6.1 Markers accept other relevant answers.  
The following is a guide: 
The setting is: 

• Post-apartheid South Africa 
• A remote guest house on the west coast. (2)

6.2 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
The following is a guide: 
The mood is: 

• Tense because Johan is about to strike Smith 
• Threatening because Johan is being physically aggressive towards Smith 
• Serious because someone could be hurt 
• Volatile because it shows Johan's quick temper (2)

6.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
The following is a guide: 
The inclusion of isiXhosa: 

• Gives the play a distinctly South African character because isiXhosa is a language spoken in South Africa
• Makes the play more inclusive of isiXhosa-speaking people
• Adds to the realism of the characters and situation because Thami is a Xhosa-speaking man (2)

6.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two motivated statements  

The following is a guide: 
The positioning of the characters reflect: 
Their relationship: 

• Shows Johan's dominance over Smith 
• Johan's aggressiveness as he has Smith by the collar 
• Highlights Smith's fear of Johan 

Mood: 

• Is threatening and violent 
• Is full of aggression (4)

6.5 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Johan: 

• As a policeman, he became the ultimate victim and/or perpetrator because  he killed another man 
• This affected the rest of his life from that point onward as he carries guilt  and remorse 
• His guilt and shame has trapped him in a negative cycle of self-destruction e.g.: he experiences hopelessness and abuses alcohol 

Thami: 

• As a black man he is classified racially and is viewed as inferior, he is disenfranchised, is denied opportunities available to those privileged white  people enjoying the freedom of movement 
• He is denied the freedom to vote, live and do dignified work 
• Although Apartheid is dead, he remains desperate to change his socio economic circumstances 

Smith: 

• Smith believes he has never hurt anyone and is blind to the fact that,  despite having shaken the hand of Tutu, and despite the fact that his wife  belonged to the Black Sash movement, his contribution to the struggle  against Apartheid was passive, insignificant and worthless 
• He has, as a white business man, enjoyed the indulgences of wealth in a  country where the divide between the haves and the have-nots was  extreme 
• His blindness to the fact that Apartheid affected him makes the possibility  for him to change very unlikely, if at all. He has become selfish, egotistical,  hedonistic, seeking pleasure for himself. His refusal to sponsor the  business opportunity which might bring the three men together,  emphasises this fact (4)

6.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Candidates should focus on an integrated analysis of how realism in the  theatre translated into preparation and performance of the character that they  have been cast to play. Mention could be made of Stanislavski's' System/  Method. An authentic, original approach to characterisation and acting would  be acknowledged. 
The following is a guide: 
The actor could reflect an understanding of the following aspects of  Stanislavski's System, e.g.: 
Physical score of actions: 

• Actions and reactions should be realistic  
• Physical action (facial expression, gestures and movement) is used in the  creation of the play's life on stage 

Beat work: 

• Shifts in thought and feeling should be reflected effectively and realistically
• Units and objectives should be reflected in the actor's physical and vocal  expression 

Vocal expression: 

• The illusion of a real conversation is created because the play is realistic
• Thoughts and feelings must be analysed and understood in order to be  reflected in the actor's tone, pace, rate, volume etc.  

Magic if: 

• The actor should live as if he/she is the character 
• Vocal and physical responses would vary from performance to  performance, but will always be experienced as truthful and as real as  possible 
• 'Acting is believing' 

Circles of attention: 

• The actor's focus should be on the world of the play and not on the  audience 

Emotional memory: 

• The actor can draw on personal experiences to tap into emotional reality in  performance 

Backstage before a performance the actor may choose to do:  

• Vocal and physical warm ups (examples of warm ups may be offered by  the candidate) 
• Relaxation exercises (examples may be given) 
• Make-up and costume relevant to the character  
• Focus and concentration exercises in order to recall preparation and work  in rehearsal according to Stanislavski's method (6)

6.7 Markers accept other correct, relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Candidates might describe detail of the set or describe abstract  qualities of the set, e.g.: 
The set: 

• Garnet Lodge is the name of the lodge 
• Is a beachfront guest house by the seaside 
• Is in a small port town on the west coast 
• Choice of décor is of absent owners not being there often 
• Is a large old room with predominantly wooden walls 
• Is an accumulation of second-hand furniture, which is not very upmarket
• A dining room with a table and four chairs gives the actors a space in  which to interact because it is a dining area in the lodge 
• Has a modern music centre to show the era and also perhaps play songs  which tie into the mood and messages of the play 
• Has an entrance to kitchen with beaded curtain to allow for believable  entrances and exits 
• Has a sitting area with two armchairs and coffee table for the characters to  interact 
• Has an appropriate nautically themed interior because it is on the West  Coast 
• Creates the illusion of reality though its attention to detail 
• Is a no-man's land because it isn't anyone's home (4)

6.8 Markers accept other correct, relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The director chose to produce this play at my school because: 

• The play deals with relevant personal, interpersonal and social issues from  which we can all learn as they are universally relevant 
• The characters are three-dimensional, we can relate to them as real  people 
• The psychological realism in the play enables the audience to empathise  and sympathise with the characters 
• The situations are universal: guilt, remorse over past actions, anger and  bitterness at being failed or disappointed by a system or institution is still  experienced today 
• It may help audiences to recognise the racism and choices the characters  make and learn from their responses (4)

6.9 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE B to inform your marking. Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
The following is a guide: 
Conflict: 

• Is both internal and external e.g. Johan is unable to fulfil his dreams which  causes inner conflict as to how to solve this problem  
• Thami has experienced the inner conflict of being away from his family whilst  wanting to make money to support them and Smith finds himself in conflict  enmeshed in Johan's aggression and conflict with him against his decision  not to invest in Johan's scheme 
• Could be between man and God, man and man and within man according to  Aristotelian definition of dramatic conflict 
• In this play is also with the environment and society through the characters,  their situations and the socio-political context 
• Drives the action of the plot in a clear cause-to-effect arrangement typical of a  well-made play, to its climax and ultimate denouement (conclusion) 
• Is a universal phenomenon and keeps the audience interested to see how  these conflicts are resolved (or not) 

Plot: 

• The build-up of tension is driven by the clear cause-to-effect structure of the  plot 
• Johan's anger from the past is heightened by the current situation of  desperation for funding for their business ventures 
• The possibilities and potential of a better future are frustrated by the obstacle  of Smith refusing funding for the diamond concession, thereby causing  tension and driving the plot to its climax and conclusion 

Socio-political context: 

• The New South Africa should offer possibilities for change but sadly these  characters are not able to grab hold of this and make it a reality 
• Apartheid has affected each character. Smith is blind to the fact that, despite  his family's involvement in The Black Sash etc., his contribution to The  Struggle was impotent. Johan is a victim of his past as a policeman, having  killed a man. Thami has been dehumanised and disadvantaged by the  Apartheid system 
• The human condition is exposed through the characters and how they  respond to their situations, e.g. Johan's desperation to escape from his past  and create a better future 
• Lack of funds has sabotaged Thami's and Johan's attempts to free  themselves from their current socio-economic situation 

Subject matter: 

• The diamond concession is an intriguing and exciting prospect which would  draw and hold the attention of the audience 
• The illicit nature of many diamond deals might create attention and a tension  in the audience 
• The violent outburst of Johan drives the action of the play to its climax and  conclusion 
• Conflicting hopes and dreams ultimately separate Thami and Johan and  leads to Johan's hopelessness as he finally leaves the guest house 
• Immediate involvement with the subject matter through the actor-audience  relationship, e.g. characters are psychologically realistic, therefore the audience identifies with them and their situations (12) [40]

QUESTION 7: MISSING BY REZA DE WET 
7.1 Markers accept other relevant. 
The following is a guide: 
The mood might be mysterious, tense and ominous because: 

• It is dark and dangerous outside 
• There are rumours of a murder and a rapist' 
• The characters discuss the girls that have gone missing 
• The use of the words 'softly, ' glances quickly', 'suddenly' 
• The characters are afraid to speak loudly (2) 

7.2 Markers accept other relevant answers based on the candidate's knowledge  of applying sound design. 
Award full marks for: 

• Four separate thoughts/ideas. 

The following is a guide: 
Sound design could include: 

• Barking dogs to create a mood of possibly intrusion 
• Policemen calling to create a mood of possible danger 
• Circus music in the distance to create a mood of mystery and allure 
• Owls hooting to create an ominous atmosphere (4) 

7.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
The following is a guide: 
The irony is that Miem berates the people of the town who do not see the  danger of the Circus but she herself does not see the danger when she allows  Constable into the house. (2) 
7.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
The following is a guide: 
Despite Miem's warnings about the dangers of the Circus, Meisie is still both curious and excited. (2) 
7.5 Markers accept other relevant answers based on the candidate's knowledge  of light as a symbol in the play. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Light in the play symbolises: 

• Truth or the absence of truth 
• Enlightenment or the lack thereof 
• Constable hiding the truth from the other characters because he pretends to be blind and poses as a policeman 
• Repression of Miem's and Gertie's religious beliefs which is represented  by the dim lights of the oil lamps 
• The excitement of the mystical through the bright and colourful circus  lights (6)

7.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Award full marks for three well-motivated statements. 
The following is a guide: 
Miem: 

• Lives her life in fear of the unknown 
• Is paranoid about what she does not understand 
• Sees herself as the moral conscience of the community and feels she has  to warn them about the dangers of the Circus 
• Is judgemental when she refers to the people as 'dreadful' 
• Feels that she must protect Meisie from the evils of the world 
• Ironically hides Meisie from the world in the same way as her husband  hides from the world (4) 

7.7 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. 
Candidates should focus on an integrated analysis of how realism in the  theatre translated into preparation and performance of the character. Mention  could be made of Stanislavski's' System / Method. Other authentic, original  approaches to characterisation and acting would be acknowledged. 
The following is a guide: 
The stage direction, in line 15, describes Miem`s response to Gertie as  'angrily'. This guides the actor as to which emotional state he/she should be  in. The actor should find and express truthful emotions and feelings from this  angry state of mind. The actor`s vocal performance (pitch, tone, volume etc.)  and the physical performance (body posture, gesture and movements) should  authentically and truthfully correspond with this angry state and emotion. 
The actor could reflect an understanding of the following aspects of  Stanislavski's System, e.g.: 
Physical score of actions: 

• Actions and reactions should be realistic  
• Physical action (facial expression, gestures and movement) is used in the  creation of the play's life on stage 

Beat work: 

• Shifts in thought and feeling should be reflected effectively and realistically 
• Units and objectives should be reflected in the actor's physical and vocal  expression 

Vocal expression: 

• The illusion of a real conversation is created because the play is realistic
• Thoughts and feelings must be analysed and understood in order to be  reflected in the actor's tone, pace, rate, volume etc. 

Magic if: 

• The actor should live as if he/she is the character 
• Vocal and physical responses would vary from performance to  performance, but will always be experienced as truthful and as real as  possible 
• 'Acting is believing' 

Circles of attention: 

• The actor's focus should be on the world of the play and not on the  audience 

Emotional memory: 

• The actor can draw on personal experiences to tap into emotional reality in  performance 

Backstage before a performance the actor may choose to do:  

• Vocal and physical warm ups (examples of warm ups may be offered by  the candidate) 
• Relaxation exercises (examples may be given) 
• Make-up and costume relevant to the character  
• Focus and concentration exercises in order to recall preparation and work  in rehearsal according to Stanislavski's method (8) 

7.8 Refer to the notes below and the rubric in ANNEXURE B to inform your  marking. 
Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates  should display an understanding of how the supernatural is depicted in the  play. 
The following is a guide: 
The supernatural in the play is depicted and created by the: 

• Bizarre household of Miem and Meisie e.g. the father in the attic, the  manure on the lawn outside and the isolation of the house from the rest of  the town 
• Description of the unknown external environment, which is ominous and  mysterious and adds to the mood of the play 
• Mysterious and inexplicable incidences of the girls who disappear at  midnight every spring, representing and symbolising the stolen emergence  from youth into maturity 
• Use of unrealistic circus music which both lures and threatens, excites and  tempts, creating animated tension in the characters and audiences alike 
• Presence of the different types of wind, which symbolise threats from the  outside world and an evil presence 
• Presence of superstition and dreams which influence the mood and  actions of the characters in the play 
• Description of the freaks described by Gertie at the circus, which  characterises the grotesque, yet mesmerising nature of any evil or  temptation, which is what the circus may represent 
• The unseen presence of Gabriel in the attic also adds a supernatural  element ,because we never see him, although we, from time to time, hear  his moans and see buckets of his excrement lowered onto the stage (12) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION C: 40

SECTION D:THE HISTORY OF THEATRE, PRACTICAL CONCEPTS, CONTENT  AND SKILLS 
QUESTION 8  
8.1 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates  should display an understanding of Poor Theatre. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide:  
Poor Theatre: 

• Strips theatre from external technical elements and support, e.g.: lighting,  sound, costume etc.  
• Requires the actors to use their own personal resources to create the  environment (2) 

8.2 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates  should display an understanding of Grotowski's 'Holy Actor'. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Grotowski's views on actors and acting: 

• The actor is 'holy' and is a vehicle (body, voice, imagination, emotions) to  communicate with the audience 
• The role of an actor was the 'Act of laying oneself bare, of tearing off the  mask of daily life…' in order to be vulnerable and open to the experience  of the play and the audience 
• The actor must remain 'organic' in his/her reactions. Action and reaction  should be instantaneous, there should be no time-lapse between action  and reaction 
• Actors need to be highly trained physically and vocally in order to be able  to respond to the gruelling demands of playing Poor Theatre 
• Plastiques challenge the actor physically and psychologically, by creating  an external 'mask' using the entire body to express the deepest emotions 
• The perfect actor 'sacrifices' his body to acting by making an offering of  him or herself to the audience, laying himself or herself completely open to  the audience 
• Via Negativa – removal of emotional blocks by the systematic elimination  of any psychological barrier to expression (4)

8.3 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
Candidates  should display an understanding of how Poor Theatre was influential in  apartheid South Africa. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR 
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 

• During apartheid the majority of South Africans did not have access to  theatre spaces and budgets to produce plays, so Poor Theatre provided  an alternative means of producing plays without a big budget and because  the majority of the population were banned from attending state-owned  theatres, performances took place anywhere, including on the street, in  township halls, in churches, etc. 
• The ideas of Poor Theatre was introduced to the likes of Mbongeni Ngema  and Percy Mtwa by being exposed to Grotowski's 'Towards a Poor  Theatre', which explained his principles of performance 
• Plays were easier to stage and tour with minimal props, set and costumes (4) 

8.4 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates  should display an understanding of Stanislavski's influence as a theatre  practitioner. 
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR  
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 

• Stanislavski created techniques for actors in order to portray their  characters more realistically 
• He demanded more discipline from his actors 
• He transformed the art of acting into a more professional discipline (4) 

8.5 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
Candidates  should display an understanding of Grotowski's and Stanislavski's use of  theatre space. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR  
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
The actor-audience relationship: 

• Stanislavski created an invisible fourth wall between the actor and the  audience, although the relationship was intimate and empathic 
• Grotowski eliminated the distance between actor and audience in terms of  the spatial relationship by including both actor and audience in the same  'room', thus the audience was part of the production 
• Actors and audiences were transformed by the experience of Grotowski's  experimental theatre, whereas in the darkened auditorium of Stanislavski's  theatre, the audience could be lulled into a false sense of security (6)

8.6 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.  
Award full marks for: 

• Two well-motivated statements OR  
• Four separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Theatre could not compete with film because: 

• Film used technology which was not possible in theatre e.g.: celluloid  capturing of scenes which could be edited and retained for posterity 
• Theatre was a temporary experience, whereas film could be stored and  watched again and again 
• Film could utilise numerous locations and time frames 
• Film was popular and had large budgets available 
• Theatre is experienced by a restricted number of audience members in a  specific time and place and once it is over, it is gone (4) 

8.7 Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers.
Candidates  should display an understanding of the experience of watching a live  performance and watching a film. 
Award full marks for: 

• Three well-motivated statements OR 
• Six separate thoughts/ideas 

The following is a guide: 
Watching a live performance: 

• Is a personal and immediate experience 
• An audience member 'interacts' with the actors in a live manner 
• It is possible to respond by clapping, verbalising, crying or laughing, which  might also, in turn, influence the acting 

Watching a film: 

• Is impersonal in terms of any actor-audience relationship as the actors in a  film are not 'present' in the experience 
• One can be caught up in the hyper-realism and special effects of film in a  way that is not possible in the theatre 
• One can rewind, stop, watch a film over and over again and experience  the same performances at any given time (6) 

8.8 Refer to the notes below and ANNEXURE A to inform your marking. 
Markers accept other relevant and well-motivated answers. Candidates  should display an application of Stanislavski OR Grotowski OR Film in  practice. Award marks for responses that show an understanding of principles  in practice. (10) 

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION D: 40 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

ANNEXURE A: RUBRIC FOR QUESTIONS: 2, 3, 4, 8: 10 MARKS

ANNEXURE B: RUBRIC FOR QUESTIONS 5, 6, 7: 12 MARKS

BLOOMS' TAXONOMY

DANCE STUDIES
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of TWO sections with TEN questions in total.  Answer only SEVEN questions as follows:
   SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTHCARE (40 marks)
   • Answer THREE of the four questions in this section.
   • You have a choice between QUESTION 2 and  QUESTION 3. If you answer both questions, only the  FIRST answer will be marked.
     SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY (60 marks)
   • Answer FOUR of the six questions in this section.
   • You have a choice between QUESTION 7, QUESTION 8  and QUESTION 9. If you answer all three questions, only  the FIRST answer will be marked.
2. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper.
3. Read each question carefully and take note of what is required.
4. NOTE: If you are requested to explain/elaborate/describe/analyse/ evaluate/compare, write your answer in full sentences and give as  much information as possible. One-word answers will NOT be  accepted. 
5. You may do rough planning in the ANSWER BOOK. Draw a line through any  work that should NOT be marked. 
6. You will be assessed on your ability to: 
   • Organise and communicate information clearly
   • Use the specific format asked for in certain questions
   • Use specialist dance terminology where appropriate
7. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTH CARE 
QUESTION 1: COMPONENTS OF FITNESS (COMPULSORY) 
1.1 Choose a description from COLUMN B that matches a component in  COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–C) next to the question numbers  (1.1.1 to 1.1.3) in the ANSWER BOOK. 

1.2 What is the difference between cardiorespiratory endurance and muscular  endurance? (2) 
1.3 Explain THREE benefits of endurance in the dance class. (3) 
1.4 How could a dancer develop core stability? (3) 
1.5 How can core stability improve a dancer's performance in the dance class? (4) [15] 
NOTE: You have a choice between QUESTION 2 and QUESTION 3.  Answer only ONE of these questions. 

QUESTION 2: MENTAL HEALTH  
2.1 List THREE recognisable symptoms of stress/tension. (3) 
2.2 Give advice to your fellow classmates on how to prepare for the final practical  dance examination throughout the year. (4) 
2.3 Recommend THREE relaxation techniques to help a dancer cope with stress.  Explain your recommendations. (3) [10] 
OR

QUESTION 3: MUSCLES AND ANATOMICAL ACTIONS 
Study the photograph below and answer the questions that follow. 
3.1 List any THREE muscles in the anterior section of the trunk. (3) 

[Source: www.pinterest.com] 
3.2.1 Give TWO anatomical actions of the deltoid muscles. (2) 
3.2.2 Name the muscle group responsible for the anatomical action of  the dancer's knee joints. (1) 
3.2.3 Name TWO muscles responsible for the anatomical action of the  dancer's ankle joints. (2) 
3.2.4 State ONE anatomical action of the dancer's hips. (1) 
3.2.5 Name the muscle responsible for stabilising the dancer's pelvis and  lumbar spine. (1) [10]

QUESTION 4: INJURY PREVENTION AND TREATMENT (COMPULSORY) 
4.1 Choose any TWO letters from the word 'RICE' and describe the meaning of  each letter. (2) 
4.2 Explain THREE types of exercises a dancer can do after an injury to maintain  mobility of the muscles and joints. (3) 
4.3 State THREE safe dance practices a dancer can apply to prevent an injury  in the dance class. Explain EACH practice in detail. (6) 
4.4 Discuss FOUR treatment/rehabilitation practices for an injured dancer and  give the benefits of these treatments. (4) [15] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY  QUESTION 5: DANCE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY)
5.1 Explain the choreographic structures below:  
5.1.1. Motif  (1) 
5.1.2 Sequencing (1) 
5.1.3 Canon (1) 
5.1.4 Stillness (1) 
5.1.5 Climax (1) 
5.2 An example of contact work by shifting weight or lifting a partner is shown in  the photograph below. Evaluate the important factors to consider when  working with a partner.
 
[Source: www.google.co.za/search?q=Dancer%60s+picture] (5) [10]

QUESTION 6: DANCE FORMS AND MULTIDICIPLINARY WORK (COMPULSORY) 
6.1 Analyse the benefits of mixing different dance forms/genres/styles when  choreographing dance works. (6) 
6.2 Discuss and elaborate on your understanding of multidisciplinary dance  works. (4) [10] 
NOTE: You have a choice between QUESTION 7, QUESTION 8 and QUESTION 9. 
Answer only ONE of these questions. 

QUESTION 7: MARTHA GRAHAM AND LAMENTATION 

[Source: https://kddance.wordpress.com] 
7.1 Describe Martha Graham's background, training and career.  (9) 
7.2  Explain how Martha Graham's Lamentation was innovative for that time. 
Refer to the following: 
7.2.1 The movement vocabulary and symbolism
7.2.2 The production elements (8)
7.3 Evaluate how the music enhanced the theme of Lamentation.  (4) 
7.4 Martha Graham is often referred to as 'the mother of contemporary dance'.
 Do you think Martha Graham's choreography and dance technique made an impact on dance and society? Substantiate your answer. (4) [30] 

OR
QUESTION 8: VINCENT MANTSOE AND GULA MATARI 

[Source: www.thebusinessofmusicanddance.com] 
8.1 Describe Vincent Mantsoe's background, training and career. (9) 
8.2 Gula Matari deals with a very specific theme. Explain how this theme was  portrayed in the following: 
8.2.1 The movement vocabulary and symbolism (8) 
8.2.2 The production elements (4) 
8.3 Evaluate how the music enhanced the dance work. (5) 
8.4 Vincent Mantsoe drew on his own heritage and used this as an inspiration for  his own choreography.  
Do you think Mantsoe's use of his own heritage has had an influence on  South African dancers and choreographers? Substantiate your answer. (4) [30] 

OR
QUESTION 9: CHOREOGRAPHER AND DANCE WORK 
Choose ONE of the choreographers and ONE of his/her dance works from the  prescribed list below. 

9.1 Give the name of the choreographer and the title of the dance work that you  have chosen. 
9.2 Describe the choreographer's background, training and career. (9) 
9.3 Explain how the choreographer portrayed the theme/intent of this work  through the use of the following: 
9.3.1 The movement vocabulary and symbolism (8)
9.3.2 The production elements  (4) 
9.4 Evaluate how the music/accompaniment enhanced the dance work. (5) 
9.5 Do you think this choreographer has made an impact on the dance world?  Substantiate your answer. (4) [30]

QUESTION 10: SYMBOLISM (COMPULSORY) 
NOTE: Do not answer on the same choreographer and dance work you chose for  QUESTION 7, QUESTION 8 or QUESTION 9. 
Choose ONE of the dance works from the list below.  

10.1 Give the name of the choreographer and the title of the dance work that you  have chosen. 
10.2 Describe the synopsis/intent/theme/idea of the dance work. (4) 
10.3 Evaluate how the choreographer used symbolism within his/her dance work. (6) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 60
GRAND TOTAL: 100

DANCE STUDIES
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

NOTE TO MARKERS: 
Adhere strictly to these marking guidelines when marking. The standardisation process  during marking guidelines discussions ensures that the marking guidelines cover most  possible responses candidates could provide. Every marker must understand and  apply it in the same way consistently. In some qualitative questions, exercise your  professional and informed judgement. 
This question paper must be marked by experienced dance teachers/  advisors/officials as it requires specialist knowledge. 

• In some questions, candidates have a choice. If candidates have answered both  questions, mark only the answers to the FIRST question. 
• Candidates may give a wide variety of answers depending on what they have  covered in class. 
• High, medium or low cognitive levels expected in each answer are included above  each possible answer. 
• Markers should NOT award full marks for an answer that is superficial and minimal. 
• Look for what the candidate knows, not what he/she doesn't know. • Allocate ticks for the content provided up to the maximum marks.  
• Where rubrics are provided – use these to verify the cognitive levels and quality of  the answers. Full marks should not be awarded if all bullets/requirements have not  been met.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: SAFE DANCE PRACTICE AND HEALTH CARE
QUESTION 1: COMPONENTS OF FITNESS (COMPULSORY)

LOW LEVEL 1.1 Matching 3 marks
                      1.2 Comparing 2 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL 1.3 Explaining 3 marks
HIGH LEVEL 1.4 Explaining 3 marks
                      1.5 Evaluating 4 marks
ANSWERS:
1.1
1.1.1 C (1) 
1.1.2 A (1) 
1.1.3 B (1) 
NOTE: Bullets are used to aid marking.

1.2 

• Cardiorespiratory endurance is the ability of the heart and lungs to  pump oxygen rich blood to the muscles over a long period of time. 
• Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle to do many contractions  over a long period of time.  (2) 

1.3 

• Increased stamina improves your performance ability 
• It increases the oxygen supply to your muscles 
• It reduces the risk of fatigue, enhances concentration and reduces stress  levels 
• It boosts your immune system and reduces the risk of injury 
• Endurance can prevent injury caused by fatigue 
• Any other suitable answers.  (3) 

1.4 

• Consistently practicing good posture and being aware of maintaining correct alignment during all movements. 
• Engaging the abdominal muscles during movement, especially when the movement requires you to work out of neutral alignment. 
• Maintaining a balance of strength between the abdominal and back  muscles. 
• Conditioning the stabilising muscles in moving and holding positions. 
• Performing regular conditioning exercises for the abdominal and back  muscles. 
• You need to exercise ALL the muscles that stabilise the spine & pelvis 
• (i.e. Doing crunches is not enough)
  • Examples of core strengthening exercises:
  • Skip with a twist (works the core & increases heart rate )
  • Plank & side Plank
  • Bicycle Crunch, in the air (supine) head lifted
  • Bridge exercise
• This must be done 2-4 times a week to see an improvement. 
• Any other suitable answers. (3)

1.5

• Core stability is an important part of overall fitness, especially in dance  where a strong centre or core is needed to maintain balance while moving  through space. 
• Your body is designed for both mobility and stability which means that  while some body parts move others need to hold or stabilize.  
• Maintaining strength in the torso throughout all movement will make you  more stable, give more power to your movements and prevent stress to  your spine.  
• The abdominal muscles also attach the pelvis to the spine. This means the  position of the pelvis plays an important role in posture and strength.  
• Will add grace/line to all movements. 
• Make your dancing look effortless. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4) [15] 

QUESTION 2: MENTAL HEALTH  
LOW LEVEL              2.1       Listing                     3 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL       2.2       Advising                 4 marks
                                  2.3       Recommending 3 marks

POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
2.1 Candidates can list any THREE. They may add other symptoms that  have not been included in the list below. 

• Physical (muscle tension/stiffness, cramps, aches and pains, frequent  colds, rapid heartbeats) 
• Mental (moody, irritable, unhappy, lonely) 
• Lack of sleep or sleeping too much 
• Loss of appetite or eating too much 
• Strained relationships (family, friends, peer pressure) 
• Constant worrying 
• Uncertainty (lack of confidence) 
• Unrealistic expectations 
• Any other suitable answers. (3) 

2.2 

• Candidates should provide clear explanations on how to prepare   throughout the year for the final practical exams. 
• Attend all your practical classes so that your mind and body are fully  prepared for the demands of the exam. 
• Follow a balanced diet to ensure that the body performs at its best. 
• Keep well hydrated to prevent fatigue and loss of concentration. 
• Stretch regularly to prevent tension and stress in the muscles and joints. 
• Avoid dangerous activities that could cause an injury that will prevent you  from doing the exam. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4)

2.3 Candidates should recommend and explain THREE relaxation  techniques. Do not award marks if candidates only name a technique  without explaining it. 

• To relax and reduce muscle tension: lie on the floor and feel  comfortable, imagine a peaceful setting and then focus on controlled,  relaxing breathing, slowing your heart rate, or feeling different physical  sensations, such as relaxing each arm or leg one by one. 
• Focus on slowly tensing and then relaxing each muscle group: this  helps you focus on the difference between muscle tension and relaxation.  Start by tensing and relaxing the muscles in your toes and then slowly  working your way up to your neck and head. You can also start with your  head and neck and work down to your toes. Tense your muscles for at  least five seconds and then relax for 10 seconds, and repeat. 
• Close eyes and visualise taking a journey to a peaceful, calming  place or situation. Choose that place, try to use as many senses as you  can, including smell, sight, sound and touch. Imagine relaxing on a hot day  in a beautiful forest with soft grass and high trees, think about such things  as the smell of the trees, the sound of the wind, the coolness of the grass  and the sunrays through the leaves. Calming the mind will release the  tension in the body. 
• Petting a dog or cuddling an animal, talking to a friend about good  things or hugging a friend is also ways to reduce your stress levels and  calm the senses. 
• Apply relaxation techniques such as meditation, yoga, stretching and  swinging types of movements. This will release the tension in the  muscles. 
• A comfortable and well-ventilated environment with as little noise as  possible and subdued lighting will ensure relaxation. 
• Self-massage when your muscles are tensed. Rub or squeeze the  muscles of your shoulders and neck to release muscular tension. 
• Any other suitable answer. (3) [10] 

OR

QUESTION 3: MUSCLES AND ANATOMICAL ACTIONS  
LOW LEVEL              3.1      Listing            3 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL       3.2      Discussing    3 marks
                                  3.3      Analysing      4 marks
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
3.1 NOTE: Candidates may choose ANY three muscles in the anterior part of the  core. Only mark the first THREE correct answers. 
Any of the following: 

• Pectoralis major 
• Rectus abdominis 
• External obliques 
• Internal obliques 
• Transversus abdominis 
• Serratus Anterior (3) 

3.2
3.2.1 Abduction and external rotation (2)
3.2.2 Quadriceps femoris (1)
3.2.3 Tibialis posterior/Gastrocnemius/Soleus (2)
3.2.4 Abduction/outward rotation (1)
3.2.5 Quadratus Lumborum (1) [10]

QUESTION 4:  INJURIES AND PREVENTION/TREATMENT (COMPULSORY)
LOW LEVEL:             4.1      Describing      2 marks
                                 4.2      Explaining      3 marks
                                 4.3      Providing         3 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL       4.3      Explaining      3 marks
                                 4.4      Discussing     4 marks
POSSIBLE ANSWERS:
4.1 Any TWO of the following: 

• Rest - stop the activity that caused the injury, and rest the injured joint or  muscle. Avoid activity for the first 48 to 72 hours after injuring yourself. 
•  Ice - for the first 48 to 72 hours after the injury, apply ice wrapped in a  damp towel to the injured area for 15 to 20 minutes every two to three  hours during the day. 
• Compression - compressing or bandaging the injured area to limit any  swelling and movement that could damage it further.  
• Elevation keeping the injured area raised and supported on a pillow to  help reduce swelling. (2) 

4.2 Any THREE below: 

• Non-weight bearing exercises – in the case of an ankle injury, plantar  and dorsi flexing the foot in an elevated position will be beneficial for  reducing swelling. 
• Weight-bearing exercises – start with partial weight-bearing exercises  and progressing to full weight-bearing exercises using a balancing board/  cushion. 
• Floor work – maintaining core strength, continue with floor exercises during the healing period of an ankle or knee joint injury. 
• Physiotherapy – avoid stopping with exercise completely; your doctor or  physiotherapist will be able to teach you a range of exercises that will help  you to improve the mobility of the joint. In cases of severe ankle or knee  sprains, the joint should be immobilised. 
• Any other suitable answers. (3)

4.3 Candidates should provide THREE safe dance practices for 3 marks and  be able to explain each practice for 3 marks.  
Any THREE of the following: 

• Warming up properly before exercise – will prepare the muscles and  focus the mind on the class ahead. 
• Cooling down at the end of class - will get the heart rate back to normal  and prevent blood pooling in the limbs. 
• Avoid strenuous exercise when tired - fatigued muscles injure more  easily. 
• Apply correct posture and alignment - will reduce stress and tension on  spine and joints. 
• Apply correct landing techniques - landing through the foot and bending  at the end of the jump will help to reduce effects of shock/hard landings. 
• Keep studio, dressing room, free of clutter – to avoid tripping and  falling. Avoid dancing, running or walking on slippery, sticky or on uneven  floors to avoid falling. 
• Improve endurance and overall fitness – will prevent fatigue which  could lead to injury. 
• Wear the correct dance clothes – baggy clothes could cause  tripping/slipping/falling and tight clothing could restrict movement.
  Jewellery and long nails are not allowed while dancing – to ensure safety  of other dancers. 
• Be aware of own personal space as well as that of others – avoid  bumping into one another which could cause injury. 
• Do not attempt big uncontrolled movements when not warm enough – this could damage muscles/joints. 
• Any other suitable answers. (6) 

4.4 • Physiotherapy - can strengthen the surrounding muscles and other areas  of the body at the same time/help support the injured muscle.  

• Ultrasound treatment - can reduce swelling and inflammation. 
• Medication - such as anti-inflammatory pills can help reduce swelling.
• Surgery - might be necessary in severe cases where other treatments  might not be sufficient– will help repair injuries, e. g broken bones that  cannot be treated successfully in any other way. 
• Non weight bearing exercises 
• Floor work 
• Any other suitable answer. (4) [15] 

TOTAL SECTION A: 40

SECTION B: DANCE HISTORY AND LITERACY 
QUESTION 5: DANCE COMPOSITION (COMPULSORY) 
MEDIUM LEVEL       5.1      Explaining      5 marks
HIGH LEVEL             5.2      Evaluating      5 marks
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
5.1
5.1.1 Motif  

• A recurring movement or gesture that can be elaborated on/  developed in a variety of ways in the process. (1) 

5.1.2 Sequencing 

• Refers to the order in which movements, motifs and phrases are  put together. (1) 

5.1.3 Canon  

• One group of dancers start a movement or sequence and then  repeated precisely by the next group of dancers one after the  other- like a Mexican wave. (1) 

5.1.4 Stillness 

• Moments of quiet within a dance to create atmosphere. (1) 

5.1.5 Climax 

• The highlight or memorable moment of a dance.  (1) 

5.2 

• You need sufficient strength to control the lifts so as not to drop your  partner. 
• You must understand the correct lifting techniques so that neither partner  is injured. 
• You both need to have an equal sense of give and take for partnering to  be successful. 
• It is important to treat the bodies of your dance partners and your own with  respect to avoid injury. 
• You and your partner should make each other feel safe at all times. This  will allow you both to feel confident and in control when doing lifts. 
• You must be creative and not feel self-conscious or threatened. 
• You must be sensitive in the way you move with other dancers. 
• Avoid wearing jewellery or loose-fitting clothing that can get caught or  entangled. 
• When lifting, ensure that you take the strain off your back by bending your  knees and using your core muscles. 
• You must be able to communicate well when working together. 
• Partnering means that you sometimes have to give control to your partner,  so you have to trust your partner. 
• Any other possible answers. (5) [10]

QUESTION 6: DANCE FORMS AND MULTI-DICIPLINARY WORKS (COMPULSORY) 
MEDIUM LEVEL       6.1      Analysing       6 marks
HIGH LEVEL             6.2      Discussing     4 marks
NOTE: One word answers will not be accepted. Bullets used to aid marking.  More information has been provided than expected. Use professional  judgement when assessing creative/out of the box/unusual  interpretations and mark accordingly. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
6.1 NOTE: Candidates must explain the benefits of mixing different dance  forms.  

• By combining different techniques or dance forms you will come up with  new dance movement/vocabulary. 
• You could create a whole new dance style by mixing/combining elements  from different genres. 
• It would make your work individual/different to anything others have done  before. 
• It will inhance the dancer`s imaginations and require them to broaden their  scope/vocabulary. 
• It will expose dancers/audiences to different types/styles of dance. 
• Inspiration can be drawn from different cultures to discover new ideas. 
• Mixing dance forms exposes dancers and audiences to different cultures. 
• Can excite audiences as it could be unexpected. 
• Could promote a sense of freedom as there are no restrictions to movement  possibilities. 
• Chosen genres can serve as guides to explore new possibilities when  mixing movement/music. 
• Possibility of costume design from different dance genres/styles can be  developed through fusing different designs. 
• To break away any stereo types of dance/dancers. 
• Any other suitable answers.  (6) 

6.2 Candidates could include any of the following that could be  combined/included in a dance work: 

• Acting/text 
• Speaking 
• Singing 
• Live music/bands/accompaniment 
• Sculptures 
• Art work 
• Visual effects/technology
• Any other suitable answers (4)  [10]

QUESTION 7: MARTHA GRAHAM AND LAMENTATION 
LOW LEVEL            7.1       Describing           9 marks
                                7.2.2    Explaining           4 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL     7.2.1    Explaining           8 marks
HIGH LEVEL            7.3       Evaluating           5 marks
                                 7.4       Substantiating    4 marks
NOTE: Use professional judgement when allocating marks. Bullets are used to  guide markers on possible types of answers that could be provided. Do  not award marks for repetitive/superficial answers. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
7.1

• Her family were strict Presbyterians and strongly opposed her participating  in the performing arts 
• Graham persuaded her farther to take her to see a performance by Ruth  St Denis. This performance made a big impact upon Graham and inspired  her to become a dancer. 
• Because of her father's disapproval, Graham could only start dancing after  his death. 
• The 22-year-old Graham went to the Denishawn School where she  received her basic training. 
• Graham and Shawn danced together in leading roles this gave Graham  widespread exposure. 
• She left Denishawn and moved to New York where she  began to work on new dance technique that would alter the ideas of  movement in dance. 
• She also worked with a Broadway revue to support herself and gained a reputation for her dancing. 
• After 10 years of dancing for others, Graham performed her first solo  concert. 
• She started the Martha Graham School of Modern Dance as well as  forming her own Dance Company in 1926. 
• Any other suitable answers. (9) 

7.2
7.2.1 Movement vocabulary and symbolism: 

• The three stages of grief are portrayed through movement. 
• Her use of contraction and release are evident throughout the  work. 
• The dancer would reflect her inner thoughts through  movements of the body as in angular, explosive and stylised  gestures. The harsh and angular movements showed the  feelings of grief and despair which are never pretty. 
• Every sharp angular movement that the dancer makes is a  manifestation of the terrible war being waged within her. 
• Rocking stiffly from side to side, she tugs, pulls and pushes at  the confining fabric with her hands, elbows, knees and  shoulders to express her emotions which reflect her inner  thoughts through the movements of the body. 
• The use of deep contractions shows her anguish and pain. 
• The only parts of her body showing are her hands, feet and  face. These body parts are used effectively to show the pain  and emotion she is going through – many of the movements are  very ugly, e.g. the use of flexed and sickled feet – symbolising  the fact that grief is not pretty.  
• The reaching arm movements convey the feeling the dancer is  either reaching for help or as she looks up, asking for spiritual  help.  
• All the movements remain rooted to the bench – she never  leaves it. This symbolises the fact that she cannot escape from  her grief and has to remain in this situation until she has  resolved it.  
• Any other suitable answer. (8)

7.2.2 Production elements: 
Costume: 

• The dancer is dressed in a tube of purple stretch jersey fabric,  symbolic of her own body trapped within her grief. 
• Only her face, hands and feet are seen. 
• The costume creates a caged effect allowing the audience to  sense the entrapment of grief. 
• The costume also allows the dancer to pull, tug and push the  confining fabric creating different visual lines and angles. • Any other suitable answers. 

Set design/props: 

• The only prop is a wooden bench- this prop is central to the  whole dance. 
• Any other suitable answers. 

Lighting: 

• The stage is darkly lit except for a single white spot-light above  the dancer. 
• The white light creates a harsh and unforgiving feeling placing  emphasis on reality. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4) 

7.3 How the music enhanced the theme: 

• This is an anguished classical piano piece. 
• The score plays a vital part in setting the atmosphere. 
• It follows the three stages of grief performed by the dancer.

Stage 1: 

• As the dancer begins the chords are gentle-symbolic of disbelief.

Stage 2: 

• The chords become more dissonant (harsh) as the dancer fights against  reality. 
• It builds up to the climax in which the dancer has to face reality and fight  the war within herself. 

Stage 3: 

• The music eventually subsides as she has to deal with her grief on her  own. 
• Any other suitable answers. (5) 

7.4 

• Graham's creative vocabulary gave rise to her technique and to the  international vocabulary of contemporary dance.  
• To this day, the Martha Graham technique is practiced throughout the  world. 
• Graham was one of the pioneers of contemporary dance as we know it  today.  
• Graham compiled a system of exercises that provided the equivalent of a  daily ballet class for her modern dancers.  
• This had not been done before. She codified a language for modern dance  for following generations of dancers and teachers to use. 
• She encouraged awareness of the human body and the mystery that it  possesses. 
• Graham's revolutionary dance technique is her greatest achievement. It  had an impact on all other branches of contemporary dance and  established Graham as the person who made the single greatest  contribution to contemporary dance. 
• Many great aspects of contemporary and ballet choreographers were  inspired by her or danced in her company, e.g. Alvin Ailey, Merce  Cunningham, Paul Taylor and Twyla Tharp. 
• While working and teaching she began experimenting with contemporary  dance forms. She rejected classical ballet and its traditional steps and  focused on natural motion and what the body could do based on its  structure. 
• She established what is call the 'percussive movements' and the principle  of contraction and release. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4) [30] 

OR

QUESTION 8: VINCENT MANTSOE AND GULA MATARI 
LOW LEVEL             8.1       Describing         9 marks
                                 8.2.2    Explaining         4 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL      8.2.1    Explaining         8 marks
HIGH LEVEL            8.3       Evaluating         5 marks
                                 8.4       Substatiating    4 marks
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
8.1

• Vincent Mantsoe was born into a family that followed strict African tradition  and cultural practices.  
• His mother, grandmother and aunt were sangomas and even though  Vincent never became one he often took part in the dancing and singing  aspects of these rituals.  
• This created a love for ritual dancing and singing in him. 
• He spoke to his grandmother so that she could ask for permission from the  ancestors to do certain ritual dance aspects in his pieces. 
• Mantsoe started dancing at a young age and was part of a dance group  called The Joy Dancers. His dance group often copied the dance styles of  people like Michael Jackson but tried to put their own street style to it.  
• This had a great influence on his cross-genre choreography. 
• He was also part of 2 youth groups called Street Dance and the Rathabile  Youth Club. 
• Mantsoe auditioned for and was accepted into Moving into Dance  company run by Sylvia Glasser. He started dancing professionally in  1989/90. 
• Sylvia Glasser is well known for her fusion of dance styles (Afro- fusion)  and this had a big impact on how Mantsoe choreographed. 
• Through all of his training he was exposed to many different African and  contemporary dance styles. 
• In 1992 he received his diploma from the Moving into Dance (MID)  Community Dance Teacher's Training Program.  
• He has also taught many professionals and dance teachers in his career. 
• He now lives in France but returns to South Africa on a regular basis to  work with/inspire artists. 
• Any other suitable answers. (9)

8.2.1 Movement vocabulary and symbolism: 

• The movements in this piece mimic those of birds as the dancer  is taken over by the spirit of the bird. 
• Bent joints (arms, legs and body) are used and this way of  carrying the body reminds us of the shape of birds and how they  move.  
• There are very few straight lines in nature and the movements  reflect that. 
• The head movements are sharp and quick like a bird. 
• The shoulders are used with small but sharp movements or  rolls.  
• The arms are used as wings which are often moving like that of  a bird flying. 
• The fingers are often spread out like feathers. 
• Jumps are done with bent legs and flexed feet reminding us of  the awkward hops and leaps of birds. 
• The restlessness of the movements is punctuated by moments  of stillness, mimicking the birds as they are on the lookout for  danger. 
• Any other suitable answers. (8) 

8.2.2 Production elements: 
Costumes: 

• The male dancers wear baggy calf-length pants with a bird like  design on.  
• The females wear a short skirt and a bikini-like top made out of  the same fabric as the males. 
• Both male and females are barefoot. 
• The fabric of the costume creates a camouflaged look. This  rings true to what birds do in nature.  
• Any other suitable answers. 

Set design: 

• The stage is bare – allowing the audience to place this dance  work in their own imagined environment. 

Lighting: 

• The use of dark blue light that interchanges with a more natural  bright light.  
• A small amount of white light is used from the front-of-house  lights to make the faces more visible.  
• The blue lights are used to symbolise the early morning before  sunrise.  
• The blue light is also used when a moment of danger  approaches. 
• This blue light is used again at the end to symbolise the night  time and the end of the piece. 
• The majority of the dance piece is done in a soft yellow (or even  white) light.  
• This symbolises daylight and enhances the idea of watching  birds in their natural habitat. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4)

8.3 How the music enhanced the theme: 

• The music was composed by Gabrielle Roth. 
• She was well known for her ability to heal the soul through the use of her  music and this ties in well with the spirituality of the dance work. 
• This particular piece of music focuses a lot on drumming with moments of  quietness in between. 
• It creates an atmosphere of being surrounded by nature. 
• The moments of quietness in the music compliments and mimics the  dance movements beautifully to support the idea of how birds  move/possible danger. 
• The music builds in intensity throughout the dance work and this supports  the movements as more dancers (birds) join in the action. 
• It then calms down and brings the audience back to a more focused state  as we are left with only a single dancer (bird) onstage. 
• The composed track is interlinked with moments of no music. This is when  you can hear the dancers whistle like birds. The fact that they produce the  sound themselves link with the idea of the spirit of the bird entering the  human body. 
• These whistling moments are used very well to start and finish the dance  work thus creating a satisfying ending to the dance. 
• Any other suitable answers. (5) 

8.4 Contributions: 

• Developing and nurturing pride in our African roots 
• Bring heritage and cultural beliefs into the public domain – educating  people and dancers/choreographers to draw from their own background  for inspiration. 
• Nurturing young choreographers to explore further the use of cultural  heritage/identity in their works. 
• Many young choreographers are more confident to use elements from  their culture as it can be regarded as disrespectful if not done correctly. 
• Any other suitable answers. (4) [30] 

OR

QUESTION 9: CHOREOGRAPHER AND DANCE WORK  
LOW LEVEL             9.2       Describing           9 marks
                                 9.3.2    Explaining           4 marks
MEDIUM LEVEL      9.3.1    Explaining           8 marks
HIGH LEVEL            9.4       Evaluating           5 marks
                                 9.5       Substantiating    4 marks
NOTE: Candidates must choose ONE choreographer and ONE dance work from the  prescribed list. Candidates may not write on Graham or Mantsoe. 
POSSIBLE ANSWERS: 
9.1 The name of the choreographer and dance work. 
9.2 Choreographer's background, training and career: 

• Places where they grew up 
• Socio-political factors 
• Training/dance schools 
• People/mentors 
• Teachers 
• Choreographic career and dance works 
• Collaborations 
• Dance companies associated with 
• Any other suitable answers. (9) 

9.3
9.3.1 NOTE: Do not award full marks if symbolism has not been  included. 

• Dance genres used 
• Fusion of dance genres  
• Use of everyday movements/mime/gestures, etc. 
• Symbolism used in the movements 
• Any other suitable answers. (8) 

9.3.2 Production elements: 
Costumes:  

• Style/colour/design and how they expressed their ideas
  Props/sets: describe and explain why they were used 

Special effects:  

• Projections/images/sound/voice, etc. 
• How they added to the synopsis/intent meaning 

Lighting:  

• Colours used – atmosphere/effect/mood 
• Any other suitable answers. (4)

9.4 How the music enhanced the dance work: 

• Genre/Style of music 
• Instrumentation – how this affects movement/mood 
• Tempo/dynamics, etc. 
• Use of vocals/accompaniment/other 
• How it contributed to the overall success of the work with examples. 
• Any other suitable answers. (5) 

9.5 Contributions: 

• Job creation 
• Outreach/upliftment/mentoring programs 
• Mentoring upcoming choreographers 
• Recognition/achievements 
• Creating new movement vocabularies/styles/techniques 
• Any other suitable answers. (4) [30] 

QUESTION 10: SYMBOLISM IN DANCE (COMPULSORY) 
LOW LEVEL:     10.2         Describing          4 marks
HIGH LEVEL      10.3         Evaluating          6 marks
NOTE: If candidates repeat the same choreographer/dance work as answered in  QUESTION 7 or QUESTION 8 or QUESTION 9 they will receive a zero mark. 
10.1 Candidates must provide the name of selected choreographer and  dance work. 
10.2 Synopsis/intent/theme/idea: 

• Description of synopsis/intent/theme/idea 
• Influences that prompted the idea 
• Any other related areas to the theme (4) 

10.3 Symbolism used in:  

• Costumes 
• Backdrops 
• Props 
• Lighting 
• Movement vocabulary 
• Technologies 
• Stage space 
• Any other suitable answer showing how symbolism is used (6) [10] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 60
GRAND TOTAL: 100

CONSUMER STUDIES
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SCE PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1: SHORT QUESTIONS
1.1
1.1.1 A✔  Remembering, easy (Focus, p.166; Successful, p. 184) (1)
1.1.2 C✔ Understanding, easy (Focus, p.165; Successful, p. 181) (1)
1.1.3 B✔  Remembering, easy (Focus, p.169-171; Success, p. 190-191) (1)
1.1.4 C✔  Understanding, easy (Focus, p. 106; Successful, p. 128) (1)
1.1.5 A✔  Remembering, moderate (Focus p. 83; Successful p. 74) (1)
1.1.6 C✔  Understanding, easy (Focus, p. 89; Successful, p. 103) (1)
1.1.7 A✔  Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 84; Successful, p. 100) (1)
1.1.8 B✔  Analysing, difficult (Focus p. 80; Successful p. 93) (1)
1.1.9 B✔  Applying, moderate (Grade 11) (1)
1.1.10 D✔  Applying, moderate (Grade 11) (1)
1.1.11 B✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 120; Successful, p. 139) (1)
1.1.12 A✔  Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 120; Successful, p. 304) (1)
1.1.13 C✔  Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 128; Successful, p. 146) (1)
1.1.14 D✔ Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 136; Successful, p. 153) (1)
1.1.15 C✔  Remembering, moderate (Focus, p. 156; Successful, p. 161) (1)
1.1.16 D✔ Understanding, moderate (Focus, p. 37; Successful, p.19) (1)
1.1.17 B✔ Remembering, easy (Focus, p. 29; Successful, p. 28) (1)
1.1.18 A✔  Remembering, moderate (Focus, p.16; Successful, p. 21) (1)
1.1.19 C✔  Applying, moderate (Focus, p.37; Successful, p. 38) (1)
1.1.20 D✔  Understanding, moderate (Focus, p.8, 13; Successful p.11) (1)
1.2
1.2.1 E✔  (Focus, page 82; Successful, page 94) (1)
1.2.2 D✔  (Focus, page 79; Successful, page 93) (1)
1.2.3 F✔  (Focus, page 77; Successful, page 86) (1)
1.2.4 C✔  (Focus, page 71; Successful, page 78) (1)
1.2.5 A✔  (Focus, page 75; Successful, page 89) (1)
 Remembering, easy
1.3
1.3.1 Contract✔  (Focus, page 155; Successful, page 169) (1)
1.3.2 Exemption clause✔ (Focus, page 156; Successful, page 173) (1)
1.3.3 Guarantee✔ (Focus, page 175; Successful, page 158) (1)
1.3.4 Grey goods/parallel imports✔ (Focus, page 158; Successful, page 176) (1)
1.3.5 Stokvel✔ (Focus, page 161; Successful, page 177) (1)
1.3.6 Tiered-level scheme/multilevel marketing scheme✔ (Focus, page 162; Successful, page 179) (1)
Remembering, easy (3) moderate (3)
1.4

B✔ 
D✔ 
H✔  (Any order) (3)

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 123; Successful, page 141)
1.5
1.5.1 D✔ and H✔ (2)
1.5.2 A✔ and F✔ (2)
1.5.3 C✔ and G✔ (2)
Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 49-50; Successful, page 50)[40]

QUESTION 2: THE CONSUMER 
2.1 State the beginning and end dates of an income tax year. 

• 1 March to 28(/29) February✓ (1)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 163; Successful, page 180) 

2.2 Name the institution that collects tax. 

• South African Revenue Service (SARS)✓ (1)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 163; Successful, page 181) 

2.3 Name the TWO types of direct income tax. 

• Pay as you earn (PAYE)✓ 
• Provisional tax✓ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 163; Successful, page 181) 

2.4.1 Define the term inflation. 

• Inflation is the average increase in prices✓ of goods and services  in a year/country.✓ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 167; Successful, page 184) 

2.4.2 Name the instrument that is used to determine inflation. 

• Consumer price index (CPI).✓ (1)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 167; Successful, page 185) 

2.4.3 Explain why it is better for David to have a fixed interest instead of  a fluctuating interest on his study loan. 

• The fixed interest amount will not change✓over the number  of years even if the interest rate increases.✓ Fluctuating  interest amount will fluctuate/increase and decrease over the  number of years✓ as the interest rate increases and  decreases.✓ Fixed interest means that he can stick to his  budget/ budget more precisely.✓Fluctuating interest makes it difficult to stick to his budget if the interest rate increases.✓   (Any 3) (3) 

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 167; Successful, page 184)
2.4.4 Explain why David buys the bed on an instalment sale transaction and the television on a lay-by agreement. 

• He finds it difficult to live within the means/limitations of his  budget, therefore he has to buy on credit/could not pay  cash.✓  
• David could afford a deposit towards the bed✓ and a deposit  towards the television.✓ 
• He needs the bed immediately✓ to sleep on therefore he  buys it on instalment sale in order to take it home✓ and use it  while he pays the remaining balance in monthly instalments✓ over a period of time. 
• David does not need the television urgently✓ and buys it on  lay-by. The television will remain in the shop until he pays  the final instalment.✓ Only then will he take the television  home.✓ This is a cheaper payment option than instalment  sale as no interest is paid.✓ (Any 6) (6) 

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 148; Successful, page 162; 171) 
2.5 Discuss the interrelationship between the value of money, inflation and the  South African Reserve Bank. 

• Inflation means that prices increase✔ and the value of money  decreases.✓ People have less disposable income.✔ The higher the rate  of inflation, the less the consumer can purchase with the same amount  of money/inflation decreases the purchasing power of money.✔ 
• The South African Reserve Bank uses the CPI to set the level of interest  rates/repo rate in the country.✔ 
• If the interest rate on savings is lower than the inflation rate, the saved  money becomes less valuable/worth less/can buy less.✔ (Any 4) (4)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 167; Successful, page 185) [20]

QUESTION 3: FOOD AND NUTRITION 
3.1.1 Name the TWO types of cholesterol. 

• Low density lipoprotein (cholesterol)✔ 
• High density lipoprotein (cholesterol)✔ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 74; Successful, page 84) 

3.1.2 Explain the difference between the two types of cholesterol. 

• Low-density lipoprotein is the dangerous/bad✔ cholesterol. High density lipoprotein is the good✔ cholesterol.  
• Low-density lipoprotein builds up in the arteries/found in the fat  deposits.✔ High-density lipoprotein gathers up excess cholesterol and  transports it to the liver.✓ 
• Low-density lipoprotein causes the gradual narrowing of the blood  vessels.✔ High-density lipoprotein is broken down and excreted.✔ 
• Low-density lipoprotein contributes to heart disease,✓ while high density  lipoprotein lowers the risk of coronary heart disease.✓ (Any 2 x 2) (4)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 74; Successful, page 84) 

3.2 Write a paragraph to discuss why genetically modified crops may save the  world from starvation in the future. 

• Genetically modified crops may save the world from starvation in the future  as crops may have an increased resistance to disease/insects,✔ drought✔ and fluctuations in temperature,✔ which makes it possible for crops to be  grown in regions with low agricultural productivity.✔ The crop yield is  greater/food is more plentiful✔ and more people can be fed. Production  costs may be lower/food is cheaper,✔ so more people can afford food.✔  Food products made from genetically modified crops have a longer shelf  live/better quality products,✔ so there will be less food wastage.✔  Genetically modified foods have a better nutritional value✔ so people can eat  less and are still well nourished.✔ (Any 6) (6) 

Applying, difficult (Focus, page 103; Successful, page 123) 
NOTE: Deduct ONE mark if not written in paragraph format.

3.3.1 Name THREE different types of additives in the dish. 

• Antioxidants✔ 
• Flavouring✔ 
• Colorant✔ 
• Preservative✔ (Any 3) (3)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 93-94; Successful, page 113-114) 

3.3.2 State ONE concern about the use of sodium nitrite. 

• It may be carcinogenic/causing cancer.✔ 
• It may cause allergies.✔ (Any 1) (1)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 94; Successful, page 114) 

3.3.3 Explain the function of sodium nitrite in this dish. 

• Lengthens/prolongs the shelf life of the food✔ by  
• Preventing or slowing down the spoilage caused by micro organisms/bacterial growth/protecting it against deterioration  caused by micro-organisms.✔ 
• Preserves the desirable colour and flavour.✔ (Any 2) (2) Understanding, easy
  (Focus, page 94; Successful, page 113) 

3.3.4 Explain why cow’s milk, wheat, gluten and egg are separately listed  on the label. 

• They are listed separately so that consumers can easily  recognise✔as they may cause allergic reactions✔that could be severe/life threatening.✔ (Any 2) (2) 

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 79; Successful, page 92) 
3.3.5 Identify the ingredient that has been treated with short waves to  eliminate or reduce the number of pathogenic bacteria and other  harmful organisms. 

• Mustard powder.✔ (1)
  Understanding, easy (Focus, page 105; Successful, page 127) 

3.3.6 Suggest TWO guidelines that must be followed by a consumer  before eating this dish to prevent the transmission of food-borne  diseases. 

• Wash hands thoroughly✔ before handling/opening/heating  the dish. 
• Heat to a high enough internal temperature/heat properly.✔ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 87-88, Successful, page 103,106, 108, 109)

3.3.7 Explain why this dish is suitable for the management of  osteoporosis. 

• The dish contains milk that is rich in calcium✓ and cheddar cheese that is high in calcium.✓ 
• The calcium will contribute to strengthening the  bones/increase bone mass✓ and slow down/reduce bone  loss.✓ 
• The milk contains vitamin D✓ and the cheddar cheese  contains vitamin D✓ which assists with the absorption of  calcium.✓ 
• The dish contains protein which is necessary for normal  collagen synthesis✓ and this will strengthen the bones.✓  (Any 6) (6) 

Applying, moderate (Focus, page 76; Successful, page 90) 
3.3.8 Suggest a side dish to be served with this dish to make it more  suitable for a consumer who has high blood cholesterol levels. 

• Steamed/grilled/roasted vegetables✓ 
• Fresh salad (with no creamy dressing such as mayonnaise)✔  (Any 1) (1) 

Applying, moderate (Focus, page 75; Successful, page 85) 
3.3.9 Evaluate the suitability of this dish for a consumer who wants to  manage obesity.  

• The dish is high in energy/kilojoules✔ which is not good if a  person wants to lose weight.✔ 
• The dish is fairly high in refined carbohydrates/starch (pasta)✔ that contributes to the energy value.✔ 
• The dish contains no sugar✔ which is good as sugar provides  unnecessary kilojoules.✔ 
• The dish has a low fibre content✔ which is not good✔ as fibre  slows down digestion/delays a feeling of hunger.✔ 
• The dish contains bacon/cheddar cheese that is high in fat/  dish has a high fat content.✔ This will not contribute to  weight loss as fat provides many kilojoules.✔ 
• The dish contains very little/no vegetables.✔ (Any 9) 
• Conclusion: The dish is not suitable✔ for a consumer who  wants to manage obesity due to the high fat content. (1) (10)  

Evaluating, moderate (Focus, page 83; Successful, page 98) [40]

QUESTION 4: CLOTHING 
4.1 Name TWO economic factors that have an influence on fashion change. 

• Recession✔ 
• Depression✔ 
• Consumer income/wealth/poverty✔ 
• Inflation✔ (Any 2) (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 49; Successful, page 53) 

4.2 Explain the term sustainable textiles. 

• Textiles that are grown/produced/manufactured in an environmentally  friendly way.✓ 
• Made from a renewable resource such as a plant that yields a good  crop✓ and requires little water/resources are not depleted/permanently  damaged when the product is manufactured.✓ 
• Few chemicals are used✓ during the growth of the plant and the  processing of the textile. 
• At the end of the life of the textile it does not become useless waste.✓  The product is decomposed/biodegradable✓ or it can be separated to  be reused as raw materials for new products.✓ (Any 3) (3)
  Remembering, moderate (Focus, page 62-63; Successful, page 68) 

4.3 Discuss THREE guidelines for the choice of colour when selecting garments  for a working wardrobe.  

• The neutral colours (black/grey/navy/beige/cream/brown) go well with  many other colours.✔ 
• Most of the basic garments should be in neutral colours/start with a  basic colour.✔ 
• A scarf/belt/jewellery in colour can improve an outfit/give it a fresh  look/add interest.✔ 
• Choose colours that complement your complexion/skin tone/  colouring.✔ 
• Black is a serviceable choice/black can be used for formal and smart  wear as well.✔ (Any 3) (3)
  Understanding, easy (Focus, page 57; Successful, page 59, 61)s 

4.4 Discuss the role of technology in fashion change. 

• The development of new textiles brings/accelerates changes✔ in  fashion. 
• New fabrics with new characteristics such as improved elasticity/ stretch  fabrics✔ brought changes in the style/fit of garments.✔This made body hugging garments comfortable and allowed free  movement,✔encouraging fashion change. 
• Biotechnology✔ and nanotechnology✔ opened up a range of fabrics  with special characteristics✔ for specific purposes, such as  sportswear✔this promoted new fashion and thus change. 
• Developments in the manufacturing industry, for example, computerised  pattern-design methods✔ and improved knitting/sewing machines,✔ have speeded up the manufacturing process✔and the desire for new  items causing fashion change. 
• Easier communication✔ has an impact on fashion changes. The latest  overseas fashion trends can immediately be viewed via reality TV  programmes/social media (Facebook)✔ promoting fashion change.  
• Improved distribution methods (faster moving transport/computerized  stock systems/delivery strategies/courier services)✔ bring new fashion  garments to our stores within days✔thus promoting fashion change. (Any 5) (5)

Understanding, difficult (Focus, page 51; Successful, page 54) 
4.5.1 State whether this outfit mainly represents fashion fads, fashion  classics or contemporary fashion. 

• Fashion classics✔ (1)
  Applying, easy (Focus, page 49; Successful, page 51) 

4.5.2 Give TWO reasons for your choice in 4.5.1 

• The items are timeless/continually accepted/last for many  seasons/remain popular over a long period.✔ 
• Characterised by simplicity.✔ 
• Considered tasteful.✔ (Any 2) (2)
  Applying, easy (Focus, page 49; Successful, page 51) 

4.5.3 Suggest TWO changes to this outfit to make it more suitable for a  man with a professional job who is meeting new clients. Give a  reason for each suggestion.  

T-shirt: 

• Change T-shirt to a shirt with buttons and a collar.✔ 
• Will make the outfit more formal/less informal/more  professional.✔  

Shoes: 

• Change the shoes to brown/black shoes.✔ 
• Will make the outfit more formal/less informal/more  professional.✔ (2 x 2) (4) 

Evaluating, moderate (Focus, page 59; Successful, page 61-62) [20]

QUESTION 5: HOUSING 
5.1
5.1.1 Define the term lease.  

• The contract/agreement✔ between a property owner/  landlord✔ and a tenant.✔ (3) 

Remembering, easy (Focus, page 117; Successful, page 137) 
5.1.2 Suggest THREE cost implications that should be included in a  lease. 

• Paying for own water and electricity consumption✔ 
• Paying for own waste removal✔ 
• Amount of rent✔ 
• Deposit amount✔ (Any 3) (3)

Remembering, easy (Focus, page 118; Successful, page 138) 
5.2 State where a title deed is registered. 

• Deeds office✓ (1)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 128; Successful, page 146) 

5.3 Name FIVE ways in which an employer can support an employee in acquiring a house. 

• Rent out company-owned houses/at a lower rent to employees.✔ 
• Provide monthly housing allowance/subsidy.✔ 
• Subsidise part of the interest on an employee’s home loan.✔ 
• Offer guarantees to lenders on an employee’s housing loan.✔ 
• Help an employee to use his/her pension/provident fund as collateral for  a loan/arranging a home loan.✔ 
• Help with relocation costs.✔ 
• Provide housing consumer education and advice to employees.✔ 
• Help employees by buying building material in bulk.✔ 
• Pay wages/salaries that will enable the employee to pay rent/save  towards buying a house.✔ (Any 5) (5)
  Remembering, easy (Focus page 132; Successful page 150) 

5.4 Explain how paying a deposit influences each of the following when a  property is bought: 
5.4.1 Bond registration fees 

• If a deposit is paid, the bond will be less than the selling  price.✔ This means that the bond registration fees will be  less.✔ (2) 

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 127; Successful, page 146)
5.4.2 Transfer fees 

• Transfer fees will be the same✔ as they are paid on the selling  price of the property,✔ not on the amount of the bond.✔ (3)
  Understanding, difficult (Focus, page 128; Successful, page 146) 

5.5 Discuss why buying a house may be better than building a house. 

• Building can cost more✔ than buying a house. 
• It is expensive to start a new garden/additional cost to start a garden  after construction is finished✔ while the garden is already established  when a house is bought.✔ 
• When buying a ready-made house, the buyer can see the layout/ structure/design of the house,✔whereas he/she may have difficulty  visualizing what the newly built house will look like once completed.✔ 
• Occupying a bought house will take less time than waiting for a house to  be built.✔ 
• If the building work is delayed, the owners may experience a great deal  of discomfort/stress✔ while you know beforehand when you can  move/occupy a house when you buy.✔ 
• Delaying can lead to escalation in building costs which can lead to  financial stress.✓ 
• Managing a building project can be very complicated as quality control  can create a lot of problems✔ 
• Building can be a very time-consuming process.✔ 
• Most new neighbourhoods with open plots are on the outskirts of the  city, far from the city centre/CBD/schools/stores, etc.✔ 
• The house must fit the building codes/regulations of your local  authority.✔ (Any 7) (7)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 121; Successful, page 138)

5.6 Compare the washing machines with specific reference to: 
5.6.1 Washing capacity for a family of five members (2)
5.6.2 Human energy consumption (4)
5.6.3 Water consumption (2) 

Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 137, 143-144; Successful, page 157-158) 
5.7 Validate the statement: “There is an increased demand for rental properties  across South Africa.” 

• Renting is more affordable in the short term✔ for the following reasons:
• Rent is initially lower than bond repayments.✔
• It is cheaper to rent in the short term as tenants have fewer financial responsibilities than home owners.✔ Often tenants do not pay for property rates and taxes,✔ home owner’s insurance,✔ bond insurance✔ or maintenance.✔ 
• Rent is fixed for a specific period✔ and this makes financial planning easier/more predictable.✔
• The interest rate/repo rate has been high✔ and bond repayments are thus less affordable than it used to be.✔
• It is difficult to get a mortgage bond/home loan due to the National Credit Act.✔
• Inflation is high✔ and consumers have less money to save for deposits✔ or for bond repayments.✔ This makes renting more attractive. 
• Movement in job availability demands less need to settle in one place for a length of time. ✔ (Any 8) (8)
  Analysing, difficult (Focus, page 118; Successful, page 137)  [40]

QUESTION 6: ENTREPRENEURSHIP 
6.1 Define the term mark-up. 

• A mark-up is the percentage/amount added to the cost price✔ to cover  overheads/make a profit.✔ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 36; Successful, page 39) 

6.2 State FOUR requirements of packaging. 

• It must be eye catching/attract the consumer’s attention.✔ 
• Should stand out from other similar products/brands on the same  shelf.✓ 
• Should suit the product/convenient size.✔ 
• Should be strong/well designed/convenient/easy to handle.✔ 
• Easy to place on shelves of different retailers.✓ 
• It must be airtight if goods are likely to absorb moisture.✔ 
• Should protect the product/be safe/hygienic.✓ (Any 4) (4)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 30; Successful, page 29) 

6.3 Name TWO components that make up the production cost of a product. 

• Raw material.✔ 
• Overheads/overhead costs.✔ (2)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 36-37; Successful, page 35-38) 

6.4 Name FOUR ways in which producers can ensure that their products do not  have a negative effect on the environment. 

• Use raw materials wisely. ✔ 
• Reduce waste/food waste/waste from packaging/recycle waste. ✔
• Reduce/eliminate the use of poisonous chemicals/toxic waste. ✔ 
• Use solar energy/use electricity wisely/sparingly. ✔ 
• Use water sparingly. ✔ (Any 4) (4)
  Remembering, easy (Focus, page 24-25; Successful, page 25) 

6.5.1 Frieda takes pride in producing quality products. Explain how she  achieves quality products. 

• There are no defects in the products/the curtains fit the  windows/the customers are satisfied.✔ 
• She inspects the products during production at various  stages of stitching and ironing.✔ (2)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 16; Successful, page 22)

6.5.2 Explain the best way to maintain the industrial sewing machine to  ensure continued curtain production. 

• Preventative/routine maintenance✔ means  
• that the industrial sewing machine will be serviced  regularly/parts will be checked and replaced regularly✔ 
• to prevent unexpected breakdowns in production/  unscheduled maintenance.✔ (3)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 25; Successful, page 25) 

6.5.3 Describe how Frieda benefited financially as she progressed from  an unskilled worker to a skilled worker.  

• Frieda was originally an unskilled worker✔ with low level/no  knowledge of fabrics/measuring and sewing curtains/no  skills.✔  
• She received a very poor salary.✔ 
• After years of informal training✔she became a skilled  worker/gained knowledge of fabrics/measuring and sewing of  curtains.✔ 
• She became an expert/experienced✔ in curtain making. 
• She could than work independently/on her own✔and perform work of a high standard/good quality work/workmanship.✔ 
• As her skills improved her salary increased. ✔ (Any 6) (6)
  Understanding, moderate (Focus, page 10, 25; Successful, page 11) 

6.5.4 Describe why Frieda’s business has a competitive edge. 

• She charges her customers a slightly lower price✔ than her  competitor/curtain shop.✔ 
• She gave customers personal/individual attention✓ by giving  advice on suitable fabrics/possible curtain styles✓ for their  individual needs.✓ 
• By buying good quality fabrics for her customers✔ 
• Accurate measuring window sizes✔at customer’s homes  (Any 4) (4)
  Applying, moderate (Focus, page 8; 13; Successful, page 11)

6.5.5 Discuss the following factors that contributed to the success of  Frieda’s business. 

(a) Availability of human skills: 

• She had a colleague✓ who trained her informally and  she gained/improved her measuring/fabric knowledge/ sewing skills to make curtains.✔ (2) 

(b) Availability of workspace: 

• She set up a functional sewing room in an empty  bedroom in her house.✔ (1) 

(c) Customer appeal: 

• Customers received personal advice regarding their  curtaining needs.✔  
• Customers paid less for labour than other curtaining  outlets.✓ (2)
  Applying, difficult (Focus, page 10-13; Successful, page 16-20) 

6.5.6 Give valid reasons why Frieda’s business can become a  sustainable profitable business. 

• She made the curtains herself, thus saving on labour costs.✔ 
• She does not need to pay rent for a work space as she works  from home.✔ 
• She inherited existing customers/her target market  increased✔ therefore her business is growing and making a  profit.✔ 
• She started getting huge discounts from the factory fabric shop✔ thus paying less for fabrics✔and making a bigger  profit.✔ 
• After she started giving out business cards/promoting her  business/product/service✔she got even more customers  which further increased her profit.✔ 
• She got a contract with a national hotel.✔ 
• Word of mouth – her colleague referred clients to her.✓   (Any 8) (8)
  Analysing, moderate (Focus, page 35; Successful, page 34) 

[40] 
TOTAL: 200