LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

PRINCIPLES RELATED TO MARKING LIFE SCIENCES  

1. If more information than marks allocated is given
   Stop marking when maximum marks is reached and put a wavy line and 'max' in the  right-hand margin.
2. If, for example, three reasons are required and five are given
   Mark the first three irrespective of whether all or some are correct/ incorrect. 
3. If whole process is given when only a part of it is required
   Read all and credit the relevant part. 
4. If comparisons are asked for but descriptions are given
   Accept if the differences/similarities are clear. 
5. If tabulation is required but paragraphs are given
   Candidates will lose marks for not tabulating.
6. If diagrams are given with annotations when descriptions are required
   Candidates will lose marks. 
7. If flow charts are given instead of descriptions
   Candidates will lose marks. 
8. If sequence is muddled and links do not make sense
   Where sequence and links are correct, credit. Where sequence and links are incorrect, do not credit. If sequence and links become correct again, resume credit. 
9. Non-recognised abbreviations
   Accept if first defined in answer. If not defined, do not credit the unrecognised  abbreviation but credit the rest of the answer if correct. 
10. Wrong numbering
    If answer fits into the correct sequence of questions but the wrong number is given,  it is acceptable.
11. If language used changes the intended meaning
    Do not accept. 
12. Spelling errors
    If recognisable, accept the answer, provided it does not mean something else in Life  Sciences or if it is out of context. 
13. If common names are given in terminology
    Accept, provided it was accepted at the national memo discussion meeting. 
14. If only the letter is asked for but only the name is given (and vice versa)
    Do not credit.
15. If units are not given in measurements
    Candidates will lose marks. Marking guidelines will allocate marks for units  separately. 
16. Be sensitive to the sense of an answer, which may be stated in a different way. 
17. Caption 
    All illustrations (diagrams, graphs, tables, etc.) must have a caption.
18. Code-switching of official languages (terms and concepts)  A single word or two that appear(s) in any official language other than the learners' assessment language used to the greatest extent in his/her answers should be  credited if it is correct. A marker that is proficient in the relevant official language  should be consulted. This is applicable to all official languages.
19. Changes to the marking guidelines
    No changes must be made to the marking guidelines without consulting the  provincial internal moderator who in turn will consult with the national internal  moderator (and the Umalusi moderators where necessary). 
20. Official marking guidelines
    Only marking guidelines bearing the signatures of the national internal moderator  and the Umalusi moderators and distributed by the National Department of Basic  Education via the provinces must be used.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 C✓✓
1.1.2 A✓✓ 
1.1.3 C✓✓ 
1.1.4 A✓✓ 
1.1.5 C✓✓ 
1.1.6 D✓✓ 
1.1.7 C✓✓ 
1.1.8 B✓✓ 
1.1.9 B✓✓ (9 x 2) (18) 
1.2
1.2.1 Endocrine✓ 
1.2.2 Monoculture✓ 
1.2.3 Spermatogenesis✓ 
1.2.4 Prolactin✓ 
1.2.5 Thorns✓ 
1.2.6 Carbon footprint✓ 
1.2.7 Tropism✓ (7) 
1.3
1.3.1 Both A and B✓✓ 
1.3.2 A only✓✓ 
1.3.3 B only✓✓ (3 x 2) (6) 
1.4
1.4.1 Reflex arc✓ (1) 
1.4.2 

1. B - Motor✓ neuron/multipolar neuron/efferent neuron (1) 
2. C - Interneuron✓/connector neuron (1) 
3. E - Sensory✓ neuron/unipolar neuron/afferent neuron  (1) 

1.4.3 

1. F✓ (1) 
2. A✓  (1) 

1.4.4

1. D✓ - Synapse✓ (2) 
2. G✓ - Myelin sheath✓  (2)   (10)

1.5
1.5.1 Anaphase II✓ (1) 

1.5.2  

1. Centriole✓  (1) 
2. Centromere✓ (1) 
3. Spindle fibre✓  (1) 

1.5.3 The chromatids separate✓/centromere splits (1) 
1.5.4  Crossing over✓  (1) 
1.5.5 Reduces genetic variation✓  (1) 

1.5.6 

1. Four✓/4 (1) 
2. 23✓  (1)  (9) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1 

• Corpus luteum✓
• Placenta✓ (2)
  (Mark first TWO only)  

2.1.2 Progesterone levels are increasing✓ (1) 
2.1.3

• High levels of progesterone✓
• inhibits/causes a decrease in the secretion of FSH✓ (2) 

2.1.4 To prevent the growth of a new follicle✓/ovulation during the  pregnancy (1) 
2.1.5

• 39,5 – 21,6✓ = 17,9
  17,9  × 100✓ = 82,87✓/82,9/83% (3)
  21,6

2.1.6 

1.                                              
   • The endometrium/uterine lining/placenta will not be  maintained✓
   • Menstruation will begin✓/the placenta will detach/ she will  have a miscarriage  (2) 
2. Give the woman progesterone supplements✓ (1)  (12) 

2.2
2.2.1 Methane✓/CH₄ (1) 
2.2.2 Used as a fuel✓/cooking/heating/light/electricity 
(Mark first ONE only) Any (1) 
2.2.3

• Reduce pests✓/rats/flies
• Reduce bad smells✓/pollution
• To promote decomposition✓
  (Mark first ONE only) Any (1) 

2.2.4 It is full✓/It has reached ground level 
(Mark first ONE only) (1) 
2.2.5 

1.                        
   • Golf course✓
   • Recreational park✓
   • Car park✓
   • Forestry✓
     (Mark first TWO only) Any (2)
2.                                
   • Reuse✓ waste materials
   • Recycle✓ waste materials
   • Reduce the amount of waste produced✓
   • Manufacture more products that can be recycled✓
     (Mark first TWO only) Any (2) (8)

2.3
2.3.1

1. Cerebellum✓  (1) 
2. Cerebrum✓ (1)

2.3.2 Organ of Corti✓ (1) 
2.3.3

• The semi-circular canals/part A contain fluid✓ /endolymph which moves when the person moves✓
• There are cristae✓/receptors present which convert the stimulus to an impulse✓/are sensitive to the  movement of the fluid
• The canals lie on three different planes✓ to detect movement in any direction✓
  (Mark first TWO only) Any 2 x 2 (4) (7) 

2.4
2.4.1

1. Choroid✓ (1) 
2. Sclera✓ (1) 

2.4.2

• The person cannot see✓/is blind in that eye/has no binocular  vision
• because the impulses from the retina cannot be transmitted to  the cerebrum✓ from one eye (2) 

2.4.3 

• The circular muscles of part A/the iris contract✓ 
• and the radial muscles relax✓
• making the pupil smaller✓/constricting the pupil 
• so that less light enters the eye✓    (4) 

2.4.4  

1.                                                
   • Accommodation will not occur✓
   • The refractive power of the lens is low✓/lens cannot  become more convex
   • and light rays are not refracted/bent enough✓ 
   • and would not be focussed onto the retina✓/would be  focussed behind the retina/a clear image would not be  formed on the retina 
   •  Therefore the person cannot focus on objects that are  closer than 6m✓/the person can only focus on distant  objects
     Any (4) 
2. Convex✓/biconvex  (1) (13) [40]

QUESTION 3 
3.1
3.1.1 
Mark allocation of the graph 

NOTE: 

• If a line graph is drawn – marks will be awarded for the 'title and label for  X and Y axes' only
• If a histogram is drawn – marks will be lost for the 'type of graph and  correct scale' only (7) 

3.1.2

• The sewage/organic litter contains nutrients✓
• The amount of nutrients in the water increases✓/eutrophication  occurs
• causing an algal bloom✓
• The algae cover the surface of the water✓/blocks out sunlight 
• causing water plants to die✓
• thereby reducing photosynthesis✓ 
• and increasing decomposition✓ thus reducing the oxygen  content of the water Any (4) (11) 

3.2
3.2.1 Adrenalin✓ (1) 
3.2.2 

• Increases the heart rate✓
• Increases blood pressure✓
• Stimulates the conversion of glycogen into glucose✓
• Increases the blood supply to the heart✓/skeletal muscles
• Decreases blood flow to the digestive system✓
• Decreases blood flow to the skin✓
• Increases muscle tone✓
• Increases the rate/depth of breathing✓
• Increases the rate of respiration✓/metabolism
• Dilates/increases the diameter of the pupils✓
  (Mark first THREE only) Any (3) (4) 

3.3 

• Blood glucose levels rise✓ above normal
• The pancreas✓/islets of Langerhans
• secretes insulin✓ into the blood
• which travels to the liver✓/muscle cells
• and stimulates them to absorb glucose✓ from the blood
• and to convert the excess glucose into glycogen✓
• which decreases the blood glucose levels✓ to normal Any (5) 

3.4
3.4.1 

1. Volume of urine✓ (1)
2.                                                
   • Decide on a time✓/date/place to conduct the investigation
   • Decide on the apparatus✓/materials that need to be used 
   • Decide how to record the data✓
   • Decide on the number of participants to include✓ 
   • Decide what factors to keep constant✓/example of factor to   be kept constant
   • Decide on the composition of the sample✓
   • Develop an indemnity form for the participants to sign✓
   • Recruit✓/get permission from volunteers to participate
     (Mark first TWO only) Any (2)
3.                                    
   • The same room✓/environment/temperature
   • The same apparatus✓
   • The same investigator✓
   • No other liquid intake by both groups✓
   • Same type of beer✓
     (Mark first TWO only) Any (2)
4.                                            
   • They used a large sample✓/12 men/6 men in each group
   • The average volume of urine produced was calculated✓ (2)
     (Mark first TWO only) 

3.4.2

• Alcohol inhibits/reduces the secretion of ADH✓
• causing the renal tubules✓/distal convoluted tubules and  collecting ducts
• to become less permeable to water✓
• Less water is reabsorbed✓ back into the blood
• A larger volume of urine is produced✓ Any (4) (11) 

3.5
3.5.1 To ensure unilateral light✓/the plant receives light from one  direction only (1) 
3.5.2  Auxins✓/IAA/indole acetic acid (1) 
3.5.3 Differences between plants A and B after two weeks 
T✓ 

(Mark first TWO only) 1 table (T) + (2 x 2) (5) 
3.5.4

• The gibberellins cause the stem/plant to grow longer✓/taller
• because gibberellins stimulate the elongation/growth of the  internodes✓ (2) (9) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
QUESTION 4 
Gaseous exchange in amniotic eggs (A) 

• Gases move by diffusion✓
• into and out of the egg✓ 
• through the porous shell✓/allantois/chorion   

Nourishment of the embryo in amniotic eggs 

• The egg contains yolk✓/albumin
• which provide nutrients✓ to the embryo Max (4) 

Gaseous exchange and nourishment of the foetus in humans (F) 

• In the placenta✓
• the mothers blood comes into close contact with the foetal blood✓
• Oxygen✓
• and nutrients✓
• diffuse from the mothers blood into the foetal blood✓
• in the umbilical veins✓
• This nutrient rich blood is carried to the foetus through the umbilical cord✓ 
• Carbon dioxide diffuses from the foetal blood✓
• in the umbilical artery✓
• into the maternal blood✓ Max (7) 

Protection of the foetus in humans (P) 

• The foetus develops inside the uterus✓
• and is protected by the mothers body✓
• Antibodies from the mothers blood✓
• pass into the foetus' blood and provide immunity✓
• The placenta acts as a microfilter✓
• preventing toxins from the mother entering the foetal blood✓
• The foetus is enclosed in the amnion✓
• which contains amniotic fluid✓
• The amniotic fluid provides protection against dehydration✓
• and acts as a shock absorber✓
• It provides a suitable temperature✓ for the developing embryo

Max  (6) 
Content:  (17) 
Synthesis: (3) 
(20) 

ASSESSING THE PRESENTATION OF THE ESSAY 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

PRINCIPLES RELATED TO MARKING LIFE SCIENCES  

1.  If more information than marks allocated is given
   Stop marking when maximum marks is reached and put a wavy line and 'max' in  the right-hand margin. 
2. If, for example, three reasons are required and five are given
   Mark the first three irrespective of whether all or some are correct/incorrect. 
3. If whole process is given when only a part of it is required
   Read all and credit the relevant part. 
4. If comparisons are asked for, but descriptions are given
   Accept if the differences/similarities are clear. 
5. If tabulation is required, but paragraphs are given
   Candidates will lose marks for not tabulating. 
6. If diagrams are given with annotations when descriptions are required
   Candidates will lose marks. 
7. If flow charts are given instead of descriptions
   Candidates will lose marks. 
8. If sequence is muddled and links do not make sense
   Where sequence and links are correct, credit.
   Where sequence and links are  incorrect, do not credit.
   If sequence and links become correct again, resume  credit. 
9. Non-recognised abbreviations
   Accept if first defined in answer. If not defined, do not credit the unrecognised  abbreviation, but credit the rest of the answer if correct. 
10. Wrong numbering
    If answer fits into the correct sequence of questions, but the wrong number is  given, it is acceptable. 
11. If language used changes the intended meaning
    Do not accept. 
12. Spelling errors
    If recognisable, accept the answer, provided it does not mean something else in  Life Sciences or if it is out of context. 
13. If common names are given in terminology
    Accept, provided it was accepted at the national memo discussion meeting. 
14. If only the letter is asked for, but only the name is given (and vice versa)
    Do not credit.
15. If units are not given in measurements
    Candidates will lose marks. Marking guidelines will allocate marks for units  separately. 
16. Be sensitive to the sense of an answer, which may be stated in a different  way.
17. Caption 
    All illustrations (diagrams, graphs, tables, etc.) must have a caption. 
18. Code-switching of official languages (terms and concepts)  A single word or two that appear(s) in any official language other than the learner's  assessment language used to the greatest extent in his/her answers should be  credited, if it is correct. A marker that is proficient in the relevant official language  should be consulted. This is applicable to all official languages. 
19. Changes to the marking guidelines
    No changes must be made to the marking guidelines. The provincial internal  moderator must be consulted, who in turn will consult with the national internal  moderator (and the Umalusi moderators where necessary). 
20. Official marking guidelines
    Only marking guidelines bearing the signatures of the national internal moderator  and the Umalusi moderators and distributed by the National Department of Basic  Education via the provinces must be used.

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 B✓✓ 
1.1.2 D✓✓ 
1.1.3 C✓✓ 
1.1.4 B✓✓ 
1.1.5 D✓✓ 
1.1.6 B✓✓ 
1.1.7 A✓✓ 
1.1.8 B✓✓  
1.1.9 D✓✓ (9 x 2) (18) 
1.2
1.2.1 Phylogenetic tree✓/cladogram 
1.2.2 Cytokinesis✓ 
1.2.3 (DNA) Replication✓ 
1.2.4 Continuous✓variation 
1.2.5 Biogeography✓ 
1.2.6 Non-disjunction✓ 
1.2.7 Homologous✓ structures  
1.2.8 Heterozygous✓ (8 x 1) (8) 
1.3
1.3.1 None✓✓ 
1.3.2 A only✓✓ 
1.3.3 None✓✓ (3 x 2) (6) 
1.4
1.4.1 

1.  Ribosome✓ 
2.                        
   • W – mRNA✓ 
   • Y – tRNA✓
3. Nucleotide ✓ 

1.4.2   

1. Cytoplasm✓/endoplasmic reticulum
2. Nucleus✓ /nucleoplasm 

1.5
1.5.1  Hominidae✓ 
1.5.2 600✓ cm³ 
1.5.3 1,6 million years ago✓/mya  
1.5.4 

• Taung child✓/ A.africanus
• Mrs Ples✓/ A.africanus
• Karabo✓/A.sediba
• Little foot✓/A.prometheus Any 2 (2)
  (Mark first TWO only) 

1.5.5 Homo sapiens✓ 
1.6
1.6.1

1. Metaphase I✓
2. Telophase I✓ 

1.6.2 

1. B✓
2. C✓
3. D✓ 

1.6.3 Testis✓ 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50

QUESTION 2
2.1
2.1.1 DNA profile✓ (1) 
2.1.2 Q✓ (1) 
2.1.3 All the DNA bands match the DNA bands of the blood on the  broken glass✓ (1) 
2.1.4

• Human error could give incorrect results✓
• Only a small amount of DNA was used✓and may not be reliable
• Framing✓/planting false evidence
• Suspect can have an identical twin✓ with the same DNA profile 
  (Mark first TWO only) Any 2 (2)  (5) 

2.2
2.2.1 Protein synthesis✓ (1) 
2.2.2 Peptide✓ bond (1) 
2.2.3 63✓ (1) 
2.2.4

1. Guanine✓ (1) 
2.                              
   1. CAG✓ (1) 
   2. CCT✓ (1) 
3. CAU✓ (1) (7) 

2.3

• The double helix DNA unwinds✓
• The double-stranded DNA unzips✓/weak hydrogen bonds break 
• to form two separate strands✓
• One strand is used as a template✓
• to form mRNA✓
• using free RNA nucleotides✓ from the nucleoplasm 
• The mRNA is complementary to the DNA✓
• mRNA now has the coded message for protein synthesis✓ Any 6 (6) 

2.4
2.4.1 

1. Autosomes✓   (1) 
2. Gonosomes✓ /sex chromosomes (1)

2.4.2 Male✓ (1) 
2.4.3

• There is a Y-chromosome✓/XY chromosomes
• at chromosome pair 23✓  (2) 

2.4.4

• One comes from the male parent✓ and the other comes from the  female parent✓ 
  OR
• One comes from the sperm✓ and the other comes from the ovum✓  (2) (7)

2.5 
2.6
2.6.1 Dihybrid✓ cross 
2.6.2

1. Black✓
2. Black without white patches✓
3. Grey with white patches✓ 

2.6.3

• They can be homozygous dominant for coat colour✓/ have the  genotype BBtt
• or heterozygous for coat colour✓/have the genotype Bbtt 

2.6.4

• Alleles of a gene for one characteristic segregate independently✓
• of the alleles of a gene for another characteristic✓
• The alleles for each gene will therefore come together randomly✓ during gamete formation  [40]

QUESTION 3
3.1
3.1.1 

• Stem cells are undifferentiated✓
• and have the potential to develop into any type of cell✓
• to replace the nerve cells that are damaged✓  (3) 

3.1.2

• An embryo is a potential life✓/could develop into a baby
• It poses moral or ethical issues✓ 
  OR
• Umbilical cords are discarded✓
• Do not pose a moral or ethical issue✓ (2) (5) 

3.2
3.2.1 One✓/ 1 (1) 
3.2.2 Mrs Thomas✓ (1) 
3.2.3

• The child has the genotype ii✓/ is homozygous recessive and 
• if both parents are heterozygous✓/ have the genotypes IAi or IBi 
• she inherits one recessive allele from each parent✓ (3) (5) 

3.3 
3.3.1 Bipedal✓ (1) 
3.3.2 A✓ and B✓ (2) 
(Mark first TWO only) 
3.3.3 Both have a short✓and wide✓ pelvis (2) 
3.3.4 Less curved spine✓/C-shaped spine (1) 
(Mark first ONE only) (6) 
3.4  Differences between the skulls  
T✓ 

(Mark first THREE only) Table1+ Any 3 x 2 (7) 
3.5
3.5.1 

• Obtain permission from the relevant authority✓
• Plan when to do the investigation✓
• Get all the equipment✓ 
• Decide where to obtain shrimp cysts✓
• Decide on the different concentrations of solution to use✓
• Decide on how to record the data✓
• Decide on where to do the investigation✓ Any 2
  (Mark first TWO only) 

3.5.2 

1. Salt concentration✓
2. Number of cysts that hatched/ percentage of cysts   hatched✓ 

3.5.3

• % Hatched = [¹/₅₃] ✓ × 100✓ 
   = 1,9✓% (accept range 1,88 to 2)  

3.5.4

• Temperature✓
• The volume of solution✓ used/30ml solution was used
• Duration✓/the amount of time/ left the beakers for 48 hours
• Cysts from the same type of shrimp✓ Any 3
  (Mark first THREE only) 

3.5.5 1%✓salt solution 
3.5.6

• There was variation amongst the brine shrimp✓
• Some had the ability to produce cysts✓
• and some did not✓
• When the salt concentration became unfavourable✓
• the brine shrimp which were unable to produce cysts died✓
• Those which were able to produce cysts survived✓
• and reproduced✓
• The allele for producing cysts was passed on to   their offspring✓
• The next generation therefore had a higher proportion of  brine shrimp with the ability to produce cysts✓ Any 6 (17) [40] 

TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C  
QUESTION 4 
Mutations (Mu) 

• A mutation is a change in the DNA✓/ gene/nucleotide sequence or 
• a change in the number✓/size of a chromosome
• Mutations introduce new alleles✓ which results in 
• new genotypes✓ and hence
• new phenotypes✓ from one generation to another Any 4 (4) 

Meiosis (M) 

• In prophase I✓ of meiosis
• crossing over✓ occurs 
• between homologous chromosomes✓
• resulting in the exchange of genetic material✓
• leading to chromosomes with a mixture of maternal and paternal  genetic material✓
• In metaphase✓ of meiosis
• random arrangement of chromosomes occur✓
• leading to chromosomes moving into gametes in different combinations✓ Any 5 (5) 

 Role of variation in speciation (S) 

• Speciation occurred through geographical isolation✓
• The original population was separated by the sea✓/a body of water
• and there was no gene flow✓ between the two populations 
• There was variation in neck length within each population✓ * 
• Each population was exposed to different environmental conditions✓ and
• underwent natural selection independently✓
• Over a long period of time the two populations became different✓
• genotypically and phenotypically✓
• When the two populations were mixed again✓
• they were unable to interbreed to produce fertile offspring✓
• thus indicating the formation of a new species✓

*Compulsory 1 + Any 7 (8) 
 Content: (17) 
Synthesis: (3) 
(20) 

ASSESSING THE PRESENTATION OF THE ESSAY 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20 
 GRAND TOTAL: 150

LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions.

1. Answer ALL the questions. 
2. Write ALL the answers in the ANSWER BOOK. 
3. Start the answers to EACH question at the top of a NEW page. 
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
5. Present your answers according to the instructions of each question.
6. Do ALL drawings in pencil and label them in blue or black ink. 
7. Draw diagrams, tables or flow charts only when asked to do so. 
8. The diagrams in this question paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale. 
9. Do NOT use graph paper.
10. You must use a non-programmable calculator, protractor and a compass,  where necessary. 
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A to D) next to the question  numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.9) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.10 D. 
1.1.1 Which ONE of the following is a mechanism of reproductive  isolation?  

1. Extinction 
2. Breeding at different times of the year 
3. Mutation 
4. Independent assortment  

1.1.2 Who formulated the law of use and disuse? 

1. Lee Berger
2. Rosalind Franklin
3. Gregor Mendel 
4. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck 

1.1.3 Which ONE of the following features is found in BOTH humans and  African apes?  

1. Short upper arms
2. Claws instead of nails
3. Opposable thumbs 
4. Small brain 

1.1.4 Scientists made an observation that some species of butterfly are  more numerous during wet summers than dry summers. In order to  investigate this, the next step would be to … 

1. record the results.
2. state a hypothesis.
3. measure the results. 
4. draw a conclusion.  

1.1.5 Which ONE of the following is the CORRECT definition of  a species? A group of … 

1. similar organisms that live in the same habitat at the same time
2. similar organisms that have the same chromosome number 
3. organisms that are similar in size, shape and colour 
4. similar organisms that are able to interbreed to produce fertile  offspring

QUESTIONS 1.1.6 AND 1.1.7 REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW  SHOWING THE INHERITANCE OF HAEMOPHILIA IN A FAMILY. 

1.1.6 Which ONE of the combinations in the table below is CORRECT for  BOTH individuals 1 and 5? 

1.1.7 What is the percentage chance that individuals 3 and 4 would have  a child with haemophilia? 

1. 100%
2. 75%
3. 25%
4. 0% 

1.1.8 A dye stains a particular type of nucleic acid red. When this dye was  used to identify which organelles in a cell contain this nucleic acid,  only the nucleus and ribosomes stained red. 
This result shows that the dye stains structures that contain … 

1. DNA.
2. RNA.
3. DNA and protein.
4. both DNA and RNA. 

1.1.9 Study the diagram below.  

Which present-day finch is LEAST related to all the others? 

1. Woodpecker finch  
2. Large tree finch  
3. Mangrove finch  
4. Vegetarian tree finch (9 x 2) (18) 

1.2 Give the correct biological term for each of the following descriptions.  Write only the term next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.8) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
1.2.1 A diagrammatic representation of possible evolutionary relationships  amongst species  
1.2.2 The splitting of the cytoplasm during cell division  
1.2.3 The process whereby DNA makes an exact copy of itself  
1.2.4 A type of variation where there is a range of phenotypes for the  same characteristic 
1.2.5 The present-day distribution of living organisms 
1.2.6 The failure of chromosome pairs to separate during meiosis 
1.2.7 Similar structures in different species that show modification by  descent 
1.2.8 An individual having two non-identical alleles for a characteristic   (8 x 1) (8) 
1.3 Indicate whether each of the descriptions in COLUMN I apply to A ONLY,  B ONLY, BOTH A AND B or NONE of the items in COLUMN II. Write A only,  B only, both A and B or none next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.3)  in the ANSWER BOOK. 

 (3 x 2) (6) 

1.4 The diagram below represents the process of translation. 

1.4.1 Name: 

1. Organelle X (1)
2. Molecules W and Y (2)  
3. The monomer of molecule W  (1)

1.4.2 Where in the cell is: 

1. Organelle X found (1) 
2. Molecule W formed  (1) (6) 

1.5 Study the graph below. 

1.5.1 Name the family to which all these species belong. (1) 
1.5.2 What is the largest cranial capacity (in cm3) of Australopithecus africanus? (1) 
1.5.3 When did Homo habilis become extinct? (1)
1.5.4 Name TWO Australopithecus fossils found in South Africa. (2) 
1.5.5 Which of the organisms represented above has the greatest range in  cranial capacity? (1) (6) 
1.6 Diagrams 1 to 3 below represent some of the phases of meiosis shown in the  correct order. 

1.6.1 Identify the phase represented by diagram: 

1. 1  (1) 
2. 3 (1)

1.6.2 Give the LETTER only of the part that: 

1. Contains DNA  (1) 
2. Attaches to the centromeres of chromosomes   (1) 
3. Forms the spindle fibres    (1) 

1.6.3 Name the organ in a human male where meiosis occurs. (1) (6) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50 

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2 
2.1 When a thief broke into a car he cut his arm on the broken glass. Scientists  extracted DNA from the blood found on the broken glass. They analysed this  DNA sample and compared it to the DNA from three suspects, P, Q and R.  
The table below shows the results of the analysis for the DNA from each  source. 

2.1.1 What do the diagrams above represent? (1) 
2.1.2 Which suspect is most likely the thief? (1) 
2.1.3 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.1.2. (1) 
2.1.4 State TWO possible disadvantages of using this evidence in a court  of law. (2) (5) 
2.2 Insulin is one of the hormones responsible for the control of blood  glucose levels in humans. It is made up of two long amino acid chains, A and B, which are joined. Chain A is made up of 21 amino acids and chain B of 30 amino acids. 
The diagram below represents the amino acids present in each chain. 

2.2.1 Name the process whereby insulin is produced in a normal human  cell.  (1) 
2.2.2 Identify bond X. (1) 
2.2.3 How many nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule code for the amino  acids in chain A?  (1) 
2.2.4 The table below shows the mRNA codons that code for some amino  acids. 

1. Name the nitrogenous base represented by G in the mRNA  codon CAG. (1) 
2. Read the chains from left to right and give the: 
   1. Codon for the fourth amino acid in chain B (1) 
   2. DNA base triplet that codes for the first amino acid in  chain A  (1)
3. Give the anticodon for valine. (1) (7) 

2.3 Describe the process of transcription. (6)
2.4 The diagram below shows the karyotypes of two individuals.  

2.4.1 What term is given to the chromosomes numbered: 

1. 1 to 22 (1) 
2. 23 (1) 

2.4.2 State the gender of individual P. (1)
2.4.3 Give ONE observable reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.4.2. (2)
2.4.4 Each of the pairs shown is a homologous pair of chromosomes.  
State the origin of each chromosome in a homologous pair of  chromosomes. (2) (7) 
2.5 Lindiwe has two sons and she is now pregnant for the third time.  Use a genetic cross to show the percentage chance that this child could be  a boy. (6) 
2.6 In dogs, coat appearance is controlled by two genes; one for coat colour and  one for coat pattern (presence or absence of white patches). 
The alleles for each characteristic are shown in the table below.  

In a cross between two dogs, the four offspring, V, W, X and Y, had the  phenotypes as shown in the diagram below.  

2.6.1 What is the term given to a genetic cross involving two  characteristics? (1) 
2.6.2 Give the phenotype of:  

1. The dominant coat colour (1) 
2. Dog V (1) 
3. A dog that is homozygous recessive for both characteristics (1) 

2.6.3 Explain why all dogs with the phenotype of dog W may not have the  same genotype.  (2) 
2.6.4 The two characteristics are inherited in accordance with Mendel's  principle of independent assortment.  State this principle.  (3) (9) 

[40] 

QUESTION 3 
3.1 Read the extract below. 

3.1.1 Explain why stem cells are suitable cells to use for the treatment of  this patient. (3) 
3.1.2 Explain why some people prefer the use of umbilical cords as a  source of stem cells rather than the use of human embryos. (2) (5) 
3.2 A baby was kidnapped from a hospital immediately after she was born. Fifteen  years later it was discovered that Mr and Mrs Thomas, who were raising her,  were not her biological parents. Mr and Mrs George, whose baby was born  around the same time, claimed that she was their child.  
The blood groups of both families are shown in the table below. 

3.2.1 How many genes control the inheritance of blood groups? (1) 
3.2.2 Name the individual whose blood group shows co-dominance. (1) 
3.2.3 Explain why Mr and Mrs George could possibly be the parents of  this child.  (3) (5)
3.3 In a study to establish the mode of locomotion of some species, scientists  compared the pelvic structure of their fossils. They established that two of  these species had the ability to walk upright permanently. The diagrams (A, B and C) below show the pelvic structure of three species, drawn to scale. 

3.3.1 What term is used to describe organisms that are able to walk  upright permanently? (1) 
3.3.2 Which TWO diagrams above represent the pelvis of the organisms  in QUESTION 3.3.1? (2) 
3.3.3 Explain your answer to QUESTION 3.3.2. (2) 
3.3.4 State ONE feature of the spine of the organism represented by C. (1) (6) 
3.4 Tabulate THREE differences between the skulls of humans and African apes. (7)
3.5 Read the extract below. 

Scientists wanted to investigate which salt concentration resulted in the  highest percentage of hatched cysts.  
They did the following:  

• Prepared salt solutions of different concentrations: 0%, 0,5%, 1%, 1,5%  and 2% 
• Placed 30 mℓ of each solution into one of five beakers 
• Took samples of brine shrimp cysts using a dropper 
• Counted the number of cysts in each sample 
• Recorded this as the initial number of cysts 
• Placed the samples into each of the five beakers 
• Left the beakers at room temperature for 48 hours 
• Recorded the number of cysts that hatched in each beaker  
• Calculated the percentage of cysts that hatched 

The results are shown in the table below. 

3.5.1 State TWO planning steps to consider before collecting the samples. (2) 3.5.2 State the:  

1. Independent variable (1) 
2. Dependent variable (1) 

3.5.3 Calculate the value of X in the table. Show ALL working. (3) 
3.5.4 State THREE factors that were kept constant in order to ensure the  validity of this investigation. (3) 
3.5.5 Which salt concentration resulted in the highest percentage of  hatched cysts? (1) 
3.5.6 Use the theory of evolution through natural selection to explain how  the ability to produce cysts led to the survival of the brine shrimp. (6) (17) 

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 80

SECTION C 
QUESTION 4 
There was variation in neck length in a population of Galapagos tortoises. The original  population from the mainland was separated onto two islands with different  environmental conditions. Many years later it was established that speciation of the  tortoises had occurred.  
Describe how mutations and meiosis lead to variation within a population and the role  of variation in the speciation of the tortoises.  

 Content: (17) 
 Synthesis: (3) 

NOTE: NO marks will be awarded for answers in the form of a table, flow charts or  diagrams. 

TOTAL SECTION C: 20 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

LIFE SCIENCES
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 
Read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions. 

1. Answer ALL the questions. 
2. Write ALL the answers in the ANSWER BOOK. 
3. Start the answers to EACH question at the top of a NEW page. 
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
5. Present your answers according to the instructions of each question.
6. Do ALL drawings in pencil and label them in blue or black ink. 
7. Draw diagrams, tables or flow charts only when asked to do so. 
8. The diagrams in this question paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
9. Do NOT use graph paper.
10. You must use a non-programmable calculator, protractor and a compass,  where necessary.
11. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Various options are provided as possible answers to the following questions.  Choose the answer and write only the letter (A to D) next to the question  numbers (1.1.1 to 1.1.9) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.1.10 D. 
1.1.1 Which part of the male reproductive system secretes testosterone? 

1. Cowper's glands
2. Prostate gland
3. Testis
4. Epididymis 

1.1.2 Which ONE of the following represents the CORRECT sequence of  development in humans? 

1. Zygote ?morula ?blastocyst ? foetus 
2. Morula ?blastocyst ?zygote ?foetus 
3. Foetus ?morula ? blastocyst ? zygote 
4. Zygote ?foetus ? morula ?blastocyst 

1.1.3 A function of the medulla oblongata is to … 

1. control higher thought processes. 
2. regulate blood glucose levels. 
3. regulate breathing.
4. inhibit voluntary movement. 

1.1.4 A disorder of the brain that is characterised by memory loss and  confusion is … 

1. Alzheimer's disease.
2. haemophilia.
3. multiple sclerosis.
4. Down syndrome. 

1.1.5 Which ONE of the following is a part of the ear where grommets  are inserted?

1. Oval window
2. Semi-circular canal
3. Tympanic membrane
4. Pinna 

1.1.6 Depth perception refers to the ability to judge distance. 
An investigation was carried out to determine the effect of using  one eye only or both eyes on depth perception. 
Participants were asked to thread a needle as a test of depth  perception. The number of attempts needed to successfully thread  the needle was counted when using one eye only and then when  using both eyes. 
The results of the investigation are provided in the table below. 

The results of this investigation show that …

1. binocular vision reduces depth perception. 
2. using one eye only increases depth perception. 
3. the number of eyes used has no effect on depth perception. 
4. binocular vision increases depth perception. 

1.1.7 Which ONE of the following refers to a part of the nervous system  that is involved in the regulation of body temperature?  

1. Corpus callosum
2. Cerebellum
3. Hypothalamus
4. Spinal cord  

1.1.8 A person experiences the following symptoms: 

• Loses weight easily 
• Is always hungry 
• Never feels cold 

The most likely explanation for this combination of symptoms is  that the person … 

1. secretes too much growth hormone. 
2. has an overactive thyroid gland. 
3. is diabetic and just had an insulin injection.
4. has an underactive hypothalamus. 

1.1.9 The diagram below represents a cell during the early stages of  prophase I. 

Various combinations of chromosome arrangements are given  below. 

Which diagrams, (i) to (iv), are possible representations of the  chromosomes at the poles of the cell during telophase I of normal  meiosis?  

1. (iii) and (iv) only 
2. (i) and (ii) only 
3. (i) and (iii) only 
4. (i), (ii) and (iv) only (9 x 2) (18) 

1.2 Give the correct biological term for each of the following descriptions.  Write only the term next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.7) in the  ANSWER BOOK. 
1.2.1 The system in the body that regulates processes by secreting  hormones directly into the blood 
1.2.2 The farming practice of growing a crop of a single species only
1.2.3 The production of male gametes through meiosis 
1.2.4 The hormone that stimulates the production of milk in a mother after  the birth of a baby 
1.2.5 Sharp structures found in plants for protection from herbivores 
1.2.6 A measure of the total amount of carbon dioxide emissions of a  person/population/company per year 
1.2.7 A plant growth response to an external stimulus (7 x 1) (7) 
1.3 Indicate whether each of the descriptions in COLUMN I apply to A ONLY,  B ONLY, BOTH A AND B or NONE of the items in COLUMN II. Write A only,  B only, both A and B or none next to the question numbers (1.3.1 to 1.3.3)  in the ANSWER BOOK. 

(3 x 2) (6)

1.4 The diagram below represents a possible 'path' followed by an impulse when  a person touches a hot plate. 

1.4.1 Name the 'path' represented in the diagram.  (1) 
1.4.2 Identify the type of neuron represented by: 

1. B (1) 
2. C (1) 
3. E  (1) 

1.4.3 Give the LETTER only of the part that represents the: 

1. Receptor (1) 
2. Effector  (1) 

1.4.4 Give the LETTER and NAME of the: 

1. Region where the impulse is transmitted chemically (2) 
2. Part that has an insulating function  (2)  (10)  

1.5 The diagrams below represent two phases of meiosis in an organism. 

1.5.1 Identify the phase of meiosis represented in Diagram 1.  (1) 
1.5.2 Identify part: 

1. A  (1)
2. B  (1)
3. C   (1)

1.5.3 State what happens to structure D in the next phase of meiosis. (1) 
1.5.4 Name the process during which genetic material was exchanged, as shown in the diagrams above. (1) 
1.5.5 State the consequence if the process named in QUESTION 1.5.4  does not occur.  (1) 
1.5.6 Give the number of chromosomes present in: 

1. The original parent cell in this organism (1) 
2. A human cell in the same phase as that shown in Diagram 2 (1)  (9) 

TOTAL SECTION A: 50 

SECTION B 
QUESTION 2 
2.1 The graph below shows the concentration of progesterone in a woman's  blood during the early stages of pregnancy. 

2.1.1 Name TWO structures responsible for producing progesterone  during pregnancy. (2) 
2.1.2 Describe the general trend in the change in progesterone levels in  the woman's blood during the early stages of pregnancy. (1) 
2.1.3 Describe the negative feedback mechanism that occurs between  progesterone and FSH during pregnancy. (2) 
2.1.4 State the importance of the negative feedback mechanism  described in QUESTION 2.1.3. (1) 
2.1.5 Calculate the percentage increase in progesterone levels between week 4 and week 14. Show ALL calculations. (3) 
2.1.6 The woman's progesterone level in week 16 was 25 ng/mℓ. 

1. Explain why this woman should be concerned about the decrease in progesterone levels. (2) 
2. Suggest ONE way in which this problem could possibly be  treated by a doctor. (1)  (12)

2.2 The diagram below represents the structure of a landfill site. 

2.2.1 Name the flammable gas that escapes through the chimney. (1) 
2.2.2 State ONE possible use for the gas in QUESTION 2.2.1. (1) 
2.2.3 Give ONE reason for covering the waste with layers of sand at  landfill sites at regular intervals. (1) 
2.2.4 Give ONE visible reason why this landfill site would not be in use  for much longer. (1) 
2.2.5 State TWO ways in which the: 

1. Landfill site could be used after rehabilitation (2) 
2. Amount of waste going to the landfill site could be reduced (2) (8) 

2.3 The diagram below represents a part of the human ear. 

2.3.1 Name the part of the brain that receives impulses from: 

1. Parts A and B (1) 
2. Part C (1) 

2.3.2 Name the receptor found in part C. (1) 
2.3.3 Explain TWO ways in which part A in the diagram is structurally  suited to maintain balance. (4) (7) 
2.4 The diagram below shows the structure of the human eye.

2.4.1 Identify part: 

1. B  (1) 
2. C  (1) 

2.4.2 Explain the effect on a person's vision if part E is cut. (2)
2.4.3 Part D can be damaged by very bright light. Describe how part A helps to protect part D in very bright light. (4) 
2.4.4 In a condition called presbyopia, lenses lose their elasticity and  therefore maintain a constant flat shape. 

1. Explain how this condition would affect a person's vision. (4) 
2. Suggest the shape of the lens that may be prescribed by  a doctor to correct this disorder.  (1) 

(13) [40] 

QUESTION 3 
3.1 The table below gives information about the sources of marine pollution. 

3.1.1 Draw a bar graph to represent the percentage contribution of  sewage, farm runoff, industrial waste and organic litter to marine  pollution. (7)
3.1.2 Untreated sewage and organic litter sometimes flow into dams. Describe how this pollution reduces oxygen levels in the water. (4) (11)
3.2 The endocrine system plays a role in helping a person to cope during a  dangerous situation. 
3.2.1 Name the hormone that is secreted in the person's body in  response to a dangerous situation. (1) 
3.2.2  State THREE effects that the hormone in QUESTION 3.2.1 has on  the body.  (3) (4) 
3.3 Describe the homeostatic control of blood glucose levels in a person who  consumed a drink with a large amount of sugar. (5) 
3.4 An investigation was carried out to determine the influence of alcohol on the  volume of urine produced. 
12 healthy, 23-year-old males of similar height and mass participated in the  investigation.  
The investigation was conducted as follows: 

• The men were divided into two groups of six each, Group A and Group B.
• The two groups ate the same food and did the same exercise for the  24-hour-period before testing. 
• Each group was given the following to drink after the 24-hour-period: 
  • Group A: 1 litre of alcohol-free beer (beer that does not contain  alcohol)
  • Group B: 1 litre of alcoholic beer
• Urine was collected from each man every hour. 

Assume that the volume of urine collected is equal to the volume of urine  produced. 
The results of the investigation are shown in the table below. 

3.4.1 State: 

1. The dependent variable in this investigation (1) 
2. TWO planning steps the investigators had to take before the  investigation could start (2)
3. TWO factors that need to remain constant, other than the  ones already mentioned (2) 
4. TWO steps that the investigators took to ensure the reliability of the investigation (2) 

3.4.2 Based on the results, explain how the intake of alcohol influences  the secretion of ADH and consequently the volume of urine that is  produced by the kidneys. (4) (11)
3.5 The diagram below shows two plants (A and B) at the start of an  investigation. The plants were treated in the following ways: 

• No changes were made to plant A. 
• The apical bud of plant B was removed. 
• Each plant was covered with a box with a single opening, as shown in the  diagram, and placed in a lit room. 

3.5.1 State the role of the boxes in the investigation. (1) 
3.5.2 Name the hormone that is removed by cutting off the apical bud  from plant B. (1) 
3.5.3 Tabulate TWO differences between plants A and B you would  expect after two weeks. (5) 
3.5.4 The diagram below shows plant B seven days after being sprayed  with gibberellins. 

Explain the effect that the gibberellins had on the plant by referring   to the changes observed in the diagram. (2) (9) 

[40] 
TOTAL SECTION B: 80 

SECTION C 
QUESTION 4 
Protection, nourishment and gaseous exchange are important requirements for the  successful development of an embryo. 
Describe how gaseous exchange and the nourishment of the embryo occur in an  amniotic egg and how gaseous exchange and nourishment as well as protection of the  foetus occur in humans. 

Content: (17) 
Synthesis: (3) 

NOTE: NO marks will be awarded for answers in the form of a table, flow charts or  diagrams. 

TOTAL SECTION C:  20 
GRAND TOTAL: 150

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12  
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

ANNEXURE

FIGURE 1.1: STAGES IN THE DEVELOPMENT OF MID-LATITUDE CYCLONES

[Adapted from geography myschoolstuff.co.za] 

FIGURE 1.3: INFLUENCE OF THE PLATEAU ON SOUTH AFRICAꞌS CLIMATE

[Source: https://www.google.co.za/search?biw=1366&bih=613&tbm=isch&sa=1&q=+inversion+on+SA]

FIGURE 1.4: VALLEY CLIMATE 

[Adapted from News24, with examiner's sketch] 
FIGURE 1.5: TYPES OF DRAINAGE PATTERNS 

[Source: http://slideplayer.com/7545408/24/images/30/Stream+Drainage+Patterns.jpg]
FIGURE 1.6: DELTA 

[Source: http://www.pugetsoundnearshore.org/graphics/landforms_deltafan.jpg] 
FIGURE 2.1: PRESSURE CELLS – SUMMER CONDITIONS 

[Source: South African Weather Services]
FIGURE 2.3: TROPICAL CYCLONES  

FIGURE 2.4: COASTAL LOW PRESSURE 

[Source: Examiner's Sketch]
FIGURE 2.5: THE COURSE OF A RIVER 

[Adapted from https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/0/0f/Mulde_%28Fluss%29%2CPrallhang% 2CGleithang.jpg/1200px-Mulde_%28Fluss%29%2CPrallhang%2CGleithang.jpg] 
FIGURE 2.6: HUMAN IMPACT ON THE VAAL DAM 

SEWAGE IN GAUTENG DRINKING WATER  Sipho Kings, 24 July 2015, 00:00

Sitting on the bank of the Vaal Dam is   the town of Deneysville which is being   overwhelmed by streams of human   waste. The billion cubic metres of water   of the dam supply most of Gautengꞌs   drinking water. At fault are the townꞌs   two sewerage-pumping stations and   the wastewater works that should be   cleaning that waste.  Clean water flowing from Lesotho   (through the Highlands Water Scheme)  into the Vaal Dam is polluted so much   that it has to be heavily treated to   become drinking water again. The   majority of municipalities around the   dam are in contravention of the   National Water Act because they are   not preventing the release of unsafe   levels of bacteria like E. coli.

[Adapted from https://mg.co.za/article/2015-07-23-sewage-in-gautengs-drinking-water]
FIGURE 3.2: DATA RELATING TO ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES OF SOUTH AFRICA

[Adapted from Stats SA (historical data) IDC forecasts] 
FIGURE 3.4: URBAN LAND-USE ZONES 

[Adapted from http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/library/policy/army/accp/in0726/image5.gif]
FIGURE 3.5: AGRICULTURAL TRADE 

[Adapted from News24 Wire] 
FIGURE 3.6: WEST COAST SPATIAL DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVE

FIGURE 4.1: RURAL SETTLEMENTS 

[Adapted  from https://images.search.yahoo.com/yhs/search;_ylt=A0LEVvwh_YFZ73sA6rwPxQt.?p=r ural+settlement+patterns and http://rogpalmer.cantabphotos.com]

FIGURE 4.3: INFORMAL SETTLEMENTS 

FIGURE 4.4: ENVIRONMENTAL INJUSTICE

FIGURE 4.5: MANUFACTURING ACTIVITIES 

[Adapted from IDC, compiled from BER data] 
FIGURE 4.6: INFORMAL TRADING

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

MEMORANDUM 

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 
QUESTION 1 
1.1
1.1.1 Polar front (1) 
1.1.2 Wave/Formative stage (1) 
1.1.3 1 000 hPa/mb (1) 
1.1.4 Z (1) 
1.1.5 Occlusion/Occluded stage (1) 
1.1.6

• Clockwise rotation of air (1)
• Subcontinent of southern Africa is visible on the map (1)
• Warm sector facing northwards (1)
• Cold sector facing southwards (1)
• 60°S line of latitude shown (1)
  [ANY ONE] 

1.1.7 Family of cyclones/Cyclone families/Family of depressions (1) (7 x 1) (7)
1.2
1.2.1 permanent (1) 
1.2.2 periodic (1) 
1.2.3 episodic (1) 
1.2.4 periodic (1) 
1.2.5 permanent (1) 
1.2.6 episodic (1) 
1.2.7 exotic (1) 
1.2.8 periodic (1) (8 x 1) (8)
1.3
1.3.1 A (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.2

• The inversion layer is well below the plateau/escarpment (1)
• Presence of a high pressure over the plateau (1)
• Strong subsidence of air which indicates cold conditions (1)
• Moist air from the ocean is being prevented from moving inland (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

1.3.3 A stronger subsiding cold air mass (from the Kalahari HP) descends onto a  weaker (warm) air mass creating an inversion layer (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.4

• There are stronger convection currents reducing the subsidence of cooler air (2)
• It is higher than the plateau during summer months because the interior  experiences higher temperatures (2)
• Weak descending cold air mass thus not pushed very far down (2)
• Kalahari High Pressure Cell not well developed in summer (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

1.3.5 Summer 

• Additional warm moist air is drawn in from the coastal area (2)
• Rising moist air results in unstable conditions (2)
• Rising moist air results in cloud formation over the interior (2)
• Rising moist air results in more rainfall occurring over the interior (2)
• Drop in pressure over land as warm air rises (2)
• Moisture front develops over interior (2)
• Line thunderstorms develop over eastern interior (2) 

Winter 

• Warm moist air blocked off from reaching the interior (2)
• Lack of rising moist air results in stable conditions (2)
• Lack of rising moist air reduces cloud cover over the interior (2)
• Lack of rising warm air results in no/little rainfall over the interior (2)
• Fewer clouds may result in the development of frost (2)
• Increase in pressure as interior is dominated by subsiding air (2)
• Large temperature range as a result of low temperatures at night and higher  temperatures during the day (2)
  [ANY FOUR – must refer to both summer and winter conditions] (4 x 2) (8)

1.4
1.4.1 Located on the valley floor/in a valley (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2

• Pollution is concentrated (1)
• Pollutants are trapped (1)
• Cannot easily be dispersed (1)
  [ANY ONE] (2 x 1) (2)

1.4.3 

1. Anabatic/upslope wind (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.                              
   • Air rises along slopes/Air moves upslope (2) 
   • Air is lighter and warmer (2) 
     [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 
3.  
   Must indicate correct direction of movement by arrow (2) and any ONE descriptive label. (2 x 2) (4) 

1.4.4

• Poor visibility (2)
• Increased traffic congestion (2)
• Increased motor vehicles accidents (2)
• Motor vehicles have a greater risk of hitting pedestrians/cyclists/animals (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

1.5
1.5.1

A – trellis (1) 
B – rectangular (1) (2 x 1) (2) 

1.5.2

A – folded sedimentary rocks/alternating hard and soft rock layers (1)
B – rocks with joints/cracks/faulted rocks (1) (2 x 1) (2) 

1.5.3

1. Both have tributaries that join the main stream at a 90° angle (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
2. In A the main streams follow more or less a straight path and in B the main stream follows an irregular path (90° angles) (2)
   A has more than one drainage basin while B has only one drainage basin   evident (2) 
   Tributaries in A shorter than in B (2) 
    [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.5.4 Short, steep slopes (of anticlines) cause short tributaries and the main river is  longer because it flows along the length of the valley (2) (1 x 2) (2) 
1.5.5

• The river flows along the joints and cracks within the rocks (2)
• It is easier for the river to erode along existing fault lines rather than cutting a new  path (2) (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6
1.6.1 A fan shaped fluvial landform that is formed by deposited material where a river  enters the sea/at the mouth of the river (1) 
[CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.2

• Sand deposits can be seen (1)
• The fan shape (1)
• Distributaries/River splits into smaller streams near mouth (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2)

1.6.3 Distributaries (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.4 River splits up into smaller rivulets as it moves into a gentle gradient, in order to  move around sand deposits that block its path. (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.5

• If the sea bed next to the coastline is too steep/deep, the deposits will be washed away (2)
• Some coastlines have a big tidal range which do not allow material to accumulate  (2)
• Some coastlines have strong ocean currents which do not allow material to  accumulate/easily remove material (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

1.6.6

• Regular deposition of silt makes soils, fertile, which is useful for farming (2)
• Access to water makes it suitable for farming (2)
• Water is available for fishing or aquaculture/fish farming (2)
• Deltas extend the coastline and make more land available for farming (2)
• Suitable for crop/rice farming because crop/rice needs a lot of water to grow (2)
• The land is fairly flat - suitable for machinery (2)
• Flat land ideal to construct transport routes for distributing produce (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75]

QUESTION 2 
2.1
2.1.1 A/low (1) 
2.1.2 B/high (1) 
2.1.3 B/high (1) 
2.1.4 A/low (1) 
2.1.5 A/low (1) 
2.1.6 B/high (1) 
2.1.7 B/high (1) 
2.1.8 A/low (1) (8 x 1) (8)
2.2
2.2.1 F/Surface run-off (1) 
2.2.2 E/Groundwater (1) 
2.2.3 H/Confluence (1) 
2.2.4 G/Drainage Density (1) 
2.2.5 B/First Order Streams (1) 
2.2.6 D/Laminar Flow (1) 
2.2.7 A/Longitudinal Profile (1) (7 x 1) (7)
2.3
2.3.1 East coast (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.3.2

• High sea surface temperatures of 26,5 °C or more (1)
• High evaporation rate (1)
• Condensation releases latent heat (1)
• Unstable atmospheric conditions (1)
• Calm conditions for the vortex to form (1)
• Upper air divergence to maintain a low pressure on the surface (1)
• Between latitudes 5º to 25º S (1)
• Coriolis force is present (1)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

2.3.3

• Strong winds (2)
• Torrential/heavy rainfall (2)
• Storm surges (2)
• Rough/stormy seas (2)
• Damage to infrastructure/property (2)
• Outbreak of diseases (2) 
• Possible loss of life (2)
• Destruction of crops (2)
• Drowning of livestock (2)
• Prepare for evacuations (2)
• Preparation of emergency teams (2)
• Flooding (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

2.3.4

• South Africa is outside of the tropics (2)
• The prevailing wind is deflected from its original path (2)
• The tropical cyclone moves over a colder ocean which reduces its energy  levels (2)
• Protected by Madagascar which reduces the strength of a tropical cyclone as  it passes over the island (2)
• Increased frictional drag reduces the tropical cyclones movement/speed (2)
• Reduced moisture/latent heat weakened the tropical cyclone (2)
• Once the cyclone makes landfall it starts to dissipate (2)
• Dissipation rates are increased further south of the tropics (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

2.4
2.4.1 A weak low pressure system that develops along the west coast (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
2.4.2 It moves southwards along the west coast(1) and eastwards along the south  coast (1) (2 x 1) (2) 
2.4.3 Ahead of the low, offshore winds occur blowing dry air off the land (2) Behind the low, onshore winds feed moisture onto the land (2) (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.4 West coast: cold air is fed onto the land which causes (advection) fog (2) East coast: warm/moist air is fed onto the land causing drizzle (2) (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.5

• Air descends from the Kalahari High towards the coast and it warms  adiabatically (at the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) (2)
• The formation of warm/berg winds increases temperature along the coast (2) Clockwise air circulation brings warm, dry conditions towards the coast (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

2.5
2.5.1 Lower course/plain stage/older stage (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.2 
[(1) mark for the shape; (1) mark for label at A; (1) mark for label at B] [MIRROR IMAGE ACCEPTED] (3 x 1) (3) 
2.5.3

1. Undercut/Outer bank (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2. The water flows faster (faster current) along the outer bank which results   in erosion and undercutting of the slope (2) (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.4

• Water is slow moving (slower current) on the inner bank (2)
• The river cannot carry its load (loses energy), so deposition occurs (2) (2 x 2) (4) 

2.5.5 Slope A 

• River is deeper and canoe cannot get stuck (2)
• River flows faster so canoeist can move at a higher speed/use less energy to  row (2)
  OR 

Slope B 

• River too shallow and canoe can get stuck (2)
• River flows slower so canoeist move at slower speed (2) (2 x 2) (4)

2.6
2.6.1 (One) billion cubic metres (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.2

• Free State (1)
• Mpumalanga (1) (2 x 1) (2)

2.6.3 Lesotho (1) (1 x 1) (1)
2.6.4 Water becomes polluted (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.5

• People get ill from drinking the water (2)
• Causes dysentery/diarrhoea/colon infection (2)
• Water-borne diseases e.g. cholera/bilharzia (2)
• Death from bacteria (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

2.6.6

• Creating awareness (advertising boards) and providing education on healthy  drinking water (2)
• River health programmes (2)
• Consulting and creating public participation around water needs (2)
• Legislation prohibiting pollution around the Vaal Dam (2)
• Fines for not properly maintaining equipment (2)
• Regular monitoring and testing of the water quality (2)
• Implement effective maintenance and renovation of the sewerage pumps and  waste water works (2)
• Long term plan for sustainable water usage (2)
• Implementation and policing of the National Water Act (2)
• Making municipalities accountable for high quality drinking water (2)
• Water purification before released into the Vaal Dam (2)
• Buffering around the Vaal Dam preventing settlement development (2)
• Introducing efficient waste removal around the Vaal Dam (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8)  [75]

SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN  ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 
QUESTION 3 
3.1
3.1.1 C/Break-of-bulk point (1) 
3.1.2 D/Junction towns (1) 
3.1.3 G/Gap towns (1) 
3.1.4 E/Specialised towns OR I/ Military towns (1) 
3.1.5 E/Specialised towns (1) 
3.1.6 B/Central Places (1) 
3.1.7 E/Specialised towns OR F/Resort towns (1) 
3.1.8 A/Mining towns (1) (7 x 1) (7)
3.2
3.2.1 Primary (1) 
3.2.2 Agriculture, forestry and fishing (1) 
3.2.3 General government (1) 
3.2.4 Electricity, gas and water (1) 
3.2.5 Tertiary (1) 
3.2.6 2011 (1) 
3.2.7 1,7% (1) (8 x 1) (8) 
3.3
3.3.1 The movement of people from rural areas to urban areas (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.2

• Drought (1)
• Floods (1)
• Infertile soils (1)
• Soil erosion (1)
• Diseases and pests (1)
• [ANY TWO] (2 x 1) (2) 

3.3.3

• Rural depopulation causes a reduction in labour force (2)
• Insufficient threshold population to sustain basic services (2)
• Closure of businesses/services because of less customers (2)
• Decline in quality of service delivery (2)
• Fewer job opportunities/unemployment (2) 
• Aging population because young leave the area (2)
• Brain drain as educated people leave the rural areas (2)
• Poor use of resources/farm lands (2) 
• Lack of productivity (declining profits) with an older labour force (2)
• Fewer investments due to decrease in buying power (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.3.4

• Higher municipal budgets/more money needed to cater for increased  populations (2)
• Increased pressure on municipal services (or give examples) (2)
• Understaffing of medical personnel (2)
• Not enough specialist for the increased population numbers (2)
• More demand for public transport (2)
• Need to improve/increase infrastructure as population numbers increased (2)
• Increased congestion on the roads/higher levels of traffic (2)
• More accidents/increased rate of accidents (2)
• More demand for low cost housing (2)
• More informal settlements (2)
• Overcrowding as a result of influx of people (2)
• Higher unemployment/lack of jobs (2)
• Higher levels of crime and other social ills (2)
• Higher levels of air/noise/land/water pollution (2)
• More difficult to control waste management (2)
• More landfill sites created resulting in despoliation (2)
• Increased pressure on education/overcrowded schools in urban areas (2)
• More money required to maintain urban areas e.g. policing and creating buffer  zones (2)
• Municipal by-laws must be adjusted (2)
• Increase in service delivery protests (2)
• Increased number of people that are unwilling/reluctant to pay for services (2)
  [ANY FOUR – ISSUE MUST BE QUALIFIED] (4 x 2) (8) 

3.4
3.4.1 Central Business District/CBD (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2

• The convergence of roads from various directions (1)
• Central location (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.4.3

• High density of buildings in a small area (1)
• High rise buildings/sky scrapers (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.4.4 
[(1) mark for the shape of the sketch; any THREE labels, correctly  positioned] (4 x 1) (4)
3.4.5 

1.                                          
   • Buildings are abandoned (2) 
   • Landlords don't want to spend money on maintenance (2) 
   • Many homeless/foreigners/refugees live in the abandoned buildings (2) 
   • High crime rates (or give descriptive examples) make landlords reluctant  to maintain buildings (2) 
   • Constant vandalism that must be maintained (or explained examples) (2) 
   • Occupants cannot afford to pay rent (2) 
   • People that are renting are not prepared to maintain the buildings (2) 
   • This is a mixed function zone (or give examples of different functions that  have mixed) (2) 
     [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)
2.                                      
   • It is the future expansion areas for the CBD/Next to the CBD (2) 
   • Located in the inner city and has high degree of accessibility (2) 
     [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4.6

• Associated with air pollution (2)
• Associated with noise pollution (2)
• Away from higher and middle income residential areas (2)
• Where the land is cheaper (2)
• It is flat land (2)
• Need enough space and room for expansion (2)
• Closer to transport routes (2)
• Nearby labour supply/lower income residential area (2)
• It is situated closer to the raw material (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.5
3.5.1

• Maize (1)
• Sugar cane (1)
• Grapes (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.5.2

• Unprocessed products are in their raw/natural state (1)
• Processed products are when raw materials have been converted into more  useful products (1)
  [CONCEPT] (2 x 1) (2) 

3.5.3

• Lower profits as primary goods sell for less than finished goods (2)
• Some unprocessed goods are perishable (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.5.4

• Low and unreliable rainfall (2)
• Poor quality or infertile soils (2)
• Diseases and pests (2)
• Drought (2)
• Floods (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.5.5 Decline in the number of people employed

• Modern machinery has replaced manual labour (2)
• More commercial farmers use a smaller labour force (2)
• Capital intensive rather than labour intensive farming (2)
• Not enough farming activities as a result of climate change (2)
• Seeking better employment opportunities (2)
• Lower income in farming (2)
• Farmers cannot meet minimum wage (2)
• Exploitation of farm workers (2)
• Seeking better paying employment opportunities (2)
• Natural disasters decrease employment opportunities (2)
• People with chronic illnesses (or give examples) can no longer work 

Likely impact on the people 

• An increase in poverty (2)
• An increase in crime (2)
• Encourage rural depopulation (2)
• Causes more rural-urban migration (2)
• Increase dependency on social grants (2)
• Labour more expensive which raises production costs (2)
• Decrease in the standard of living/quality of life (2) 

Can also have positive impact on people 

• Increased earnings in other sectors (2)
• Improved standard of living (2)
• Entrepreneurial opportunities (2)
• Upgrading of skills (2)
• Higher purchasing power (2)
• Encouragement for better qualifications (2)
  [ANY FOUR – REFER TO BOTH COMPONENTS] (4 x 2) (8)

3.6
3.6.1 Western Cape (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2

• Oil/gas processing (1)
• Rig repair and servicing (1)
• Marine vessel repairing (1)
• Industrial development (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.6.3

• Accelerated growth of oil and gas production in Africa (1)
• More oil rigs passing by the west coast (1)
• More maintenance required by passing oil rigs (1)
• Harbour promotes trade (1)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.6.4

• Limited access to power supply increases cost of electricity (2)
• Dependency on a nuclear power station is a threat to power supply (2)
• Located away from thermal power plants, thus electricity is expensive (2)
• Failing electricity infrastructure (2)
• Mediterranean climate means they have insufficient rainfall (2)
• Fresh water supply is restricted/expensive, pushing up production costs (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

3.6.5

• Increases accessibility (2)
• Transport of raw materials (2)
• Transport is needed for finished products (2) 
• Traffic volume will increase, so the roads need to be upgraded (2)
• To gain access to markets (local and international) (2)
• To attract foreign and local investment (2)
• To promote industrial decentralisation (2)
• To transport labour force to and from work (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

3.6.6

• More job/employment opportunities (2)
• Increase in spending power will lead to more business development (2)
• Attract both local and foreign investors (2)
• Contribute to an increase in the GDP (2)
• Provides greater entrepreneurial opportunities to local communities/SMMEs (2)
• Infrastructure will be upgraded to meet increased demands (2)
• Transport routes will be upgraded to improve network efficiency (2)
• Economy will be decentralised away from the core to stimulate growth in other  areas (2)
• Development associated with the multiplier-effect (2)
• Promote tourism and provide income (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)  [75]

QUESTION 4 
4.1
4.1.1 C (1) 
4.1.2 A (1) 
4.1.3 A (1) 
4.1.4 C (1) 
4.1.5 A (1) 
4.1.6 B (1) 
4.1.7 C (1) (7 x 1) (7) 
4.2
4.2.1 Market/Raw material (1) 
4.2.2 Light (1) 
4.2.3 Bridge (1) 
4.2.4 Ubiquitous (1) 
4.2.5 Heavy (1) 
4.2.6 Market (1) 
4.2.7 Footloose (1) 
4.2.8 Heavy (1) (8 x 1) (8)
4.3
4.3.1 20% (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2

• Lack of space in informal settlements (2)
• Great demand for informal housing which is cheaper/affordable (2)
• Too many people who cannot afford formal housing that chose to live in  informal settlements (2)
• Built in a piecemeal manner, with no planning (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.3.3

• Protest actions that can turn to violence/can lead to violence (2)
• Burning of tyres (2)
• Blocking of roads (2) 
• Littering of roads (2)
• Looting and damaging businesses/shops (2)
• Burning down shacks (2)
• Burning down government/municipal buildings (2)
• Disruption of service provision (2)
• Destruction of infrastructure e.g. water/power meters (2)
• Stoning of motor vehicles (2)
• Illegal marches (2)
• Land grabs (2)
• Picketing outside government buildings (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.3.4

• Exposed to poor service delivery or give examples (2)
• Ill-health due to unhygienic conditions or examples of diseases (2)
• Exposed to hazards and poor weather conditions due to poor housing (2)
• Lack of privacy due to overcrowding (2)
• Exposed to violence and other social ills e.g. prostitution, drug trafficking (2) 
• People lack the necessary life skills, therefore not employed in high end jobs  (2)
• Lack of money restricts people from furthering their studies (2)
• People end up being unemployed (2)
• People are poverty stricken (2)
• Dependent on family and friends (2)
• Due to lower income paid work resulting in more debt (2)
• Cannot afford formal housing (2)
• People possibly tempted to get involved in crime (2) 
• Due to lack of skills, lack of knowledge, lack of access to resources etc.  people are unable to achieve a better life (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) 

4.4
4.4.1 Any harmful substance/condition/activity causing damage to people and the  environment (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.4.2 Air pollution/poor quality of air (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.4.3 They live close to the power stations (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.4

• More respiratory problems (2)
• More skin ailments (2)
• Increase in eye diseases (2)
• Feeling of discomfort and lethargy (2)
• Increased cost for medical care (2)
• Negative impact on small-scale farmers (2)
• Acid rain (2)
• High maintenance costs due to acid rain (2)
• Water will be contaminated/polluted for livestock (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.4.5

• Tall smoke stacks/chimneys to distribute the pollution at a higher level so  that upper winds can disperse the air pollution (2)
• Filters/scrubbers installed in chimneys to clean the air (2)
• Legislation to protect people's environmental rights (2)
• Assistance in legal claims against polluters (2)
• Frequent testing and monitoring of air quality (2)
• Policing and implementing the 'polluter pay' principle, imposing fines (2)
• Compensation to the community for health care (2)
• Relocate poor communities away from the power stations (2)
• Improve housing conditions of the poor (2)
• Create awareness campaigns educating people on their environmental  rights (2)
• Promote clean energy resources (2)
• Create greenbelts to assist with cleaning of air (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.4.6

• Less water for irrigation of crops (2)
• Pollutants from power stations impacts on quality of soil leading to a  decrease in farming (2)
• Reduction in production of crops/scale of farming is reduced (2)
• Production costs of farming increases (2)
• Prices of produce will increase (2)
• Profits for farming communities will diminish (2)
• Shortage of water for domestic water usage on farms (2)
• Some farms become abandoned due to lower yield (2)
• Acid rain stunts the growth of crops (2)
• Increase in food insecurity (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4)

4.5
4.5.1 Negative (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.5.2 Non-metallic mineral products (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.3 Clothing (1) (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.4

• Increased costs of raw materials (2)
• Increased imports (2)
• Illegal imports/Informal trading of illegally imported goods (2)
• Cheap imports from other countries e.g. China (2)
• Clothing industry cannot compete with the imitations and fake/cheap brand  names (2)
• South African labour laws and the minimum wage increases production  costs (2)
• No pride in producing locally made products (2)
• Decreased support for locally made products (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.5.5

• Labour disputes and strikes reduce productivity (2)
• Demand for higher wages increases production costs (2)
• Lack of specialist skills (late arrival/absenteeism) (2)
• Perceived poor work ethic (2)
• Constant absenteeism due to chronic illnesses (or examples) (2)
  [ANY ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

4.5.6

• Acts as economic stimulus (2)
• Creates more employment opportunities/jobs (2)
• Develops a broader skills based labour force (2)
• Higher wages/salaries in manufacturing sector (2)
• People would be able to enjoy a better standard of living (2)
• People would have higher purchasing power which improves the  manufacturing sector (2)
• Broadens/Increases the tax base of the country (2)
• Higher quality products from manufactured goods (2)
• Assists with import replacements (2)
• Encourages the multiplier effect that will strengthen other industries (2)
• Stimulates beneficiation that promotes industrial development (2)
• Attracts more foreign investment (2)
• Export more manufactured goods, will earn higher foreign revenues (2)
• Higher profits gained from manufactured goods (2)
• Stimulates the development of infrastructure (2)
• Stimulated the development of transport networks (2)
• Makes a contribution to the GDP (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.5.7

• Protect local manufacturers (2)
• Liberalisation of trade/free trade (2)
• Focus on the export market (2)
• Encourage import substitution (2) 
• Encourage more foreign investment (2)
• Up skilling of labour (2)
• More stable government (2)
• Introduce government policies (2)
• Subsidise locally manufactured goods (2)
• Get rid of the stigma of corruption (2)
• Increase labour wages (2)
• Greater government investments in the manufacturing sector (2)
• Attend/host trade fairs (2)
• Establish trade agreements/blocs (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.6
4.6.1 Informal trading refers to business activities which are unregistered and do  not pay tax (1) [CONCEPT] (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.2 R485 Billion (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.3 66% (1) (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.4

• It is conveniently located close to customers (2)
• Many people can walk to the informal trader (2)
• Most people lack private transport to travel to formal stores (2)
• Goods are much cheaper than in a formal store (2)
• Mainly sells low order/convenience goods (2)
• Offers them an account (2)
• No set opening and closing times/open 7 days a week (2)
• Group purchasing by foreigners secure discounts (2)
• Small range serviced by a low threshold population/Locals buy often (2)
  [ANY TWO] (2 x 2) (4) 

4.6.5

• Foreign nationals that come to South Africa struggle to find jobs (2)
• Many Foreign nationals cannot apply for formal jobs (2)
• It is easier to start their own informal business (2)
• Foreign nationals are entrepreneurial (2)
• Prepared to take a minimal profit (2)
• Foreign nationals have access to a lot of cheaper goods (2)
• Foreign nationals have formal education but are prepared to do any job (2)
• No restriction on business hours therefore shops can trade longer hours (2)
• Strong work ethic to survive in a foreign country (2)
  [ANY FOUR] (4 x 2) (8) [75] 

TOTAL: 225

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

RESOURCE MATERIAL 

1. An extract from topographic map 3318BC MALMESBURY. 
2. Orthophoto map 3318 BC 25 MALMESBURY. 
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces  provided on the cover page. 
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (3318BC 
3. MALMESBURY) and an orthophoto map (3318 BC 25 MALMESBURY) of a  part of the mapped area.
4. You must hand the topographic map and the orthophoto map to the invigilator  at the end of this examination session. 
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough  work and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper. 
6. Show ALL calculations and formulae, where applicable. Marks will be  allocated for these. 
7. Indicate the correct unit of measurement in the final answer for all  calculations. No marks will be awarded for answers with no/incorrect units of  measurement. 
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator and a magnifying glass. 
9. The area demarcated in RED on the topographic map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
10. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographic map:
    ENGLISH  
    Canal 
    Furrow 
    Golf Course 
    Prison 
    Refuse Dump 
    River 
    Sewerage Works 

MEMORANDUM 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographic map (3318BC  MALMESBURY) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area. Various  options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the  answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question. 
1.1 B
1.2 D
1.3 C
1.4 A
1.5 B
1.6 B
1.7 A
1.8 C
1.9 C
1.10 B
1.11 A
1.12 D
1.13 B
1.14 D
1.15 A (15 × 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 Products from Malmesbury are transported along the N7 national road to  Cape Town.  
2.1.1 Determine if vehicles travelling from Malmesbury to N in block I8 on the topographic map, will drive uphill or downhill. 

• Downhill ✓ (1 x 1) (1)

LINK 2.1.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.1.1.  

• The height of bench marks (132.3 to 113.3) is decreasing from  Malmesbury to N ✓
  Contour lines are decreasing in height towards N ✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

2.1.3 Calculate the distance, in km, from N in block I8 on the topographic  map to Cape Town. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded  for calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your final answer.  
Formula: ActualDistance = Map Distance x Scale 

• 3.1 cm✓ [Range: 3.0 cm – 3.2 cm]
  3.1 cm x 0.5 ✓ 
  = 1.55 (km) ✓ [Range: 1.5 km – 1.6 km]    
  OR
• 3.1cm ✓
  3.1 cm x 50 000
        100 000
  15.5
    10
  1.55 (km) ✓
• Distance to Cape Town = 1.55 + 52 km = 53.55 km✓
  [Range: 53.5 km – 53.6km] (4 x 1) (4) 

2.2 Refer to line O-P that connects contour line 120 at O and spot height 162 at P in blocks I9 and I11 on the topographical map. 
Draw a freehand cross-profile from O to P. 

1.  Use the block below to draw the cross-profile.
2. Use an arrow to indicate the accurate position of the other road on the  cross profile. 
    (2 x 1) (2) 

2.2.2 Give ONE reason why there is no intervisibility between O and P. 

• There is an obstruction between O and P ✓
  There is a high lying area/hill between O and P ✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

2.2.3 If you use a vertical scale of 1 cm represents 25 m to draw the  cross-profile, determine the vertical exaggeration of the cross profile. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for  calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your  answer. 
Formula: Vertical exaggeration =     vertical scale   
                                                      horizontal scale 

•    1     
  2 500
      1   
  50 000
    1     ×  50 000 
  2 500        1
  = 20 times
  OR
• 1 : 2 500    ✓ 
  1 : 50 000 ✓  
    1     ×  50 000 
  2 500        1
  [Give mark if substitution is  not shown in first step]
  = 20 times ✓ (4 x 1) (4) 

2.3 Calculate the magnetic bearing on the topographic map, from the reservoir (Q) in block B5 to spot height 317 (R) in block D8 for the current year. 

• True bearing: 128º ✓ (Range: 127º - 129º)
• Difference in years: 2018 – 2002 = 16 ✓years 
• Mean annual change: 6'✓ W
• Total change: 16 x 6 = 1º36' (96')✓ W 
• Magnetic declination for 2018: 23º21' +✓ 1º36' = 24º57'W ✓ 
• Magnetic bearing for 2018: 128º + 24º57' = 152º57'W ✓ 
  (Range: 151º57'W - 153 º57'W) (7 x 1) (7) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 Malmesbury receives seasonal rainfall. 
3.1.1 Name the season in which Malmesbury receives its highest rainfall.

• Winter ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.1.2 Which weather system is responsible for Malmesbury receiving its  highest rainfall in the season named in QUESTION 3.1.1. 

• Mid-latitude cyclone/Extra tropical cyclone/ 
  Frontal depression/Temperate cyclone ✓
  (Cold front) ✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.1.3 Give ONE point of evidence from the topographic map which  indicates that Malmesbury receives seasonal rainfall.  

• There are many non-perennial rivers/water ✓
• There are many dams ✓
• Many windpumps/reservoirs ✓
• There are canals/furrows ✓
• The index to sheet/map index indicates that Malmesbury is in the  Western Cape ✓
• It experiences a Mediterranean climate ✓ 
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.2 Refer to Abbotsdale, situated in blocks I7 and I8 on the valley floor, on the  topographic map. 
3.2.1 Is the local wind responsible for the cool conditions experienced in  Abbotsdale at night time, an anabatic or katabatic wind? 

• Katabatic ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.2.2 Why does this local wind, named in QUESTION 3.2.1, result in a  high concentration of pollution in Abbotsdale at night? 

• There is more subsiding air during the night which pushes the  inversion layer/thermal belt/pollution dome lower ✓✓
  A lower inversion layer/thermal belt/pollution dome will result in a  high pollution concentration ✓✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.2.3 With specific reference to the topographic map, what can the  Abbotsdale local government (municipality) do to reduce the high  concentration of pollution? 

• They could plant more vegetation/trees in the area/roof  gardens/green parks/green belts (increase afforestation)✓✓
  Do not remove existing vegetation/trees (decrease deforestation) ✓✓
  Relocate the refuse dump further away from Abbotsdale ✓✓
  Recycling of waste ✓✓
  Reduce waste production ✓✓
  Promote the use of eco-friendly products ✓✓
  Educate the community about the importance of reducing the   pollution concentration (candidates can give examples) ✓✓
  Reduce night time activities such as burning, industrial, etc. ✓✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.3 Refer to area T on the topographic map. It shows a dendritic drainage pattern. 
3.3.1 Give TWO characteristics, visible on the topographic map, which  indicates that a dendritic drainage pattern is shown.  

• It resembles branches of a tree ✓
  The tributaries meet the main stream at acute angles/angles less  than 90º ✓ (2 x 1) (2) 

3.3.2 State a characteristic of the underlying rock structure associated  with a dendritic drainage pattern. 

• Rocks with uniform resistance to erosion✓
• Horizontal rock structure ✓
• Massive resistant rocks ✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1) 

3.3.3 With reference to area T, give the advantage of a dendritic  drainage pattern for cultivation. 

• River channels are spread out evenly resulting in all parts of the  cultivated land receiving water. ✓✓
• Water from the tributaries and the river equally available ✓✓ 
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.4 Malmesbury is a central place town according to its main function. 
3.4.1 Give ONE reason visible on the topographic map to support the  statement that Malmesbury is a central place.  

• Transport networks lead from all directions to Malmesbury making  it accessible to the surrounding areas ✓✓
• Malmesbury has urban services (candidates may give examples of  urban services) ✓✓
• Malmesbury is surrounded by farms which require urban services ✓✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

3.4.2 Malmesbury experienced urban expansion, resulting in a change in  the towns' original shape.  

1. State the shape of Malmesbury visible on the topographic  map. 
   •  Stellar/Star shaped ✓ (1 x  (1) (1)
2. Give the main factor responsible for the current shape of  Malmesbury? 
   • Transport networks/Roads/Railway lines ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.4.3 Which physical (natural) factor may limit the expansion of Malmesbury in a south-easterly direction into block H12? 

• Steep gradient ✓✓
• Hilly area ✓✓ 
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2)

3.5 Refer to area 4 on the orthophoto map. 
3.5.1 Area 4 is being prepared for the planting of an agricultural product.  Name the agricultural product that will be planted in area 4. 

• Grapes ✓ (1 x 1) (1) 

3.5.2 State the main secondary activity in Malmesbury associated with  the agricultural product named in QUESTION 3.5.1.  

• Wine production ✓
• Grape juice production ✓
• Raisins processing ✓
• Grape seed oil processing ✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 1) (1)

3.5.3 Suggest how the secondary activity stated in QUESTION 3.5.2 can  improve the local economy of Malmesbury.  

• Malmesbury can have a wine festival ✓✓
• Tours can be organised through the vineyards and wineries ✓✓
• They could have wine tasting tours ✓✓
• Tourists bring money into the town ✓✓
• Jobs are created (in manufacturing of grape products/processing) ✓✓
• Export of grape products will boost the local economy ✓✓
• Improved infrastructure attracts business (can give examples) ✓✓
• Multiplier effect will result in more economic development ✓✓
• Selling grape products (can give examples) to the locals/tourists  ✓✓
  [Any TWO] (2 x 2) (4) [25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to the orthophoto map.  
4.1.1 State the difference between spatial and attribute data. 

• Spatial Data: The location (and shape) of a feature✓
  [Concept]
• Attribute Data: Refers to the description/characteristics (further  information) of the location (and shape) of a feature (spatial data)✓
  [Concept] (2 x 1) (2) 

4.1.2 The N7 national road is a tarred road. Would you consider this  information to be spatial or attribute data? 

• Attribute data ✓ (1 x 1) (1)

LINK 4.1.3 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 4.1.2 

• It gives descriptions/characteristics (further information) regarding the type of road ✓✓
• It gives the description/characteristic (further information) about the  road being tarred ✓✓ 
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2) 

4.2 Refer to blocks C4, D3, D4 and D5 on the topographic map showing an  example of buffering. (S points to areas of buffering.) 
4.2.1 What is buffering? 

• It is the demarcation of an area around/along a feature ✓
  [Concept] (1 x 1) (1) 

4.2.2 Explain the positive impact that buffering will have on  environmental sustainability in the area. 

• By avoiding human activities along the river it will assist in  maintaining the biodiversity of the river ✓✓
• It will reduce amount of chemicals/fertilizers/pollutants entering into  the river maintaining its water quality ✓✓
• River banks protected/stabilised preventing flooding ✓✓
• Flood prevention will limit soil erosion ✓✓
• It will allow the river to maintain its natural course ✓✓
• Limit the effect on the natural capacity of the river ✓✓ 
  (Any TWO) (2 x 2) (4)

4.3 Refer to block C11 on the topographic map. 
4.3.1 Define the term data integration.  

• Taking data from different sources and combining it ✓
  [Concept] (1 x 1) (1)

4.3.2 Give examples of the following data layers found in block C11. 

1. An infrastructure layer:
   • Track/Hiking trail✓ 
   • Dam wall ✓
   • Power line ✓ 
   • Furrow ✓ 
   • Farm boundaries ✓ 
     [Any ONE] (1 x 1)  (1) 
2. A drainage layer:
   • (Non-perennial) River ✓ 
   • Dam/perennial water ✓ 
     [Any ONE] (1 x 1)  (1) 

4.3.3 State the relationship between agricultural activities and the  features of drainage layers in block C11.  

• The dams are situated close to the agricultural activities ✓✓
• River/dam provides water for irrigation of crops ✓✓
  [Any ONE] (1 x 2) (2) [15] 

GRAND TOTAL: 75

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

RESOURCE MATERIAL 

1. An extract from topographic map 3318BC MALMESBURY. 
2. Orthophoto map 3318 BC 25 MALMESBURY. 
3. NOTE: The resource material must be collected by schools for their own use. 

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. Write your EXAMINATION NUMBER and CENTRE NUMBER in the spaces  provided on the cover page. 
2. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in this question paper. You are provided with a 1 : 50 000 topographical map (3318BC 
3. MALMESBURY) and an orthophoto map (3318 BC 25 MALMESBURY) of a  part of the mapped area.
4. You must hand the topographic map and the orthophoto map to the invigilator  at the end of this examination session. 
5. You may use the blank page at the end of this question paper for all rough  work and calculations. Do NOT detach this page from the question paper. 
6. Show ALL calculations and formulae, where applicable. Marks will be  allocated for these. 
7. Indicate the correct unit of measurement in the final answer for all  calculations. No marks will be awarded for answers with no/incorrect units of  measurement. 
8. You may use a non-programmable calculator and a magnifying glass. 
9. The area demarcated in RED on the topographic map represents the area  covered by the orthophoto map.
10. The following English terms and their Afrikaans translations are shown on the  topographic map:
    ENGLISH  
    Canal 
    Furrow 
    Golf Course 
    Prison 
    Refuse Dump 
    River 
    Sewerage Works 

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 
The questions below are based on the 1 : 50 000 topographic map (3318BC  MALMESBURY) as well as the orthophoto map of a part of the mapped area. Various  options are provided as possible answers to the following questions. Choose the  answer and write only the letter (A–D) in the block next to each question. 
1.1 The city situated approximately 65 km south of Malmesbury is … 

1. Paarl.
2. Cape Town.
3. Port Elizabeth.
4. Klipheuwel.  

1.2 In the map index of 3318BC, the 18 represents … 

1. 18° south of the equator. 
2. 18° west of the Greenwich Meridian.
3. 18° north of the equator. 
4. 18° east of the Greenwich Meridian. 

1.3 … aerial photographs are used to create the orthophoto map. 

1. Horizontal
2. Satellite
3. Vertical
4. Oblique 

1.4 The contour interval of the orthophoto map is … metres. 

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20 

1.5 When you use the main road in block I11 on the topographic map to travel to  Klipheuwel, you will be travelling in a … direction.  

1. east-south-easterly
2. south-south-easterly
3. west-north-westerly
4. north-north-westerly 

1.6 The source of water available for farming in block A1 on the topographic map  is a … 

1. canal.
2. windpump.
3. river.
4. dam.

1.7 The grid reference/co-ordinates for spot height 167 in block C6 on the  topographic map is … 

1. 33°23'30''S 18°38'30''E/33°23,5'S 18°38,5'E.
2. 18°38'30''E 33°23'30''S/18°38,5'E 33°23,5'S.
3. 18°38'30''S 33°23'30''E/18°38,5'S 33°23,5'E.
4. 33°23'30''E 18°38'30''S/33°23,5'S 18°38,5'S. 

1.8 The land-use zone in which 5 on the orthophoto map is situated is the … 

1. commercial zone. 
2. residential zone.
3. rural urban fringe.
4. industrial zone. 

1.9 The general flow direction of stream J in block D11 on the topographic map is … 

1. north.
2. south.
3. east.
4. west. 

1.10 The buildings at 1 on the orthophoto map is a …  

1. shop.
2. prison.
3. school.
4. factory. 

1.11 The recreational area 2 on the orthophoto map is a …  

1. caravan park.
2. game reserve.
3. golf course.
4. botanical gardens. 

1.12 The natural feature at line 3 on the orthophoto map is a …  

1. spur.
2. gap.
3. saddle.
4. valley. 

1.13 The street pattern at K in block G12 on the topographic map is …  

1. planned irregular.
2. grid iron.
3. unplanned irregular.
4. radial.

1.14 The settlement demarcated at area L in blocks H8 and I8 on the topographic  map is a …  

1. hamlet.
2. city.
3. town.
4. village. 

1.15 The main factor evident on the topographic map, that influenced the site of the  settlement at M in block C2, is the …  

1. slope aspect.
2. perennial water.
3. fertile soil.
4. pasturage. 

(15 x 1) [15]

QUESTION 2: MAP CALCULATIONS AND TECHNIQUES 
2.1 Products from Malmesbury are transported along the N7 national road to  Cape Town.  
2.1.1 Determine if vehicles travelling from Malmesbury to N in block I8 on the topographic map, will drive uphill or downhill.  (1 x 1) (1)
2.1.2 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 2.1.1.   (1 x 1) (1) 
2.1.3 Calculate the distance, in km, from N in block I8 on the topographic  map to Cape Town. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded  for calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your final answer.  
Formula: ActualDistance = Map Distance x Scale (4 x 1) (4)
2.2 Refer to line O-P that connects contour line 120 at O and spot height 162 at P in blocks I9 and I11 on the topographical map. 
2.2.1 Draw a freehand cross-profile from O to P. 

1. Use the block below to draw the cross-profile.
2. Use an arrow and indicate the accurate position of the other  road on the cross-profile. 
   (2 x 1) (2) 

2.2.2 Give ONE reason why there is no intervisibility between O and P (1 x 1) (1) 
2.2.3 If you use a vertical scale of 1 cm represents 25 m to draw the  cross-profile, determine the vertical exaggeration of the cross profile. Show ALL calculations. Marks will be awarded for  calculations. Clearly indicate the unit of measurement in your  answer.   (4 x 1) (4) 
    Formula:  Vertical exaggeration =    vertical scale  
                                                           horizontal scale 
2.3 Calculate the magnetic bearing on the topographic map, from the reservoir (Q) in block B5 to spot height 317 (R) in block D8 for the current year. 
True bearing: __________________________________________________

Difference in years: _____________________________________________

Mean annual change: ___________________________________________

Total change: __________________________________________________ 

Magnetic declination for 2018: _____________________________________

Magnetic bearing for 2018: ________________________________________ (7 x 1) (7) [20]

QUESTION 3: APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION 
3.1 Malmesbury receives seasonal rainfall. 
3.1.1 Name the season in which Malmesbury receives its highest rainfall. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.2 Which weather system is responsible for Malmesbury receiving its  highest rainfall in the season named in QUESTION 3.1.1? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.1.3 Give ONE point of evidence from the topographic map which  indicates that Malmesbury receives seasonal rainfall.  (1 x 1) (1) 
3.2 Refer to Abbotsdale, situated in blocks I7 and I8 on the valley floor, on the  topographic map. 
3.2.1 Is the local wind responsible for the cool conditions experienced in  Abbotsdale at night time, an anabatic or katabatic wind? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.2.2 Why does this local wind, named in QUESTION 3.2.1, result in a  high concentration of pollution in Abbotsdale at night? (1 x 2) (2) 
3.2.3 With specific reference to the topographic map, what can the  Abbotsdale local government (municipality) do to reduce the high  concentration of pollution? (1 x 2) (2)
3.3 Refer to area T on the topographic map. It shows a dendritic drainage pattern. 
3.3.1 Give TWO characteristics, visible on the topographic map, which  indicates that a dendritic drainage pattern is shown.  (2 x 1) (2) 
3.3.2 State a characteristic of the underlying rock structure associated  with a dendritic drainage pattern. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.3 With reference to area T, give the advantage of a dendritic  drainage pattern for cultivation. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.4 Malmesbury is a central place town according to its main function. 
3.4.1 Give ONE reason visible on the topographic map to support the  statement that Malmesbury is a central place.  (1 x 2) (2) 
3.4.2 Malmesbury experienced urban expansion, resulting in a change in  the town's original shape.  

1. What is Malmesbury's visible shape on the topographic map.  (1 x 1) (1) 
2. Give the main factor responsible for Malmesbury's current  shape. (1 x 1) (1) 

3.4.3 Which physical (natural) factor may limit the expansion of Malmesbury in a south-easterly direction into block H12? (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5 Refer to area 4 on the orthophoto map. 
3.5.1 Area 4 is being prepared for the planting of an agricultural product.  Name the agricultural product that will be planted in area 4. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.2 State the main secondary activity in Malmesbury associated with  the agricultural product named in QUESTION 3.5.1.  (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.3 Suggest how the secondary activity stated in QUESTION 3.5.2 can  improve the local economy of Malmesbury.  (2 x 2) (4) [25]

QUESTION 4: GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION SYSTEMS (GIS) 
4.1 Refer to the orthophoto map.  
4.1.1 State the difference between spatial and attribute data. 

Spatial data: __________________________________________ 

Attribute data: _________________________________________ (2 x 1) (2) 
4.1.2 The N7 national road is a tarred road. Would you consider this  information to be spatial or attribute data? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.1.3 Give a reason for your answer to QUESTION 4.1.2. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.2 Refer to blocks C4, D3, D4 and D5 on the topographic map showing an  example of buffering. (S points to areas of buffering.) 
4.2.1 What is buffering? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.2.2 Explain the positive impact that buffering will have on  environmental sustainability in the area. (2 x 2) (4)
4.3 Refer to block C11 on the topographic map. 
4.3.1 Define the term data integration.  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2 Give examples of the following data layers found in block C11.

1. An infrastructure layer: _____________________________ (1 x 1) (1) 
2. A drainage layer: _________________________________ (1 x 1) (1) 

4.3.3 State the relationship between agricultural activities and the  features of drainage layers in block C11.  (1 x 2) (2) 

[15] 
GRAND TOTAL: 75 

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION 

1. This question paper consists of FOUR questions. 
2. Answer ANY THREE questions of 75 marks each. 
3. All diagrams are included in the ANNEXURE. 
4. Leave a line between subsections of questions answered. 
5. Start EACH question at the top of a NEW page. 
6. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this  question paper. 
7. Number the answers in the centre of the line. 
8. Do NOT write in the margins of the ANSWER BOOK. 
9. Draw fully labelled diagrams when instructed to do so.
10. Answer in FULL SENTENCES, except where you have to state, name, identify or list.
11. Units of measurement MUST be indicated in your final answers, e.g. 1 020 hPa, 14 °C and 45 m.
12. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

SECTION A: CLIMATE, WEATHER AND GEOMORPHOLOGY 

Answer at least ONE question in this section. If you answer ONE question in  SECTION A, you must answer TWO questions in SECTION B. 
QUESTION 1 
1.1 Refer to FIGURE 1.1 showing stages in the development of a mid-latitude  cyclone. 

1.1.1 Name the front at 60° S, in diagram X, where mid-latitude cyclones  develop. 
1.1.2 Name the stage of development of the mid-latitude cyclone at X.
1.1.3 Give the lowest air pressure recorded in stage Y. 
1.1.4 Which mid-latitude cyclone, Y or Z, is older? 
1.1.5 Name the stage of development of the mid-latitude cyclone at Z. 
1.1.6 What evidence suggests that the illustrated mid-latitude cyclone is  in the Southern Hemisphere? 
1.1.7 What is the term used to describe mid-latitude cyclones that are  linked to one another? (7 x 1) (7) 

1.2 Choose the correct word from those given in brackets which will make  the sentence TRUE. Write down only the word next to the question numbers (1.2.1 to 1.2.8). 

1.2.1 Rivers that flow all year round are (permanent/periodic) rivers. 
1.2.2 (Exotic/Periodic) rivers flow during the rainy season only. 
1.2.3 Rivers that only flow after heavy rainfall are known as (episodic/exotic) rivers. 
1.2.4 The majority of rivers in South Africa are (periodic/permanent). 
1.2.5 In (permanent/episodic) rivers the river bed is always below the  water table. 
1.2.6 The water table is always below the river bed in (exotic/episodic)  rivers. 
1.2.7 (Periodic/Exotic) rivers flow all year round because they are fed by  tributaries in high rainfall areas. 
1.2.8 (Permanent/Periodic) rivers are characteristic of interchanging seasons of high and low rainfall. (8 x 1) (8)

1.3 FIGURE 1.3 is a diagram showing the influence of the plateau on South  Africa's climate. 

1.3.1 Does sketch A or sketch B indicate a winter condition? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.2 Give evidence from the sketch to support your answer to  QUESTION 1.3.1. (1 x 1) (1) 
1.3.3 How does the inversion layer form in sketch A? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.3.4 Account for the change in the position of the height of the inversion  layer in sketch B. (2 x 2) (4) 
1.3.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining how the  changing position of the height of the inversion layer over the plateau influences the climate in the interior of South Africa during  summer and winter. (4 x 2) (8)

1.4 Study FIGURE 1.4 which is based on valley climates. 

1.4.1 Why was the site of Pietermaritzburg a poor choice for the  development of a city? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.4.2 Give evidence from the article why pollution levels are much higher  in winter. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.4.3 Refer to the 'brown haze' (mixture of fog and pollutants) and answer  the questions that follow. 

1. 1. Name the local wind that causes the 'brown haze' to disappear  after 11:00. (1 x 1) (1)
   2. Give ONE characteristic of the local wind, named in  QUESTION 1.4.3(a), which assists with the dispersal (removal)  of the 'brown haze'. (1 x 2)  (2)
   3. Draw a labelled sketch to illustrate the development of the local  wind that causes the 'brown haze' to disappear. The sketch  must show the wind direction and ONE descriptive label.  (2 x 2)  (4) 

1.4.4 Why is the 'brown haze' a safety hazard for motor vehicle users?  (2 x 2) (4)

1.5 Study FIGURE 1.5 which shows two types of drainage patterns (A and B).

1.5.1 Name the drainage patterns labelled A and B. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.5.2 Name the underlying rock structure that gives rise to drainage  patterns A and B. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.5.3 State ONE of the following: 

1. 1. Similarity between drainage patterns A and B (1 x 2)  (2)
   2. Difference between drainage patterns A and B (1 x 2) (2) 

1.5.4 Why are the tributaries in drainage pattern A short in comparison to the length of the main river? (1 x 2) (2) 
1.5.5 Account for the main streams in drainage pattern B having 90°  bends. (2 x 2) (4) 

1.6 Study FIGURE 1.6 which is an aerial photograph of a delta. 

1.6.1 What is a delta? (1 x 1) (1) 
1.6.2 Give TWO pieces of evidence from the photograph to support the  statement that a delta is shown. (2 x 1) (2) 
1.6.3 Name the feature labelled A. (1 x 1) (1)
1.6.4 Briefly describe the formation of feature A. (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.5 Why are some coastlines not suitable for the development of deltas?  (1 x 2) (2) 
1.6.6 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines and explain why  deltas are ideal for farming. (4 x 2) (8) [75]

QUESTION 2 
2.1 Refer to FIGURE 2.1 which indicate pressure cells and match EACH of the descriptions below with one of the pressure cells, A or B. 
2.1.1 Pressure cell that gives rise to unstable weather conditions 
2.1.2 Air movement is anticlockwise in the Southern Hemisphere 
2.1.3 Associated with cold, subsiding air 
2.1.4 Surface air converges into this pressure cell 
2.1.5 The lowest pressure is found in the centre of the pressure cell
2.1.6 Upper air converges into this pressure cell 
2.1.7 Contributes to the dry conditions over the western half of South  Africa 
2.1.8 Draws moisture over South Africa in summer (8 x 1) (8) 
2.2 Choose a term from COLUMN B that matches the geomorphologic  description in COLUMN A. Write only the letter (A–H) next to the question  numbers (2.2.1 to 2.2.8) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 2.2.9 J. 

2.3 Study FIGURE 2.3, a media report, with the title 'Is South Africa due for a  tropical cyclone?'. 
2.3.1 Which coastline of South Africa is affected by tropical cyclones?  (1 x 1) (1) 
2.3.2 What are the 'current conditions' referred to in the extract that will  result in a low pressure forming in the central Mozambique Channel?  (2 x 1) (2) 
2.3.3 Describe TWO reasons why people in certain parts of South Africa  have been warned to be careful. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.3.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines explaining why  South Africa does not usually experience the expected full impact of  tropical cyclones? (4 x 2) (8)
2.4 FIGURE 2.4 shows a coastal low pressure. 
2.4.1 What is a coastal low pressure? (1 x 1) (1)
2.4.2 Describe the path that the coastal low pressure follows. (2 x 1) (2) 
2.4.3 Why is the air ahead of the coastal low (B) drier than the air behind  the coastal low (A)? (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.4 Explain why different types of precipitation are expected along the  west and east coast as the coastal low passes by. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.4.5 Why are these low pressure systems usually associated with high  temperatures along the coast in winter? (2 x 2) (4) 
2.5 Study FIGURE 2.5, photograph that shows the course of a river. 2.5.1 Which course of the river is represented in FIGURE 2.5? (1 x 1) (1) 
2.5.2 Draw a labelled cross-section showing the difference in the shapes of  the slopes associated with river banks A and B. (3 x 1) (3) 
2.5.3 Answer the following questions with reference to river bank A. 

1. Name the slope associated with river bank A. (1 x 1) (1)
2. Explain the steepness of the slope along river bank A. (1 x 2) (2) 

2.5.4 Give reasons for the sand deposits along river bank B. (2 x 2) (4) 
2.5.5 Explain why a canoeist (someone who rows a small boat) would  prefer to row along river bank A than river bank B. (2 x 2) (4)
2.6 FIGURE 2.6 is a case study from the Mail & Guardian, about the human impact  on the Vaal Dam. 
2.6.1 How much water does the Vaal Dam hold? (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.2 Excluding Gauteng, name TWO other provinces dependent on water  from the Vaal Dam, as shown on the map. (2 x 1) (2) 
2.6.3 From which neighbouring country does South Africa import fresh  water? (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.4 Why has it become necessary to treat the above-mentioned water?  (1 x 1) (1) 
2.6.5 Briefly explain the consequences of unsafe levels of bacteria, like  E. coli, for people that drink the river water. (1 x 2) (2) 
2.6.6 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines suggesting sustainable strategies that the government should implement (put in  place) to solve the problem of water pollution in the Vaal Dam. (4 x 2) (8) [75]

SECTION B: RURAL AND URBAN SETTLEMENTS AND SOUTH AFRICAN  ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY 
Answer at least ONE question in this section. If you answer ONE question in  SECTION B, you must answer TWO questions in SECTION A. 
QUESTION 3 
3.1 Choose a term in COLUMN B that matches the description in COLUMN A.  Write only the letter (A–I) next to the question numbers (3.1.1 to 3.1.8) in the  ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 3.1.9 J. 

3.2 FIGURE 3.2 is a table of data relating to the economic activities of South  Africa.  
3.2.1 Name the economic sector into which agriculture, forestry and  fishing is categorised. 
3.2.2 Which primary economic activity has shown the lowest growth rate during the period 2010 to 2015? 
3.2.3 Which economic activity is projected to show the lowest growth rate  in 2018? 
3.2.4 Name the tertiary activity that has the highest growth rate projected  for 2018. 
3.2.5 Into which economic sector would 'general government' be  classified? 
3.2.6 Which year shows the highest total GDP growth of all economic  activities? 
3.2.7 Calculate the GDP growth rate of finance, insurance and business  services from 2016 to 2018. (7 x 1) (7) 
3.3 The increasing rate of rural-urban migration causes many problems for rural  and urban settlements. 
3.3.1 Define the term rural-urban migration. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.3.2 Name TWO environmental push factors responsible for rural-urban  migration. (2 x 1) (2) 
3.3.3 How will rural-urban migration cause the economy of rural areas to  stagnate (stop growing)? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.3.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines and explain why  pull factors are a burden on urban municipalities (local  governments). (4 x 2) (8) 3.4 FIGURE 3.4 shows a simple sketch of urban land-use zones. 
3.4.1 Identify land-use zone A. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.2 What evidence suggests that land-use zone A has a high degree of  accessibility? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.3 Indicate how the accessibility of land-use zone A impacts on the  morphology of the buildings. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.4.4 Draw a labelled urban profile from B to C. (4 x 1) (4)
3.4.5 Answer the following questions with reference to the transition zone. 

1. Why are the buildings in the transition zone poorly maintained?   (1 x 2)   (2)
2. Give a reason for the high land values in the transition zone.  (1 x 2)  (2) 

3.4.6 Give TWO reasons for the location of the heavy industrial zone.  (2 x 2) (4)
3.5 FIGURE 3.5 gives details about agricultural trade in South Africa. 
3.5.1 Name an agricultural product that is exported in an unprocessed  form from South Africa. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.5.2 State the difference between an unprocessed and a processed agricultural product. (2 x 1) (2) 
3.5.3 What is the disadvantage of exporting unprocessed agricultural  goods? (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.4 Give a physical factor that does not favour agriculture as a future  development path for South Africa. (1 x 2) (2) 
3.5.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines and give reasons for the huge decline in the number of people employed in the  agricultural sector and the likely impact thereof on these people.  (4 x 2) (8)
3.6 FIGURE 3.6 shows the West Coast Spatial Development Initiative.
3.6.1 In which province is the West Coast SDI located? (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.2 Name any ONE economic activity in the extract that contributes to  the growth of the West Coast economy. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.3 Give a reason for the growth of the economic activity named in  QUESTION 3.6.2. (1 x 1) (1) 
3.6.4 Explain why energy (power/electricity) and water security are threats  to industrial growth in the West Coast SDI. (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.5 Why are well-developed transport links important to support the  growth of the West Coast SDI? (2 x 2) (4) 
3.6.6 How will the West Coast SDI contribute to the economic growth of in  this area? (2 x 2) (4) [75]

QUESTION 4 
4.1 Refer to FIGURE 4.1 on rural settlements. Match EACH of the descriptions  below with ONE of diagrams A, B or C. You may choose the same settlement  more than once. Write only the letter (A–C) next to the question numbers  (4.1.1 to 4.1.7) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 4.1.8 A. 
4.1.1 Farm houses are found in a linear shape. 
4.1.2 Farm houses are far apart or scattered. 
4.1.3 Less safe and secure in this type of settlement. 
4.1.4 This shape is influenced by a single road. 
4.1.5 Settlement pattern associated with large commercial farms. 
4.1.6 The shape of the settlement is stellar. 
4.1.7 Individual farmlands tend to be elongated (long and narrow). (7 x 1) (7) 
4.2 Choose the correct word from those given in brackets which will make  the sentence TRUE. Write down only the word next to the question numbers (4.2.1 to 4.2.8). 
4.2.1 Industries that produce perishable goods are mainly (market/  raw material) orientated. 
4.2.2 Food processing industries, like bakeries, are generally (heavy/light)  industries. 
4.2.3 Industries that are located between the source of the raw materials  and the customer are called (bridge/footloose) industries. 
4.2.4 (Ubiquitous/Bridge) industries can locate in any geographic area. 
4.2.5 (Heavy/Light) industry works with large quantities of raw materials and  large-scale machinery. 
4.2.6 An industry that is located close to where its customers live is known  as a (raw material/market) industry. 
4.2.7 A (footloose/ubiquitous) industry can be located near either the market  or the source of the raw material.  
4.2.8 (Heavy/Light) industries are usually located close to the rural-urban  fringe. (8 x 1) (8)
4.3 FIGURE 4.3 is an extract on informal settlements. 
4.3.1 What percentage of residents in South African cities live in shacks?  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.3.2 Give a reason for the dense clustering of shacks in informal  settlements. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.3.3 Outline TWO ways in which shack dwellers often show their growing  discontent (unhappiness) in South Africa. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.3.4 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines and suggest why people that live in informal settlements find it difficult to improve their  standard of living. (4 x 2) (8)
4.4 Refer to FIGURE 4.4, an extract on environmental injustice. 
4.4.1 What is an environmental injustice? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.2 Name the environmental injustice caused by the coal-powered  power station. (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.3 Why are the poor mainly affected by the environmental injustice  named in QUESTION 4.4.2? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.4.4 Discuss TWO negative effects of the environmental injustice  mentioned in QUESTION 4.4.2 on the community. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4.5 Suggest TWO measures that can be put in place to protect this  community from the environmental injustice named in  QUESTION 4.4.2. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.4.6 Discuss the negative impact of the location of the Medupi Power  Station on the surrounding farming community. (2 x 2) (4)
4.5 Study FIGURE 4.5 which shows manufacturing activities in South Africa. 
4.5.1 Does the bar graph show a positive or a negative trend for  manufacturing in 2017? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.2 Which sector of the manufacturing industry improved in 2017?  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.3 Identify the manufacturing activity that had the least growth in 2017.  (1 x 1) (1) 
4.5.4 Give ONE possible reason for the lack of growth of the manufacturing activity identified in QUESTION 4.5.3. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.5.5 State ONE way in which labour contributes to the negative growth of manufacturing activities in South Africa. (1 x 2) (2) 
4.5.6 Why is it important to strengthen the position of manufacturing  activities in South Africa? (2 x 2) (4) 
4.5.7 State TWO measures that can be put in place to improve  manufacturing activities in the future. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.6 FIGURE 4.6 is based on informal trading. 
4.6.1 Define the term informal trading. (1 x 1) (1)
4.6.2 What is the total worth of the South African food market? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.3 What percentage of the figure stated in QUESTION 4.6.2 is  accounted for by the formal trade market? (1 x 1) (1) 
4.6.4 Give TWO reasons for the high turnover (amount of goods sold) that  spaza outlets in townships experience. (2 x 2) (4) 
4.6.5 Write a paragraph of approximately EIGHT lines and explain why  85% of informal traders are foreigners. (4 x 2) (8) [75] 

GRAND TOTAL: 225

PHYSICAL SCIENCES: CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
GRADE 12 
AMENDED SENIOR CERTIFICATE EXAMS
PAST PAPERS AND MEMOS
MAY/JUNE 2018

INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION

1. Write your centre number and examination number in the appropriate spaces on the ANSWER BOOK.
2. This question paper consists of TEN questions. Answer ALL the questions in the ANSWER BOOK.
3. Start EACH question on a NEW page in the ANSWER BOOK.
4. Number the answers correctly according to the numbering system used in this question paper.
5. Leave   ONE   line   between   two   subquestions,   for   example   between QUESTION 2.1 and QUESTION 2.2.
6. You may use a non-programmable calculator.
7. You may use appropriate mathematical instruments.
8. You are advised to use the attached DATA SHEETS.
9. Show ALL formulae and substitutions in ALL calculations.
10. Round off your final numerical answers to a minimum of TWO decimal places.
11. Give brief motivations, discussions, et cetera where required.
12. Write neatly and legibly.

QUESTIONS 

QUESTION 1: MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
Various  options  are  provided  as  possible  answers  to  the  following  questions. Choose the answer and write down only the letter (A-D) next to the question numbers (1.1 to 1.10) in the ANSWER BOOK, e.g. 1.11 D.
1.1  An example of a saturated organic compound is …

1.  ethyne.
2. propene.
3. but-2-ene.
4. 2-chloropropane.       (2)

1.2  When  ethene  reacts  with  hydrogen  gas  in  the  presence     of   a   catalyst, the product is …

1. ethane.
2. ethyne.
3. ethanol.
4. ethanal.    (2)

1.3  Study the structural formula of the functional group below.

The structure above is the functional group of …

1. esters.
2. ketones.
3. aldehydes.
4. carboxylic acids. (2)

1.4 The potential energy graph for a hypothetical chemical reaction is shown below.

What type of reaction is taking place and what are the correct methods to calculate ΔH and E_a? (2)

 1.5 Study the hypothetical reaction below:
2P(g)  +  3Q(g)  →  4R(g)  +  2Z(g)
The rate of the reaction in terms of the number of moles of substance P used up,  is 1  x  10^-3 mol∙dm^-3∙s^-1.  What  is  the rate (in  mol∙dm^-3∙s^-1)  at  which product R is formed?

1. 1×10⁻³
2. 4(1×10^-3)
3. 1×10^-3
      2
4. 2(1 × 10^-3)  (2)

1.6  Study the following reaction at equilibrium at a certain temperature.
2SO₃(g)  ⇌  O₂(g)  +  2SO₂(g)                    ΔH  >  0
Which ONE of the following factors will change the K_c value?

1. Adding more SO₂(g).
2. Adding a catalyst.
3. Increasing the temperature.
4. Increasing the pressure by decreasing the volume.   (2)

1.7  Which ONE of the following represents the products formed during   the hydrolysis of NH⁺₄  (aq)?

1. NH₃(aq)  +  H₂O(ℓ)
2. NH₃(aq)  +  H₃O⁺(aq)
3. NH₃(aq)  +  OH^-(aq)
4. NH₃(aq)  +  OH^-(aq)  +  H₂O(ℓ)     (2)

1.8 Potassium nitrate is used as an electrolyte in the salt bridge of a copper-zinc cell. Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY shows the direction of migration of potassium and nitrate ions in the cell? (2)

1.9 Which ONE of the following shows the electrode where the electrons are gained in an electrolytic cell and the chemical change that occurs at this electrode? (2)

 1.10  The industrial preparation of nitric acid is known as the …

1.  Haber process.
2. contact process.
3. Ostwald process.
4. catalytic oxidation of ammonia.   (2) [20]

QUESTION 2 (Start on a new page.)
Next to each letter, A to F, in the table below is the molecular formula of an organic compound.

2.1 Choose a molecular formula above that represents an organic compound below. Write down only the letter (A to F) next to the question numbers (2.1.1 to 2.1.5), e.g. 2.1.6  G.
2.1.1 A haloalkane   (1)
2.1.2  An alcohol (1)
2.1.3 An unsaturated hydrocarbon    (1)
2.1.4  An aldehyde  (1)
2.1.5A product of thermal cracking of compound C  (1)
2.2 If compound F is a carboxylic acid, write down the following:
2.2.1 The structural formula of a FUNCTIONAL isomer of F   (2)
2.2.2   The IUPAC name of a FUNCTIONAL isomer of F  (2)
2.3  Compound B is a monomer used to make a polymer. Write down the:
2.3.1 Definition of a polymer    (2)
2.3.2 IUPAC name of the polymer   (1)
2.3.3 Balanced equation for the polymerisation reaction    (3)
2.4  Compound A is used as a reactant in the production of compound  D.Name the type of reaction that takes place.   (1)
2.5  State  TWO  changes  that  can  be  made  to  the  reaction  conditions  in QUESTION 2.4 to obtain compound B, instead of D, as product.  (2) [18]

QUESTION 3 (Start on a new page.)
The boiling points of straight-chain alkanes and straight-chain alcohols are compared in the table below.

3.1 Explain the increase in boiling points of the alkanes, as indicated in the table.      (3)
3.2   Explain the difference between the boiling points of an alkane and an alcohol, each having THREE carbon atoms per molecule, by referring to the TYPE of intermolecular forces.  (4)
3.3 Does the vapour pressure of the alcohols INCREASE or DECREASE with an increase in the number of carbon atoms?  (1)
3.4 How will the boiling point of 2-methylpropane compare to that of its chain isomer? Write down HIGHER THAN, LOWER THAN or EQUAL TO. Give a reason for the  answer  by  referring  to  the  structural  differences  between  the  two compounds.   (2)  [10]

QUESTION 4 (Start on a new page.)
Propan-1-ol can undergo a number of organic reactions, as indicated by the letters A to D in the diagram below.

4.1 Write down the type of reaction represented by:
4.1.1 A   (1)
4.1.2 B  (1)
4.1.3 C  (1)
4.1.4 D  (1)
4.2 For reaction C, write down the:
4.2.1 Function of H₂SO₄   (1)
4.2.2  IUPAC name of the organic product    (2)
4.2.3 Structural formula of the other organic reactant  (2)
4.3 Use STRUCTURAL FORMULAE for all organic reactants and products to write a balanced equation for reaction A.  (5)  [14]

QUESTION 5 (Start on a new page.)
Two experiments are carried out to investigate one of the factors that affects the reaction rate between magnesium and dilute hydrochloric acid. The balanced equation below represents the reaction that takes place.
Mg(s)  +  2HCℓ(aq)  →  MgCℓ₂(aq)  +  H₂(g)
In experiment 1 a certain mass of magnesium ribbon reacts with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. In experiment 2 magnesium powder of the same mass as the magnesium ribbon, reacts with the same volume of excess dilute hydrochloric acid. The concentration of the acid is the same in both experiments.
The apparatus below is used for the investigation.

5.1 Define reaction rate.        (2)
5.2 For this investigation, write down the:
5.2.1  Independent variable    (1)
5.2.2 Control variable    (1)
The change in mass of magnesium is calculated and recorded in 2-minute intervals for both experiments. The results obtained are shown in the graph below (NOT drawn
to scale).

5.3 Use the information on the graph to:
5.3.1 Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas produced in experiment 1 from t = 2 minutes to t = 10 minutes Take the molar gas volume as 25 dm³∙mol^-1.     (5)
5.3.2 Calculate the initial mass of magnesium used if the average rate of formation of hydrogen gas in experiment 2 was 2,08 x 10^-4 mol∙s^-1    (5)
5.4 Use the collision theory to explain why the curve of experiment 2 is steeper than that of experiment 1.   (3) [17]

QUESTION 6 (Start on a new page.)
The equation below represents a hypothetical reaction that reaches equilibrium in a closed container after 2 minutes at room temperature. The letters x, y and z represent the number of moles in the balanced equation.
xA(aq)  +   yB(aq)  ⇌  zC(aq)
The graph below shows the change in the number of moles of reactants and products versus time during the reaction.

6.1Define a dynamic equilibrium.  (2)
6.2  Use the information in the graph and write down the value of:
6.2.1  x  (1)
6.2.2  y  (1)
6.2.3  z  (1)
6.3 Calculate the equilibrium constant, K_c, for this hypothetical reaction at room temperature if the volume of the closed container is 3 dm³.    (7)
6.4  At t = 4 minutes, the temperature of the system was increased to 60 °C. Is the REVERSE reaction EXOTHERMIC or ENDOTHERMIC? Explain how you arrived at the answer.   (3)  [15]

QUESTION 7 (Start on a new page.)
The reaction between a sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) solution and a sodium hydroxide (NaOH) solution is investigated using the apparatus illustrated below.

7.1 Write down the name of the experimental procedure illustrated above.    (1)
7.2 What is the function of the burette?                (1)
7.3 Define an acid in terms of the Arrhenius theory.    (2)
7.4 Give a reason why sulphuric acid is regarded as a strong acid.        (1)
7.5 Bromothymol blue is used as indicator. Write down the colour change that will take place in the Erlenmeyer flask on reaching the endpoint of the titration. 
Choose from the following:
BLUE TO YELLOW               YELLOW TO BLUE              GREEN TO YELLOW                                 (1)
During the titration a learner adds 25 cm³ of NaOH(aq) of concentration 0,1 mol·dm^-3 to an Erlenmeyer flask and titrates this solution with H₂SO₄(aq) of concentration 0,1 mol·dm^-3. The balanced equation for the reaction that takes place is:
2NaOH(aq)  +  H₂SO₄(aq)  →  Na₂SO₄(aq)  +  2H₂O(ℓ)
7.6 Determine the volume of H₂SO₄(aq) which must be added to neutralise the NaOH(aq) in the Erlenmeyer flask completely.  (4)
7.7 If the learner passes the endpoint by adding 5 cm³ of the same H₂SO₄(aq) in excess, calculate the pH of the solution in the flask.  (7)   [17]

QUESTION 8 (Start on a new page.)
8.1 Consider the electrochemical cell represented by the cell notation below,
where X is an unknown metal:

Pt(s) | Fe²⁺(aq), Fe³⁺(aq) || X⁺(aq) | X(s)
The cell potential of this cell was found to be 0,03 V.
8.1.1 Write down the type of electrochemical cell illustrated above. (1)
8.1.2 What does the single line (|) in the above cell notation represent?  (1)
8.1.3 Write down the half-reaction that takes place at the anode in the above cell.   (2)
8.1.4  Identify X with the aid of a calculation.    (5)
8.2  A Pt(s) | Fe²⁺(aq), Fe³⁺(aq) half-cell is connected to a Cu(s) | Cu²⁺(aq) half- cell.
Write down the:
8.2.1 Chemical symbol for the electrode in the cathode half-cell   (1)
8.2.2 NAME of the oxidising agent   (1)
8.2.3  Overall balanced cell reaction that takes place in this cell  (3) [14]

QUESTION 9 (Start on a new page.)
The diagram below shows an electrolytic cell used to electroplate an iron rod with COPPER. Solution X is made up of an unknown NITRATE.

9.1 Solutions, such as solution X, are always used in electrochemical cells.
9.1.1 Write down the general term used to describe these solutions.    (1)
9.1.2 What is the function of these solutions in electrochemical cells?   (1)
9.2 Write down the FORMULA of solution X.  (1)
9.3 Which electrode (A or IRON ROD) is the negative electrode? Give a reason for the answer.   (2)
9.4 Write down the half-reaction that takes place at electrode A.   (2)
9.5  Electrode A is now replaced by a silver rod without making any other changes to the cell. After a while, TWO metallic ions are found to be present in the solution.
9.5.1 Name the TWO metallic ions present in the solution.   (2)
9.5.2 Refer to the relative strengths of oxidising agents to explain which ONE of the two ions will preferably be involved in the plating process. (2)  [11]

QUESTION 10 (Start on a new page.)
The flow diagram below shows the steps used to prepare fertilisers X and Y. Labels I and II represent types of chemical reactions and P is a compound.

10.1 Write down the NAME of the reaction labelled:
10.1.1 I    (1)
10.1.2  II   (1)
10.2 Write down the NAME or FORMULA of:
10.2.1 Compound P  (1)
10.2.2  The brown gas  (1)
10.2.3 Liquid C   (1)
10.3 Write down a balanced equation for:
10.3.1  The preparation of fertiliser X   (3)
10.3.2  Reaction I   (3)
10.4 Fertiliser Y is ammonium nitrate. Calculate the mass percentage of nitrogen in fertiliser Y.  (3) [14]

TOTAL: 150

NATIONAL SENIOR CERTIFICATE
DATA FOR PHYSICAL SCIENCES GRADE 12 PAPER 2 (CHEMISTRY)

TABLE 1: PHYSICAL CONSTANTS

TABLE 2: FORMULAE

TABLE 4A: STANDARD REDUCTION POTENTIALS

TABLE 4B: STANDARD REDUCTION POTENTIALS